6 April 2026, Questions & Answers
204 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
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This page contains 204 current affairs questions with answers from 6 April 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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204 QsThe Sattankulam custodial deaths case was investigated by which central agency?
- A.National Investigation Agency (NIA)
- B.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Enforcement Directorate (ED)
- D.National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB)
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Explanation
The article states that the probe was transferred to the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) by the then AIADMK government. The CBI filed the charge sheet and supplementary charge sheet in the case.
Consider the following statements regarding the Sattankulam custodial deaths case:
1. The Madras High Court took suo motu cognisance of the crime.
2. The victims, Jayaraj and Benicks, were detained for violating COVID-19 lockdown rules.
3. The First Additional District and Sessions Court in Madurai convicted all nine accused policemen on March 23, 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the Madurai Bench of the Madras High Court took suo motu cognisance. Statement 2 is correct as the CBI investigation revealed the police had detained them on that charge. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the court convicted all nine on March 23, 2026.
How many police personnel were originally named as accused in the Sattankulam custodial deaths case, as per the article?
- A.8
- B.9
- C.10✓ Correct Answer
- D.11
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Explanation
The article clearly states: "In all, 10 police personnel were named as accused in the case. One of them died after contracting COVID-19. The CBI has prosecuted nine police personnel."
The death sentence awarded in the Sattankulam case is primarily based on which judicial principle for capital punishment?
- A.Doctrine of Proportionality
- B.Doctrine of Basic Structure
- C.'Rarest of Rare' Doctrine✓ Correct Answer
- D.Doctrine of Severability
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Explanation
The article mentions that the counsels argued the case fell within the category of the 'rarest of rare cases', which is the judicial principle established by the Supreme Court for awarding the death penalty. This doctrine was applied by the court in sentencing the policemen.
Which government department was assisted by Vidhi Centre for Legal Policy in the Jan Vishwas exercise?
- A.Department of Legal Affairs
- B.Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Home Affairs
- D.Legislative Department
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Explanation
The article mentions that the authors from Vidhi Centre for Legal Policy were part of the team that assisted the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce, on the Jan Vishwas exercise.
Consider the following statements regarding the Jan Vishwas (Amendment to Provisions) Bill, 2026:
1. It amends 784 provisions across 79 Central laws.
2. It decriminalises a total of 805 offences by removing criminal sanctions and replacing them with civil penalties.
3. The Bill proposes to omit 125 offences that are redundant or already covered under the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the Bill amends 784 provisions across 79 laws. Statement 2 is correct as it decriminalises 805 offences. Statement 3 is incorrect because the omitted offences are those already covered under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, not the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
According to the article, how many offences did the earlier Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023, amend?
- A.125 provisions across 42 laws
- B.183 provisions across 42 laws✓ Correct Answer
- C.784 provisions across 79 laws
- D.805 provisions across 79 laws
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Explanation
The article states that the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023, had amended 183 provisions across 42 laws. The 2026 Bill amends 784 provisions across 79 laws and decriminalises 805 offences.
What is the primary distinction between 'fines' and 'penalties' as clarified by the Jan Vishwas Bill, 2026?
- A.Fines are imposed for civil violations, while penalties are for criminal offences.
- B.Fines are court-imposed through the criminal justice process, while penalties are civil and imposed by adjudicatory officers.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Penalties involve imprisonment, while fines are only monetary.
- D.Fines are for minor offences, while penalties are for serious crimes.
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Explanation
The article clarifies that fines remain court-imposed and require the full criminal justice process. Penalties are civil in nature and imposed by designated adjudicatory officers, enabling quicker enforcement. This distinction is central to the Bill's shift from criminal to civil mechanisms for many offences.
The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, which deals with the Anti-Defection Law, was inserted by which Constitutional Amendment Act?
- A.42nd Amendment Act, 1976
- B.52nd Amendment Act, 1985✓ Correct Answer
- C.44th Amendment Act, 1978
- D.73rd Amendment Act, 1992
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Fifty-Second Amendment (1985) inserted the Tenth Schedule, providing for the disqualification of legislators who vote against the party whip. This is a key static GK fact for polity.
Consider the following statements regarding constitutional provisions and conventions in India:
1. The Indian Constitution explicitly limits the President to a maximum of two terms in office.
2. The Constitution places no restriction on the number of terms a person can serve as the Prime Minister.
3. The Supreme Court, in the Kihoto Hollohan case, upheld the constitutionality of the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article clarifies that a two-term limit for the President is a 'convention', not an explicit constitutional provision. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's core argument. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.
As mentioned in the article, on which date did Prime Minister Narendra Modi complete 8,931 days in elected office (combining his tenures as Chief Minister and Prime Minister)?
- A.May 21, 2014
- B.October 7, 2001
- C.March 22, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- D.April 06, 2026
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Explanation
The article states: 'On March 22, 2026, Narendra Modi completed 8,931 days as head of an elected government in India...'. The other dates are related to the start and end of his tenure as CM of Gujarat.
According to the analysis in the article, what is the primary constitutional mechanism that the framers, particularly Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, relied upon as a check on the Prime Minister's power, making formal term limits unnecessary?
- A.Judicial Review by the Supreme Court
- B.Periodic assessment through fixed-term elections
- C.Daily assessment through parliamentary accountability✓ Correct Answer
- D.Presidential discretion to dismiss the Prime Minister
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Explanation
The article cites Ambedkar's speech distinguishing 'daily assessment of responsibility' (through questions, no-confidence motions) from 'periodic assessment' (elections). He argued the daily assessment was far more effective, making term limits redundant. This mechanism is now argued to be impaired by the Anti-Defection Law.
Which political party in Taiwan, mentioned in the news, has traditionally advocated for closer relations with China?
- A.Democratic Progressive Party (DPP)
- B.Kuomintang (KMT)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Taiwan People's Party (TPP)
- D.New Power Party (NPP)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Kuomintang (KMT) has 'long advocated for closer relations with China'. The Democratic Progressive Party (DPP), mentioned as having won the presidency in 2016, is known for its pro-independence stance.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. Cheng Li-wun's visit to China is the first by a sitting Kuomintang (KMT) chairperson since 2016.
2. The visit is supported by Taiwan's Mainland Affairs Council as a step towards reducing cross-strait military tensions.
3. A primary context for the visit is Taiwan's proposed NT$1.25 trillion defense procurement plan and ongoing US arms sales.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states Cheng is the 'first sitting chairperson of the Kuomintang (KMT) to travel to China in a decade', with the last being Hung Hsiu-chu in 2016. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Mainland Affairs Council warned that Beijing had 'summoned' Cheng to cut off military purchases, indicating opposition, not support. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions the NT$1.25 trillion plan and US arms sales as key context.
According to the article, what is the value of the US arms sale to Taiwan that was approved in December 2025?
- A.$5 billion
- B.$8 billion
- C.$11 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$15 billion
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The United States approved the sale of $11 billion worth of arms to Taiwan in December.' The other figures are distractors not mentioned in the provided content.
What is a primary strategic objective behind China's invitation to KMT leader Cheng Li-wun, as analyzed in the article?
- A.To facilitate Taiwan's immediate unification with mainland China.
- B.To undermine the argument for US-Taiwan defense cooperation ahead of a US-China summit.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To endorse the Democratic Progressive Party's (DPP) policy on independence.
- D.To negotiate a bilateral trade agreement between Taiwan and China.
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Explanation
Analyst Wen-Ti Sung states in the article that a friendly meeting could help President Xi 'undermine the argument for U.S.-Taiwan defense cooperation' ahead of the summit with President Trump in May. The article does not suggest immediate unification (A), it opposes the DPP (C), and a trade agreement is not the primary focus (D).
Who is the author of the article discussing the roadmap for women's reservation?
- A.Narendra Modi
- B.S.Y. Quraishi✓ Correct Answer
- C.Rajeev Kumar
- D.Gopal Krishna Gandhi
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Explanation
The article is authored by S.Y. Quraishi, who is identified as the former Chief Election Commissioner of India in the byline at the end of the article.
Consider the following statements regarding the implementation of the Women's Reservation Act, 2023:
1. The Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023, provides for one-third reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies.
2. Delimitation of constituencies, which is necessary for creating reserved seats, can only be undertaken after a Census is conducted.
3. The next Census is scheduled for 2026, after which the delimitation process can begin immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article clearly states the 106th Amendment provides one-third reservation. Statement 2 is correct as the article explains delimitation 'can only follow a Census.' Statement 3 is incorrect because the article states the next Census is expected 'after 2026,' not in 2026, and the delimitation process will take several years after that.
According to the article, what is the proposed new total strength of the Lok Sabha to accommodate the women's reservation without displacing existing members?
- A.543 seats
- B.700 seats
- C.816 seats✓ Correct Answer
- D.888 seats
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'the strength of the Lok Sabha may be increased from 543 to about 816 seats — an addition of 273 seats.' Option D (888) is a distractor, as it is the maximum capacity of the new Parliament building mentioned later in the article.
What is the primary constitutional-logistical hurdle identified in the article for implementing the Women's Reservation Act?
- A.Lack of political will among major parties.
- B.Absence of a legal framework for reservation.
- C.The requirement of delimitation, which is contingent on a Census.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Resistance from state governments to cede seats.
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Explanation
The article repeatedly emphasizes that creating new reserved constituencies requires delimitation, and delimitation by law can only follow a Census. The next Census is due only after 2026, creating a significant delay. This is the central implementation hurdle discussed.
Which government department was exclusively responsible for all nuclear activities in India before the SHANTI Act?
- A.Ministry of Power
- B.Department of Atomic Energy✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
- D.Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited
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Explanation
The article states that 'All nuclear activity had hitherto been the exclusive preserve of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE).' NPCIL is a public sector company under DAE, not a government department.
Consider the following statements regarding the SHANTI Act:
1. It grants statutory status to the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB).
2. It repeals the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010.
3. It permits private companies to build, own, and operate nuclear power plants in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
All three statements are directly mentioned in the article. The SHANTI Act provides statutory status to AERB, repeals the two older Acts, and opens the sector to private companies for building, owning, and operating plants.
According to the article, what is the estimated construction cost per megawatt for India's indigenous 700 MW Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor (PHWR)?
- A.$1 million per MW
- B.$2 million per MW✓ Correct Answer
- C.$5 million per MW
- D.$10 million per MW
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'India’s 700 MW PHWR construction cost is $2 million per MW, among the lowest globally for nuclear power.' The $5 million per MW figure is associated with unproven foreign designs.
What is a primary reason cited in the article for nuclear power being considered essential for India's 'net-zero by 2070' goal, despite the push for renewables?
- A.Nuclear power is cheaper than all forms of renewable energy.
- B.Renewable sources like solar and wind cannot be integrated into the grid.
- C.Nuclear power provides reliable baseload power, unlike intermittent renewables.✓ Correct Answer
- D.India has exhausted its potential for further renewable energy expansion.
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Explanation
The article explains that thermal and nuclear sources provide steady baseload power, while renewable generation depends on time of day and season. For large-scale reliable electricity to meet development goals while reducing fossil fuels, nuclear is presented as the preferred baseload option.
The World Trade Organization's Ministerial Conferences are its highest decision-making body. In which country was the 14th Ministerial Conference (MC14) held?
- A.Switzerland
- B.United Arab Emirates
- C.Cameroon✓ Correct Answer
- D.Indonesia
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the WTO's fourteenth Ministerial Conference (MC14) recently concluded in Yaoundé, Cameroon, in March 2026.
Consider the following statements regarding outcomes of the WTO's 14th Ministerial Conference (MC14):
1. The moratorium on imposing customs duties on electronic transactions, in place since 1998, was successfully extended.
2. A plurilateral Investment Facilitation for Development (IFD) Agreement was incorporated into the WTO rulebook with consensus.
3. The conference failed to reach a consensus on issuing a ministerial declaration outlining future work.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the e-commerce moratorium lapsed on March 31, 2026, and was not extended. Statement 2 is incorrect as the IFD Agreement was blocked by India and did not get incorporated. Statement 3 is correct as the article clearly states the WTO failed to reach consensus on even issuing a ministerial declaration.
Since which year had the WTO moratorium on customs duties for electronic commerce transactions been in place before it lapsed in March 2026?
- A.1995
- B.1998✓ Correct Answer
- C.2001
- D.2005
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Explanation
The article states: 'Since 1998, WTO member-countries agreed not to impose customs duties on electronic commerce transactions...'. This moratorium was extended every two years until it lapsed at MC14.
What was a primary reason cited in the article for India's opposition to incorporating the plurilateral Investment Facilitation for Development (IFD) Agreement into the WTO?
- A.Lack of support from developed countries like the United States.
- B.Concerns over its impact on agricultural subsidies.
- C.Absence of legal safeguards for incorporating such agreements into the WTO framework.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The agreement mandated excessive tariff reductions on industrial goods.
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that New Delhi opposed the IFD's inclusion for multiple reasons, 'including the absence of legal safeguards to incorporate plurilateral agreements into the WTO acquis.' It also mentioned concerns about such agreements needing to be open and inclusive.
Which statutory committee of the RBI is responsible for deciding the benchmark policy interest rate?
- A.Board for Financial Supervision (BFS)
- B.Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Committee on Financial Sector Reforms
- D.Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC)
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Explanation
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a statutory committee constituted under the RBI Act, 1934. Its primary objective is to fix the benchmark policy interest rate (repo rate) to maintain price stability. The other bodies listed are involved in different regulatory and supervisory functions.
Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's April 2026 monetary policy review:
1. The MPC decided to keep the repo rate unchanged at 5.25%.
2. The RBI revised its FY27 inflation forecast downward to 4.0%.
3. A key risk factor cited for inflation was crude oil prices remaining above $100 per barrel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article states the MPC held the repo rate unchanged at 5.25%. Statement 2 is incorrect: the RBI revised its FY27 inflation forecast upward to 4.6%, not downward to 4.0%. Statement 3 is correct: analysts highlighted oil prices above $100/barrel as a key risk.
According to the article, what is the revised GDP growth forecast for India for FY27 as per DBS Bank?
- A.6.0%
- B.6.5%✓ Correct Answer
- C.7.0%
- D.7.5%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that DBS Bank has trimmed its real GDP growth forecast for FY27 to 6.5% from the previous forecast of 7.0%. The other options are close distractors based on other figures mentioned, like the earlier 7.0% forecast or the RBI's FY26 forecast of 7.4%.
What is a primary reason cited in the article for the RBI MPC's decision to maintain the policy rate instead of changing it?
- A.To aggressively combat a surge in domestic demand-driven inflation.
- B.To provide immediate relief to borrowers by reducing their EMIs.
- C.Because the current inflationary shock is seen as primarily supply-driven and transient.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To align with a global trend of central banks cutting interest rates.
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Explanation
The article quotes an economist stating, "With this shock being primarily supply-driven and likely transient, monetary policy might be a blunt and potentially ineffective tool in the short term." This is the core rationale for holding rates. The other options are incorrect: the shock is external, not demand-driven; rates were held, not cut for EMI relief; and global central banks were preparing for inflation impact, not cutting rates.
Which constitutional body is responsible for preparing and revising the electoral rolls, as directed by the Supreme Court in the news?
- A.Law Commission of India
- B.Election Commission of India✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Human Rights Commission
- D.Delimitation Commission
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Explanation
The Election Commission of India (ECI) is the permanent constitutional body established under Article 324. It is vested with the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of elections.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The death sentence in the Sattankulam case was awarded by the Madras High Court.
2. The Supreme Court directed the Election Commission to publish a supplementary electoral roll for West Bengal by April 6, 2026.
3. The Strait of Hormuz is a strategic waterway connecting the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The death sentence was awarded by the First Additional District and Sessions Court in Madurai, not the Madras High Court. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: The SC directed the ECI to publish the supplementary roll by April 6, 2026. Statement 3 is correct: The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman.
According to the news, what is the cumulative alleged bank fraud amount being probed by the CBI in cases against the Anil Ambani Group?
- A.₹5,300 crore
- B.₹14,535 crore
- C.₹73,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹1,00,000 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the CBI is probing bank loan frauds cumulatively worth ₹73,000 crore in seven cases against the Reliance Anil Ambani Group. ₹14,535 crore is the value of Adani's bid for JAL, mentioned in a separate news item.
The Supreme Court's direction to the Election Commission regarding Bengal's supplementary electoral rolls primarily aims to ensure which of the following?
- A.Speedy disposal of election petitions
- B.Integrity and inclusivity of the voter list✓ Correct Answer
- C.Introduction of a new voting technology
- D.Regulation of political party finances
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Explanation
The Supreme Court's direction to add 'verified names' to the supplementary roll by a deadline is fundamentally aimed at ensuring the accuracy (integrity) and completeness (inclusivity) of the electoral roll. This upholds the principle of universal adult suffrage and free & fair elections under Article 326.
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) that decides the repo rate is headed by which official?
- A.Finance Secretary
- B.Chief Economic Advisor
- C.Governor of the Reserve Bank of India✓ Correct Answer
- D.Chairman of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
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Explanation
As per the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is headed by the Governor of the RBI. The article explicitly mentions 'the six-member Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), headed by Reserve Bank Governor Sanjay Malhotra'.
Consider the following statements regarding the inflation-targeting framework mentioned in the news:
1. The framework mandates the RBI to maintain retail inflation at 4% with a margin of 2% on either side.
2. This inflation-targeting framework was first adopted in India in the year 2016.
3. The current validity of this inflation target extends until the end of the financial year 2030-31.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states 'the government has asked the Reserve Bank to maintain retail inflation at 4 per cent with a margin of 2% on either side'. Statement 2 is incorrect: While the article says India adopted the framework in 2016, it does not state it was 'first' adopted then; it implies it was adopted then. Statement 3 is correct: The article says the target is for 'another five years ending March 2031', which aligns with FY 2030-31.
According to the news article, by how much has the Indian rupee depreciated since the start of the conflict in West Asia?
- A.Over 2%
- B.Over 3%
- C.Over 4%✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over 5%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Additionally, the rupee has depreciated by over 4% since the war...'. The other options (2%, 3%, 5%) are close distractors but not the exact figure mentioned.
What is the primary reason cited in the news for the RBI MPC likely maintaining a status quo on the repo rate in its upcoming review?
- A.To boost economic growth through aggressive monetary easing
- B.To counteract the deflationary pressures in the domestic economy
- C.To manage upside risks to inflation from volatile global crude oil prices and geopolitical tensions✓ Correct Answer
- D.To align with the monetary policy stance of major central banks like the US Federal Reserve
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that 'the recent surge in global crude oil prices has raised concerns about potential second-round effects on domestic prices' and that 'the tone of the policy is expected to remain cautious...highlighting upside risks to inflation from volatile crude oil prices and geopolitical tensions.' The other options are either opposite to the article's context (aggressive easing) or not the primary reason mentioned.
Which of the following Acts, mentioned in the Supreme Court's judgment, was specifically enacted to combat the practice of dowry?
- A.The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005
- B.The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
- D.The Indian Penal Code, 1860
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Explanation
The Supreme Court judgment explicitly referred to the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, as an early legislative measure enacted to combat the entrenched practice of dowry. The other Acts, while related to women's rights, were not specifically mentioned in the article as anti-dowry laws.
Consider the following statements regarding the observations made by the Supreme Court in its recent judgment:
1. The Court upheld a conviction based on the victim's dying declaration recorded in 2012.
2. The Court noted that legal reforms have successfully dismantled the social legitimacy of practices like dowry.
3. The Court cited official data indicating over 4.48 lakh crimes against women were recorded in the year 2023.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the conviction was upheld relying on the dying declaration recorded on October 15, 2012. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court explicitly lamented that the 'social legitimacy that sustains [dowry] is yet to be dismantled'. Statement 3 is correct as the Court cited official data of over 4.48 lakh crimes against women in 2023.
According to the Supreme Court judgment discussed in the article, how many crimes against women were recorded in India in the year 2023?
- A.Over 3.5 lakh
- B.Over 4.00 lakh
- C.Over 4.48 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over 5.00 lakh
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Explanation
The Supreme Court judgment, citing official data, noted that 'more than 4.48 lakh crimes against women were recorded in 2023 alone'. The other options are plausible distractors but the exact figure from the article is over 4.48 lakh.
What was the central paradox identified by the Supreme Court regarding gender justice in India?
- A.The paradox of increasing female literacy but decreasing workforce participation.
- B.The paradox of legal and economic progress on a macro-level coexisting with persistent everyday patriarchy.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The paradox of high conviction rates in dowry cases but low reporting of domestic violence.
- D.The paradox of extensive welfare schemes but poor implementation on the ground.
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Explanation
The article explicitly quotes the Court's observation: 'The coexistence of progress and violence signals a paradox. Legal and economic advancements are visible on a macro-level, but patriarchy still permeates the everyday.' This is the core paradox discussed. The other options, while relevant to gender issues, are not the central paradox highlighted in the judgment.
Which article of the United Nations Charter, invoked by Bahrain in the news, recognizes the right of self-defense?
- A.Article 39
- B.Article 41
- C.Article 51✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 99
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Explanation
Article 51 of the United Nations Charter recognizes the inherent right of individual or collective self-defense if an armed attack occurs against a Member of the United Nations. Bahrain invoked this article in its UNSC resolution against Iran, as mentioned in the article.
Consider the following statements regarding UNSC Resolution 2817 (2026) mentioned in the news:
1. It was formally adopted by the UN Security Council on March 11, 2026.
2. It was co-sponsored by 136 countries, including all permanent members of the Security Council.
3. The resolution was presented on behalf of the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) and Jordan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the resolution was 'formally adopted as Resolution 2817 (2026) on March 11'. Statement 2 is incorrect because while 136 countries co-sponsored it, China and Russia (both P5 members) abstained; they did not co-sponsor it. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions it was 'presented on behalf of the entire GCC...and Jordan'. Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
According to the news, how many countries co-sponsored the UNSC Resolution 2817 led by Bahrain against Iran?
- A.102
- B.115
- C.136✓ Correct Answer
- D.150
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the resolution 'was co-sponsored by 136 countries, as stated by Bahrain's Permanent Representative to the UN, Jamal Fares Alrowaiei.' The other options are close distractors.
What is the primary strategic significance of Bahrain leading the UNSC diplomatic charge against Iran, as per the analysis in the news article?
- A.It demonstrates Bahrain's military superiority in the Gulf region.
- B.It represents a calculated division of labour within the GCC to present a unified diplomatic front.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It signals Bahrain's intention to leave the Gulf Cooperation Council.
- D.It shows that Saudi Arabia and the UAE have withdrawn their support for containing Iran.
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Explanation
The article explains that Bahrain's emergence as the 'diplomatic vanguard' is 'the result of a calculated division of labour within the GCC.' By letting Bahrain lead, the GCC aims to put up a unified front emphasizing international law, while larger members like Saudi Arabia and UAE exercise restraint to avoid total war. The other options are not supported by the article's analysis.
Which public sector undertaking is responsible for building and operating India's Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) at Kalpakkam?
- A.Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL)
- B.Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Ltd (BHAVINI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Indian Rare Earths Limited (IREL)
- D.Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL)
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Explanation
The article states that BHAVINI was incorporated in 2003 to build and operate India's most advanced nuclear reactor, the PFBR. NPCIL operates PHWRs, IREL handles rare earth minerals including thorium, and BHEL is an engineering conglomerate.
Consider the following statements regarding India's three-stage nuclear programme:
1. The first stage involves setting up Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) that use natural uranium as fuel.
2. The Fast Breeder Reactor (FBR) at Kalpakkam is the final third stage aimed at directly utilizing thorium reserves.
3. The FBR will initially use Uranium-Plutonium Mixed Oxide (MOX) fuel to breed more fissile material.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the FBR is the vital second stage, not the final third stage. The third stage involves reactors using the fuel bred in Stage 2 to utilize thorium. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the FBR will initially use MOX fuel.
What is the designed electrical generation capacity of the indigenous Fast Breeder Reactor that attained criticality at Kalpakkam?
- A.200 MWe
- B.350 MWe
- C.500 MWe✓ Correct Answer
- D.700 MWe
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the FBR at Kalpakkam has a capacity of 500-megawatt electric (MWe). The other options are plausible distractors for other reactor types or capacities in India's nuclear fleet.
What is the primary strategic significance of successfully developing and operating Fast Breeder Reactors in India's nuclear programme?
- A.To immediately replace all existing coal-based thermal power plants.
- B.To create fuel for the third stage that will utilize India's abundant thorium reserves.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To enable India to export large quantities of uranium to other countries.
- D.To reduce the construction time for all future Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors.
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Explanation
As per the article, the FBR is the vital second stage that envisages a pathway to utilizing India's abundant thorium reserves. It breeds plutonium, which is essential as a fissile material driver for the thorium-based reactors of the third stage, ensuring long-term energy security.
Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the BASIC bloc mentioned in the article?
- A.Brazil
- B.South Africa
- C.India
- D.Russia✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The BASIC bloc, formed during climate change negotiations, comprises Brazil, South Africa, India, and China. Russia is not a member of this specific grouping.
Consider the following statements regarding China's energy security strategies:
1. China has developed a strategic petroleum reserve (SPR) providing a buffer of 120 days.
2. Over 50% of China's crude oil imports are now sourced via pipelines from Russia and Central Asia.
3. China's push for electric vehicles resulted in them constituting half of all car sales in the country in 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Only 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct (120-day SPR). Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states nearly 20% (not over 50%) of crude imports come via pipelines. Statement 3 is correct (50% EV sales in 2025).
According to the article, what is the approximate daily volume of crude oil China imports from Russia via pipelines?
- A.500,000 barrels per day
- B.700,000 barrels per day
- C.900,000 barrels per day✓ Correct Answer
- D.1.1 million barrels per day
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that China imports an estimated 900,000 barrels per day from Russia through pipelines. The other options are close but incorrect figures.
What was a primary strategic objective behind China's development of overland oil and gas pipelines from Central Asia and Russia?
- A.To reduce the cost of energy imports compared to sea routes.
- B.To bypass the geopolitical vulnerability associated with the Strait of Malacca.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To foster stronger military alliances with neighboring countries.
- D.To comply with environmental protocols for reducing maritime pollution.
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Explanation
The article links pipeline development directly to addressing the 'Malacca Dilemma'—reducing dependence on the Strait of Malacca, which is a strategic chokepoint with a significant US naval presence.
Project Maven is an artificial intelligence programme associated with which country's defense establishment?
