5 April 2026, Questions & Answers
88 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
88 questions · 0 topics covered · 18 min revision
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This page contains 88 current affairs questions with answers from 5 April 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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88 QsThe Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2026, which declares Amaravati as the sole capital, amends which original Central Act?
- A.The States Reorganisation Act, 1956
- B.The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Andhra Pradesh Capital Region Development Authority Act, 2014
- D.The Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 1954
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the 2026 Bill is an amendment to the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014, which was the original law that bifurcated the state and created Telangana.
Consider the following statements regarding the Amaravati capital issue:
1. The Andhra Pradesh High Court, in March 2022, ruled that the state government lacked the legislative competence to shift the capital from Amaravati.
2. The previous YSRCP government had proposed making Visakhapatnam the legislative capital, Amaravati the executive capital, and Kurnool the judicial capital.
3. The amendment Bill declares Amaravati as the capital with effect from June 2, 2024, the date Hyderabad ceased to be the joint capital.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the proposed three-capital plan was Visakhapatnam (executive), Amaravati (legislative), and Kurnool (judicial). Statement 3 is correct as the Bill seeks to declare Amaravati as capital from June 2, 2024.
According to the article, on which date did Parliament pass the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2026?
- A.March 28, 2026
- B.April 2, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.June 2, 2024
- D.April 5, 2026
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'On April 2, Parliament passed the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2026...' March 28, 2026, is the date the Andhra Pradesh Legislative Assembly adopted the resolution, and June 2, 2024, is the date the joint capital arrangement ended.
What is the primary legal objective of amending the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014, through the 2026 Bill, as per the article?
- A.To increase central government funding for Amaravati's development
- B.To provide statutory backing and prevent future state governments from shifting or splitting the capital✓ Correct Answer
- C.To transfer the land acquired for Amaravati back to the original farmers
- D.To officially nullify the Andhra Pradesh High Court's 2022 judgment
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that 'the State government believed that the only way to prevent a future dispensation from shifting or splitting the capital was to amend the Act.' This is the core legal objective stated, making the capital's location a matter of central statute.
As per the Constitution of India, which Part contains the articles related to Elections and the Election Commission?
- A.Part XIV
- B.Part XV✓ Correct Answer
- C.Part XVI
- D.Part XVII
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Explanation
Part XV of the Indian Constitution (Articles 324 to 329) deals with Elections. This includes provisions for the Election Commission, adult suffrage, and parliamentary authority over election laws, as mentioned in the article's 'Do You Know' section.
Consider the following statements regarding India's energy security as discussed in the news:
1. India imports crude oil from over 40 countries, a significant diversification from a decade ago.
2. More than 70% of India's crude oil imports currently transit through the Strait of Hormuz.
3. India's strategic petroleum reserves currently stand at 5.3 million metric tonnes and are being expanded.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states India now imports energy from 41 countries vs 27 a decade ago. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article specifies that prior to the conflict, 70% of crude was rerouted outside the Strait; currently, 50% (2.5-2.7 million bpd) transits it. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions strategic petroleum reserves of 5.3 mmt being expanded by 6.5 mmt more.
According to the news, what percentage of India's total inward remittances in FY25 came from the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries?
- A.25%
- B.38%✓ Correct Answer
- C.50%
- D.65%
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Explanation
The article's infographic on 'India's Three-Pillar Exposure to West Asia' clearly states that 38% of India's remittances come from the GCC. This is a critical data point highlighting the economic vulnerability to the West Asia conflict.
What is a primary concern associated with the government's plan to rely more on coal-based power to meet peak summer demand, as mentioned in the news?
- A.It will lead to a significant increase in electricity tariffs for consumers.
- B.It may cause curtailment of renewable energy, particularly solar power.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It will result in the immediate shutdown of all gas-based power plants.
- D.It violates India's commitments under the Paris Agreement on climate change.
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Explanation
The article explains that coal-based power plants are operationally inflexible and cannot ramp down easily to accommodate variable solar generation. Therefore, greater reliance on coal, especially when gas-based flexible plants face supply issues, could lead to solar power being wasted or 'curtailed' to maintain grid stability.
The Supreme Headquarters Allied Powers Europe (SHAPE), the military command headquarters of NATO, is based in which country?
- A.United States
- B.United Kingdom
- C.Belgium✓ Correct Answer
- D.France
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Explanation
As mentioned in the article, SHAPE, the unified command structure for NATO operations, is based in Belgium. This is a standard fact about NATO's organizational structure.
Consider the following statements regarding the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO):
1. It was formed in 1949 primarily as a collective security arrangement against the Soviet Union.
2. Its first military operations were conducted during the Cold War in the 1960s.
3. Article 13 of the North Atlantic Treaty provides the procedure for member withdrawal, requiring a one-year notice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states NATO did not carry out military operations during the Cold War, with its first missions occurring in the 1990s (e.g., Bosnia). Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned regarding the withdrawal process under Article 13.
According to the article, what percentage of NATO's defense spending is contributed by the United States?
- A.About 50%
- B.62%✓ Correct Answer
- C.75%
- D.About 15%
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Explanation
The article specifically states that the U.S. provides 62% of NATO's defense spending. The distractor 'About 15%' refers to the U.S. share of the civil budget, also mentioned in the text.
What is the primary legal obstacle within the United States that complicates a potential withdrawal from NATO, as per the article?
- A.A Supreme Court ruling from 2020.
- B.A 2023 U.S. law requiring Congressional approval for withdrawal.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The requirement for a national referendum under the U.S. Constitution.
- D.International court rulings under the North Atlantic Treaty.
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Explanation
The article explains that the Biden administration pushed a law through Congress in 2023 that prohibits the President from withdrawing from NATO without the advice and consent of the Senate or an act of Congress. This is the key domestic legal hurdle mentioned.
