23 April 2026, Questions & Answers

96 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

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This page contains 96 current affairs questions with answers from 23 April 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

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23 April 2026, Questions with Answers

96 Qs
Q1.

As per Article 145(3) of the Indian Constitution, what is the minimum number of judges required to constitute a 'Constitution Bench' of the Supreme Court?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Three judges
  • B.Five judges✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Seven judges
  • D.Nine judges
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 145(3) states that any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution shall be heard by a bench of not less than five judges. The news mentions a 9-judge bench, which exceeds this constitutional minimum.

Source: Supreme Court 9-Judge Bench Observes on Religious Freedom, Discrimination in Sabarimala Temple Case →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The Supreme Court's 9-judge Constitution Bench is specifically reviewing its 2018 judgment on Sabarimala temple entry.

2. The bench is examining the broader scope of religious freedom under Articles 25-28 in relation to other fundamental rights.

3. The bench made an observation cautioning against views from 'WhatsApp University' during the hearings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The 9-judge bench is not reviewing the 2018 judgment but is answering broader questions of law referred to it. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's context. Statement 3 is correct as the bench's observation on 'WhatsApp University' is the central theme of the news headline.

Source: Supreme Court 9-Judge Bench Observes on Religious Freedom, Discrimination in Sabarimala Temple Case →
Q3.

What is the size of the Supreme Court Constitution Bench mentioned in the news article that is hearing matters related to religious freedom and the Sabarimala case?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5 judges
  • B.7 judges
  • C.9 judges✓ Correct Answer
  • D.11 judges
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the observation came from a 'nine-judge Constitution bench'. This is a key factual detail for Prelims. The other options are common sizes for other Constitution Benches but are incorrect for this specific case.

Source: Supreme Court 9-Judge Bench Observes on Religious Freedom, Discrimination in Sabarimala Temple Case →
Q4.

The Supreme Court's observation on 'WhatsApp University' in the context of the Sabarimala hearings primarily underscores which of the following judicial concerns?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The need for faster disposal of long-pending cases.
  • B.The challenge posed by misinformation and unverified claims in public discourse on sensitive issues.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The requirement for higher financial penalties for contempt of court.
  • D.The importance of live-streaming all constitutional bench proceedings.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The term 'WhatsApp University' is a colloquial reference to the spread of misinformation via social media platforms like WhatsApp. The bench's remark to 'respect all views except Whatsapp University' highlights the judiciary's concern about such misinformation influencing public debate on complex constitutional matters like religious freedom and gender equality.

Source: Supreme Court 9-Judge Bench Observes on Religious Freedom, Discrimination in Sabarimala Temple Case →
Q5.

Which institution releases the monthly data on India's Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) inflows?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Finance
  • D.National Statistical Office (NSO)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the data on net FDI inflows was released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in its monthly State of the Economy article. The RBI is India's central bank and is responsible for compiling and publishing data on external sector transactions, including FDI.

Source: RBI Data: India's Net FDI Inflows Surge to $4.62 Billion in February 2026, Highest Since May 2022, Driven by US Trade Deal →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding the capital flows data mentioned in the article:

1. India's net FDI inflow in February 2026 was the highest since May 2022.

2. The total net FPI outflow for the financial year 2025-26 was a record $16.59 billion.

3. The Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) of the rupee in March 2026 was the lowest in exactly 10 years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Net FDI inflow was $4.62 billion in Feb 2026, highest since $5.31 billion in May 2022. Statement 2 is correct: Net FPI sales in 2025-26 totalled a record $16.59 billion. Statement 3 is incorrect: The REER of 92.72 in March 2026 was the lowest in exactly 12 years, not 10 years.

Source: RBI Data: India's Net FDI Inflows Surge to $4.62 Billion in February 2026, Highest Since May 2022, Driven by US Trade Deal →
Q7.

According to the RBI data cited in the article, what was the value of net Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) inflows into India for the month of February 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$1.46 billion
  • B.$4.17 billion
  • C.$4.62 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • D.$5.31 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that according to RBI data, India saw net FDI inflows of $4.62 billion in February 2026. $5.31 billion was the inflow in May 2022. $4.17 billion was FPI buying in Feb 2026. $1.46 billion was net FDI for Apr-Feb of 2024-25.

Source: RBI Data: India's Net FDI Inflows Surge to $4.62 Billion in February 2026, Highest Since May 2022, Driven by US Trade Deal →
Q8.

As discussed in the article, a sustained weakening in net FDI flows could increase India's reliance on more volatile portfolio capital. What is the primary risk associated with this increased reliance, according to the economists cited?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Increased inflation and higher interest rates
  • B.Reduced government tax revenue from corporations
  • C.Potential spillovers to external balance metrics, currency stability, and financial markets✓ Correct Answer
  • D.A decline in the country's credit rating from international agencies
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes Morgan Stanley economists stating that a sustained weakening in net FDI flows "could increase reliance on more volatile portfolio capital, with potential spillovers to external balance metrics, currency stability and financial markets." This directly highlights the risk to external sector stability from volatile capital flows.

Source: RBI Data: India's Net FDI Inflows Surge to $4.62 Billion in February 2026, Highest Since May 2022, Driven by US Trade Deal →
Q9.

As per the news, which constitutional articles are primarily under consideration in the Sabarimala reference case regarding religious freedom?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Articles 14 and 15
  • B.Articles 19 and 21
  • C.Articles 25 and 26✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Articles 32 and 226
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article discusses the Supreme Court examining the scope of religious freedom under the Constitution, which is enshrined in Articles 25 (Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion) and Article 26 (Freedom to manage religious affairs).

Source: SC 9-Judge Bench Examines Religious Denomination Rights, Entry of Women in Sabarimala Reference Hearing →
Q10.

Consider the following statements regarding the Sabarimala case as mentioned in the article:

1. The original 2018 Supreme Court judgment was delivered by a five-judge bench.

2. The current reference case is being heard by a seven-judge Constitution Bench.

3. The 2018 judgment struck down a specific rule from the Kerala Hindu Places of Public Worship Rules, 1965.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the 2018 judgment was by a five-judge bench. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article clearly states the current hearing is by a nine-judge bench, not seven. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions the 2018 judgment struck down Rule 3(b) of the Kerala Hindu Places of Public Worship Rules, 1965.