- A.United Kingdom
- B.United States of America✓ Correct Answer
- C.Israel
- D.Russia
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Explanation
The article clearly states that Project Maven is a 'Pentagon AI programme'. The Pentagon is the headquarters of the U.S. Department of Defense, making it a programme of the United States.
Consider the following statements regarding Project Maven:
1. It was launched in 2017 initially to help analyze drone footage.
2. Google continues to be its primary AI technology contractor.
3. The system is described as compressing the military 'kill chain' from hours to seconds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: launched in 2017 to help analysts with drone footage. Statement 2 is incorrect; Google withdrew in 2018, and Palantir is now the primary contractor. Statement 3 is correct as the article states it 'has vastly accelerated... the kill chain' and Palantir's CEO said it compresses it 'from hours to seconds'.
According to the Center for Strategic and International Studies (CSIS) report mentioned in the article, what was the approximate daily pace of U.S. strikes after three weeks of the campaign?
- A.100-200 targets
- B.200-300 targets
- C.300-500 targets✓ Correct Answer
- D.500-700 targets
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'According to the Center for Strategic and International Studies, after three weeks the US strike campaign settled into a pace of between 300 and 500 targets per day.'
What was the primary ethical concern that led Google to withdraw from Project Maven in 2018?
- A.Concerns over data privacy of U.S. citizens
- B.Protests against the high financial cost of the project
- C.Objections to the potential use of AI for autonomous targeting in warfare✓ Correct Answer
- D.Disputes over intellectual property rights with the Pentagon
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Explanation
The article states that Google employees protested, 'arguing that the contract crossed a line' and that the episode 'exposed a fault line... between engineers who viewed autonomous targeting as an ethical red line and defence officials'. This directly points to ethical objections over autonomous warfare as the core reason.
Which organization implemented the total oil embargo against Western nations following the Yom Kippur War in 1973, as mentioned in the article?
- A.Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
- B.International Energy Agency (IEA)
- C.Organization of Arab Petroleum Exporting Countries (OAPEC)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Gas Exporting Countries Forum (GECF)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Organization of Arab Petroleum Exporting Countries (OAPEC) implemented a total oil embargo against Western nations that had supported Israel after the Yom Kippur War. OPEC is a broader organization, while OAPEC is specifically Arab-led.
Consider the following statements regarding stagflation:
1. It is characterized by the coexistence of high inflation and stagnant economic growth.
2. The term was coined by economist John Maynard Keynes.
3. Traditional fiscal and monetary policy tools are highly effective in managing stagflation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's definition. Statement 2 is incorrect; the term was coined by British Conservative Party politician Iain Macleod, not Keynes. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article clearly states traditional demand-side tools are ineffective against stagflation, a supply-side phenomenon.
According to the article, what was the approximate peak price of Brent crude touched on March 7, 2022, during the Russia-Ukraine war crisis?
- A.$100.13 per barrel
- B.$119.13 per barrel
- C.$139.13 per barrel✓ Correct Answer
- D.$159.13 per barrel
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Explanation
The article mentions that Brent crude touched a 14-year-high of $139.13 per barrel on March 7, 2022, during the Russia-Ukraine war crisis. This is presented as a data point contrasting the 2022 price shock with the potential 2026 supply shock.
According to the analysis in the article, why is the current US-Israel vs Iran conflict considered a more pernicious economic shock than the 2022 Russia-Ukraine war?
- A.It involves more countries directly in the conflict.
- B.It is solely a price shock, making it easier to manage.
- C.It is both a price shock and a supply shock, threatening the physical availability of energy.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It has led to a immediate global recession.
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Explanation
The article quotes Sajjid Z Chinoy stating the 2022 crisis was largely an oil price shock. In contrast, the current crisis is described as both a price and a supply shock, making it more dangerous because the availability of energy itself (like gas or LPG) is threatened, risking sudden industrial stoppages.
The Plastic Waste Management Rules in India fall under the regulatory purview of which ministry?
- A.Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers
- B.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
- D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
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Explanation
Environmental protection, waste management, and pollution control are core functions of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). This ministry formulates and notifies rules like the Plastic Waste Management Rules.
Consider the following statements regarding the Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules, 2026:
1. They mandate that rigid plastic packaging must contain at least 30% recycled material.
2. They allow companies to carry forward unmet collection targets from 2025-26 for up to two years.
3. The Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) regime for plastic waste in India came into force in 2022.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the carry-forward period is up to three years, not two. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the EPR regime came into force in 2022.
According to the article, what is the government's own estimate of the current plastic waste collection rate under the EPR regime?
- A.30-40%
- B.50-60%✓ Correct Answer
- C.70-80%
- D.90-100%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that by the government's own responses to Parliament, the collection rate hovers from 50%-60%. This is a key data point highlighting the implementation gap.
What is a critical concern raised in the article regarding the 2026 amendment's carry-forward provision for compliance shortfalls?
- A.It will increase the cost of compliance for small companies.
- B.It may allow the 2025-26 collection target to be met as late as 2028-29.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It conflicts with international treaties on plastic pollution.
- D.It removes the role of local municipal bodies in waste collection.
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Explanation
The article explains that the provision allowing companies to carry forward shortfalls for three years means the 2025-26 target can effectively be met in 2028-29. This 'elasticity' in deadlines is identified as a major concern that could undermine policy goals.
The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2026, which recognised Amaravati as the state capital, is an amendment to which original Parliamentary Act?
- A.The States Reorganisation Act, 1956
- B.The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Telangana Formation Act, 2014
- D.The Capital City Development Act, 2015
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the recently passed law is the 'Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill', indicating it amends the original 2014 Act that bifurcated the state. The other acts are not mentioned in the context.
Consider the following statements regarding the development of Amaravati as the capital of Andhra Pradesh:
1. The land for the capital was acquired using a Land Pooling Scheme (LPS).
2. The YSR Congress Party government initially proposed and developed the Amaravati capital project.
3. Agricultural labourers affected by the project were provided an initial monthly assistance of ₹2,500.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article mentions the process was 'routed through the Land Pooling Scheme (LPS)'. Statement 2 is incorrect: It was Chief Minister N. Chandrababu Naidu (TDP) who 'broke ground for Amaravati' in 2015; the YSRCP government later proposed a three-capital model. Statement 3 is correct: The article states agricultural labourers received 'initially ₹2,500' as monthly assistance.
According to the article, what was the total area of fertile farmland along the Krishna river envisaged to be consolidated for the Amaravati capital city?
- A.150 square kilometres
- B.200 square kilometres
- C.217 square kilometres✓ Correct Answer
- D.250 square kilometres
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Explanation
The article provides the specific data point: 'About 217 square kilometres of fertile farmland along the Krishna river were envisaged to be consolidated for a capital city'. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.
What is identified as a crucial challenge for the Andhra Pradesh government following the legal recognition of Amaravati as the capital?
- A.Managing the political rivalry between the TDP and the BJP at the central level.
- B.Ensuring that historically underdeveloped regions of the state are not sidelined in the development process.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Shifting all government offices from Hyderabad to Amaravati within a six-month deadline.
- D.Raising state taxes to fully fund the capital's infrastructure without central loans.
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Explanation
The article's concluding argument emphasizes 'balance', stating 'the State must ensure that historically underdeveloped regions are not sidelined.' This is presented as the key challenge. The other options involve elements not highlighted as the primary challenge in the article.
Which ministry is responsible for notifying and amending the Information Technology Rules?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Law and Justice
- D.Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) issued the IT Rules and proposed further amendments. This ministry is the nodal body for IT policy in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the Information Technology Rules, 2021:
1. They were notified through an executive order on February 25, 2021.
2. Amendments in February 2026 compressed the timeline for content takedown to 72 hours.
3. The Sahyog portal allows more than 35 state police officers to order content takedowns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Only 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the February 2026 amendments compressed the timeline to 3 hours, not 72 hours. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions 'more than 35 state police officers' can order takedowns via the Sahyog portal.
According to the article, to how many hours was the timeline for content takedown compressed by the February 2026 amendments to the IT Rules?
- A.24 hours
- B.12 hours
- C.6 hours
- D.3 hours✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article clearly states that amendments on February 10 (2026) compressed take-down timelines to three hours. This is a factual data point directly mentioned in the news.
What is a primary concern raised in the article regarding the proposed amendments to the IT Rules announced in March 2026?
- A.They will increase the cost of internet services for end-users.
- B.They aim to expand censorship powers to individual social media users commenting on current affairs.✓ Correct Answer
- C.They will mandate the use of specific Indian-made software for all government websites.
- D.They propose to ban all foreign social media platforms from operating in India.
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the March 30, 2026, amendments proposed by MeitY include 'expanding the censorship powers over digital news media platforms to any social media user who comments on current affairs and politics.' This is highlighted as a dangerous expansion of regulatory scope.
The article mentions the 'Strait of Hormuz'. Which body of water does this strait connect?
- A.The Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman✓ Correct Answer
- B.The Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden
- C.The Mediterranean Sea and the Black Sea
- D.The South China Sea and the Java Sea
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Explanation
The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow channel connecting the Persian Gulf (where major oil producers like Saudi Arabia, Iran are located) to the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea. It is a critical global oil transit chokepoint.
Consider the following statements regarding the arguments made in the article:
1. Fossil fuel dependency increases a nation's vulnerability to geopolitical shocks, affecting food prices and household budgets.
2. The International Energy Agency (IEA) has termed the current situation as the 'greatest global energy security threat in history'.
3. Over $2 trillion was invested in fossil fuels globally last year, which was twice the investment in clean energy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's argument that fossil fuel dependency rips away sovereignty and puts economies at the mercy of geopolitical shocks. Statement 2 is correct as it quotes the IEA assessment verbatim. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states over $2 trillion flowed into clean energy last year, which was twice as much as fossil fuels, not the other way around.
According to the article, what percentage of Asia's oil is imported through the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.20%
- B.30%
- C.40%✓ Correct Answer
- D.50%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Asia imports 40 per cent of its oil through the strait of Hormuz. This fact highlights the region's strategic vulnerability to disruptions in this maritime passage.
What is presented in the article as the primary dual benefit of accelerating the shift to clean energy systems?
- A.Increasing government tax revenue and reducing fiscal deficits
- B.Solving both the climate crisis and the fossil fuel cost/security crisis✓ Correct Answer
- C.Promoting technological innovation and creating high-skilled jobs exclusively in developed nations
- D.Reducing international trade deficits and boosting exports of renewable technology
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Explanation
The article's central thesis is that accelerating clean energy adoption addresses two major problems simultaneously: mitigating climate change and insulating economies from the price volatility and geopolitical risks associated with fossil fuel dependency. The other options are potential secondary benefits but not the primary dual solution emphasized.
The FAO Food Price Index, discussed in the article, is published by which international organization?
- A.World Trade Organization (WTO)
- B.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
- C.Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)✓ Correct Answer
- D.World Bank
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Explanation
The FAO Food Price Index is a monthly report released by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), a specialized agency of the United Nations focused on defeating hunger. The article directly references the 'FAO Food Price Index'.
Consider the following statements regarding the news analysis:
1. The FAO Food Price Index recorded a significant year-on-year increase in March 2026, closely tracking the spike in Brent crude oil prices.
2. A major reason for the increase in prices of imported edible oils like palm oil is their diversion for biofuel production due to high energy prices.
3. Indonesia, the world's largest palm oil producer, has a mandatory 40% biofuel blend program and plans to launch B50 from July 1.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states the FAO index was 'barely one per cent up', while Brent crude spiked 58%, indicating they are NOT closely tracking. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's analysis on biofuel linkage. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned in the article.
According to the article, what was the approximate landed price range (per tonne) for imported crude palm, soyabean, and sunflower oil in March 2026?
- A.$900-$1,100
- B.$1,100-$1,200
- C.$1,300-$1,450✓ Correct Answer
- D.$1,500-$1,600
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Landed prices of imported crude palm, soyabean and sunflower oil, at about $1,300, $1,400 and $1,450 per tonne, are higher than their corresponding year-ago range of $1,100-1,200.' Option B is the year-ago price, which is a close distractor.
What is the primary concern, as per the article, if the current energy shock persists for Indian agriculture?
- A.Immediate shortage of food grains in retail markets
- B.Increased cost and threatened availability of fertilizers and agrochemicals✓ Correct Answer
- C.A sudden shift of farmers from food crops to oilseed cultivation
- D.Mandatory rationing of diesel for agricultural pump sets
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Explanation
The article highlights that this is a 'full-fledged energy shock' affecting 'fertilisers and intermediates for crop protection chemicals'. It states availability is a concern for the upcoming planting season and that comfortable grain stocks 'may not be so down the line if farmers aren’t able to meet the agrochemical requirements'. Other options are not the primary concern discussed.
Which Indian law has been used to designate the Canada-based terrorists named in the Punjab Police dossier?
- A.The National Security Act, 1980
- B.The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002
- D.The Official Secrets Act, 1923
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that prominent Canada-based figures like Lakhbir Singh Sandhu are 'designated terrorists under India’s Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA).' UAPA is the primary anti-terror law in India for such designations.
Consider the following statements regarding the Punjab Police dossier on Canada-based terror networks:
1. The dossier details how extortion funds are routed via hawala to procure weapons like RPGs and IEDs smuggled from Pakistan.