The reservation policy introduced by Odisha is primarily based on which constitutional provisions?
- A.Articles 14 and 19
- B.Articles 15(4) and 16(4)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Articles 29 and 30
- D.Articles 32 and 226
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Explanation
Articles 15(4) and 16(4) of the Constitution empower the State to make special provisions for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for SCs and STs. This is the foundation for reservation policies in education and public employment.
Consider the following statements regarding Odisha's new reservation policy:
1. The quota for Scheduled Tribes has been raised from 12% to 22.5%.
2. A new 15% reservation has been introduced for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS).
3. The policy applies to undergraduate and postgraduate medical and engineering courses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the new quota is 11.25% for SEBCs (OBCs), not for EWS. Statement 3 is correct as the policy covers UG and PG levels in medical, engineering, and other notified courses.
According to the news, what is the new number of reserved seats for Scheduled Tribes in Odisha's 44,579 engineering seats?
- A.5,349
- B.7,244
- C.10,030✓ Correct Answer
- D.12,500
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Explanation
The article states that for STs, the number of engineering seats will increase from 5,349 to 10,030. Option A is the old number, option B is the new number for SCs, and option D is a distractor.
What is the primary rationale cited by the Odisha government for increasing the reservation quotas for STs and SCs?
- A.To comply with a directive from the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
- B.To align the reservation percentage with the community's proportion in the state's population✓ Correct Answer
- C.To implement the recommendations of the Mandal Commission
- D.To address the low Gross Enrollment Ratio in higher education
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Explanation
The Chief Minister explicitly stated that the ST population is over 22% but their reservation was only 12%, and the SC population is over 17% with only 8% reservation. Therefore, the quotas were raised 'according to their proportion in the population'.
Which ministry is the nodal agency for regulating foreign contributions to NGOs under the FCRA in India?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Law and Justice
- D.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
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Explanation
The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) regulates foreign donations in the country through the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act to ensure such funds do not adversely affect internal security, as stated in the article.
Consider the following statements regarding the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2026:
1. It proposes to create a 'designated authority' with powers of a civil court to manage assets of NGOs whose FCRA registration is cancelled.
2. It increases the maximum imprisonment term for FCRA offences from one year to five years.
3. It requires State governments to obtain prior approval from the Central government before initiating investigations into FCRA-related complaints.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Bill proposes to reduce the maximum imprisonment from five years to one year, not increase it. Statement 3 is correct as the Bill seeks to amend Section 43 to require prior central approval for investigations.
According to the article, approximately how many associations are registered under the FCRA and receive foreign contributions annually?
- A.Around 14,000
- B.Around 16,000✓ Correct Answer
- C.Around 18,000
- D.Around 22,000
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Explanation
The statement of objects and reasons of the Bill mentions that around 16,000 associations are registered under the FCRA. Option D (22,000) is a distractor representing the annual fund amount in crores.
A primary concern raised by the Catholic Bishops' Conference of India regarding the FCRA Amendment Bill, 2026, is that it amounts to:
- A.Judicial overreach into executive domain.
- B.Excessive delegation of power to State governments.
- C.Executive overreach and undue interference in minority institutions.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Violation of international treaties on religious freedom.
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Catholic Bishops' Conference of India said the Bill amounts to 'executive overreach' and raises concerns about 'undue interference' in the functioning of minority institutions and civil society groups.
Under which Ministry's purview does the Defence Acquisition Procedure (DAP) 2020 fall?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Defence✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Home Affairs
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
The Defence Acquisition Procedure (DAP) is the procurement manual of the Ministry of Defence, Government of India. It governs the capital acquisition process for the Indian Armed Forces.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent initiative for a 1,000-kg aerial bomb:
1. The project is structured under the 'Make-I' category of DAP 2020 for prototype development.
2. The bomb is required to be compatible only with Western-origin aircraft in the IAF fleet.
3. A minimum of 50% indigenous content is mandated for the project.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The project is under the 'Make-II' (industry-funded) category, not 'Make-I'. Statement 2 is incorrect: The bomb must be compatible with both Russian and Western-origin aircraft. Statement 3 is correct as per the article, which mentions a requirement to achieve a minimum of 50% indigenous content.
What is the total number of 1,000-kg aerial bombs planned for procurement under the 'Buy (Indian-IDDM)' category as per the news?
- A.500 bombs
- B.600 bombs✓ Correct Answer
- C.700 bombs
- D.800 bombs
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that a total of '600 aerial bombs are planned to be procured' under the 'Buy (Indian–IDDM)' category in accordance with DAP 2020 provisions.
What is the primary strategic objective behind the MoD's push for indigenous design of the 1,000-kg aerial bomb?
- A.To reduce the overall defence budget expenditure.
- B.To enhance India's self-reliance ('Aatmanirbharta') in defence production.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To immediately replace all existing munitions in the IAF inventory.
- D.To facilitate technology transfer to friendly foreign countries.
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Explanation
The article states the initiative aims 'to boost India's "Aatmanirbharta" in the sector.' While other options might be indirect outcomes, the core objective is to reduce dependency on foreign imports and build indigenous capability, which is the essence of the Aatmanirbhar Bharat initiative in defence.
The recent reservation policy decision for higher education in Odisha was taken by which constitutional body?
- A.Odisha Legislative Assembly
- B.Governor of Odisha
- C.Odisha State Cabinet✓ Correct Answer
- D.Odisha High Court
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Explanation
As per the article, the decision was made in a 'late-night cabinet decision Saturday'. The State Cabinet, chaired by the Chief Minister, is the supreme executive authority for such policy decisions within a state.