Source: SC 9-Judge Bench Examines Religious Denomination Rights, Entry of Women in Sabarimala Reference Hearing →
Q11.

According to the article, on which date did the five-judge Supreme Court bench deliver its original judgment in the Sabarimala case?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.April 23, 2026
  • B.September 28, 2018✓ Correct Answer
  • C.January 26, 2019
  • D.November 9, 2019
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "On September 28, 2018, a five-judge bench of the Supreme Court, by a 4:1 majority, lifted the age restriction on women visitors..." April 23, 2026, is the publication date of the news article.

Source: SC 9-Judge Bench Examines Religious Denomination Rights, Entry of Women in Sabarimala Reference Hearing →
Q12.

What is the primary constitutional issue being examined by the nine-judge bench in the Sabarimala reference case, as per the article?

MediumUPSC
  • A.The legality of the Kerala government's funding for the temple.
  • B.The scope of religious freedom and rights of denominations under the Constitution.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The appointment process for priests at the Sabarimala temple.
  • D.The environmental impact of pilgrimage in the Periyar Tiger Reserve.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's background states the apex court is hearing pleas concerning discrimination against women and "the scope of religious freedom under the Constitution." The detailed observations about denominations and protected worship further confirm this is the core issue. Other options are not mentioned in the article.

Source: SC 9-Judge Bench Examines Religious Denomination Rights, Entry of Women in Sabarimala Reference Hearing →
Q13.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for the defence partnership initiatives discussed during Rajnath Singh's visit to Germany?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of External Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Defence✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • D.Ministry of Science and Technology
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The news article details the visit of Defence Minister Rajnath Singh and discussions on defence co-development. The Ministry of Defence is the nodal ministry for all defence procurement, partnerships, and industrial policy in India.

Source: India-Germany Defence Partnership Focuses on Co-Development of Advanced Radar, AI-UAS, and Submarines Under P75(I) Deal →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-Germany defence partnership discussed in the news:

1. The partnership aims for co-development in areas like advanced radar and AI-enabled Unmanned Aerial Systems.

2. A key outcome of the visit was the signing of a Free Trade Agreement between India and Germany.

3. The two nations are close to finalising the P75(I) deal for the construction of submarines in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article lists these as key collaboration areas. Statement 2 is incorrect; the signed documents were the 'Defence Industrial Cooperation Roadmap' and an arrangement for UN Peacekeeping Training, not a Free Trade Agreement. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned in the article.

Source: India-Germany Defence Partnership Focuses on Co-Development of Advanced Radar, AI-UAS, and Submarines Under P75(I) Deal →
Q15.

For how many days was Defence Minister Rajnath Singh on an official visit to Germany, as per the news article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Two days
  • B.Three days✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Four days
  • D.Five days
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that "Singh is currently on a three-day official visit to Germany." The other options are plausible distractors for a short diplomatic visit.

Source: India-Germany Defence Partnership Focuses on Co-Development of Advanced Radar, AI-UAS, and Submarines Under P75(I) Deal →
Q16.

What is the primary strategic objective behind India's push for co-development and co-production partnerships in defence, as highlighted in the news?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To immediately reduce the fiscal deficit by cutting defence imports
  • B.To achieve self-reliance (Atmanirbharta) and strategic autonomy in defence manufacturing✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To form a military alliance with European nations against common threats
  • D.To outsource defence R&D to more technologically advanced countries
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article repeatedly emphasises moving from a buyer to a partner model to build a "self-reliant defence industrial base" which is "essential for strategic autonomy." While reducing imports is a benefit, the core objective is building indigenous capability and strategic independence.

Source: India-Germany Defence Partnership Focuses on Co-Development of Advanced Radar, AI-UAS, and Submarines Under P75(I) Deal →
Q17.

Which national authority is primarily responsible for issuing the guidelines for the preparation of Heat Action Plans (HAPs) in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.India Meteorological Department (IMD)
  • B.National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  • D.National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the NDMA issued 'Guidelines for Preparation of Action Plan – Prevention and Management of Heat Wave' in 2016, which were revised in 2017 and 2019. The NDMA collaborates with states to implement HAPs.

Source: Heatwave Thresholds, 380M Exposed Workers & ICAP: India's Climate Action for 75% Workforce →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding heatwaves in India:

1. For coastal regions, the India Meteorological Department (IMD) declares a heatwave when the maximum temperature reaches or exceeds 37°C.

2. Heatwaves are included in the list of 12 disasters eligible for financial assistance from the National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF).

3. The India Cooling Action Plan (ICAP), launched in 2019, is aligned with India's commitments under the Kigali Amendment to phase down Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per IMD thresholds mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly states heatwave is NOT among the 12 disasters eligible for NDRF/SDRF support. Statement 3 is correct as the article links ICAP to the Kigali Amendment commitments for HFC phase-down.

Source: Heatwave Thresholds, 380M Exposed Workers & ICAP: India's Climate Action for 75% Workforce →
Q19.

According to a 2022 World Bank report cited in the article, approximately how many workers in India are engaged in heat-exposed work?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.250 million
  • B.300 million
  • C.380 million✓ Correct Answer
  • D.450 million
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly states: "According to a 2022 report by the World Bank, about 75 per cent of India’s workforce (~ 380 million people) is involved in heat-exposed work." This is a key data point for understanding the scale of vulnerability.

Source: Heatwave Thresholds, 380M Exposed Workers & ICAP: India's Climate Action for 75% Workforce →
Q20.

What is identified as a primary structural weakness in India's policy response to heatwaves, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lack of early warning systems from the IMD
  • B.Absence of Heat Action Plans in most states
  • C.Exclusion of heatwaves from the list of disasters eligible for NDRF/SDRF funds✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Failure to ratify the Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that only 12 disasters qualify for NDRF/SDRF support and heatwave is not one of them, leaving states severely underfunded for response. This is cited as a major structural gap, unlike the other options which are factually incorrect based on the article's content.

Source: Heatwave Thresholds, 380M Exposed Workers & ICAP: India's Climate Action for 75% Workforce →
Q21.