2. It states that India's extradition requests and Mutual Legal Assistance Treaty (MLAT) requests to Canada have all been successfully acted upon.
3. The dossier identifies Canada as a 'proxy operational base' and 'communication control room' for networks with links to Pakistan's Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The dossier states 'extortion funds are routed via hawala to procure weapons like RPGs, IEDs, and firearms smuggled from Pakistan.' Statement 2 is incorrect: It says extradition and MLAT requests 'remain unresolved' and 'have not resulted in arrests.' Statement 3 is correct: It exposes Canada as a 'proxy operational base' and 'communication control room' with ISI links.
According to the Punjab Police dossier, how many extortion cases were reported in Surrey, Canada, in the year 2024?
- A.35 cases
- B.44 cases✓ Correct Answer
- C.27 cases
- D.18 cases
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Explanation
The article states: 'Surrey declaring an emergency in January 2026 after 44 cases in 2024 (including 27 shootings).' The 27 shootings are a subset of the total 44 cases. Options A, C, and D are figures mentioned for other contexts (35 cases by mid-January 2026, 27 shootings within the 44, and 18 incidents in Edmonton).
What is the primary concern highlighted by the Punjab Police dossier regarding Canada's role in the terror networks?
- A.Canada's direct funding of separatist movements in Punjab.
- B.Canada serving as a 'proxy operational base' and safe haven due to jurisdictional and legal gaps.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Canada's refusal to accept Indian students and professionals.
- D.Canada's imposition of trade sanctions on India.
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Explanation
The dossier's core finding is that criminal-terror networks are 'exploiting Canada as a “proxy operational base”' and that 'the gap between the gravity of documented criminal and terrorist activities and the limited progress on enforcement actions has created conditions in which such operatives continue to function without legal consequences.' It focuses on exploitation of legal frameworks, not direct state funding (A), immigration (C), or trade (D).
As per the Indian Constitution, 'Public Health' is primarily a subject under which list?
- A.Union List
- B.State List✓ Correct Answer
- C.Concurrent List
- D.Residuary Powers
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Explanation
Public Health and Sanitation is listed as Entry 6 in the State List (List II) of the Seventh Schedule. This constitutional division explains why the efficacy of central health programmes depends heavily on state administrative capacity, as mentioned in the article.
Consider the following statements regarding the findings of the Lancet report on India's maternal health:
1. Maternal mortality in 2023 was nearly one-fifth of the 1990 level.
2. The steepest decline occurred in the period after 2015.
3. India accounts for one in every five maternal deaths globally.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the steepest decline occurred in the first decade and a half of this century, and progress has slowed since 2015. Statement 3 is incorrect; India accounts for one in ten (not five) maternal deaths globally.
What is the Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) target for maternal mortality, as highlighted in the Lancet report?
- A.50 deaths per lakh births by 2030
- B.70 deaths per lakh births by 2030✓ Correct Answer
- C.90 deaths per lakh births by 2030
- D.100 deaths per lakh births by 2030
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the SDG target is reducing maternal mortality to 70 deaths per lakh births by 2030. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
According to the Lancet report's analysis, what is the essential strategic shift required to address India's maternal health challenges?
- A.A sole focus on expanding healthcare infrastructure in urban areas.
- B.A shift from ensuring access to improving the quality of care and addressing social determinants.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Privatizing maternal healthcare services to improve efficiency.
- D.Reducing the number of institutional deliveries to lower costs.
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Explanation
The article's core argument is that policies focused solely on expanding infrastructure will fall short. It calls for a comprehensive strategy combining improved healthcare quality with action on social determinants like women's nutrition and agency.
The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB), which published the 2023 crime data cited in the article, functions under which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Law and Justice
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
- D.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
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Explanation
As mentioned in the static GK linkage, the NCRB is an agency responsible for crime data collection and analysis and functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
Consider the following statements regarding the issues discussed in the article:
1. The article cites NCRB 2023 data showing conviction rates for murder and rioting are above 50%.
2. The Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPRD) has flagged that police vacancies are less than 10%, which is adequate for effective policing.
3. The author argues that social media should be used by police for community engagement and awareness about cybercrime, rather than for humiliating accused persons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the article states conviction rates are 37.7% for murder and 17.4% for rioting, both well below 50%. Statement 2 is incorrect as the article mentions BPRD flagged vacancies of 'more than 20%', not less than 10%. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's conclusion that social media should be used constructively for awareness and engagement.
According to the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) data cited in the article, what was the conviction rate for cases of 'causing hurt' (including acid attacks) in 2023?
- A.29.5%
- B.36.2%✓ Correct Answer
- C.42.8%
- D.17.4%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "Conviction rates stand at approximately 37.7 per cent in murder cases, 36.2 per cent in cases of causing hurt (including acid attacks), and a mere 17.4 per cent for rioting." Therefore, 36.2% is the correct figure.
What is the primary concern raised by the author regarding police using social media reels to publicly humiliate accused persons, as reported from Nashik?
- A.It increases the operational costs of police departments.
- B.It undermines due process and the rule of law, risking judicial scrutiny.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It leads to a decrease in social media followers for the police force.
- D.It violates the Information Technology Act, 2000 provisions on content moderation.
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Explanation
The article's core argument is that such actions, even if well-intentioned, are superficial responses that raise serious concerns about due process and the rule of law, exposing the police to potential judicial scrutiny. The other options are not the primary concerns highlighted.
Under which Ministry does the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) function?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of Law and Justice
- C.Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The CBI functions under the Department of Personnel & Training (DoPT) of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions. This is a key static fact relevant to its administrative control.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's order mentioned in the news:
1. The CBI was directed to commence a preliminary inquiry into public contracts awarded in Arunachal Pradesh from 2015 to 2025.
2. The Court ordered the CBI to submit its final investigation report within the next 8 weeks.
3. The Bench also directed the State Chief Secretary to designate a nodal officer to coordinate with the CBI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court directed a 'comprehensive status report' within 16 weeks, not a 'final investigation report' in 8 weeks. Statement 3 is correct as the Bench directed the Chief Secretary to designate a nodal officer within one week.
What is the total alleged value of public contracts under scrutiny in the Supreme Court-ordered CBI inquiry into Arunachal Pradesh?
- A.₹950 crore
- B.₹1,270 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹1,500 crore
- D.₹2,000 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the allegations involve public contracts worth ₹1,270 crore awarded over ten years from January 2015 to December 2025. The other figures are distractors.
What is the primary purpose of the 'preliminary inquiry' ordered by the Supreme Court in this case, as clarified by the Court?
- A.To establish the guilt of the accused and recommend punishment.
- B.To independently examine the veracity of the allegations without prejudicing anyone.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To bypass the state government and directly impose central rule.
- D.To settle a political dispute between the ruling party and the opposition.
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Explanation
The Court clarified that the purpose of the preliminary inquiry was 'to independently look into the veracity of the allegations, and should not be construed as a comment on the merits of the case and prejudice anyone.' This defines its scope as a fact-finding step, not a conclusive judgment.
Which country is acting as the sole mediator and communication channel in the proposed ceasefire talks between Iran and the US, as per the article?
- A.Turkey
- B.Egypt
- C.Pakistan✓ Correct Answer
- D.China
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Pakistan is the sole communication channel in the talks and that its Army chief and Foreign Office are involved in the mediation process.
Consider the following statements regarding the ceasefire proposal discussed in the article:
1. The proposal outlines a two-tier approach with an immediate ceasefire followed by a comprehensive agreement.
2. Iran is open to accepting a "temporary ceasefire" in exchange for reopening the Strait of Hormuz.
3. The tentative name for the proposed deal is the "Islamabad Accord."
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the source mentions a framework with an immediate ceasefire followed by a comprehensive agreement. Statement 2 is incorrect; a senior Iranian official told Reuters that Iran won't reopen the Strait of Hormuz for a "temporary ceasefire." Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the deal is tentatively dubbed the "Islamabad Accord."
As per the article, what is the tentative duration of the ceasefire being discussed as part of the two-phase deal?
- A.30-day ceasefire
- B.45-day ceasefire✓ Correct Answer
- C.60-day ceasefire
- D.90-day ceasefire
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Explanation
Axios reported that the United States, Iran and regional mediators were discussing a potential 45-day ceasefire as part of a two-phase deal. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is a primary strategic concern driving the urgent diplomatic push for a ceasefire, as highlighted in the article?
- A.To prevent a nuclear arms race in the Middle East
- B.To ensure the security of shipping through the Strait of Hormuz✓ Correct Answer
- C.To facilitate the release of frozen Iranian assets
- D.To address humanitarian crises in Gaza and Lebanon
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Explanation
The article states the diplomatic push comes amid escalating hostilities that have raised concerns over disruption to shipping through the Strait of Hormuz, a critical artery for global oil supplies. While other options are related elements, the immediate concern highlighted is the security of this strategic waterway.
Which South Korean intelligence agency provided the closed-door briefing about North Korea's missile test?
- A.Defense Security Command (DSC)
- B.National Intelligence Service (NIS)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Korean Central Intelligence Agency (KCIA)
- D.Agency for National Security Planning (ANSP)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the briefing was provided by the National Intelligence Service (NIS), which is South Korea's main spy agency. The other options are either historical names or different security bodies not mentioned in the article.
Consider the following statements regarding North Korea's recent missile development:
1. It involves testing a solid-fuel rocket engine intended for a new Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM).
2. The new ICBM uses a carbon-fibre airframe to reduce weight and allow for multiple warheads.
3. The engine tested in March 2026 has lesser thrust than the model tested in 2024.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article which states the test is for an ICBM. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the carbon-fibre airframe for multi-warhead delivery. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article says the new engine likely has greater thrust than the 2024 model.
According to the news, on which specific date in March 2026 did North Korean leader Kim Jong Un oversee the engine test?
- A.March 15, 2026
- B.March 22, 2026
- C.March 28, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- D.March 30, 2026
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Explanation
The article provides the specific date: 'North Korean leader Kim Jong Un was on hand for the March 28 test'. The other dates are plausible distractors but are not mentioned.
What is a primary strategic advantage of using carbon-fibre in an Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM), as indicated in the news?
- A.It makes the missile completely undetectable by radar.
- B.It significantly reduces the cost of missile production.
- C.It is lightweight yet strong, allowing for extended range or heavier payloads like multiple warheads.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It enables the missile to be launched from underwater submarines.
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Explanation
The article directly states that carbon-fibre is 'lightweight while strong, allowing the projectile to carry multiple warheads'. This describes the core advantage of the material for increasing payload capacity or range. The other options describe potential advantages of other technologies not mentioned in this context.
Which Indian ministry is primarily responsible for conducting the diplomatic talks mentioned in the news?
- A.Ministry of Defence
- B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
- D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
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Explanation
The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA), headed by the External Affairs Minister (EAM), is responsible for India's foreign relations and diplomacy, including the talks with Qatar and the UAE.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar held talks with the leaders of Qatar and the UAE in April 2026.
2. The diplomatic focus was solely on humanitarian issues arising from the West Asia conflict.
3. A key concern discussed was the blockade of the Strait of Hormuz, which affects global energy supplies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the focus was on ending the conflict and ensuring energy flow, not solely on humanitarian issues. Statement 3 is correct as the Strait of Hormuz blockade and its impact on energy was a central topic.
According to the article, what percentage of global oil and LNG is handled by the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.15%
- B.20%✓ Correct Answer
- C.25%
- D.30%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Strait of Hormuz 'handles roughly 20% of global oil and LNG (Liquefied Natural Gas).' The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is a primary reason cited in the article for India's diplomatic engagement in the West Asia crisis?
- A.To mediate a peace treaty between Israel and Palestine
- B.To ensure the unimpeded flow of energy through a critical shipping lane✓ Correct Answer
- C.To secure military bases for the Indian Navy in the Persian Gulf
- D.To negotiate a new free trade agreement with Gulf countries
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Explanation
The article states India's diplomatic efforts focus on 'ensuring the unimpeded flow of energy through the Strait of Hormuz' due to serious ramifications for fuel and fertilizer security if the blockade continues.
The 'Shourya Didi' mechanism, as discussed in the news, is primarily an innovation of which institution?
- A.The Supreme Court of India
- B.A State High Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Ministry of Women and Child Development
- D.The National Commission for Women
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the 'Shourya Didi' concept was elaborated by the Madhya Pradesh High Court bench in the Harchand Gurjar vs State of Madhya Pradesh (2024) case and applied in the present case. It is a judicial innovation, not a scheme of the executive.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The court was hearing a habeas corpus petition filed by the woman's parents alleging wrongful detention.
2. The 'Shourya Didi' appointees included a government advocate and a lady constable for a period of six months.
3. The court derived the 'Shourya Didi' concept from its own earlier judgment in Harchand Gurjar vs State of Madhya Pradesh (2024).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The habeas corpus petition was filed by the woman's husband, not her parents. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: two officials were appointed. Statement 3 is correct; the bench drew upon its earlier 2024 judgment. Hence, option C is correct.
For what duration were the 'Shourya Didis' appointed to mentor and protect the woman in the case?
- A.3 months
- B.6 months✓ Correct Answer
- C.1 year
- D.Until further court orders
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the court appointed the two officials as 'Shourya Didis' for a period of six months. This is a specific factual detail crucial for prelims-style questions.
What was the primary constitutional right invoked by the Madhya Pradesh High Court to uphold the woman's decision to choose her partner?