Consider the following statements regarding the new reservation policy in Odisha:
1. The reservation for Scheduled Tribe (ST) students has been increased from 12 percent to 22.50 percent.
2. A new reservation quota of 11.25 percent has been introduced for students from the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS).
3. The total number of reserved seats after the revision has been kept within the 50 percent limit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'seats reserved for ST students will increase from 12 percent to 22.50 percent'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the new 11.25% quota is for 'socially and educationally backward classes (SEBC)', not EWS. Statement 3 is correct: 'the total number of reserved seats has been kept within 50 per cent'.
According to the article, what is the new percentage of seats reserved for Scheduled Caste (SC) students in Odisha's higher education courses?
- A.8%
- B.12%
- C.16.25%✓ Correct Answer
- D.22.5%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'for SC students from 8 percent to 16.25 percent.' Option A (8%) is the old quota, Option B (12%) is the old ST quota, and Option D (22.5%) is the new ST quota.
What was the primary rationale cited by the Odisha government for revising the reservation quotas in higher education?
- A.To comply with a recent Supreme Court directive
- B.To align reservations with the population size of SC, ST, and SEBC communities✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase the overall number of seats in professional courses
- D.To attract more students from other states
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Explanation
The article quotes an official stating 'The reservation has been allowed in accordance with their population size in the state.' The Chief Minister also highlighted that previous quotas were 'far below their population size'. The other options are not mentioned as reasons in the provided text.
The Bihar Public Service Commission (BPSC) is established under which part of the Constitution of India?
- A.Part X (The Scheduled and Tribal Areas)
- B.Part XIV (Services under the Union and the States)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Part XV (Elections)
- D.Part XVI (Special Provisions relating to certain classes)
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Explanation
Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV of the Constitution deal with Public Service Commissions for the Union and the States, including their establishment, composition, and functions. BPSC is a State Public Service Commission constituted under these provisions.
Consider the following statements regarding recent reforms in the Bihar Public Service Commission (BPSC) examination:
1. The interview panels now include serving IAS and IPS officers to evaluate administrative temperament.
2. A 300-mark essay paper has been introduced in the Prelims stage to test analytical ability.
3. The optional subject paper is now qualifying and objective, with its marks not counted in the final merit list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 300-mark essay paper has been introduced in the Mains examination, not the Prelims. Statement 3 is correct as the optional paper is now qualifying, objective, and its marks are not counted in the final merit list.
According to the article, what is the total mark allocation for the Mains examination in the current BPSC Combined Competitive Exam pattern?
- A.750 marks
- B.900 marks✓ Correct Answer
- C.1000 marks
- D.1200 marks
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Explanation
The article states that after clearing the 150-mark Prelims, candidates must take the 900-mark Mains. This total comprises General Studies-I, General Studies-II, and Essay papers of 300 marks each.
What is the primary rationale cited in the article for including serving IAS and IPS officers in BPSC interview panels?
- A.To reduce the administrative workload of BPSC members.
- B.To better evaluate a candidate's on-ground decision-making skills and temperament for crisis management.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To ensure regional representation from all districts of Bihar.
- D.To align the interview process with the pattern of private sector recruitment.
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Explanation
The article quotes a BPSC source stating that serving senior officers were included specifically because they can better evaluate a candidate's on-ground decision-making skills and temperament for administrative crisis management, adding practical administrative perspective to the selection.
Moody's Ratings, which revised India's growth forecast, is primarily known as a?
- A.Global Credit Rating Agency✓ Correct Answer
- B.Domestic Statistical Organization
- C.International Monetary Fund Affiliate
- D.World Bank Research Wing
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Explanation
Moody's, along with Standard & Poor's (S&P) and Fitch Ratings, is one of the 'Big Three' global credit rating agencies that assess the creditworthiness of borrowers, including sovereign nations like India.
Consider the following statements regarding the economic impacts mentioned in the report:
1. The West Asia region accounts for over 90% of India's Liquified Petroleum Gas (LPG) supplies.
2. Moody's projects India's inflation to average 2.4% in FY27, up from 4.8% in FY26.
3. India's current account deficit narrowed to around 0.4% of GDP in calendar year 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; Moody's projects inflation to average 4.8% in FY27, up from 2.4% in FY26 (the figures are swapped). Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article. Hence, option C is correct.
According to Moody's report dated March 31, what is the revised real GDP growth projection for India in fiscal year 2026-27 (FY27)?
- A.5.8%
- B.6.0%✓ Correct Answer
- C.6.5%
- D.6.8%
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Explanation
Moody's specifically cut its estimate for India's real GDP growth in FY27 to 6%, down from its earlier projection of 6.8%. Option C (6.5%) is ICRA's projection, and option D (6.8%) is the previous Moody's forecast, making them close distractors.
What is a primary channel through which the West Asia conflict is expected to impact India's fiscal position, as per Moody's?
- A.Increase in corporate tax revenues due to higher profits
- B.Reduction in subsidy outlays for food and fuel
- C.Intensification of pressures on targeted subsidies leading to higher expenditure✓ Correct Answer
- D.Significant boost to GST collections from increased consumption
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Explanation
The report states that elevated oil, gas, and fertiliser prices would intensify pressures on targeted subsidies, resulting in higher government outlays. This, combined with potential revenue erosion (from excise cuts and softer tax collections), constrains fiscal space.
Which space agency is leading the Artemis II mission mentioned in the news?
- A.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
- B.National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.European Space Agency (ESA)
- D.Roscosmos (Russian State Space Corporation)
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Artemis II mission is a NASA mission, with images and updates provided by NASA. NASA is the lead agency for the Artemis program.