The article mentions the Punjab and Haryana High Court ordered the clearance of Dearness Allowance dues. Under which Article of the Constitution can High Courts issue such writs?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Article 32
  • B.Article 226✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 136
  • D.Article 142
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 226 of the Constitution empowers High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose. The Punjab and Haryana High Court's order regarding DA dues falls under this jurisdiction, as mentioned in the article's context of enforcing entitlements.

Source: Punjab’s Fiscal Stress: Debt at ₹4 Lakh Cr, Salaries & Pensions 65% of Revenue Spend, FRBM Revenue Deficit Target Breached at 3.79% →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding Punjab's finances as per the article:

1. The state's fiscal deficit of 4.45% of GSDP remained within the FRBM prescribed ceiling for 2023-24.

2. Salaries, pensions, and interest payments accounted for 69% of revenue expenditure in the year 2023-24.

3. The state's subsidy bill exceeds its revenue deficit.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the fiscal deficit was 4.45%, within the 4.60% FRBM ceiling. Statement 2 is incorrect: The share was 65% in 2023-24; 69% was the figure for 2019-20. Statement 3 is correct: The subsidy bill is ₹26,612 crore, which exceeds the revenue deficit of ₹21,955 crore.

Source: Punjab’s Fiscal Stress: Debt at ₹4 Lakh Cr, Salaries & Pensions 65% of Revenue Spend, FRBM Revenue Deficit Target Breached at 3.79% →
Q23.

According to the State Finances Audit Report cited in the article, what was the approximate Compound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) of Punjab's commitments (interest, salaries, pensions) from 2019-20 to 2023-24?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.7.25%
  • B.8.50%
  • C.9.78%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.10.12%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that commitments increased from ₹52,544 crore in 2019-20 to ₹76,388 crore in 2023-24, growing at a compound annual rate of 9.78%. The other options are close distractors.

Source: Punjab’s Fiscal Stress: Debt at ₹4 Lakh Cr, Salaries & Pensions 65% of Revenue Spend, FRBM Revenue Deficit Target Breached at 3.79% →
Q24.

What is a primary implication of Punjab's high 'committed expenditure' on salaries, pensions, and interest, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.It leads to an automatic increase in the state's credit rating.
  • B.It significantly reduces the fiscal space available for developmental spending on health and education.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It ensures full compliance with all FRBM Act targets for deficits.
  • D.It directly increases the state's non-tax revenue from excise duties.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that high committed expenditure leaves "limited room for discretionary spending" and limits the "ability to spend on sectors such as health, education and infrastructure." This is the core implication of the structural fiscal stress described.

Source: Punjab’s Fiscal Stress: Debt at ₹4 Lakh Cr, Salaries & Pensions 65% of Revenue Spend, FRBM Revenue Deficit Target Breached at 3.79% →
Q25.

Which constitutional body is primarily responsible for the preparation and revision of electoral rolls in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Supreme Court of India
  • B.Election Commission of India✓ Correct Answer
  • C.President of India
  • D.Parliament of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 324 of the Constitution empowers the Election Commission of India (ECI) with the superintendence, direction, and control of all elections, including the preparation of electoral rolls. The Supreme Court intervened in this case due to petitions against the ECI's process.

Source: SC Invokes Article 142, Sets Up Tribunals for 34 Lakh Appeals After WB Voter List Deletion →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding the West Bengal voter list deletion case:

1. The Supreme Court invoked Article 142 of the Constitution to appoint appellate tribunals.

2. The Election Commission had considered around 650 cases and reinstated 139 names for the first phase of polling.

3. The total number of electors flagged for 'logical discrepancies' during the Special Intensive Revision was 27.10 lakh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly mentions the Supreme Court invoked Article 142. Statement 2 is correct as per the data shared by ECI. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states 60.06 lakh electors were flagged, while 27.10 lakh were deleted after adjudication.

Source: SC Invokes Article 142, Sets Up Tribunals for 34 Lakh Appeals After WB Voter List Deletion →
Q27.

According to the article, how many former High Court judges were appointed by the Election Commission as single-member appellate tribunals on March 20?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.7
  • B.19✓ Correct Answer
  • C.34
  • D.700
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states, 'Nineteen former judges were then appointed by the EC on March 20 as single-member appellate tribunals.' The number 700 refers to the judicial officers appointed earlier, 34 lakh is the number of pending appeals, and 7 is not mentioned.

Source: SC Invokes Article 142, Sets Up Tribunals for 34 Lakh Appeals After WB Voter List Deletion →
Q28.

What was a primary ground cited by voters in their appeals to the tribunals, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Disagreement with the political party in power
  • B.Lack of prior notice or hearing before being struck off the rolls✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Inability to pay a registration fee
  • D.Change in their residential address
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article begins by stating among the grounds cited are 'the lack of notice or hearing before being struck off the rolls'. The other options are not mentioned as grounds for appeal in the provided content.

Source: SC Invokes Article 142, Sets Up Tribunals for 34 Lakh Appeals After WB Voter List Deletion →
Q29.

Which ministry's spokesperson welcomed Japan's review of its defence equipment transfer principles?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Defence
  • B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • D.Ministry of Home Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly quotes Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) spokesperson Randhir Jaiswal welcoming Japan's review. The MEA handles India's foreign relations and diplomatic statements.

Source: Japan Lifts 5-Category Arms Export Ban, India Welcomes Review of 'Three Principles' to Boost Defence Cooperation →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. Japan's relaxed arms export policy allows it to sell lethal weapons to all Quad member countries.

2. The old Japanese policy restricted arms exports to only five specific non-lethal categories.

3. India and Japan cooperate multilaterally in the strategic defence landscape, including at the Quad grouping.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The article says Japan can sell to 17 countries with which it has defence agreements; while Quad members (US, Australia) are likely included, it is not explicitly stated as 'all'. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions bilateral and multilateral cooperation, including at the Quad.

Source: Japan Lifts 5-Category Arms Export Ban, India Welcomes Review of 'Three Principles' to Boost Defence Cooperation →
Q31.

