9 April 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The article explicitly states that evidence from local governance, particularly after the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments, shows women leaders have prioritized areas like education, health, and sanitation. These amendments constitutionalized Panchayati Raj and Urban Local Bodies with one-third reservation for women.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam is the 106th Constitutional Amendment. Statement 2 is correct as the bill aims for reservation in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article clearly states the government's approach is 'fundamentally transformative rather than rooted in tokenism or charity'.

Explanation

The article refers to the legislation as promising to reshape political demography, which aligns with the known provision of the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam (Women's Reservation Bill) that reserves one-third, or approximately 33%, of seats for women. The other options are common distractors.

Explanation

The article's core argument is that the legislation is centred on the three parameters of 'agency, autonomy, and accessibility' and aims to 'gradually dismantle the social barriers that have historically restricted women’s roles'. The other options are either too narrow or not supported by the article's text.

Explanation

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a statutory body constituted under the RBI Act to determine the benchmark interest rate (repo rate). The article explicitly mentions the RBI's MPC held its April meeting.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The MPC held the repo rate unchanged at 5.25%, not increased it. Statement 2 is correct as the article states the 'neutral stance has been retained'. Statement 3 is correct as the article says 'the central bank has now projected the economy to grow at 6.9% this year'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'The repo rate remains unchanged at 5.25 per cent'. The other options are close distractors, but 5.25% is the precise figure mentioned.

Explanation

The committee's rationale, as quoted in the article, was straightforward: 'The economy is confronted with a supply shock. It is prudent to wait and watch...'. The supply shock stems from the West Asia conflict affecting energy markets and commodities.

Explanation

As per the RBI Act, 1934, the primary functions of the RBI include regulating the issue of banknotes, maintaining monetary stability, and managing the country's foreign exchange reserves. Foreign policy is under MEA, tax collection under CBDT, and five-year planning under NITI Aayog.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article clearly states RBI Governor Sanjay Malhotra said interventions are aimed at smoothening volatility 'without targeting any specific level or band'. Statement 2 is incorrect as the World Bank's inflation forecast (4.9%) is higher, not lower, than RBI's (4.6%). Statement 3 is correct as the article cites India signing trade deals with the EU and US as factors necessitating the growth forecast upgrade.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Beyond 2026-27, the World Bank sees India’s GDP growth rising to 7.2% in 2027-28 and moderating slightly to 7% in 2028-29...' 6.6% is the forecast for the current fiscal (2026-27), and 6.9% is the RBI's forecast for the same period.

Explanation

The article directly quotes RBI Governor Sanjay Malhotra stating that the central bank's interventions are 'aimed at smoothening excessive and disruptive volatility without targeting any specific level or band for the exchange rate.' This defines the RBI's managed float approach, distinct from a fixed target or band.

Explanation

The article explicitly discusses the Reserve Bank of India's (RBI) decision to maintain a status quo stance. The RBI is India's central bank, responsible for formulating and implementing monetary policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as SBI Chairman C.S. Setty called the stance 'prudent and calibrated'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the projected GDP growth for FY27 is 6.9%, not 7.5%. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the policy underscores stability while leveraging communication and regulatory refinement as key levers.

Explanation

The article directly quotes the SBI Chairman stating, 'With growth projected at 6.9% for FY27...'. The other options are plausible distractors often seen in economic reports but are not mentioned here.

Explanation

The article states that the status quo stance 'reflects a prudent and well-calibrated approach' aligned with market expectations amid ongoing global uncertainties. The emphasis on projected growth and inflation within the target band underscores the objective of maintaining stability.

Explanation

As stated in the article, a core objective of the Jan Vishwas reform is to rationalise compliance requirements and enhance ease of doing business by decriminalising minor offences.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly mentions decriminalisation of minor business offences. Statement 2 is incorrect because the reform moves away from over-reliance on criminal sanctions, not increases it. Statement 3 is correct as reducing 'compliance anxiety' is a stated problem the reform addresses.

Explanation

The article's title mentions 'Jan Vishwas 2.0' and the text specifies the 'Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026'. The published date is also April 09, 2026, confirming the year.

Explanation

The article states the objective is to 'foster a regulatory culture that promotes voluntary compliance rather than fear-driven adherence'. This captures the core cultural shift intended by the reform.