Consider the following statements regarding the Artemis II mission:
1. It is the first crewed mission of the Artemis program, aiming for a lunar flyby.
2. The mission includes astronauts from the United States and Canada.
3. The Orion spacecraft will land on the lunar surface during this mission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as Artemis II is the first crewed mission, performing a flyby. Statement 2 is correct as the crew includes Americans Reid Wiseman, Christina Koch, Victor Glover, and Canadian Jeremy Hansen. Statement 3 is incorrect because Artemis II is only a flyby mission; a lunar landing is planned for the subsequent Artemis III mission.
As reported, how close will the Artemis II spacecraft get to the lunar surface during its flyby?
- A.Approximately 70 miles
- B.Approximately 250 miles
- C.Just over 4,000 miles✓ Correct Answer
- D.Approximately 10,000 miles
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Explanation
The article states: 'the Artemis 2 crew will be just over 4,000 miles at their closest approach'. This is distinct from the Apollo missions, which flew about 70 miles above the surface.
What is a key strategic objective of the Artemis program, as indicated by the crew's activities in the Artemis II mission?
- A.To compete with private space tourism companies
- B.To conduct scientific observation and prepare for sustained lunar exploration✓ Correct Answer
- C.To establish a permanent human settlement on Mars by 2030
- D.To de-orbit the International Space Station (ISS)
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Explanation
The article highlights that the astronauts received geology training to photograph and describe lunar features. This, along with the mission's role as a precursor to establishing a permanent lunar base, indicates the program's focus on scientific utilization and sustainable exploration, not just a one-time visit.
Under which Ministry does the Centre for Marine Living Resources & Ecology (CMLRE), which houses the 'Bhavasagara' repository, operate?
- A.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC)
- B.Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Science and Technology
- D.Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that CMLRE is a premier institute under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, Government of India. MoEFCC designated the repository, but CMLRE's parent ministry is MoES.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Repository for Deep-Sea Fauna:
1. It was designated under the provisions of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
2. It is established to act as the custodian for new deep-sea species discovered within Indian waters.
3. Its primary objective is to promote deep-sea mining for mineral resources.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the designation is under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. Statement 2 is correct as the repository is vested with the authority to hold type specimens for new species. Statement 3 is incorrect; the repository's objectives are preservation, study, and documentation, not promoting mining, which is actually a threat mentioned in the article.
According to the article, what percentage of Earth's habitable space does the deep sea constitute?
- A.70-75%
- B.80-85%
- C.90-95%✓ Correct Answer
- D.95-99%
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Explanation
The article states: "It constitutes nearly 90–95% of Earth’s habitable space." This is a key factual data point about the significance of the deep-sea biome.
What is one of the key threats to deep-sea biodiversity highlighted in the article?
- A.Increased sunlight penetration due to climate change
- B.The commencement of deep-sea mining✓ Correct Answer
- C.Overpopulation of fast-growing deep-sea species
- D.Reduction in ambient pressure at extreme depths
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Explanation
The article explicitly lists deep-sea mining as a threat, stating: "The deep sea is threatened by the commencement of deep-sea mining." The other options are not mentioned as threats; deep-sea organisms are slow-growing, and the environment has low sunlight and high pressure.
The Supreme Court's collegium system is primarily responsible for which of the following functions?
- A.Appointing the Attorney General of India
- B.Recommending judges for appointment to the Supreme Court and High Courts✓ Correct Answer
- C.Disciplining judges of the lower judiciary
- D.Reviewing laws passed by Parliament for constitutional validity
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Explanation
The collegium system, as mentioned in the article in the context of needing a 'special invitee', is the judge-led body that makes recommendations to the government for appointing judges to the higher judiciary (Supreme Court and High Courts).
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. Justice Ujjal Bhuyan suggested that a woman judge should be a permanent member of the Supreme Court collegium.
2. He referred to a petition concerning a film titled 'Ghuskhor Pandat' which was filed in the Supreme Court.
3. Justice Bhuyan disagreed with former CJI Chandrachud's view on the future representation of women in High Courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 2
- B.(B) Only 3
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect; Justice Bhuyan proposed a woman judge as a 'special invitee', not a permanent member. Statement 2 is correct; the article mentions the petition 'Atul Mishra vs Union of India' concerning the film was filed in the Supreme Court. Statement 3 is correct; the article states he had a 'different view' from former CJI Chandrachud on women's representation translating into more judges.
According to the Bar Council of India statistics mentioned by Justice Bhuyan, approximately how many women advocates are there in India?
- A.Around one lakh
- B.Around two lakh
- C.Around three lakh✓ Correct Answer
- D.Around five lakh
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "As per the Bar Council of India statistics, the number of women advocates is hovering around three lakh." The other options are close but incorrect distractors.
What was the primary objective behind Justice Bhuyan's proposal to include a woman judge as a 'special invitee' to the collegium?
- A.To increase the overall speed of judicial appointments
- B.To ensure a woman's perspective is considered in judicial appointments✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce the workload of the existing collegium members
- D.To fulfill a mandatory gender quota required by law
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Explanation
The article quotes Justice Bhuyan saying, "So that we have a women's perspective also." His proposal is directly aimed at bringing that missing perspective into the collegium's deliberations to address the issue of poor representation, not to speed up appointments, reduce workload, or meet a legal quota.
Which regulatory body was established by the Act that introduced the National Exit Test (NExT)?
- A.Medical Council of India (MCI)
- B.National Medical Commission (NMC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Board of Examinations (NBE)
- D.Indian Medical Association (IMA)
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Explanation
The National Exit Test (NExT) was introduced through the National Medical Commission Act, 2019, which established the NMC as the apex regulatory body for medical education, replacing the Medical Council of India (MCI). The NBE conducts the FMGE, and the IMA is a professional association, not a regulator.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Exit Test (NExT):
1. It was introduced through the National Medical Commission Act, 2019.
2. It aims to replace the Foreign Medical Graduate Examination (FMGE) but not the NEET-PG.
3. Its Step 2 is designed to assess practical skills and clinical competence through structured exams.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; NExT aims to replace three exams: MBBS finals, NEET-PG, and FMGE. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions NExT Step 2 aims to assess practical skills, communication and clinical competence. Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
According to the editorial, how many existing examinations in the field of medicine does the National Exit Test (NExT) aim to replace?