According to the article, to how many countries with defence agreements can Japan now sell lethal weapons under its new policy?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5 countries
  • B.12 countries
  • C.17 countries✓ Correct Answer
  • D.20 countries
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'This means Japan can now sell lethal weapons to the 17 countries with which it has defence agreements, including the US and the UK.' The number 5 refers to the old restricted categories, not the number of countries.

Source: Japan Lifts 5-Category Arms Export Ban, India Welcomes Review of 'Three Principles' to Boost Defence Cooperation →
Q32.

What is a primary strategic implication of Japan's relaxation of its arms export rules, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase Japan's domestic military spending significantly.
  • B.To enable deeper defence technology and industrial collaboration with partner countries like India.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To withdraw Japan from all international security alliances.
  • D.To focus exclusively on exporting non-lethal humanitarian aid equipment.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article links Japan's policy shift to increased 'practical cooperation' and 'technological and industrial collaboration' with India for national security resilience. While spending may increase, it's not the primary implication stated. The move expands, not restricts, Japan's international security role.

Source: Japan Lifts 5-Category Arms Export Ban, India Welcomes Review of 'Three Principles' to Boost Defence Cooperation →
Q33.

Which non-governmental organization presented the arguments on Islamic personal law to the Supreme Court in this case?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Commission for Women
  • B.All India Muslim Personal Law Board✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Law Commission of India
  • D.National Human Rights Commission
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Senior Advocate M R Shamshad was appearing for the All India Muslim Personal Law Board (AIMPLB). AIMPLB is a body that represents Muslim interests regarding Islamic personal law.

Source: AIMPLB Submits SC: Women Can Pray in Mosques but Cannot Demand Main Door Entry or Barrier Removal →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding the AIMPLB's submission to the Supreme Court:

1. AIMPLB stated that there is no bar in Islam on Muslim women visiting mosques to pray.

2. AIMPLB argued that women can demand entry through the main door of a mosque as an Islamic right.

3. AIMPLB cited a Hadith where Prophet Mohammed instructed 'don't stop women coming to mosque'.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: AIMPLB said "there is no bar in Islam on Muslim women visiting mosques to pray." Statement 2 is incorrect because AIMPLB explicitly argued that women "cannot demand entry through the main door." Statement 3 is correct as the counsel cited the Prophet's instruction from Hadith.

Source: AIMPLB Submits SC: Women Can Pray in Mosques but Cannot Demand Main Door Entry or Barrier Removal →
Q35.

On which date did the Supreme Court deliver its judgment that struck down age restrictions on the entry of women to the Sabarimala shrine, which is now under review?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.September 28, 2017
  • B.September 28, 2018✓ Correct Answer
  • C.September 28, 2019
  • D.September 28, 2020
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically mentions "the SC's September 28, 2018, judgment that had struck down age restrictions on the entry of women to the hill shrine in Kerala." This is a key factual date for Prelims.

Source: AIMPLB Submits SC: Women Can Pray in Mosques but Cannot Demand Main Door Entry or Barrier Removal →
Q36.

What is the primary reason cited by AIMPLB's counsel, as mentioned in the article, for why congregational prayer in a mosque is not obligatory for women?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Women are considered spiritually equal praying at home.
  • B.Historical tradition restricts women's public participation.
  • C.They may be needed at home to look after the children.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Mosques lack adequate separate facilities for women.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Justice Amanullah, during the hearing, stated the reason: "they may be needed at home 'to look after the children' when others go for prayers." This is the specific reason mentioned in the article text.

Source: AIMPLB Submits SC: Women Can Pray in Mosques but Cannot Demand Main Door Entry or Barrier Removal →
Q37.

The India-UK Strategic Dialogue mentioned in the news is held between the National Security Advisors. In India, which body is the NSA the chief executive of?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.National Investigation Agency (NIA)
  • B.Defence Planning Committee (DPC)
  • C.National Security Council (NSC)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The National Security Advisor (NSA) is the chief executive of the National Security Council (NSC), which is the apex body for strategic policy planning on security matters. The NSA advises the Prime Minister and coordinates security policies.

Source: India-UK Strategic Dialogue: NSAs Ajit Doval & Jonathan Powell Focus on Counter-Terrorism, Khalistan Elements & Tech Security Initiative (TSI) Under Vision 2035 →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-UK talks:

1. The talks were held under the framework of the annual India-UK Strategic Dialogue.

2. Both sides reviewed progress under the India-UK Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA).

3. The dialogue focused on advancing cooperation under the India-UK Vision 2035 document.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the talks were held under the annual India-UK Strategic Dialogue. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article mentions reviewing progress under the 'Technology Security Initiative (TSI)', not a Trade Agreement. Statement 3 is correct as the NSAs reiterated the significance of the India-UK Vision 2035 Document.

Source: India-UK Strategic Dialogue: NSAs Ajit Doval & Jonathan Powell Focus on Counter-Terrorism, Khalistan Elements & Tech Security Initiative (TSI) Under Vision 2035 →
Q39.

Under the India-UK Technology Security Initiative (TSI), a joint facility for which of the following materials was established in Bhubaneswar, Odisha?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lithium-ion batteries
  • B.Silicon Carbide-based semiconductors✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Rare Earth Elements refining
  • D.Graphene production
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that collaboration under TSI enabled the setting up of a 'Silicon Carbide-based compound semiconductor facility' at Bhubaneswar, Odisha by Clas-SiC Wafer Fab Ltd, UK, and India’s SiCSem Pvt. Ltd. The other options are not mentioned.

Source: India-UK Strategic Dialogue: NSAs Ajit Doval & Jonathan Powell Focus on Counter-Terrorism, Khalistan Elements & Tech Security Initiative (TSI) Under Vision 2035 →
Q40.

What was a primary security concern for India that was discussed in the India-UK NSA-level dialogue?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Cyber attacks from state-sponsored actors
  • B.Pro-Khalistan elements operating from the UK✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Maritime piracy in the Indian Ocean Region
  • D.Illegal migration across borders
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly states that the talks focused on 'addressing New Delhi’s concerns related to terrorism, extremism and pro-Khalistan elements operating from the UK.' While other options are general security issues, the specific concern highlighted in this bilateral context is related to pro-Khalistan activities.