Explanation

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a statutory committee constituted under the RBI Act. Its primary mandate is to determine the policy interest rate (repo rate) required to achieve the inflation target.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states the MPC maintained the stance at 'neutral', not 'accommodative'. Statement 2 is correct as the RBI lowered the FY27 GDP projection to 6.9%. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions GCC countries account for nearly 38% of India's remittance flows.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "Overall, we estimate India's current account deficit to be 2.1 per cent of GDP in FY27." The other figures are distractors; 1% was the pre-conflict projection mentioned.

Explanation

The article's title and content emphasize 'growth concerns' as the primary reason for the cautious approach. It states the central bank will not be in a hurry to reverse the rate cycle 'Given the growth concerns'. The other options are not the central rationale presented.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the PFBR was designed by the Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research. BHAVINI is the construction agency. DAE is the overarching department, and NPCIL operates nuclear power plants.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct: FBRs breed plutonium-239. Statement 3 is incorrect: the programme aims to utilize thorium reserves, not uranium, due to India's limited uranium deposits.

Explanation

The article clearly states that India's PFBR is a 500 MWe sodium-cooled Fast Breeder Reactor. 700 MWe is the capacity of the indigenous PHWRs mentioned, while 300 MWe and 1000 MWe are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explains that India persisted with FBRs to ensure dependency on uranium imports could eventually be replaced with thorium utilization, leveraging its large thorium reserves for long-term energy security.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'the UNSC was paralysed throughout' the West Asia crisis. The UNSC is the primary UN body responsible for international peace and security, making its paralysis a significant point in the context of great-power rivalry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the 46 GW addition is through nuclear power, not solar. Statement 3 is incorrect; while the Strait of Hormuz blockade took 8-10 million barrels offline, the article states Houthi blockades were at Bab el-Mandeb, not Hormuz. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

Explanation

The article provides the precise figure: 'solar, wind and hydropower supplying 34.7 per cent of its energy'. The other options are plausible distractors but not the exact data point mentioned in the text.

Explanation

The article explicitly warns that 'hitching India almost exclusively to America... is a miscalculation.' It instead argues India 'must urgently ramp up strategic oil and gas reserves, and investments in renewables and nuclear energy' to maintain strategic autonomy in the new world order.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the 2014 NALSA judgment by the Supreme Court, which recognized transgender persons as a 'third gender' and ruled that self-determination of gender identity is an integral part of personal autonomy under Article 21. The Puttaswamy judgment (2017) dealt with the right to privacy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the 2026 Amendment 'removes this provision' (the right to self-perceived gender identity). Statement 2 is correct as it 'introduces medical boards for certifying a person’s gender identity, subject to the approval of a district magistrate'. Statement 3 is correct as one petition flags a provision that 'mandates medical institutions to furnish details of individuals undergoing gender-affirming surgeries to the district magistrate'. Hence, all three statements are correct.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that the petitions challenge the introduction of 'penal consequences — including imprisonment of up to ten years — for anyone who "compels or entices" a person to assume a transgender identity'. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article states that petitioners argue the shift from a rights-based framework to a regulatory mechanism 'violates the fundamental rights to equality (Article 14), freedom of expression (Article 19) and life and personal liberty (Article 21)'. They contend it rolls back rights guaranteed by the Supreme Court in the NALSA judgment. The other options are not the primary grievances mentioned in the article.

Explanation

As per the article, the data on the release of Finance Commission grants to Rural Local Bodies is available with the Ministry of Panchayati Raj. This ministry is the nodal agency for matters related to Panchayati Raj Institutions in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the 15th FC recommended ₹2,97,555 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect because the release rate of 94.94% under the 15th FC was the highest, not the lowest, since the 10th FC. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article states 90% of the 16th FC grant is for gram panchayats, not block and district panchayats.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that ₹2,82,632 crore out of the recommended ₹2,97,555 crore was released, which is 94.94%. Options A and B are the release percentages for the 13th and 14th Finance Commissions, respectively. Option D is the rate achieved by only five specific states, not the overall release.

Explanation

The article mentions that the grants contribute to strengthening Panchayati Raj institutions under the framework of Article 243G of the Constitution. This article, introduced by the 73rd Amendment, empowers Panchayats to prepare plans for economic development and social justice. Article 280 deals with the Finance Commission, Article 266 deals with the Consolidated Fund, and Article 312 deals with All-India Services.