- A.One
- B.Two
- C.Three✓ Correct Answer
- D.Four
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that NExT was envisaged as a singular qualifying examination to replace three existing exams: the final MBBS exams, the NEET-PG, and the FMGE. This is a key factual point from the news.
What is the primary objective cited for implementing a unified National Exit Test (NExT) for medical graduates?
- A.To reduce the number of medical colleges in India
- B.To increase government control over private medical colleges
- C.To establish a uniform national standard of competence for all licensed doctors✓ Correct Answer
- D.To simplify the admission process for foreign medical graduates only
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Explanation
The editorial emphasizes that NExT will 'set a national minimum standard that every graduate must achieve before independent practice' and 'ensure that every licensed doctor demonstrates a uniform threshold of competence'. This is the core objective, unlike the other options which are not mentioned.
Which state department is primarily responsible for assessing and reporting the agricultural crop damage mentioned in the news?
- A.Punjab Revenue Department
- B.Punjab Agriculture Department✓ Correct Answer
- C.Punjab Disaster Management Authority
- D.Punjab Irrigation Department
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Explanation
The article specifically quotes a senior officer from the Punjab Agriculture Department discussing the assessment of losses. This department is responsible for crop production, horticulture, and related farmer welfare schemes in the state.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The unseasonal weather disrupted wheat harvesting primarily because it made field conditions too wet for machinery operation.
2. A green alert was the highest-level warning issued by the IMD for parts of Punjab during this event.
3. The phenomenon of 'lodging', where crops are flattened, can lead to deterioration in grain quality and affect market prices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states wet field conditions delayed harvesting. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article mentions Red and Orange alerts, not a Green alert. Statement 3 is correct as experts warned that lodging leads to quality deterioration and affects prices.
As per the weather forecasts mentioned in the article, what was the predicted wind speed range for the moderate thunderstorms likely over regions like Jalandhar and Hoshiarpur?
- A.20–40 kmph
- B.30–50 kmph
- C.40–60 kmph✓ Correct Answer
- D.50–70 kmph
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that moderate thunderstorms with wind speeds of 40–60 kmph were very likely over several regions including parts of Jalandhar and Hoshiarpur. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.
What is the primary immediate agricultural impact of 'lodging' caused by storms, as described in the news article?
- A.It increases the nitrogen content in the soil for the next season.
- B.It makes the standing crops more resistant to pests.
- C.It flattens the crops, complicating harvest and reducing yield quality.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It accelerates the ripening process of the grain.
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Explanation
The article defines lodging as standing crops being flattened due to strong winds and hailstorms. It states this impacts yield and grain quality, and experts warn it leads to discolouration and deterioration, affecting market prices. The other options are not supported by the article's content.
Which institution manages the issuance of State Development Loans (SDLs) in India?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
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Explanation
As per the article and standard financial governance, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) manages the issuance of State Development Loans on behalf of state governments. SEBI regulates securities markets, the Finance Ministry deals with central government borrowing, and NABARD focuses on rural credit.
Consider the following statements regarding the Benchmark Issuance Strategy (BIS) for State Development Loans:
1. It is being launched by the RBI on a pilot basis in nine states starting from the financial year 2026-27.
2. The primary objective is to increase the total quantum of borrowing by state governments.
3. It involves issuing securities in specific benchmark tenor buckets as per a pre-announced calendar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states RBI is introducing BIS on a pilot basis in nine states starting FY 2026-27. Statement 2 is incorrect; the primary objective is to enhance transparency, liquidity, and price discovery, not to increase borrowing. Statement 3 is correct as the strategy involves issuing bonds in specific benchmark tenor buckets as per a pre-announced calendar.
According to the news, what is the total amount of market borrowings Telangana has proposed to raise during the first quarter of the financial year 2026-27 under the new BIS framework?
- A.₹10,500 crore
- B.₹15,200 crore
- C.₹18,900 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹22,500 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Telangana government has submitted an indent for raising market borrowings to the tune of ₹18,900 crore during the first quarter of the current fiscal year (2026-27). The other figures are distractors.
What is the primary objective of the Benchmark Issuance Strategy (BIS) for State Development Loans as introduced by the RBI?
- A.To directly fund central government infrastructure projects
- B.To enhance transparency, liquidity, and price discovery in the state bond market✓ Correct Answer
- C.To replace commercial bank lending to state governments
- D.To reduce the role of the RBI in debt management
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Explanation
As per the article, the BIS is aimed at 'enhancing transparency and providing greater clarity to investors,' creating 'larger, more liquid benchmark bonds,' and 'improving price discovery.' It does not fund central projects, replace bank lending, or reduce RBI's role.
Which Indian bank manages the Rupee payment mechanism corpus fund used for trade with Iran, as mentioned in the article?
- A.State Bank of India
- B.Punjab National Bank
- C.UCO Bank✓ Correct Answer
- D.Bank of Baroda
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Rupee payment mechanism is a corpus fund managed through UCO Bank, which was set up in 2012 for commodities trade with countries like Iran.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The U.S. waiver for India's stake in the Chabahar port development project is set to expire on April 26, 2026.
2. India's bilateral trade with Iran in 2024 was about $15.7 billion, a significant increase from previous years.
3. The Punjab Rice Millers Exporters Association has proposed a barter system exchanging Iranian crude oil for Indian wheat shipments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states trade was $1.6 billion in 2024, down from about $15.7 billion in 2014. Statement 3 is incorrect; the proposal is for Basmati rice, not wheat.