Source: India-UK Strategic Dialogue: NSAs Ajit Doval & Jonathan Powell Focus on Counter-Terrorism, Khalistan Elements & Tech Security Initiative (TSI) Under Vision 2035 →
Q41.

The Allahabad High Court ruling dealt with the conflict between the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 and rules under the Financial Handbook. On which subject list of the Seventh Schedule is 'Labour welfare' primarily placed?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Union List
  • B.State List
  • C.Concurrent List✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Residuary Powers
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Labour welfare, including conditions of work, is placed in the Concurrent List (List III, Entry 24). This allows both Parliament and State Legislatures to make laws on this subject, but in case of repugnancy, the doctrine established in Article 254 applies, which was the core issue in this news.

Source: Allahabad HC Rules Maternity Benefit Act 1961 Prevails Over Financial Handbook, Allows Second Maternity Leave Within 2 Years →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent Allahabad High Court ruling:

1. The court held that executive instructions in a state's Financial Handbook prevail over a parliamentary Act if they provide stricter benefits.

2. The judgment was based on the principle that beneficial social welfare legislation should be interpreted liberally.

3. The court directed the sanction of maternity leave for the petitioner from a specified period in 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The court held the opposite: the parliamentary Maternity Benefit Act prevails over the executive instructions of the Financial Handbook. Statement 2 is correct as the court emphasized the liberal interpretation of beneficial statutes. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the court directed sanction of leave from April 6 to October 2, 2026.

Source: Allahabad HC Rules Maternity Benefit Act 1961 Prevails Over Financial Handbook, Allows Second Maternity Leave Within 2 Years →
Q43.

As per the Allahabad High Court judgment, which specific rule of the Financial Handbook was read down in relation to the grant of second maternity leave?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Rule 142(1)
  • B.Rule 153(1)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Rule 165(2)
  • D.Rule 177(3)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the woman's leave request was rejected under Rule 153(1) of the financial handbook, and the court later ruled that this rule could not be used to deny second maternity leave, effectively reading it down. The other options are distractors.

Source: Allahabad HC Rules Maternity Benefit Act 1961 Prevails Over Financial Handbook, Allows Second Maternity Leave Within 2 Years →
Q44.

What is the primary legal significance of the Allahabad High Court's ruling that the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 prevails over the state's Financial Handbook?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.It establishes that state governments cannot make any rules for their employees.
  • B.It reinforces the supremacy of parliamentary legislation over conflicting state executive instructions.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It mandates that all central laws automatically override all state laws without exception.
  • D.It declares the Financial Handbook as unconstitutional.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core legal principle established is the hierarchy of laws. When a state has adopted a parliamentary law (on a concurrent subject), its provisions override inconsistent executive instructions issued by the state, such as those in a Financial Handbook. This does not mean state governments cannot make rules (A), nor does it apply to all state laws (C), and the handbook itself was not struck down as unconstitutional (D).

Source: Allahabad HC Rules Maternity Benefit Act 1961 Prevails Over Financial Handbook, Allows Second Maternity Leave Within 2 Years →
Q45.

Which state government is hosting the foundation stone ceremony for Google's AI data centre project mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Government of Telangana
  • B.Government of Andhra Pradesh✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Government of Tamil Nadu
  • D.Government of Karnataka
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the foundation stone will be laid by the Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh, N. Chandrababu Naidu, and the project location is in Visakhapatnam district, Andhra Pradesh.

Source: Google's First 1 GW Hyperscale AI Data Centre Outside US to be Launched in Andhra Pradesh's Tarluvada on April 28 →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding Google's new AI data centre project:

1. It is Google's first hyperscale 1 GW AI data centre outside the United States.

2. The project is estimated to cost over ₹1 lakh crore and is spread over 260 acres.

3. The foundation stone will be laid by the Union Minister for Electronics and IT.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the cost and area. Statement 3 is incorrect; the foundation stone is to be laid by the Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister N. Chandrababu Naidu, not a Union Minister.

Source: Google's First 1 GW Hyperscale AI Data Centre Outside US to be Launched in Andhra Pradesh's Tarluvada on April 28 →
Q47.

What is the power capacity of the hyperscale AI data centre Google is establishing in Tarluvada, Andhra Pradesh?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.500 MW
  • B.750 MW
  • C.1 GW✓ Correct Answer
  • D.1.5 GW
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that Google is setting up its 'first hyperscale 1 GW AI data centre outside the United States' in Tarluvada. The other options are plausible distractors for different scales of data centres.

Source: Google's First 1 GW Hyperscale AI Data Centre Outside US to be Launched in Andhra Pradesh's Tarluvada on April 28 →
Q48.

What is a primary strategic implication of Google establishing its first hyperscale 1 GW AI data centre outside the US in India?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It primarily aims to reduce Google's operational costs in the US.
  • B.It signifies India's growing role as a global hub for advanced digital and AI infrastructure.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Its main objective is to provide internet connectivity to remote villages in Andhra Pradesh.
  • D.It is focused on competing directly with local Indian cloud service providers.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The establishment of such a large-scale, cutting-edge facility outside the US indicates a strategic shift in global AI infrastructure location, highlighting India's potential as a key player. While cost reduction and local impact may be secondary benefits, the core implication is about India's positioning in the global tech landscape.

Source: Google's First 1 GW Hyperscale AI Data Centre Outside US to be Launched in Andhra Pradesh's Tarluvada on April 28 →
Q49.

The International Criminal Court (ICC), which has confirmed charges against Rodrigo Duterte, is headquartered in which city?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Geneva, Switzerland
  • B.New York, USA
  • C.The Hague, Netherlands✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Vienna, Austria
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The International Criminal Court (ICC) is permanently headquartered in The Hague, Netherlands. This is a fundamental static fact about the institution mentioned in the article.

Source: ICC Judges Confirm Crimes Against Humanity Charges Against Former Philippines President Rodrigo Duterte Over 'War on Drugs' →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The ICC pre-trial judges confirmed charges of 'war crimes' against former President Rodrigo Duterte.