- A.Right to Equality (Article 14)
- B.Right to Freedom of Religion (Article 25)
- C.Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Right against Exploitation (Article 23)
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Explanation
The article states the order reflects the settled constitutional position that the right to choose one's partner flows from the fundamental right to life and personal liberty under Article 21. While other rights may be tangentially related, Article 21 was the core basis for the judgment.
Which premier research institution led the landmark study on antimicrobial resistance in India's urban wastewater?
- A.Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
- B.Council of Scientific & Industrial Research - Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CSIR-CCMB)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Indian Institute of Science (IISc)
- D.National Centre for Biological Sciences (NCBS)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the study was conducted by researchers from the CSIR-Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), Hyderabad, along with partner institutions. This is a key factual takeaway from the news.
Consider the following statements regarding the study on Antimicrobial Resistance in urban wastewater:
1. It is India's first comprehensive AMR map in urban wastewater, analysing samples from four metropolitan cities.
2. The study found that bacteria in different cities have completely different genes for antibiotic resistance.
3. The researchers used a technique called shotgun metagenomics to examine bacterial genes in detail.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article which calls it a 'first-of-its-kind study' and 'first comprehensive AMR map'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states that while different bacteria are abundant in different cities, 'the genes conferring resistance...remained consistent across all four metro cities'. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the 'shotgun metagenomics approach' was used.
According to the study on Antimicrobial Resistance in urban wastewater, how many samples were analysed from sites across the four metro cities?
- A.250 samples
- B.350 samples
- C.447 samples✓ Correct Answer
- D.500 samples
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Explanation
The article provides the exact data point: 'the study analysed 447 samples from 19 sites across Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, and Chennai'. This is a precise fact that could be directly asked in a Prelims-style question.
What is the primary significance of the finding that resistance genes are consistent across different Indian cities, as per the recent wastewater AMR study?
- A.It proves that local hygiene practices are the sole driver of AMR.
- B.It indicates that environmental factors are creating a uniform evolutionary pressure for resistance nationwide.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It shows that antibiotic prescriptions are identical in all major hospitals.
- D.It suggests that international travel is the main cause of AMR spread in India.
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Explanation
The article explains that despite different bacteria being abundant in different cities, the resistance genes were consistent. This points to broader, non-local drivers like pharmaceutical waste in the environment creating similar selection pressures, making a case for a national 'One Health' strategy rather than isolated local solutions.
The news mentions a report by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG). Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the CAG established?
- A.Article 148✓ Correct Answer
- B.Article 324
- C.Article 280
- D.Article 76
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Explanation
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) is established under Article 148 of the Constitution. Article 324 deals with the Election Commission, Article 280 with the Finance Commission, and Article 76 with the Attorney General.
Consider the following statements regarding the news about Telangana's finances:
1. According to the CAG report, the state's total repayment obligation for the financial year 2026-27 is over ₹22,000 crore.
2. The largest component of this repayment is for loans taken from the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD).
3. The state government has proposed new borrowings of over ₹80,000 crore in the current fiscal year's budget.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 3
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the exact figure is ₹22,315 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect; the largest component is repayment of market borrowings (₹19,785 crore), not NABARD loans (₹1,047 crore). Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the CAG report cited in the news, what is the amount earmarked for repayment of market borrowings by the Telangana government in the current financial year (2026-27)?
- A.₹1,047 crore
- B.₹19,785 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹22,315 crore
- D.₹73,383 crore
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'Of the quantum of loans, repayment of market borrowings constitutes a major chunk of ₹19,785 crore.' ₹1,047 crore is for NABARD loans, ₹22,315 crore is the total repayment, and ₹73,383 crore is the proposed new market borrowing.
The news article describes the state's plan to use new borrowings to repay maturing loans as an 'indirect form of ever-greening'. What is the primary long-term risk associated with such a practice?
- A.It immediately increases the state's credit rating.
- B.It crowds out capital expenditure needed for development.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It simplifies the state's debt management process.
- D.It reduces the need for future audits by the CAG.
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Explanation
When a significant portion of new borrowings is used to service old debt (ever-greening), it reduces the funds available for creating productive capital assets like infrastructure. This limits long-term growth potential and can trap the state in a cycle of debt without corresponding asset creation.
Under which serial number of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution is the 'Census' listed as a subject?
- A.Serial Number 42
- B.Serial Number 69✓ Correct Answer
- C.Serial Number我们这个
- D.Serial Number 81
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Explanation
As mentioned in the article, the Census is a Union subject and is listed at serial number 69 in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. This is a key static GK fact for Polity.
Consider the following statements regarding developments reported in the news:
1. The first phase of Census 2027, allowing self-enumeration, was launched on April 1, 2026.
2. INS Aridhaman, commissioned on April 3, 2026, is India's first nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine.
3. The Reserve Bank of India has permitted banks to engage in Non-Deliverable Derivative contracts in the rupee to increase market liquidity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; INS Aridhaman is India's third SSBN, not the first (INS Arihant was first). Statement 3 is incorrect; RBI has barred banks from such NDD contracts, not permitted them. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.
According to the 'Status of Leopards in India, 2022' report mentioned in the article, what was the estimated leopard population in India in 2022?
- A.12,852
- B.13,784✓ Correct Answer
- C.14,500
- D.15,000
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Explanation
The article states that the report estimated 13,784 leopards in India in 2022, compared to 12,852 in 2018. This is a precise data point for Prelims.
What is the primary objective behind the RBI's directive to bar banks from Non-Deliverable Derivative (NDD) contracts in the rupee?
- A.To increase speculative trading opportunities for foreign investors.
- B.To promote the use of digital payment systems like e-cheques.
- C.To exert tighter control and enhance transparency in the foreign exchange market.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To facilitate easier hedging for firms looking to manage currency risk.
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Explanation
As per the article, RBI's move marks a decisive shift toward tighter control and transparency in the forex market, as NDDs traded offshore were outside RBI's control and sometimes misused for speculation. The other options are either opposite or secondary effects.
Which regulatory body issued the order delaying stricter grid deviation norms for renewable energy generators?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- D.Ministry of Power
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the order was issued by CERC (Central Electricity Regulatory Commission), India's apex regulator for the power sector, particularly for central generating stations and inter-state transmission.
Consider the following statements regarding the CERC order on grid deviation norms:
1. The stricter deviation penalty norms will now be implemented from April 2027.
2. For wind projects, the permissible deviation band will be reduced to +/- 5% from +/- 15%.
3. The order aims to align deviation rules for renewable energy generators with those for conventional generators by 2031.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the rollout is delayed to April 2027. Statement 2 is incorrect; for wind projects, the permissible band is reduced to +/-10% (not 5%) from +/-15%. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the aim of aligning RE with conventional generator norms from 2031 onwards.
According to the CERC order, what is the new permissible deviation band for solar and hybrid projects?
- A.+/- 5%✓ Correct Answer
- B.+/- 10%
- C.+/- 15%
- D.+/- 20%
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'For solar and hybrid projects, the permissible deviation band will be narrowed from +/- 10% to +/- 5%.' The other options are distractors: +/-10% is the old norm for solar and the new norm for wind; +/-15% is the old norm for wind.
What is the primary rationale cited by CERC for tightening grid deviation norms for renewable energy generators?
- A.To increase government revenue from penalty charges.
- B.To reduce the financial burden on conventional power plants.
- C.To address grid stability concerns arising from large-scale RE integration.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To promote competition among different types of power generators.
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that as India's RE capacity grows (over 50% of installed capacity), even moderate forecasting errors can cause large absolute deviations affecting grid frequency and stability. The order aims to internalize these systemic costs, not directly increase revenue or reduce burden on conventional plants.
As per the news, the SEBI Chairman's comments were made at an event organized by which industry body?
- A.FICCI (Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry)
- B.ASSOCHAM (Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India)
- C.CII (Confederation of Indian Industry)✓ Correct Answer
- D.NASSCOM (National Association of Software and Service Companies)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that SEBI Chief Tuhin Kanta Pandey was speaking at the 'CII Corporate Governance Summit'. CII is a premier industry association in India. FICCI, ASSOCHAM, and NASSCOM are other major industry bodies but were not mentioned in this context.
Consider the following statements regarding the issues highlighted by the SEBI Chairman:
1. He stated that the independence of directors in Indian corporates often exists only in form and not in substantive action.
2. He emphasized that independent directors should only focus on regulatory compliance and pointing out management failures.
3. He underlined the need to address skill gaps among independent directors to tackle interdisciplinary problems, including those arising from artificial intelligence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as it directly quotes the core concern raised. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Chairman advised the opposite, that directors are 'not only for compliance and pointing fingers' but also for 'supporting and finding solutions'. Statement 3 is correct as he spoke about filling skill gaps for 'interdisciplinary problems' and governance in the 'age of AI'.
On which date did SEBI Chairman Tuhin Kanta Pandey deliver the speech criticizing the formal independence of corporate directors, as per the article?
- A.April 5, 2026
- B.April 6, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.April 7, 2026
- D.April 8, 2026
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Explanation
The article clearly mentions the date of the CII Corporate Governance Summit where the speech was delivered as 'April 6, 2026'. This is a precise data point that can be asked in a Prelims-style factual question. The other options are close distractors.
According to the SEBI Chairman's remarks, what is the primary shift required in the role of independent directors?
- A.A shift from substantive contribution to strict regulatory compliance.
- B.A shift from formal independence to active, solution-oriented accountability.✓ Correct Answer
- C.A shift from focusing on management to focusing solely on shareholder returns.
- D.A shift from domestic oversight to global regulatory alignment.
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Explanation
The Chairman's core argument is that independence is currently 'only in form'. He calls for directors to move 'beyond who sits on the board to how effectively they are able to contribute' and to focus on 'supporting and finding solutions through accountability'. This encapsulates the required shift from a passive, compliance-checking role to an active, accountable one.
Which national institute collaborated with Government Medical College, Chandigarh, for the National Mental Health Survey in Punjab mentioned in the article?
- A.National Institute of Health
- B.National Institute of Mental Health and Neurosciences (NIMHANS)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
- D.All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the 2016-17 survey for Punjab was conducted by Government Medical College and Hospital, Chandigarh, in coordination with the National Institute of Mental Health and Neurosciences (NIMHANS).
Consider the following statements regarding the mental health scenario in Punjab as per the article:
1. Punjab has a network of government-run group homes for persons with severe mental illness as mandated by law.
2. The Mental Healthcare Act, 2017 requires states to notify the rules under the Act within nine months of its enforcement.
3. The Punjab and Haryana High Court, in May 2025, directed the state of Punjab to notify the rules under the Mental Healthcare Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the article clearly states Punjab has NO government-run homes for people with mental illness. Statement 2 is correct as per the Act's mandate mentioned in the article. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the High Court's May 2025 direction.
According to the estimates presented in the Punjab and Haryana High Court, how many adults were living with mental illnesses in Punjab in 2016?
- A.8.45 lakh
- B.10.12 lakh
- C.12.83 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- D.15.67 lakh
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Explanation
The article specifically states: "As per estimates presented in the Punjab and Haryana High Court last year, there were 12.83 lakh adults living with mental illnesses in the state in 2016."
What is a key reason, as highlighted in the article, for the gap between mental health policy and practice in Punjab?
- A.Lack of financial resources from the central government.
- B.Absence of a State Mental Health Authority and Review Boards.
- C.Non-functional institutions existing only on paper despite being constituted.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over-reliance on institutional care instead of community-based models.
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Explanation
The article quotes an activist stating that the State Mental Health Authority and Mental Health Review Boards 'exist on paper' with letters being returned undelivered and no annual reports prepared. While financial resources (A) are not discussed, the Authority exists (B) but is non-functional. The article criticizes the shift away from institutional care (D), not over-reliance on it.
Which is the highest operational military command unit of Iran, as mentioned in the news?
- A.Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC)
- B.Khatam al-Anbiya Central Headquarters✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Defence and Armed Forces Logistics
- D.Artesh (Iranian regular military)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the warning was issued by a spokesperson from the Khatam al-Anbiya Central Headquarters, which is described as Iran's highest operational military command unit.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The US President threatened military action if Iran did not reopen the Strait of Hormuz.
2. The proposed ceasefire being discussed is for a duration of 60 days.
3. The ceasefire negotiations involve mediators from Pakistan, Egypt, and Turkey.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: President Trump's ultimatum to 'blow up everything' if the Strait of Hormuz is not opened constitutes a threat of military action. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article mentions a 'potential 45-day ceasefire', not 60 days. Statement 3 is correct: the mediators are explicitly stated as Pakistan, Egypt, and Turkey.
What is the duration of the potential ceasefire being discussed between the US and Iran, as per the news report?
- A.30 days
- B.45 days✓ Correct Answer
- C.60 days
- D.90 days
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the terms being discussed are for a 'potential 45-day ceasefire'. The other options are common timeframes for such agreements but are not mentioned in this report.
What is the primary strategic significance of the Strait of Hormuz, as highlighted in the news context?
- A.It is a major route for global maritime trade in manufactured goods.
- B.It is a critical chokepoint for the transit of oil and energy supplies worldwide.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It serves as a key military base for US naval operations in the region.
- D.It is the primary passage for shipping between the Mediterranean and the Red Sea.