According to the article, what was the amount of India's prepaid investment commitment to Iran for the Chabahar port development project, which was paid in November 2025?
- A.$100 million
- B.$120 million✓ Correct Answer
- C.$150 million
- D.$1.6 billion
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Explanation
The article clearly mentions that the government prepaid its investment commitment of $120 million to Iran in November 2025 for the Chabahar port project.
What is the primary strategic concern for Indian exporters, as highlighted in the article, regarding Iran's actions in the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.It increases the cost of importing crude oil into India.
- B.It blocks Indian naval vessels from accessing the Persian Gulf.
- C.It strands a large number of Indian Basmati rice export consignments destined for West Asia.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It violates the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
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Explanation
The article states that Iran's continued restrictions on the Hormuz Strait are a big concern for exporters because over 80% of India's Basmati exports go to West Asia and many consignments are currently stranded, causing financial losses.
Which public sector company owns the LPG tankers 'Shivalik' and 'Nanda Devi' mentioned in the article?
- A.Great Eastern Shipping Company
- B.Shipping Corporation of India✓ Correct Answer
- C.BW Global United LPG
- D.MOL India
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the LPG tankers Shivalik and Nanda Devi are owned by the public sector player Shipping Corporation of India (SCI).
Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Hormuz and India's energy imports:
1. Around 40% of India's crude oil imports transit through the Strait of Hormuz.
2. Over 50% of India's Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) imports come via this strait.
3. India's annual LPG consumption is a little over 33 million tonnes, with an import dependency level of 60%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1 and 2
- B.(B) Only 2 and 3
- C.(C) Only 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states 'Around 40% of India’s crude oil imports... came from West Asia through the strait.' Statement 2 is correct as it mentions 'over 50% of its LNG imports.' Statement 3 is correct as it mentions 'India’s annual LPG consumption stands at a little over 33 million tonnes... with an import dependency level of 60%.'
According to the article, what percentage of India's LPG consumption effectively moves through the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.40%
- B.54%✓ Correct Answer
- C.60%
- D.90%
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Explanation
The article calculates: With 60% import dependency and 90% of those imports coming via the Strait, the Strait effectively sees the movement of around 54% of India’s LPG consumption (60% of 90%).
What is the primary reason cited in the article for Indian vessels successfully transiting the Strait of Hormuz amid the conflict?
- A.Military escort provided by the Indian Navy
- B.Diplomatic engagement with Iran by the Indian government✓ Correct Answer
- C.Payment of special transit fees to Iranian authorities
- D.Use of alternative, longer international waters
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Explanation
The article states that 'India is among the handful of countries that have been successful...' and attributes this to direct diplomatic engagement, noting 'India is among the countries that have been engaging directly with Iran at the diplomatic level.' Iran's Foreign Minister also listed India among friendly nations allowed transit.
Which multilateral platform is emphasized in the China-Pakistan peace plan for facilitating dialogue on the West Asia conflict?
- A.G20
- B.United Nations✓ Correct Answer
- C.Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)
- D.BRICS
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the China-Pakistan peace plan calls for dialogue through multilateral platforms, 'particularly the United Nations'. While BRICS is mentioned as a platform China promotes, the specific emphasis for this peace initiative is on the UN.
Consider the following statements regarding the China-Pakistan peace plan for West Asia:
1. The plan is a detailed political settlement offering a comprehensive roadmap for conflict resolution.
2. The initiative reflects an attempt to expand the role of non-Western actors in managing regional crises.
3. China's move is partly motivated by its position as the largest trading partner with Gulf region countries, with trade valued at $257 billion in 2024.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article clearly states the plan 'focuses on stabilising maritime routes and preventing further escalation rather than offering a detailed political settlement, making it more a mechanism for crisis management than conflict resolution.' Statement 2 is correct as per the article's analysis. Statement 3 is correct, as the article mentions a London-based think tank reported China overtook the West as the largest trading partner with Gulf countries, with trade valued at $257 billion in 2024.
According to the article, what was the value of trade between China and the Gulf region countries (Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, UAE) in 2024, as reported by a London-based think tank?
- A.$200 billion
- B.$257 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$300 billion
- D.$350 billion
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'last year, a London-based think tank reported that China has overtaken the West as the largest trading partner with countries in the Gulf region... for the first time in 2024. Their trade was valued at $257 billion.' The other options are distractors not mentioned in the text.
What is the primary strategic vulnerability for China, highlighted by the 'Malacca dilemma' and reinforced by the current disruptions in West Asia, as discussed in the article?
- A.Dependence on Russian energy imports via overland pipelines
- B.Vulnerability of its digital infrastructure to cyber attacks
- C.Reliance on vulnerable maritime chokepoints for trade and energy flows✓ Correct Answer
- D.Exposure to financial sanctions from Western banking systems
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Explanation
The article explains that the 'Malacca dilemma', coined by Hu Jintao, concerns the Strait of Malacca, a critical chokepoint through which a significant portion of China's energy imports and trade flows pass. The current disruptions in the Strait of Hormuz and Bab el-Mandeb reinforce this vulnerability, threatening China's sea lines of communication and supply chains, which is a primary motivation behind its diplomatic initiatives.
Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Election Commission of India established?
- A.Article 324✓ Correct Answer
- B.Article 352
- C.Article 368
- D.Article 14
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Explanation
The Election Commission of India, the body mentioned in the news for conducting elections and seizing inducements, is established under Article 324 of the Constitution. This article vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the ECI.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The total value of seizures reported by the Election Commission was over ₹650 crore.