2. The charges are related to the campaign commonly referred to as the 'war on drugs'.

3. The decision to commit Duterte to trial was taken unanimously by the judges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article specifies the confirmed charge is 'crimes against humanity', not 'war crimes'. Statement 2 is correct as the charges stem from the 'war on drugs'. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the judges' decision was 'unanimous'.

Source: ICC Judges Confirm Crimes Against Humanity Charges Against Former Philippines President Rodrigo Duterte Over 'War on Drugs' →
Q51.

On which date did the ICC judges confirm the charges and commit former Philippines President Rodrigo Duterte to trial, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.April 22, 2026
  • B.April 23, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.April 24, 2026
  • D.March 23, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the judges confirmed the charges on Thursday, April 23, 2026. This is a direct data point from the news.

Source: ICC Judges Confirm Crimes Against Humanity Charges Against Former Philippines President Rodrigo Duterte Over 'War on Drugs' →
Q52.

What is the primary significance of the ICC's decision to try former President Duterte, as highlighted in the analysis?

MediumUPSC
  • A.It will immediately restore the Philippines' membership in the ICC.
  • B.It serves as a test case for holding a former head of state accountable under international law for domestic campaigns.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It mandates that the trial must be conducted within the Philippines' national borders.
  • D.Its primary goal is to oversee economic reforms in the Philippines.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core implication is the precedent it sets for international justice. The ICC is testing its ability to prosecute a former national leader for alleged systematic crimes (the 'war on drugs') committed within his own country, challenging notions of absolute sovereignty.

Source: ICC Judges Confirm Crimes Against Humanity Charges Against Former Philippines President Rodrigo Duterte Over 'War on Drugs' →
Q53.

The India-Africa Forum Summit (IAFS) is described as the apex institutional mechanism for India's engagement with Africa. Which international body, representing African nations, is a key participant in these summits?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.African Development Bank (AfDB)
  • B.African Union (AU)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS)
  • D.Southern African Development Community (SADC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the African Union, representing 55 member countries, is an important player in the India-Africa Forum Summit discussions. The other options are regional or financial bodies within Africa.

Source: India-Africa Forum Summit (IAFS-IV) Scheduled for May 28-31, 2026 in Delhi with Theme 'IA SPIRIT' to Shape Strategic Partnership →
Q54.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-Africa Forum Summit (IAFS):

1. The first India-Africa Forum Summit was held in 2008 in New Delhi and resulted in the adoption of the Delhi Declaration.

2. The third summit, held in 2015, was the first edition to include leaders from all African nations.

3. The theme for the upcoming fourth summit (IAFS-IV) is 'Shared Future, Inclusive Growth'.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct; the 2015 summit included all African nations, unlike earlier editions. Statement 3 is incorrect; the theme for IAFS-IV is 'IA SPIRIT', not 'Shared Future, Inclusive Growth'.

Source: India-Africa Forum Summit (IAFS-IV) Scheduled for May 28-31, 2026 in Delhi with Theme 'IA SPIRIT' to Shape Strategic Partnership →
Q55.

According to the article, what was the approximate value of India-Africa bilateral trade in the financial year 2024-25 (FY 2025)?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$75 billion
  • B.$90 billion
  • C.$103 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • D.$120 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that India-Africa trade grew from around $75 billion in 2015 to $103 billion in FY 2025. The other options are close distractors: $75 billion was the 2015 figure, while $90 and $120 billion are not mentioned.

Source: India-Africa Forum Summit (IAFS-IV) Scheduled for May 28-31, 2026 in Delhi with Theme 'IA SPIRIT' to Shape Strategic Partnership →
Q56.

What is a primary strategic objective for India in hosting the India-Africa Forum Summit, as highlighted in the news article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To counter Chinese military influence in the Indian Ocean Region
  • B.To amplify the voices and concerns of the Global South in international forums✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To negotiate a free trade agreement replacing the existing CEPA with Africa
  • D.To secure African support for India's permanent membership in the UN Security Council
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly links the summit's focus to India's larger geopolitical aspiration to center 'voices from the Global South'. While other options may be broader foreign policy goals, this specific objective is directly mentioned in the context of the summit.

Source: India-Africa Forum Summit (IAFS-IV) Scheduled for May 28-31, 2026 in Delhi with Theme 'IA SPIRIT' to Shape Strategic Partnership →
Q57.

Under which ministry is the newly established Online Gaming Authority of India (OGAI) housed?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
  • C.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ministry of Law and Justice
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Online Gaming Authority of India (OGAI) is housed under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). This ministry is the nodal body for IT and internet-related policy in India.

Source: Government Notifies Online Gaming Rules 2026, Establishes OGAI Under MeitY as Sectoral Regulator →
Q58.

Consider the following statements regarding the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Rules, 2026:

1. They establish the Online Gaming Authority of India (OGAI) as the sectoral regulator.

2. The rules mandate universal compulsory registration for all online games offered in India.

3. The framework brings banks and payment gateways into the regulatory net for enforcement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the rules establish OGAI. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clarifies that registration/determination is 'not universally mandatory' and is required only in specific cases. Statement 3 is correct as financial institutions are required to verify a game's status and act on OGAI directions.

Source: Government Notifies Online Gaming Rules 2026, Establishes OGAI Under MeitY as Sectoral Regulator →
Q59.

From which date are the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Rules, 2026, scheduled to come into force?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.April 23, 2026
  • B.May 1, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.June 1, 2026
  • D.July 1, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the rules are 'scheduled to come into force on May 1'. April 23 is the notification date, while the other dates are not mentioned.

Source: Government Notifies Online Gaming Rules 2026, Establishes OGAI Under MeitY as Sectoral Regulator →
Q60.

What is a key rationale mentioned in the article for the central government stepping in with a unified framework for online gaming?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To generate significant tax revenue from the gaming sector
  • B.To promote Indian gaming startups in international markets
  • C.To address concerns over addiction, fraud, and regulatory arbitrage among states✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To ban all forms of real-money gaming in the country
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that concerns over addiction, fraud, and regulatory arbitrage—with different states following different rules—prompted the Centre to step in. The other options are not cited as primary rationales in the provided content.

Source: Government Notifies Online Gaming Rules 2026, Establishes OGAI Under MeitY as Sectoral Regulator →
Q61.