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Explanation
The article describes the Strait of Hormuz as 'an essential chokepoint for the transit of oil and energy supplies across the world'. Its closure, therefore, directly threatens global energy security, which is the core of the geopolitical tension reported.
Which High Court delivered the judgment stating that a husband's duty to maintain his wife continues after his death?
- A.Delhi High Court
- B.Allahabad High Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.Bombay High Court
- D.Madras High Court
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Allahabad High Court made this observation. The bench comprised Justices Arindam Sinha and Satya Veer Singh.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Allahabad High Court judgment on maintenance:
1. The Court ruled that a husband's obligation to maintain his wife ceases upon his death.
2. The judgment allows a widow to claim maintenance from her father-in-law.
3. The Court placed the burden of proof regarding the wife's employment on the husband.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the Court held the obligation continues even after death. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct as the Court stated the onus was on the husband to prove she was employed.
The Allahabad High Court judgment discussed in the article was delivered by a bench comprising which two Justices?
- A.Justices D.Y. Chandrachud and S. Ravindra Bhat
- B.Justices Arindam Sinha and Satya Veer Singh✓ Correct Answer
- C.Justices U.U. Lalit and S. Abdul Nazeer
- D.Justices Sanjay Kishan Kaul and S. Abdul Nazeer
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Explanation
The article clearly mentions the bench of Justices Arindam Sinha and Satya Veer Singh made the observation while dismissing the husband's plea.
What is the primary legal implication of the Allahabad High Court's ruling that a husband's maintenance duty continues after his death?
- A.It mandates life imprisonment for husbands who evade maintenance.
- B.It expands the scope of maintenance claims to include the husband's father.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It nullifies all existing fixed deposits held by married women.
- D.It transfers all marital property automatically to the wife upon the husband's death.
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Explanation
The core implication of the judgment is that it allows a widow to claim maintenance from her father-in-law, thereby expanding the circle of liable relatives beyond the deceased husband. This strengthens the financial safety net for widows under personal laws.
The Enforcement Directorate (ED), which is investigating the IBC irregularities mentioned in the news, operates under which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of Finance✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Corporate Affairs
- D.Ministry of Law and Justice
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Explanation
The Enforcement Directorate (ED) is a law enforcement agency under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. It is responsible for enforcing economic laws and fighting economic crime.
Consider the following statements regarding the news article:
1. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is probing bank loan frauds worth approximately ₹73,006 crore in cases related to the Reliance Anil Ambani Group.
2. The Enforcement Directorate (ED) report mentions that insolvency proceedings were started through a group of eight public sector banks under a scheme called 'Project Help'.
3. The Supreme Court has directed the CBI and ED to complete the investigation in a time-bound manner and scheduled the next hearing for April 30.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the CBI status report mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the ED report stated that funding for IBC acquisitions was arranged through a group of eight NBFCs (Non-Banking Financial Companies), not public sector banks. Statement 3 is correct as the Supreme Court issued such directions and scheduled the next hearing for April 30.
According to the ED report cited by the Supreme Court, what was the value of claims settled for just ₹26 crore in the IBC process irregularities?
- A.₹2,583 crore
- B.₹2,783 crore
- C.₹2,883 crore
- D.₹2,983 crore✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'It is noted that claims totalling approximately ₹2,983 crore were settled for ₹26 crore,' as mentioned in the Supreme Court order after perusing the ED report.
What is the primary concern raised by the Enforcement Directorate's findings on 'Project Help' as per the news article?
- A.Misuse of government subsidies for corporate bailouts.
- B.Deliberate initiation of insolvency proceedings through unrelated lenders to potentially subvert the IBC process.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Illegal foreign exchange transactions by the corporate group.
- D.Non-payment of Goods and Services Tax (GST) by the companies involved.
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Explanation
The ED told the court that documents on 'Project Help' indicated that 'insolvency proceedings were "deliberately" started through unrelated lenders.' This points to a potential manipulation of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) framework.
The report 'Under the Weather: India’s Climate-Health Intersections and Pathways to Resilience' was published by which organization?
- A.NITI Aayog
- B.World Health Organization (WHO)
- C.Dasra✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the report is by Dasra, described as a philanthropy fund organization. NITI Aayog is a government policy think tank, WHO is a UN agency, and MoHFW is a ministry, none of which are mentioned as the publisher here.
Consider the following statements regarding the findings of the report 'Under the Weather':
1. It states that climate change is expanding the range of vector-borne diseases like dengue to regions including Shimla and parts of Jammu & Kashmir.
2. It estimates that India lost 180 billion labour hours in 2021 due to heat exposure.
3. It links exposure to extreme heat with a 16% increase in the odds of preterm birth during heatwaves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the report notes a loss of 160 billion labour hours, not 180 billion. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.
According to the report 'Under the Weather', what percentage of districts in India are at high risk from extreme weather events?
- A.Nearly 30%
- B.Nearly 40%✓ Correct Answer
- C.Nearly 50%
- D.Nearly 60%
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Explanation
The article states the report finds climate change is "placing nearly 40% of districts at high risk from extreme weather events." The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is the primary significance of climate change being termed a 'health-risk multiplier' in the report?
- A.It only increases the frequency of natural disasters.
- B.It solely affects agricultural productivity and food security.
- C.It amplifies both the burden of diseases and the pressure on healthcare systems.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It is relevant only for urban populations with pre-existing conditions.
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Explanation
The article explains that as a 'health-risk multiplier', climate change increases disease burden (both communicable and non-communicable) and simultaneously strains healthcare infrastructure. The other options are either incomplete or misrepresent the concept described.
The 'Dancing Girl' figurine, a famous artifact from the Indus Valley Civilization site of Mohenjo-daro, is primarily made of which material?
- A.Carnelian
- B.Clay
- C.Bronze✓ Correct Answer
- D.Gold
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Explanation
As per the previous year UPSC question referenced in the article, the 'Dancing Girl' figurine from Mohenjo-daro is made of bronze. This tests static knowledge of Indus Valley artifacts.
Consider the following statements regarding the Women's Reservation Act:
1. The Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023, provides for one-third reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies.
2. The implementation of this reservation requires a delimitation exercise, which can only be undertaken after the first Census conducted after 2026.
3. The Delimitation Commission responsible for this task is constituted under the provisions of Article 324 of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as the delimitation exercise is frozen until after the first Census post-2026. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Delimitation Commission is appointed under the Delimitation Act, 2002, not Article 324 (which deals with the Election Commission).
According to the article, what approximate share of India's ceramic tile industry does the Morbi cluster in Gujarat account for?
- A.70%
- B.80%
- C.90%✓ Correct Answer
- D.95%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Morbi accounts for 90% of India's ceramic industry. This is a key data point for economic geography.
What is the primary constitutional reason cited in the article for the delay in implementing the Women's Reservation Act?
- A.It requires ratification by at least half of the state legislatures.
- B.It is contingent upon the passage of a separate Delimitation Bill by Parliament.
- C.The delimitation exercise necessary for its implementation is frozen until after the first Census post-2026.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It faces legal challenges regarding its compatibility with the Basic Structure doctrine.
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Explanation
The article clearly explains that the delimitation required to create new constituencies for women's reservation is constitutionally frozen until after the results of the first Census conducted after 2026 are published. This is the core implementation hurdle discussed.
The Strait of Hormuz, a key shipping route mentioned in the context of Iranian retaliation, is a chokepoint connecting which two bodies of water?
- A.Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman✓ Correct Answer
- B.Red Sea and Gulf of Aden
- C.Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
- D.Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal
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Explanation
The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow channel strategically located between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman. It is a critical passage for global oil shipments, as mentioned in the article's context of Iran's retaliatory actions.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The South Pars natural gas field attacked by Israel is the world's largest and is shared between Iran and Qatar.
2. The Israeli Defence Minister stated that the attacked facility was responsible for about half of Iran's petrochemical production.
3. In response to the attack, Iran launched ballistic and cruise missiles targeting energy infrastructure in the United Arab Emirates (UAE).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the South Pars field is 'shared with Qatar, which is the world's largest.' Statement 2 is correct as Defence Minister Katz said the facility 'produced half of the Islamic nation’s petrochemicals.' Statement 3 is incorrect; the article mentions UAE air defences engaging missiles launched from Iran, but the primary Iranian retaliation cited was striking energy complexes in Qatar and blocking the Strait of Hormuz.
According to the Israeli Defence Minister's statement cited in the article, what combined percentage of Iran's petrochemical exports was disrupted by the attacks on the two facilities?
- A.50%
- B.65%
- C.75%
- D.85%✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article explicitly quotes Defence Minister Katz: 'Now the two facilities, which together are responsible for about 85% of Iran’s petrochemical exports – have been taken out of service and are not functioning.' This is a precise data point for factual recall.
What is the primary strategic implication of Iran's reported response to the Israeli attack on the South Pars facility, as highlighted in the article?
- A.A direct military invasion of Israeli territory
- B.The imposition of economic sanctions on Qatar
- C.The virtual blocking of the key shipping route, the Strait of Hormuz✓ Correct Answer
- D.An appeal to the United Nations Security Council for intervention
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Explanation
The article states that Iran 'has already responded by virtually blocking the key shipping route of Strait of Hormuz.' This action represents a direct threat to global energy security and maritime trade, making it the primary strategic implication mentioned, as it leverages a geographic chokepoint to exert pressure.
The Jharkhand State Livelihood Promotion Society (JSLPS) mentioned in the article is the state-level unit of which national mission?
- A.National Health Mission
- B.National Rural Livelihoods Mission✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Urban Livelihoods Mission
- D.National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture
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Explanation
JSLPS is the State Rural Livelihoods Mission (SRLM) of Jharkhand, established under the National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) of the Ministry of Rural Development. NRLM focuses on poverty reduction through self-employment and wage employment for rural poor.
Consider the following statements regarding the initiatives discussed in the article:
1. The 'Palash' initiative provides market linkages for products from women's Self-Help Groups across Jharkhand.
2. The 'Birsa Harit Gram Yojana' promotes orchard-based livelihoods exclusively on forest land.
3. The gender and climate training modules for SHGs are delivered by community resource persons called 'Setu Didis'.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states Palash enables SHG women to move beyond local markets by providing market linkages. Statement 2 is incorrect; Birsa Harit Gram Yojana promotes orchard-based livelihoods on degraded lands, not exclusively forest land. Statement 3 is correct as the modules are delivered through trained community resource persons, the Setu Didis.
According to the article, what is the estimated improvement in household resilience to climate shocks through income diversification models like Palash?
- A.5-10%
- B.10-20%
- C.20-30%✓ Correct Answer
- D.30-40%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Evidence suggests that income diversification through such models can improve household resilience to climate shocks by up to 20-30 per cent.' The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned.
What is the primary significance of integrating Self-Help Group-led climate action plans into Gram Panchayat Development Plans, as highlighted in the article?
- A.It increases the central government's funding for climate projects.
- B.It ensures that gendered climate realities shape local climate decisions and finance.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It transfers the responsibility of climate adaptation entirely to women's groups.
- D.It reduces the administrative workload of the JSLPS.
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that feeding SHG knowledge into formal planning processes at the village level and integrating it into GPDPs 'ensures that gendered climate realities shape climate decisions and finance at the local level.' This is the core governance innovation described, moving from awareness to actionable, funded plans.
Which specialized United Nations agency, mentioned in the article as being represented in the UK-led meeting, is responsible for the safety and security of shipping and the prevention of marine pollution by ships?
- A.International Energy Agency (IEA)
- B.International Maritime Organisation (IMO)✓ Correct Answer
- C.United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
- D.World Meteorological Organization (WMO)
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the International Maritime Organisation (IMO) had representation in the UK-chaired virtual meeting. The IMO is the UN agency responsible for regulating shipping, including safety, security, and environmental performance.
Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Hormuz crisis as discussed in the article:
1. The UK and European nations have agreed to a US-led military plan to forcibly reopen the Strait of Hormuz.
2. Over 50% of the United Kingdom and Europe's jet fuel imports transit through the Strait of Hormuz.
3. The diplomatic efforts to reopen the Strait involve exploring coordinated economic measures like international sanctions on Iran.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article clearly states the UK and Europe have 'shown no inclination to intervene militarily' and have rejected US calls for military action. Statement 2 is correct as per data compiled by Argus Media cited in the article. Statement 3 is correct as the meeting discussed 'coordinated economic and political measures—like international sanctions on Iran'.
According to the International Energy Agency (IEA) data mentioned in the article, what percentage of Asia's total LNG imports were delivered via the Strait of Hormuz in 2025?
- A.Approximately 7%
- B.Around 20%
- C.About 27%✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over 50%
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Explanation
The article directly states: 'According to the International Energy Agency (IEA), the share of LNG delivered via the Strait accounted for around 27% of Asia’s total LNG imports in 2025...' The other options are distractors: 7% was Europe's share, 20% is the global oil/gas share, and >50% is Europe's jet fuel dependency.
What is the primary strategic reason cited by European leaders, like French President Macron, for rejecting a military operation to reopen the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.Lack of sufficient naval assets among European nations.
- B.The operation would violate international law under UNCLOS.
- C.It would take an inordinate amount of time and expose forces to severe coastal threats from Iran.✓ Correct Answer
- D.A ceasefire brokered by Pakistan was deemed imminent, making military action unnecessary.