2. The state with the highest value of seizures was Tamil Nadu.
3. The Election Commission deployed over 5,000 flying squads for the purpose.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states the seizure value was ₹651.51 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect: West Bengal had the highest seizures (₹319 crore), not Tamil Nadu (₹170 crore). Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly mentions 5,173 flying squads were deployed.
According to the Election Commission data cited in the news, what was the approximate value of drugs seized in West Bengal?
- A.₹39 crore
- B.₹55 crore
- C.₹65 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹150 crore
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Explanation
The article provides a detailed breakdown for West Bengal, stating drugs worth ₹65 crore were seized. ₹39 crore was for precious metals, ₹55 crore for liquor, and ₹150 crore for 'other freebies'.
What was a key measure taken by the Election Commission, as per the news, to address potential public inconvenience during the enforcement drive?
- A.Reducing the number of flying squads
- B.Setting up District Grievance Committees✓ Correct Answer
- C.Exempting certain areas from checking
- D.Issuing a public apology
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions that the EC stressed that ordinary citizens should not be inconvenienced and that 'District Grievance Committees have also been set up to address any grievances in this regard.' The other options are not mentioned.
The State Climate Action Cell, mentioned in the news for formulating Maharashtra's cooling action plan, operates under which state department?
- A.Department of Urban Development
- B.Department of Environment and Climate Change✓ Correct Answer
- C.Department of Housing
- D.Department of Disaster Management
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Abhijit Ghorpade is the director of the State Climate Action Cell of the Environment and Climate Change department. This is the nodal agency for climate action planning in the state.
Consider the following statements regarding the climate action initiatives discussed in the news article:
1. Maharashtra aims to achieve net-zero emissions by 2050, which is ahead of the national target year.
2. The state has identified 15 districts as most vulnerable to heatwaves, with a majority located in the Vidarbha region.
3. The state plans to mandate green construction by introducing changes to the National Building Code of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions Maharashtra's aspirational target is net zero by 2050, while India's target is 2070. Statement 2 is correct as it states 15 districts are vulnerable, with 11 in Vidarbha. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article mentions changes to the Unified Development Control and Promotion Regulations (UDCPR) and state building codes, not the National Building Code.
According to the State Climate Action Plan analysis mentioned in the article, how many districts in Maharashtra are most vulnerable to the impacts of heatwaves?
- A.10 districts
- B.12 districts
- C.15 districts✓ Correct Answer
- D.18 districts
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Explanation
The article clearly states that research found 15 districts in Maharashtra are most vulnerable to the impacts of heatwaves. The breakdown is 11 in Vidarbha, 2 in Marathwada, and 2 in Khandesh.
What is the primary objective of proposing changes to the Unified Development Control and Promotion Regulations (UDCPR) as per the climate action plan discussed?
- A.To increase the floor space index (FSI) for all residential buildings
- B.To promote the use of sustainable construction materials and make buildings greener✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce the cost of construction for affordable housing projects
- D.To expedite the environmental clearance process for infrastructure projects
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Explanation
The article directly states that the idea behind discussing plans with the Urban Development department and introducing changes to UDCPR and building codes is 'to promote the use of sustainable construction materials and make buildings greener.' This is a key component of the state's cooling action plan.
The Gulf Petrochemical Industries Company (GPIC), which was targeted in the drone attacks, is a joint venture based in which country?
- A.Saudi Arabia
- B.United Arab Emirates
- C.Bahrain✓ Correct Answer
- D.Qatar
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Bahrain's Gulf Petrochemical Industries Company was attacked. GPIC is a joint venture but is headquartered and operates in Bahrain.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent attacks mentioned in the news:
1. Iranian drone strikes targeted a petrochemical plant in Bahrain and power generation units in Kuwait.
2. The attacks resulted in significant human casualties in both countries.
3. Air defence systems in Abu Dhabi successfully intercepted threats, causing debris fires at the Borouge petrochemical plant.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article repeatedly mentions 'no injuries were recorded' and 'no injuries reported'. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions Abu Dhabi's air defence intercepted threats, with falling debris causing fires at Borouge plant.
According to the news report, on which date did the drone attacks on Bahrain and Kuwait occur?
- A.April 3, 2026
- B.April 4, 2026
- C.April 5, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- D.April 6, 2026
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Explanation
The article's published date is April 05, 2026, and it reports the incidents as happening 'on Sunday', which corresponds to April 5, 2026. The tweets referenced are also dated April 5, 2026.
What is a significant strategic implication of Iran targeting water desalination plants in Kuwait, as per the context of the article?
- A.It aims to boost Kuwait's renewable energy capacity.
- B.It threatens Kuwait's national security by targeting its freshwater supply.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It is intended to force Kuwait to join OPEC production cuts.
- D.It demonstrates Iran's advanced nuclear technology.
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Explanation
Kuwait, like many Gulf nations, relies heavily on desalination for freshwater. Attacking such critical civilian infrastructure constitutes economic warfare and directly threatens national security and public welfare, which is a severe escalation as indicated in the article's analysis.
Justice Vivek Agarwal, appointed as the Chairman of the Supreme Court committee on 'stock witnesses', is a sitting judge of which High Court?
- A.Madhya Pradesh High Court✓ Correct Answer
- B.Delhi High Court
- C.Bombay High Court
- D.Calcutta High Court
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that Justice Vivek Agarwal, appointed as the chairman of the committee, is a sitting judge of the Madhya Pradesh High Court.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's concerns over 'stock witnesses':
1. The Court noted that such witnesses are often included in FIRs and chargesheets as a formality.
2. The issue is especially relevant in cases under the Essential Commodities Act.
3. The Court constituted a seven-member committee in March 2026, which has now been expanded.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the Court's order quoted in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; while the application arose from an Essential Commodities Act case, the Court and experts highlighted the problem's specific relevance to NDPS and Prevention of Corruption Act cases. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the original 7-member committee constituted in March and its subsequent expansion.