Which constitutional body is responsible for enforcing the Model Code of Conduct (MCC)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Supreme Court of India
  • B.The Election Commission of India✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Ministry of Law and Justice
  • D.The Parliament of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Election Commission of India (ECI), established under Article 324, is the constitutional body that issues and enforces the Model Code of Conduct. The article states the MCC is part of the ECI's drive to ensure free and fair elections.

Source: Model Code of Conduct (MCC) Explained: 8 Provisions, Moral Sanction Under EC, No Statutory Backing →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding the Model Code of Conduct (MCC):

1. The MCC was first introduced during the state assembly elections in Kerala in 1960.

2. The MCC has statutory backing under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.

3. The MCC contains a provision specifically regulating the 'party in power', which was added in October 1979.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the MCC has no statutory backing and relies on moral sanction. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the provision was added in October 1979. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: Model Code of Conduct (MCC) Explained: 8 Provisions, Moral Sanction Under EC, No Statutory Backing →
Q63.

According to the Model Code of Conduct, what is the duration of the 'election silence' period before the closing of the poll?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.24 hours
  • B.36 hours
  • C.48 hours✓ Correct Answer
  • D.72 hours
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that holding public meetings during the 48-hour period before the hour fixed for closing of the poll is prohibited, and this period is known as 'election silence'. The other options are incorrect distractors.

Source: Model Code of Conduct (MCC) Explained: 8 Provisions, Moral Sanction Under EC, No Statutory Backing →
Q64.

What is the primary purpose of the Model Code of Conduct (MCC), as described in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To legally punish parties that misuse government funds
  • B.To ensure free and fair elections by regulating party and candidate conduct✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To set campaign spending limits for political parties
  • D.To administer the electoral rolls and voter registration
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the MCC is a set of guidelines issued to regulate political parties and candidates prior to elections, so that free and fair elections are conducted. The MCC does not set spending limits (regulated by other laws) and its enforcement is moral, not legal.

Source: Model Code of Conduct (MCC) Explained: 8 Provisions, Moral Sanction Under EC, No Statutory Backing →
Q65.

The National Investigation Agency (NIA) was established after which major terror incident in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The 1993 Bombay blasts
  • B.The 2001 Indian Parliament attack
  • C.The 2008 Mumbai attacks (26/11)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The 2016 Pathankot attack
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The NIA was created in 2008 in the wake of the 26/11 Mumbai terror attacks. The NIA Act was passed by Parliament in December 2008 to establish a dedicated federal agency for investigating terror cases across state boundaries.

Source: Bombay HC Quashes Charges Against Last 4 Accused in 2006 Malegaon Blasts Citing 'Diagonally Opposite' ATS and NIA Probe Versions →
Q66.

Consider the following statements regarding the Bombay High Court's judgment on the 2006 Malegaon blasts case:

1. The court discharged the last four accused, leaving no one currently facing trial.

2. It criticized the NIA for relying on fresh, corroborative evidence collected after taking over the probe.

3. The bench observed that the Special NIA Court's order showed 'no application of judicial mind'.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the four were discharged, leaving no accused. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court criticized the NIA for NOT collecting fresh evidence and instead relying on retracted statements and hearsay. Statement 3 is correct as the HC quashed the Special Court order for showing 'no application of judicial mind'.

Source: Bombay HC Quashes Charges Against Last 4 Accused in 2006 Malegaon Blasts Citing 'Diagonally Opposite' ATS and NIA Probe Versions →
Q67.

According to the article, how many people were killed and injured respectively in the 2006 Malegaon blasts?

MediumUPSC Prelims, SSC
  • A.25 killed, 150 injured
  • B.31 killed, 312 injured✓ Correct Answer
  • C.37 killed, 250 injured
  • D.40 killed, 300 injured
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the September 8, 2006 blasts killed 31 people and injured 312. This is a direct factual recall from the news content.

Source: Bombay HC Quashes Charges Against Last 4 Accused in 2006 Malegaon Blasts Citing 'Diagonally Opposite' ATS and NIA Probe Versions →
Q68.

What was the primary legal reason cited by the Bombay High Court for discharging the accused in the 2006 Malegaon case?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Lack of jurisdiction of the Special NIA Court to try the case.
  • B.Expiry of the maximum period of custody allowed for the accused.
  • C.Irreconcilable contradictions between the charge-sheets filed by ATS and NIA.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.A presidential pardon granted to the accused.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core of the HC's judgment was that the two investigative agencies presented 'diagonally opposite stories' that could not be reconciled, leading to a legal dead end. The court held that both versions of the incident could not be true, making a fair trial impossible.

Source: Bombay HC Quashes Charges Against Last 4 Accused in 2006 Malegaon Blasts Citing 'Diagonally Opposite' ATS and NIA Probe Versions →
Q69.

Which ministry is responsible for the policy regarding petrol and diesel prices as mentioned in the news article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • D.Ministry of Power
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG) issuing the clarification regarding fuel prices. This ministry is the nodal body for policies related to petroleum, natural gas, and refineries in India.

Source: Govt Denies Fuel Price Hike Despite OMC Under-Recovery of ₹24/L on Petrol & ₹105/L on Diesel Amid Global Surge →
Q70.

Consider the following statements regarding the fuel pricing scenario in India as per the news article:

1. Retail prices of petrol and diesel have been frozen since April 2022.

2. Public sector Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) have a market share of less than 50% in fuel retail.

3. The government recently reduced the excise duty on petrol and diesel by Rs 10 per litre to provide cushion to OMCs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states prices have been 'more or less frozen since April 2022'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article clearly mentions that government-owned OMCs have '90% market share in fuel retail', not less than 50%. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the government slashed excise duty by Rs 10 per litre last month.

Source: Govt Denies Fuel Price Hike Despite OMC Under-Recovery of ₹24/L on Petrol & ₹105/L on Diesel Amid Global Surge →
Q71.