Explanation

Article 26(b) specifically grants every religious denomination or any section thereof the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion, subject to public order, morality, and health. Article 25 deals with individual freedom of religion.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Centre argued the test is 'unworkable'. Statement 3 is correct as the Shirur Mutt case was mentioned by Senior Advocate C S Vaidyanathan regarding denominational autonomy under Article 26(b).

Explanation

The article clearly states the Centre concluded its arguments before the '9-judge Constitution Bench' that is reviewing the 2018 Sabarimala ruling. This is a key factual detail from the news.

Explanation

Justice Nagarathna expressed apprehension that if denominations could exclude others, as in the Venkataramana Devaru case, it would 'affect Hinduism negatively' and lead to societal division. This concern is directly mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the Philippine Coast Guard command centre was unveiled on Thitu Island in the Spratly island chain. Scarborough Shoal and the Paracels are other disputed features, while Natuna Islands are controlled by Indonesia.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the command was formerly overseen from neighbouring Palawan, not Luzon. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the area is about 68,000 sq km.

Explanation

The article clearly states the headquarters will cover an area of about 68,000 square kilometres. The other figures are plausible distractors for different maritime zones in the region.

Explanation

The article context shows the Spratlys are a flashpoint with repeated confrontations. Establishing a dedicated command centre is a move to assert sovereignty and improve operational response to security challenges, primarily from Chinese vessels. While other options are potential secondary benefits, the core objective is security and control.

Explanation

The World Bank group consists of five institutions, but its core lending arms are the IBRD (for middle-income countries) and the IDA (for poorest countries). The IMF and WTO are separate entities.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the projection was raised to 6.6%. Statement 2 is correct as GST cuts were mentioned as a positive factor. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article explicitly flags the West Asia conflict as a headwind that could dent growth.

Explanation

The article directly compares the World Bank's 6.6% projection with estimates of 6.9% by the RBI, 6.1% by the OECD, and 6% by Moody's Ratings.

Explanation

The article states that 'headwinds arising from the West Asia conflict could dent growth.' While other factors may exist, this is the specific external risk highlighted in the reported projection.

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, Union territories are governed under Part VIII of the Constitution, comprising Articles 239 to 242. This part deals with the administration of UTs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct; Article 239AA bars Delhi's assembly from legislating on public order, police, and land. Statement 3 is incorrect because Section 36 of the 2019 Act gives the J&K LG control over financial matters, requiring prior recommendation for bills involving financial obligations.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "The Treaty of Cession... was signed on May 28, 1956." November 1, 1954, is the date of de facto control. August 1962 is the ratification date. January 26, 1963, is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Supreme Court in K. Lakshminarayanan (2019) held that the Puducherry LG is bound by the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers and cannot operate as an independent authority, intervening only in exceptional circumstances.

Explanation

The directive was issued by a bench of the Supreme Court of India, comprising Justices Pankaj Mithal and Vipul M Pancholi. The Supreme Court is the apex judicial body in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Court ordered proceedings to be 'nipped in the bud'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court explicitly rejected the argument to wait for new laws. Statement 3 is correct as the Court underlined that existing state laws provide statutory bars and rules like 'Dam Dupat'.

Explanation

The Supreme Court issued the order on April 6, 2026. February 16, 2026, is the date of the earlier order which was being clarified. April 9, 2026, is the publication date of the news article.

Explanation

The primary objective, as stated in the article, is to provide relief to borrowers who face harassment and litigation from unlicensed lenders. By halting such cases at the threshold, the Court aims to prevent the abuse of the judicial process for recovering illegal debts.

Explanation

As per the article, the National High Speed Rail Corporation Limited (NHSRCL) is the entity that has released the plan for the tunnel construction. NHSRCL is the SPV established under the Ministry of Railways to develop and implement high-speed rail projects in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article mentions the tunnel will include a 7-km-long undersea stretch beneath Thane Creek, which is India's first. Statement 2 is incorrect: Only 5 km of tunnelling has been completed using NATM; the remaining 16 km will use Tunnel Boring Machines (TBMs). Statement 3 is correct: The article states the 508 km corridor passes through Gujarat, Maharashtra, and the Union Territory of Dadra & Nagar Haveli.