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Explanation
The article quotes French President Macron cautioning that a military operation was 'unrealistic because it would take an inordinate amount of time and would expose anyone crossing the Strait to coastal threats from the (Iranian) Revolutionary Guards, who possess significant resources, as well as ballistic missiles, (and) a host of other risks.' The other options, like a Pakistani ceasefire, are mentioned but not cited as the primary reason for rejecting military action.
Which constitutional body is responsible for conducting the Civil Services Examination (CSE)?
- A.Staff Selection Commission (SSC)
- B.Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
- D.Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration (LBSNAA)
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Explanation
The UPSC is the constitutional body established under Article 315 of the Constitution of India. It is mandated to conduct examinations for appointment to the services of the Union, including the Civil Services Examination for IAS, IPS, etc.
Consider the following statements regarding the Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT):
1. It was introduced in the UPSC Civil Services Examination pattern in 2011.
2. It is a qualifying paper where candidates must score at least 33% marks.
3. Its introduction was based on recommendations of the Second Administrative Reforms Commission only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as CSAT was introduced in 2011. Statement 2 is correct as the article states CSAT requires 33% (66 marks) to qualify. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article mentions the change was based on recommendations from several bodies, including the YK Alagh Committee and the UPSC itself, not just the Second ARC.
According to the data cited in the article, what was the approximate percentage share of Hindi-medium students among UPSC recruits in the 2018 batch that underwent training at LBSNAA?
- A.14%
- B.4.06%
- C.2.16%✓ Correct Answer
- D.17%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that of the 2018 recruits who finished the foundation course in 2019, 2.16% took the CSE in Hindi. Option A (14%) refers to pre-CSAT era (2008), Option B (4.06%) is the figure for 2017, and Option D (17%) is for 2013.
What is the primary criticism levied against the CSAT paper in the UPSC Civil Services Examination, as highlighted in the debate?
- A.It is too easy and does not filter candidates effectively.
- B.It has become too theoretical and disconnected from administrative work.
- C.It acts as a barrier to diversity by favoring candidates with engineering and science backgrounds.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It duplicates the testing of knowledge already covered in the General Studies paper.
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Explanation
The core criticism, as articulated by BJP MP Brij Lal and supported by data in the article, is that CSAT's technical, mathematics-heavy nature favors engineers (constituting up to 65% of successful candidates) and disadvantages humanities/arts graduates and Hindi-medium aspirants, thus reducing diversity in the civil services.
Which specialized tribunal has been empowered by the Supreme Court to monitor compliance with the conditions of the Environment Clearance for the Wayanad tunnel project?
- A.National Green Tribunal (NGT)✓ Correct Answer
- B.National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
- C.Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)
- D.Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT)
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Explanation
The Supreme Court, in its judgment, specifically stated that petitioners could approach the National Green Tribunal (NGT) in case of any violation of the EC conditions during the project's execution. The NGT is the dedicated statutory body for environmental disputes.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment on the Wayanad tunnel project:
1. The Court cancelled the Environment Clearance (EC) granted to the project.
2. The Court stated that the project is of national importance and cited Kerala's land limitations.
3. The Court directed that any violation of EC conditions should be addressed by the Central Expert Appraisal Committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the Supreme Court refused to cancel the Environment Clearance. Statement 2 is correct as per the article where CJI Surya Kant called it a project of national importance and mentioned Kerala's land limitations. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Court said petitioners should approach the National Green Tribunal (NGT), not the EAC, for violations.
What is the length of the twin-tunnel project through the Western Ghats, as mentioned in the news, which is described as the third-longest in the country?
- A.5 km
- B.7 km✓ Correct Answer
- C.8 km
- D.13 km
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the 7-km tunnel is described as the third-longest in the country. The 8 km refers to the total road project length, and 13 km is the length of the existing Thamarassery Ghat Road.
What was a primary reason cited by the Supreme Court for upholding the tunnel project in the ecologically sensitive Western Ghats?
- A.To promote tourism in the region
- B.To address land limitations and road congestion in Kerala✓ Correct Answer
- C.To serve as a model for public-private partnership
- D.To replace all existing roads in the area
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Explanation
CJI Surya Kant pointed to Kerala's land limitations and the congestion on roads and highways as key justifications, stating 'because the state has its own limitations in terms of available land, and therefore they are going for a tunnel.' This reflects the development imperative behind the project.
Which national policy framework is the primary driver behind the recent CBSE reforms in assessment and curriculum?
- A.National Curriculum Framework for School Education (NCF-SE) 2023
- B.National Education Policy (NEP) 2020✓ Correct Answer
- C.Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009
- D.National Policy on Skill Development and Entrepreneurship 2015
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Explanation
The article repeatedly states that reforms like the two-exam system, compulsory third language, and competency-based assessment are aligned with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. NEP 2020 is the overarching policy guiding these structural changes in school education.
Consider the following statements regarding recent CBSE reforms:
1. CBSE has introduced a two-board exam system for both Class 10 and Class 12 from the 2026 academic session.
2. The competency-based questions (CBQs) now constitute 50% of the paper for Class 10 and Class 12 board exams.
3. The compulsory third language, mandated from Class 6, will be included in the Class 10 board examination structure by 2031.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The two-board exam system is introduced only for Class 10 from 2026; Class 12 remains on a single-exam format for now. Statement 2 is correct as per the 2024-25 reforms. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the third language will become part of the Class 10 board exam structure by 2031.
According to the article, in which year did CBSE increase the share of competency-based questions (CBQs) to 50% for Class 10 and 12 board exams?
- A.2023-24
- B.2024-25✓ Correct Answer
- C.2025-26
- D.2026-27
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Explanation
The article clearly states that in April 2024 (the 2024-25 academic year), CBSE increased the share of competency-based questions to 50% for both Class 10 and Class 12 board exams. This marked a shift in paper design from the previous year.
What is the primary objective behind CBSE's introduction of a two-board exam system for Class 10 from 2026?
- A.To increase government revenue through additional exam fees
- B.To standardize the evaluation process across all Indian school boards
- C.To reduce exam pressure and allow students an opportunity to improve their scores✓ Correct Answer
- D.To replace internal assessments conducted by schools with centralized board exams
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Explanation
The article states that the two-exam system allows students to appear for an optional second phase to improve scores in up to three subjects, with the higher score considered final. This is part of broader measures that 'signal an attempt to reduce exam pressure and streamline evaluation'.
The Teesta water-sharing pact between India and Bangladesh has been stalled primarily due to objections from the government of which Indian state?
- A.Assam
- B.West Bengal✓ Correct Answer
- C.Bihar
- D.Tripura
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Explanation
As per the article, the Teesta water-sharing pact has been stalled by the West Bengal government led by Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee for the last 14 years. This highlights how state governments can influence international treaties involving river water sharing.
Consider the following statements regarding the diplomatic visit mentioned in the news:
1. This is the first high-level political outreach to India by the new BNP government in Bangladesh.
2. The Ganga Water Sharing Treaty between India and Bangladesh is set to expire in December 2026.
3. The discussions are expected to include the issue of connecting India's North-East via Bangladesh, which has always been a point of consensus in Bangladesh's domestic politics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article calls it the 'first high-level political outreach'. Statement 2 is correct as the article states the treaty is set to expire in December this year (2026). Statement 3 is incorrect because the article says such connectivity links 'has always been a point of friction and tension in Bangladesh politics', not consensus.
According to the article, for how many years has the Teesta water-sharing pact been stalled due to objections from the West Bengal government?
- A.10 years
- B.12 years
- C.14 years✓ Correct Answer
- D.16 years
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Teesta water-sharing pact 'has been stalled by the West Bengal government... for the last 14 years.' The other options are close distractors but the precise figure is 14 years.
What is a primary objective for Bangladesh in the bilateral talks with India, as indicated in the article?
- A.Renegotiating the entire framework of the 1996 Ganga Treaty
- B.Lifting trade restrictions imposed by India in the recent past✓ Correct Answer
- C.Securing Indian support for its bid for a UN Security Council seat
- D.Forming a joint military command for border security
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Explanation
The article states that 'From Dhaka’s perspective, lifting the restrictions on trade placed by the Indian government in the last year or so will be one of the major requests.' While renewing the Ganga Treaty is key, the article frames the lifting of trade restrictions as a major request from Bangladesh's side.
Which central investigation agency was directed by the Supreme Court to take over the probe into the Malda gherao case?
- A.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
- B.National Investigation Agency (NIA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Enforcement Directorate (ED)
- D.Intelligence Bureau (IB)
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Explanation
The Supreme Court specifically directed the National Investigation Agency (NIA) to take over the FIRs from the West Bengal police. The NIA is established under the NIA Act, 2008 to investigate scheduled offenses.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's order on the Malda gherao case:
1. The Court invoked its powers under Article 142 of the Constitution to transfer the case.
2. The Court directed the Chief Secretary of West Bengal to apologize to the Chief Justice of India.
3. The National Investigation Agency (NIA) was asked to submit investigation reports directly to the Supreme Court before filing a chargesheet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Only 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the bench explicitly exercised powers under Article 142. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Chief Secretary was directed to apologize to the Chief Justice of the Calcutta High Court, not the CJI. Statement 3 is correct as the court ordered NIA to submit status reports to it before filing the chargesheet.
On which date did the gherao of judicial officers, which led to the Supreme Court's intervention, occur in Malda?
- A.March 30, 2026
- B.April 1, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.April 5, 2026
- D.April 6, 2026
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Explanation
The article states that the gherao incident took place on April 1, 2026. April 6 is the date of the Supreme Court hearing and news publication, making it a close distractor.
What was the primary reason cited by the Supreme Court for transferring the Malda case investigation to the NIA?
- A.Lack of technical expertise with the state police.
- B.Serious allegations against members of the state/local police and a breakdown of law and order.✓ Correct Answer
- C.A direct request from the Union Home Ministry.
- D.The case involved inter-state terrorists.
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Explanation
The Supreme Court perused a status report and noted 'serious allegations against the members of the state/local police'. It also slammed the administration for the 'breakdown of law and order', making this the primary reason for the extraordinary transfer of investigation.
Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the right of a religious denomination to manage its own affairs in matters of religion guaranteed?
- A.Article 25
- B.Article 26✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 29
- D.Article 30
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Explanation
Article 26 specifically grants rights to religious denominations, including the right to manage their own affairs in matters of religion. Article 25 deals with the freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion for individuals.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent developments in the Sabarimala review case:
1. The Kerala government has maintained its original stance and continues to support the 2018 Supreme Court judgment allowing women's entry.
2. The Centre, in its submission, argued that the 2018 judgment failed to adequately consider the expression 'or a section thereof' in the context of religious denominations.
3. The review petition is being heard by a seven-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the Kerala government reversed its earlier stand and is now supporting the review petitioner. Statement 2 is correct as per the Centre's written submissions mentioned in the article. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article states the hearing is before a nine-Judge Constitution Bench, not a seven-judge bench.
According to the article, on which date was the original Supreme Court judgment on Sabarimala delivered?
- A.April 06, 2026
- B.March 14, 2026
- C.September 28, 2018✓ Correct Answer
- D.September 26, 2018
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the "September 28, 2018, decision of a five-Judge bench". April 06, 2026, is the publication date of the news article, and March 14, 2026, is the date when the Kerala government filed its written submissions.
What is the primary constitutional value that the Centre's submission, as mentioned in the article, seeks to emphasize in the Sabarimala review case?
- A.Uniform Civil Code
- B.Gender justice and absolute equality
- C.Religious pluralism and internal diversity✓ Correct Answer
- D.Separation of judiciary from executive
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Explanation
The Centre's argument, as detailed in the article, stresses that "constitutional adjudication must account for plurality within religion" and that preserving the "rich diversity of religious practices" is in the public interest. While gender justice was the basis of the 2018 verdict, the Centre's current emphasis is on pluralism.
Which existing national framework establishes responsibilities for responding to oil spills, as mentioned in the article?
- A.National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)
- B.National Oil Spill Disaster Contingency Plan (NOS-DCP)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Notification
- D.National Disaster Management Plan (NDMP)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the National Oil Spill Disaster Contingency Plan (NOS-DCP) establishes a framework for responding to oil spills. The other plans are related to climate change, coastal zoning, and general disaster management, but not specifically to oil spills.
Consider the following statements regarding the draft Tar Balls Management Rules, 2026:
1. They propose that tar ball pollution can be declared a state disaster under the Disaster Management Act.
2. They apply the 'polluter pays principle' only to the operators of treatment facilities.
3. They allow tar balls to be used as fuel in the cement industry if they meet a specific calorific value threshold.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article says states can declare such pollution a state disaster. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 'polluter pays principle' applies to oil facility owners, transporters, and treatment operators, not just the latter. Statement 3 is correct as the rules permit use as fuel if calorific value exceeds 1,500 kilocalories.
According to the draft rules, what is the minimum calorific value (in kilocalories) required for tar balls to be used as a fuel source in industrial processes?
- A.1,000
- B.1,500✓ Correct Answer
- C.2,000
- D.2,500
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article clearly states that tar balls with a calorific value over 1,500 kilocalories can be used as a fuel source. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is the primary objective behind proposing the Tar Balls Management Rules, 2026, as per the article?
- A.To promote offshore oil exploration in the Arabian Sea.
- B.To establish a dedicated framework for managing marine pollution caused by tar balls.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase revenue for the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
- D.To replace the existing National Oil Spill Disaster Contingency Plan (NOS-DCP).