As per the Supreme Court's directive, within what timeframe must the expanded committee submit its report on the practice of 'stock witnesses'?
- A.15 days
- B.One month✓ Correct Answer
- C.Two months
- D.Three months
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the exercise has to be completed and a report submitted 'within a month'.
What is the primary concern raised by the Supreme Court regarding the use of 'stock witnesses' in criminal investigations?
- A.It increases the financial cost of investigations for the police.
- B.It undermines the fairness and impartiality of the investigation and trial process.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It leads to delays in the filing of chargesheets in courts.
- D.It violates the fundamental right to privacy of the accused.
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Explanation
The Supreme Court's core concern, as quoted in the article, is that the practice 'goes to the very root of fairness and impartiality of investigation'. The Court explicitly stated this could be 'termed anathema to a country governed by the rule of law'.
Related Current Affairs Resources
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Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?
For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
- Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
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Frequently Asked Questions
What are the important current affairs questions for 5 April 2026?▼
This page contains 88 current affairs questions from 5 April 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 5 April 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
- Q1. The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2026, whic…
- Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Amaravati capi…
- Q3. According to the article, on which date did Parliament pass th…
- Q4. is the primary legal objective of amending the Andhra Pradesh …
- Q5. As per the Constitution of India, which Part contains the arti…
- Q6. Consider the following statements regarding India's energy sec…
- Q7. According to the news, what percentage of India's total inward…
- Q8. is a primary concern associated with the government's plan to …
- Q9. The Supreme Headquarters Allied Powers Europe (SHAPE), the mil…
- Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the North Atlantic…
- Q11. According to the article, what percentage of NATO's defense sp…
- Q12. is the primary legal obstacle within the United States that co…
- Q13. The reservation policy introduced by Odisha is primarily based…
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding Odisha's new reser…
- Q15. According to the news, what is the new number of reserved seat…
- Q16. is the primary rationale cited by the Odisha government for in…
- Q17. ministry is the nodal agency for regulating foreign contributi…
- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the Foreign Contri…
- Q19. According to the article, approximately how many associations …
- Q20. A primary concern raised by the Catholic Bishops' Conference o…
- Q21. Under which Ministry's purview does the Defence Acquisition Pr…
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the recent initiat…
- Q23. is the total number of 1,000-kg aerial bombs planned for procu…
- Q24. is the primary strategic objective behind the MoD's push for i…
- Q25. The recent reservation policy decision for higher education in…
- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the new reservatio…
- Q27. According to the article, what is the new percentage of seats …
- Q28. was the primary rationale cited by the Odisha government for r…
- Q29. The Bihar Public Service Commission (BPSC) is established unde…
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding recent reforms in …
- Q31. According to the article, what is the total mark allocation fo…
- Q32. is the primary rationale cited in the article for including se…
- Q33. Moody's Ratings, which revised India's growth forecast, is pri…
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the economic impac…
- Q35. According to Moody's report dated March 31, what is the revise…
- Q36. is a primary channel through which the West Asia conflict is e…
- Q37. space agency is leading the Artemis II mission mentioned in th…
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the Artemis II mis…
- Q39. As reported, how close will the Artemis II spacecraft get to t…
- Q40. is a key strategic objective of the Artemis program, as indica…
- Q41. Under which Ministry does the Centre for Marine Living Resourc…
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the National Repos…
- Q43. According to the article, what percentage of Earth's habitable…
- Q44. is one of the key threats to deep-sea biodiversity highlighted…
- Q45. The Supreme Court's collegium system is primarily responsible …
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Just…
- Q47. According to the Bar Council of India statistics mentioned by …
- Q48. was the primary objective behind Justice Bhuyan's proposal to …
- Q49. regulatory body was established by the Act that introduced the…
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the National Exit …
- Q51. According to the editorial, how many existing examinations in …
- Q52. is the primary objective cited for implementing a unified Nati…
- Q53. state department is primarily responsible for assessing and re…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q55. As per the weather forecasts mentioned in the article, what wa…
- Q56. is the primary immediate agricultural impact of 'lodging' caus…
- Q57. institution manages the issuance of State Development Loans (S…
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the Benchmark Issu…
- Q59. According to the news, what is the total amount of market borr…
- Q60. is the primary objective of the Benchmark Issuance Strategy (B…
- Q61. Indian bank manages the Rupee payment mechanism corpus fund us…
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q63. According to the article, what was the amount of India's prepa…
- Q64. is the primary strategic concern for Indian exporters, as high…
- Q65. public sector company owns the LPG tankers 'Shivalik' and 'Nan…
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Horm…
- Q67. According to the article, what percentage of India's LPG consu…
- Q68. is the primary reason cited in the article for Indian vessels …
- Q69. multilateral platform is emphasized in the China-Pakistan peac…
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the China-Pakistan…
- Q71. According to the article, what was the value of trade between …
- Q72. is the primary strategic vulnerability for China, highlighted …
- Q73. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Election…
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q75. According to the Election Commission data cited in the news, w…
- Q76. was a key measure taken by the Election Commission, as per the…
- Q77. The State Climate Action Cell, mentioned in the news for formu…
- Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the climate action…
- Q79. According to the State Climate Action Plan analysis mentioned …
- Q80. is the primary objective of proposing changes to the Unified D…
- Q81. The Gulf Petrochemical Industries Company (GPIC), which was ta…
- Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the recent attacks…
- Q83. According to the news report, on which date did the drone atta…
- Q84. is a significant strategic implication of Iran targeting water…
- Q85. Justice Vivek Agarwal, appointed as the Chairman of the Suprem…
- Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q87. As per the Supreme Court's directive, within what timeframe mu…
- Q88. is the primary concern raised by the Supreme Court regarding t…