Explanation

The article's 'TBM Specifications' section explicitly states the 'Cutter head diameter' as '13.6 m'. Option B (13.1 m) is a close distractor, as it is the diameter of the single tube tunnel to accommodate twin tracks, not the cutter head.

Explanation

While all options might have minor relevance, the primary strategic significance, as inferred from it being 'the country's first', is to develop indigenous expertise and serve as a benchmark for future complex undersea rail infrastructure projects in India, such as the proposed Mumbai-Ahmedabad coastal road or other sea links.

Explanation

The COP refers to the Conference of the Parties under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), which is the primary international treaty for addressing climate change. The Paris Agreement is an agreement under the UNFCCC.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the offer was made at COP28 in Dubai. Statement 2 is correct as the article states India feared prioritizing global concerns over national interest. Statement 3 is incorrect because COP33 will conduct the second Global Stocktake (GST); the first GST was concluded at COP28.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India has been pressing for the full implementation of Article 9.1 of the Paris Agreement, which states that developed nations 'shall provide' financial resources to developing countries.

Explanation

The article highlights that COP33 is due to carry out the second Global Stocktake (GST). As host, India would be responsible for steering negotiations to deliver a strong outcome, which would pressure countries to increase ambition—a scenario conflicting with India's development-first stance.

Explanation

As per the article, the new legislation was published in the Gazette on Thursday by the Ministry of Law and Justice. While the Ministry of Home Affairs is the administrative ministry for CAPFs, the Gazette publication is done by the Law Ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Act was notified after President Droupadi Murmu's assent. Statement 2 is correct as the article says it targets Group A General Duty officers and other personnel. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article lists CRPF, BSF, CISF, ITBP, and SSB, but does not mention the National Security Guard (NSG).

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The Centre on Thursday notified the Central Armed Police Forces (General) Administration Act...' and the published date is given as April 09, 2026. Therefore, the correct date is April 9, 2026.

Explanation

The article states the Act is 'Aimed at creating a "comprehensive and uniform system"' for the CAPFs. It standardises recruitment, service conditions, and operational protocols. The other options are not mentioned as objectives in the provided content.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the Supreme Court directed the National Investigation Agency (NIA) to probe the incidents, invoking Article 142. The NIA is the central agency mentioned as registering 12 cases.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the article mentions the Supreme Court invoked Article 142, not Article 32. Statement 2 is correct as the officers were attacked during SIR work. Statement 3 is correct as the bench directed the Chief Secretary to apologise.

Explanation

According to the article, the NIA registered 12 cases in total - seven FIRs from Mothabari Police Station and five from Kalichak Police Station. The other numbers are close distractors from partial information in the article.

Explanation

The article states the Supreme Court acted due to the law-and-order breakdown where officers were held hostage, highlighting the failure to protect judicial officers. The Court's order under Article 142 aimed to ensure justice and protect the integrity of the judicial and electoral process.

Explanation

The Supreme Court explicitly directed the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) to take over the investigation from the local police. CBI is India's premier central investigating agency.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Court directed CBI to form a committee headed by a DIG-rank officer. Statement 2 is correct as the committee must include a woman psychologist and a woman doctor. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Court made it clear that CBI shall NOT take any coercive step against either party.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions the police registered a case under Section 75 of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 (punishment for cruelty to child) and Section 10 of the POCSO Act, 2012 (punishment for aggravated sexual assault).

Explanation

The Supreme Court's order states, 'We want the First Information Report... to be investigated in the right direction and in accordance with law.' This indicates the Court's intent to ensure a proper legal investigation, not necessarily expediency or setting a blanket precedent.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that National High Speed Rail Corporation Limited (NHSRCL) officials provided the information and are overseeing the TBM assembly. NHSRCL is the special purpose vehicle created for this project.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; 5 km is completed using the New Austrian Tunnelling Method (NATM), and the remaining 16 km will use TBMs. Statement 3 is incorrect; the 13.1 m diameter tunnel is for twin tracks, not a single track.