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Explanation
The article's core is the proposal of first-ever dedicated rules to manage tar balls, assigning responsibilities for their handling and disposal. While the rules involve multiple ministries and propose using tar balls as fuel, their primary objective is to tackle this specific form of marine pollution, not to promote exploration, generate revenue, or replace the NOS-DCP.
Which high court delivered the judgment discussed in the news, refusing to quash the POCSO case?
- A.Delhi High Court
- B.Gauhati High Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.Bombay High Court
- D.Madras High Court
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the judgment was delivered by the Gauhati High Court, with Justice Pranjal Das presiding.
Consider the following statements regarding the Gauhati High Court judgment:
1. The court refused to quash the case under Section 528 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS).
2. The court held that the compromise deed signed by the victim's father was sufficient to quash the proceedings.
3. The judgment relied on Supreme Court precedents including Narinder Singh vs State of Punjab.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the petition was filed under BNSS Section 528. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court specifically refused to quash the case, noting the compromise was with the father, not the victim. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the court relied on the cited Supreme Court rulings.
Under which section of the POCSO Act was the chargesheet filed in the case discussed?
- A.Section 3
- B.Section 4✓ Correct Answer
- C.Section 5
- D.Section 6
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Explanation
The article states that the police filed a chargesheet under Section 4 of the POCSO Act, along with provisions of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita. Section 4 prescribes punishment for penetrative sexual assault.
What was the primary legal reasoning of the Gauhati High Court for refusing to quash the criminal proceedings?
- A.The accused was not in a relationship with the victim.
- B.The victim was a major at the time of the incident.
- C.Heinous offences like rape have societal implications and are not merely private disputes.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The compromise deed was not properly stamped and registered.
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Explanation
The court's core reasoning, as per the article, was that serious offences such as rape, particularly under POCSO, cannot be treated as private disputes capable of settlement. This aligns with Supreme Court precedents cited in the judgment.
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For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
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What are the important current affairs questions for 6 April 2026?▼
This page contains 204 current affairs questions from 6 April 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 6 April 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
- Q1. The Sattankulam custodial deaths case was investigated by whic…
- Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Sattankulam cu…
- Q3. many police personnel were originally named as accused in the …
- Q4. The death sentence awarded in the Sattankulam case is primaril…
- Q5. government department was assisted by Vidhi Centre for Legal P…
- Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Jan Vishwas (A…
- Q7. According to the article, how many offences did the earlier Ja…
- Q8. is the primary distinction between 'fines' and 'penalties' as …
- Q9. The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, which deals wit…
- Q10. Consider the following statements regarding constitutional pro…
- Q11. As mentioned in the article, on which date did Prime Minister …
- Q12. According to the analysis in the article, what is the primary …
- Q13. political party in Taiwan, mentioned in the news, has traditio…
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Chen…
- Q15. According to the article, what is the value of the US arms sal…
- Q16. is a primary strategic objective behind China's invitation to …
- Q17. is the author of the article discussing the roadmap for women'…
- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the implementation…
- Q19. According to the article, what is the proposed new total stren…
- Q20. is the primary constitutional-logistical hurdle identified in …
- Q21. government department was exclusively responsible for all nucl…
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the SHANTI Act: 1…
- Q23. According to the article, what is the estimated construction c…
- Q24. is a primary reason cited in the article for nuclear power bei…
- Q25. The World Trade Organization's Ministerial Conferences are its…
- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding outcomes of the WT…
- Q27. Since which year had the WTO moratorium on customs duties for …
- Q28. was a primary reason cited in the article for India's oppositi…
- Q29. statutory committee of the RBI is responsible for deciding the…
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's April 20…
- Q31. According to the article, what is the revised GDP growth forec…
- Q32. is a primary reason cited in the article for the RBI MPC's dec…
- Q33. constitutional body is responsible for preparing and revising …
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q35. According to the news, what is the cumulative alleged bank fra…
- Q36. The Supreme Court's direction to the Election Commission regar…
- Q37. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) that decides the repo rate…
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the inflation-targ…
- Q39. According to the news article, by how much has the Indian rupe…
- Q40. is the primary reason cited in the news for the RBI MPC likely…
- Q41. of the following Acts, mentioned in the Supreme Court's judgme…
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the observations m…
- Q43. According to the Supreme Court judgment discussed in the artic…
- Q44. was the central paradox identified by the Supreme Court regard…
- Q45. article of the United Nations Charter, invoked by Bahrain in t…
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding UNSC Resolution 28…
- Q47. According to the news, how many countries co-sponsored the UNS…
- Q48. is the primary strategic significance of Bahrain leading the U…
- Q49. public sector undertaking is responsible for building and oper…
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding India's three-stag…
- Q51. is the designed electrical generation capacity of the indigeno…
- Q52. is the primary strategic significance of successfully developi…
- Q53. of the following countries is NOT a member of the BASIC bloc m…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding China's energy sec…
- Q55. According to the article, what is the approximate daily volume…
- Q56. was a primary strategic objective behind China's development o…
- Q57. Project Maven is an artificial intelligence programme associat…
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding Project Maven: 1.…
- Q59. According to the Center for Strategic and International Studie…
- Q60. was the primary ethical concern that led Google to withdraw fr…
- Q61. organization implemented the total oil embargo against Western…
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding stagflation: 1. I…
- Q63. According to the article, what was the approximate peak price …
- Q64. According to the analysis in the article, why is the current U…
- Q65. The Plastic Waste Management Rules in India fall under the reg…
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the Plastic Waste …
- Q67. According to the article, what is the government's own estimat…
- Q68. is a critical concern raised in the article regarding the 2026…
- Q69. The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2026, whic…
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the development of…
- Q71. According to the article, what was the total area of fertile f…
- Q72. is identified as a crucial challenge for the Andhra Pradesh go…
- Q73. ministry is responsible for notifying and amending the Informa…
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the Information Te…
- Q75. According to the article, to how many hours was the timeline f…
- Q76. is a primary concern raised in the article regarding the propo…
- Q77. The article mentions the 'Strait of Hormuz'. Which body of wat…
- Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the arguments made…
- Q79. According to the article, what percentage of Asia's oil is imp…
- Q80. is presented in the article as the primary dual benefit of acc…
- Q81. The FAO Food Price Index, discussed in the article, is publish…
- Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the news analysis:…
- Q83. According to the article, what was the approximate landed pric…
- Q84. is the primary concern, as per the article, if the current ene…
- Q85. Indian law has been used to designate the Canada-based terrori…
- Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the Punjab Police …
- Q87. According to the Punjab Police dossier, how many extortion cas…
- Q88. is the primary concern highlighted by the Punjab Police dossie…
- Q89. As per the Indian Constitution, 'Public Health' is primarily a…
- Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the findings of th…
- Q91. is the Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) target for maternal …
- Q92. According to the Lancet report's analysis, what is the essenti…
- Q93. The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB), which published the …
- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the issues discuss…
- Q95. According to the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) data cit…
- Q96. is the primary concern raised by the author regarding police u…
- Q97. Under which Ministry does the Central Bureau of Investigation …
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q99. is the total alleged value of public contracts under scrutiny …
- Q100. is the primary purpose of the 'preliminary inquiry' ordered by…
- Q101. country is acting as the sole mediator and communication chann…
- Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the ceasefire prop…
- Q103. As per the article, what is the tentative duration of the ceas…
- Q104. is a primary strategic concern driving the urgent diplomatic p…
- Q105. South Korean intelligence agency provided the closed-door brie…
- Q106. Consider the following statements regarding North Korea's rece…
- Q107. According to the news, on which specific date in March 2026 di…
- Q108. is a primary strategic advantage of using carbon-fibre in an I…
- Q109. Indian ministry is primarily responsible for conducting the di…
- Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Exte…
- Q111. According to the article, what percentage of global oil and LN…
- Q112. is a primary reason cited in the article for India's diplomati…
- Q113. The 'Shourya Didi' mechanism, as discussed in the news, is pri…
- Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q115. For what duration were the 'Shourya Didis' appointed to mentor…
- Q116. was the primary constitutional right invoked by the Madhya Pra…
- Q117. premier research institution led the landmark study on antimic…
- Q118. Consider the following statements regarding the study on Antim…
- Q119. According to the study on Antimicrobial Resistance in urban wa…
- Q120. is the primary significance of the finding that resistance gen…
- Q121. The news mentions a report by the Comptroller and Auditor Gene…
- Q122. Consider the following statements regarding the news about Tel…
- Q123. According to the CAG report cited in the news, what is the amo…
- Q124. The news article describes the state's plan to use new borrowi…
- Q125. Under which serial number of the Seventh Schedule of the Const…
- Q126. Consider the following statements regarding developments repor…
- Q127. According to the 'Status of Leopards in India, 2022' report me…
- Q128. is the primary objective behind the RBI's directive to bar ban…
- Q129. regulatory body issued the order delaying stricter grid deviat…
- Q130. Consider the following statements regarding the CERC order on …
- Q131. According to the CERC order, what is the new permissible devia…
- Q132. is the primary rationale cited by CERC for tightening grid dev…
- Q133. As per the news, the SEBI Chairman's comments were made at an …
- Q134. Consider the following statements regarding the issues highlig…
- Q135. On which date did SEBI Chairman Tuhin Kanta Pandey deliver the…
- Q136. According to the SEBI Chairman's remarks, what is the primary …
- Q137. national institute collaborated with Government Medical Colleg…
- Q138. Consider the following statements regarding the mental health …
- Q139. According to the estimates presented in the Punjab and Haryana…
- Q140. is a key reason, as highlighted in the article, for the gap be…
- Q141. is the highest operational military command unit of Iran, as m…
- Q142. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q143. is the duration of the potential ceasefire being discussed bet…
- Q144. is the primary strategic significance of the Strait of Hormuz,…
- Q145. High Court delivered the judgment stating that a husband's dut…
- Q146. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Allahab…
- Q147. The Allahabad High Court judgment discussed in the article was…
- Q148. is the primary legal implication of the Allahabad High Court's…
- Q149. The Enforcement Directorate (ED), which is investigating the I…
- Q150. Consider the following statements regarding the news article: …
- Q151. According to the ED report cited by the Supreme Court, what wa…
- Q152. is the primary concern raised by the Enforcement Directorate's…
- Q153. The report 'Under the Weather: India’s Climate-Health Intersec…
- Q154. Consider the following statements regarding the findings of th…
- Q155. According to the report 'Under the Weather', what percentage o…
- Q156. is the primary significance of climate change being termed a '…
- Q157. The 'Dancing Girl' figurine, a famous artifact from the Indus …
- Q158. Consider the following statements regarding the Women's Reserv…
- Q159. According to the article, what approximate share of India's ce…
- Q160. is the primary constitutional reason cited in the article for …
- Q161. The Strait of Hormuz, a key shipping route mentioned in the co…
- Q162. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q163. According to the Israeli Defence Minister's statement cited in…
- Q164. is the primary strategic implication of Iran's reported respon…
- Q165. The Jharkhand State Livelihood Promotion Society (JSLPS) menti…
- Q166. Consider the following statements regarding the initiatives di…
- Q167. According to the article, what is the estimated improvement in…
- Q168. is the primary significance of integrating Self-Help Group-led…
- Q169. specialized United Nations agency, mentioned in the article as…
- Q170. Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Horm…
- Q171. According to the International Energy Agency (IEA) data mentio…
- Q172. is the primary strategic reason cited by European leaders, lik…
- Q173. constitutional body is responsible for conducting the Civil Se…
- Q174. Consider the following statements regarding the Civil Services…
- Q175. According to the data cited in the article, what was the appro…
- Q176. is the primary criticism levied against the CSAT paper in the …
- Q177. specialized tribunal has been empowered by the Supreme Court t…
- Q178. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q179. is the length of the twin-tunnel project through the Western G…
- Q180. was a primary reason cited by the Supreme Court for upholding …
- Q181. national policy framework is the primary driver behind the rec…
- Q182. Consider the following statements regarding recent CBSE reform…
- Q183. According to the article, in which year did CBSE increase the …
- Q184. is the primary objective behind CBSE's introduction of a two-b…
- Q185. The Teesta water-sharing pact between India and Bangladesh has…
- Q186. Consider the following statements regarding the diplomatic vis…
- Q187. According to the article, for how many years has the Teesta wa…
- Q188. is a primary objective for Bangladesh in the bilateral talks w…
- Q189. central investigation agency was directed by the Supreme Court…
- Q190. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q191. On which date did the gherao of judicial officers, which led t…
- Q192. was the primary reason cited by the Supreme Court for transfer…
- Q193. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the right of…
- Q194. Consider the following statements regarding the recent develop…
- Q195. According to the article, on which date was the original Supre…
- Q196. is the primary constitutional value that the Centre's submissi…
- Q197. existing national framework establishes responsibilities for r…
- Q198. Consider the following statements regarding the draft Tar Ball…
- Q199. According to the draft rules, what is the minimum calorific va…
- Q200. is the primary objective behind proposing the Tar Balls Manage…
- Q201. high court delivered the judgment discussed in the news, refus…
- Q202. Consider the following statements regarding the Gauhati High C…
- Q203. Under which section of the POCSO Act was the chargesheet filed…
- Q204. was the primary legal reasoning of the Gauhati High Court for …