Explanation

The article specifically states: "These machines can operate at a maximum cutter head speed of four RPM (revolutions per minute), with a maximum excavation rate of 49 mm per minute." The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article highlights that "These advanced TBMs, based on Mix Shield or Slurry technology, are specifically designed to operate in complex geological conditions." This is their key technological feature enabling the construction of the deep and undersea tunnel. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) launched the second proof of concept of NPS Swasthya. PFRDA is the regulator for the pension sector in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's description. Statement 2 is correct as the launch involved private insurance partners. Statement 3 is incorrect; the projected healthcare cost inflation for 2026 is 11.5%-14%, not 15%-18%.

Explanation

The article clearly states that currently, 10% of the country's population is in the senior citizen category. This is a key data point against which the future projection of over 20% by 2045-50 is measured.

Explanation

The article defines NPS Swasthya as "an initiative intended to provide healthcare funding along with retirement planning." It is specifically launched to address the gap where rising healthcare costs threaten long-term financial security for millions, especially with a growing senior citizen population.

Explanation

As per the Seventh Schedule (State List - List II), 'Police' and 'Public Order' are subjects under the exclusive legislative domain of State Governments. This is why the Supreme Court emphasized the role of State Governments and their Home Departments in the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court emphasized the role of State Governments, not a takeover by the Centre. Statement 3 is incorrect because the judgment in question was from 2025, not 2024. This is a classic trap of swapping a key date.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Supreme Court Bench was irked over the approach of states in implementing a '2025 judgment'. The other options are close distractors based on recent years.

Explanation

The core governance principle is derived from the Seventh Schedule (State List - List II), which places 'Police' and 'Public Order' under the exclusive domain of State Governments. This makes them primarily responsible for law enforcement actions on the ground, including tackling trafficking.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that Shaktikanta Das is the 'former governor of the Reserve Bank of India'. This is a direct static GK fact from the provided content.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's opening. Statement 2 is incorrect; the 64% surge was due to the West Asia crisis, not Russia-Ukraine conflict (a subtle trap). Statement 3 is correct as Das listed these factors among others explaining India's growth story.

Explanation

The article states: 'costs for manufacturers rose the most in 43 months in March'. This is an exact data point for prelims-style factual recall.

Explanation

Das stated that 'resilience maximisation' is replacing 'cost minimisation' as the priority due to geoeconomic fragmentation and supply-chain disruptions. This captures the core strategic shift advised.

Explanation

Article 26 of the Indian Constitution grants every religious denomination the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious purposes and to manage its own affairs in matters of religion. Article 25 deals with individual freedom of conscience and profession of religion.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The 2018 Sabarimala judgment was delivered by a 5-judge bench. Statement 2 is incorrect: The judgment struck down Rule 3(b) of the Kerala Hindu Places of Public Worship Rules, 1965, not a provision of the IPC. Statement 3 is correct: The article states the 9-judge bench is hearing pleas concerning discrimination and the scope of religious freedom under the Constitution (Articles 25-26).

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "On September 28, 2018, a five-judge bench of the Supreme Court... lifted the age restriction." The other dates are distractors: 9 April 2026 is the article's publication date, and the other years are incorrect.

Explanation

As per the article, Solicitor General Tushar Mehta argued that religious practices cannot be categorised as male-centric or female-centric, and he gave instances of temples where men face restrictions to counter the assumption of the Sabarimala judgment. The objective was to show the diversity of practices, not to abolish them or single out Hinduism.

Explanation

The article states that the AERB and the DAE report to the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC), making the AEC the body that oversees both the promotional (DAE) and regulatory (AERB) functions of nuclear energy in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The PFBR at Kalpakkam has achieved first criticality. Statement 2 is incorrect: The PFBR is the first commercial-scale component of the second stage, not the third stage, of India's nuclear power programme. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions the project's final cost is ₹8,181 crore, more than twice the sanctioned amount.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that a Parliamentary Standing Committee reported this year that the PFBR project's final cost is ₹8,181 crore. This is the key data point for prelims-style factual recall.

Explanation

The article states that nuclear power facilities are expected to consume only 6% of the land area required for equivalent solar power generation. This is presented as a non-trivial advantage, considering India's biodiversity commitments depend on not converting green cover.

Explanation

Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT City) is located in Gandhinagar, Gujarat. It was developed as a greenfield smart city project by the Gujarat government.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; commitments increased to $32.13 billion, not decreased to $20 billion. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions a nearly 60-fold jump and use for global strategies.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that total capital commitments rose to $32.13 billion as of December 2025. The other options are distractors: $0.5B was the 2020 figure, while $20.13B and $50B are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article's core analysis links the 60-fold growth to the 'growing use of the international financial services centre for structuring India-focused and global investment strategies.' The other options are either incorrect or not the primary significance mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the observations came during the hearing of a reference triggered by the 2018 Sabarimala shrine entry judgment. This is a direct static fact from the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Bench observed that logic may NOT be the right tool, contradicting the statement. Statement 3 is incorrect as the reference was triggered by a 2018 judgment, not a 2020 judgment.

Explanation

The article clearly mentions it was a 'nine-judge Bench' headed by the Chief Justice of India. This is a precise factual data point for Prelims.

Explanation

The article's central theme is the Court's observation on the limits of using logic and judicial power to examine faith, which directly pertains to the scope of judicial review of religious freedoms guaranteed under Article 25 of the Constitution.

Explanation

The TReDS is an electronic platform set up under the approval and regulatory framework of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), as mentioned in the context of the news where RBI is proposing changes to its onboarding process.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as TReDS is defined as an electronic platform for discounting MSME trade receivables. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions expansion in 2023 with insurance companies as the fourth participant. Statement 3 is incorrect; the RBI proposal is to dispense with 'due diligence', not 'credit appraisal'. Credit appraisal is a different process.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The scope of TReDS was further expanded in 2023 with the inclusion of insurance companies as the fourth participant.' This is a direct factual recall from the provided content.

Explanation

The article directly states the objective: 'In simplifying the onboarding of MSMEs... and to promote ease of doing business for this segment and to encourage their greater participation on TReDS...'. The other options are not mentioned or inferred from the article.

Explanation

The Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (Divyangjan) operates under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. It is the nodal agency for policy and programme implementation for persons with disabilities, as per the RPwD Act, 2016.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states universal design emphasizes supportive infrastructure from the start. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article criticizes this 'add-on' approach, advocating for inherent design. Statement 3 is correct as assistive tech like JAWS/NVDA is highlighted as part of enabling infrastructure.

Explanation

The article explicitly names 'JAWS and NVDA' as examples of screen readers that digital platforms should be designed to be accessible through. The other options list other assistive software not mentioned in the provided text.

Explanation

The article's core argument is that solutions are often 'hastily and insufficiently inserted' later. It advocates for accessibility to be 'an inherent part of their design, rather than being a later... add-on.' This critiques the prevailing reactive approach.

Explanation

The Supreme Court explicitly ruled that disputes regarding the spiritual office of Sajjadanashin fall under the jurisdiction of civil courts, as they are religious affairs. The Waqf Board's authority is secular and limited to property management.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Court based its distinction on Section 64(2). Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court explicitly barred the Waqf Board from deciding spiritual succession, limiting it to secular property management. Statement 3 is correct, as the Court held that declaring a Sajjadanashin is a religious affair.

Explanation

The article states the bench comprised Justices MM Sundresh and Vipul M Pancholi, who delivered the ruling on April 2, 2026. The other options are names of other Supreme Court judges not mentioned in the context.

Explanation

The Court interpreted that Section 64(2), by stating removal from Mutawalliship does not affect Sajjadanashin rights, treats them as separate. This legally confines the Waqf Board's statutory authority to the secular administration of waqf properties, preventing its interference in religious spiritual succession.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that both sides agreed the arrested individuals would be returned 'in accordance with the procedures laid out in the extradition treaty between the two countries.' This refers to the existing Bilateral Extradition Treaty.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the BNP government led by PM Tarique Rahman and its 'Bangladesh First' policy. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the Ganga treaty expires in December 2026, not 2025. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned that the Teesta pact has been stalled by West Bengal for 14 years.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The BNP swept to power in February this year...' Given the article's publication date is April 2026, 'this year' refers to 2026.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that 'Bangladesh has sought an increase in the supply of diesel and fertilizers by India' and later reiterates that the Foreign Minister 'requested to increase the volume of supply of diesel and fertilizer.'

Explanation

As per the article, for the Lok Sabha, changes will have to be made to Article 81. Article 170 deals with the composition of Legislative Assemblies of states. Articles 80 and 331 deal with Rajya Sabha and Anglo-Indian representation, respectively.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Delimitation Bill proposes a 50% increase. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article specifies the Himalayan Griffon vulture is 'Near Threatened', not 'Critically Endangered'. Statement 3 is correct as per the details on India ratifying the Kigali Amendment and its 2028 freeze date.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that about 46% of households are landless, according to the working paper. The other figures are state-specific: 73% is for Punjab, 59% for Bihar, and 51% for Madhya Pradesh.

Explanation

The article states the government realized that as host, India would be expected to champion global climate causes, which could sometimes conflict with its own national positions. The other options are not mentioned as reasons in the provided text.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions Petroleum Minister Hardeep Singh Puri's visit to Qatar. The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas is the nodal ministry for matters related to petroleum, natural gas, and refineries, including international engagements for fuel supplies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states 'India depends on LNG imports to meet about half of its natural gas needs'. Statement 2 is correct: It mentions 'Qatar alone accounts for over two-fifths of India’s LNG imports'. Statement 3 is correct: It says '90% of the imports [LPG] come through the Strait'. Hence, all three statements are correct.

Explanation

The article specifically states: 'The attacks by Iran damaged two LNG producing trains totaling 12.8 mtpa of production'. Option A (8.5 MTPA) is the volume of India's long-term contracts with QatarEnergy. Option B (11.2 MTPA) is India's LNG import volume from Qatar. Option D is a distractor based on the percentage of Qatar's exports affected (17%).

Explanation

The core context of the visit is the fragile ceasefire and the blockade at the Strait of Hormuz, which has severely impacted vessel movements and supplies. The article states 'prioritisation of LNG and LPG supplies to India is likely to be a top agenda item', indicating the objective is securing supplies amidst the ongoing crisis, not primarily price negotiation or new investments.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) in the context of 'enhanced monitoring' for a potential interim deal capping Iran's uranium enrichment. The IAEA is the global nuclear watchdog.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the agreement is 'tottering' with 'Israel bombing Lebanon' less than 24 hours later. Statement 2 is incorrect: It reverses the positions; the article says the pause is 'tactical' for Washington, while Tehran seeks a 'structural settlement'. Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly mentions 'USA’s 15 points and Iran’s 10-point proposals'.

Explanation

The article clearly states that negotiations will be based on 'USA’s 15 points and Iran’s 10-point proposals'. The US proposal has 15 points, and the Iranian proposal has 10 points.

Explanation

The article states the ceasefire 'underscores the emergence of a new architecture, driven by middle powers like Pakistan, Egypt, Turkey and Gulf states, instead of the traditional Western-dominated conflict resolution model.' This is a core geopolitical shift discussed.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Delhi High Court, with Justice Saurabh Banerjee, heard the writ petition and delivered the judgment granting police protection to the couple. The other High Courts are not mentioned in the context of this case.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The court explicitly stated that marital status is 'not a germane factor' for consideration. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's 'Primacy of personal liberty' section. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article states the court 'refrained from examining the legality or validity of the couple's private arrangement, including a memorandum of understanding (MoU)'.

Explanation

The article quotes the Delhi High Court order from April 6. March 3 is when the couple relocated to Delhi. March 11, 2026, is when representations were submitted to authorities. February 25 is when the woman began residing in Hyderabad. The court's statement is specifically dated April 6.

Explanation

The core ruling, as stated multiple times in the article, is that the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21, and other fundamental rights, cannot be curtailed merely because of an individual's marital status or social disapproval of their relationship. The judgment did not equate live-in relationships to marriage, nor did it make protection automatic or mandate mediation.

Explanation

The article explicitly names Ebrahim Rezaei as the spokesperson for the National Security and Foreign Policy Committee of the Iranian Parliament, who made the statement. This is a factual recall from the news text.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the alternative route is near Iran's mainland and Larak Island, not Oman's. Statement 3 is correct as ISNA and Tasnim news agencies published the chart. The trap is swapping the country for the alternative route.

Explanation

The article states: "Israel, on Wednesday (Apr 8), launched its biggest attack targeting Lebanon..." This is a direct data point. The other dates are close distractors: April 9 is when Iran published the map, and the others are not mentioned.

Explanation

The act of defining an alternative route, especially one closer to its coast, is a demonstration of sovereignty and control over the maritime domain. It forces global shipping to acknowledge and navigate according to Iranian dictates, which is a core element of geopolitical leverage. The article does not mention tolls, IMO compliance, or weather as reasons.