According to the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, what were the approximate under-recovery figures for petrol and diesel as of April 1, 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Petrol: ₹10/L, Diesel: ₹50/L
  • B.Petrol: ₹18/L, Diesel: ₹85/L
  • C.Petrol: Over ₹24/L, Diesel: Almost ₹105/L✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Petrol: ₹30/L, Diesel: ₹120/L
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides the specific data point: 'On April 1, the MoPNG had said that the OMCs were incurring under-recoveries of over Rs 24 per litre on petrol and almost Rs 105 per litre on diesel.' The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Source: Govt Denies Fuel Price Hike Despite OMC Under-Recovery of ₹24/L on Petrol & ₹105/L on Diesel Amid Global Surge →
Q72.

What is the primary objective of the government's policy to keep petrol and diesel prices frozen despite high global prices, as indicated in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To maximize profits for public sector OMCs
  • B.To insulate Indian consumers from inflationary pressure✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To reduce the country's dependence on oil imports
  • D.To encourage the use of electric vehicles
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core theme is that the government and OMCs have taken 'relentless steps to insulate the Indian citizens from steep increases in international prices.' It further states that a continued price freeze is expected to 'blunt the inflationary impact of the oil price spurt.' The other options are not the primary objective mentioned.

Source: Govt Denies Fuel Price Hike Despite OMC Under-Recovery of ₹24/L on Petrol & ₹105/L on Diesel Amid Global Surge →
Q73.

Which High Court initially heard the petition in this case before it reached the Supreme Court?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Delhi High Court
  • B.Allahabad High Court✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Uttarakhand High Court
  • D.Madras High Court
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the petitioner approached the Allahabad High Court in 1997 regarding the rejection of his appointment. This High Court allowed his plea in 2004.

Source: SC Fines UP ₹1 Lakh for 30-Year Cadre Reallocation Delay, Invokes Exceptions for Cognitively Disabled Dependents →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment:

1. The court imposed costs of ₹1 lakh on the state of Uttarakhand.

2. The petitioner's final appointment to the post of Sub Deputy Inspector of Schools was made in 2011.

3. The court clarified that a 'transfer' and a 'change in cadre' operate in entirely different domains with different legal consequences.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The fine of ₹1 lakh was imposed on the state of Uttar Pradesh, not Uttarakhand. Statement 2 is correct: The article confirms he was finally appointed in July 2011. Statement 3 is correct: The court's findings explicitly state the distinction between a transfer and a change in cadre.

Source: SC Fines UP ₹1 Lakh for 30-Year Cadre Reallocation Delay, Invokes Exceptions for Cognitively Disabled Dependents →
Q75.

What was the amount of costs awarded by the Supreme Court to be paid by the State of Uttar Pradesh?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹50,000
  • B.₹75,000
  • C.₹1 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹2 lakh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: "The bench ordered award costs of Rs 1 lakh to the petitioner, which will be paid by the state of Uttar Pradesh."

Source: SC Fines UP ₹1 Lakh for 30-Year Cadre Reallocation Delay, Invokes Exceptions for Cognitively Disabled Dependents →
Q76.

What was the primary ground, besides the petitioner's original option, that the Supreme Court cited to justify his reallocation to the hill cadre?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.His high marks in the 1995 examination
  • B.The hyper-technical view taken during his initial appointment
  • C.The need for him to be close to his cognitively disabled son✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The long pendency of service disputes in the High Court
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court noted that the cadre allocation policy has an exception for persons with 'mental illness', which includes family members. The petitioner's son was cognitively challenged, making proximity to family a critical factor for support, which the state failed to provide for decades.

Source: SC Fines UP ₹1 Lakh for 30-Year Cadre Reallocation Delay, Invokes Exceptions for Cognitively Disabled Dependents →
Q77.

Which Union Ministry is primarily responsible for the modernization and operations of Indian Railways as discussed in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
  • B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • C.Ministry of Railways✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ministry of Heavy Industries
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the writer as the Union Minister for Railways, and the entire discussion revolves around the modernization program undertaken by Indian Railways, which falls under the Ministry of Railways.

Source: Indian Railways Renews 55,000 km Tracks Since 2014, Reduces Accidents by 89% and Doubles High-Speed Network →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the modernization of Indian Railways as per the article:

1. The track machine fleet has more than doubled from 748 in 2014 to 1,785 in 2026.

2. Ultrasonic Flaw Detection (USFD) testing is primarily used for measuring the ride quality and pinpointing rough spots on the track.

3. The share of railway track fit for speeds of 110 kmph and above has increased from about 40% to 80%.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'The track machine fleet has doubled from 748 in 2014 to 1,785 in 2026.' Statement 2 is incorrect because USFD is for checking hidden cracks inside rails, while ride quality is measured by GPS-enabled Oscillation Monitoring Systems (OMS). Statement 3 is correct: 'Track fit for 110 kmph and above has risen from about 40 per cent to 80 per cent.'

Source: Indian Railways Renews 55,000 km Tracks Since 2014, Reduces Accidents by 89% and Doubles High-Speed Network →
Q79.

According to the article, approximately how many kilometers of railway tracks have been renewed by Indian Railways since 2014?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.44,000 km
  • B.55,000 km✓ Correct Answer
  • C.80,000 km
  • D.1,00,000 km
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'Since 2014, about 55,000 km of tracks have been renewed...' The other options are distractors: 44,000 km is the length of long rail panels laid, 80,000 km is the length of 60-kg rails in use, and 1,00,000 km is the length where deep screening of ballast was carried out.

Source: Indian Railways Renews 55,000 km Tracks Since 2014, Reduces Accidents by 89% and Doubles High-Speed Network →
Q80.

What has been a primary outcome of the widespread adoption of Ultrasonic Flaw Detection (USFD) testing in Indian Railways' track maintenance?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.A significant increase in the maximum speed potential of tracks.
  • B.A reduction in rail and weld failures by about 90 percent.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The complete mechanization of ballast cleaning operations.
  • D.The doubling of the track machine fleet for maintenance.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly links USFD testing to a preventive maintenance outcome: 'As a result, rail and weld failures have come down by about 90 per cent, a shift from fixing problems after the event to preventing them beforehand.' While other options are mentioned as part of the modernization, they are not the direct outcome of USFD adoption.

Source: Indian Railways Renews 55,000 km Tracks Since 2014, Reduces Accidents by 89% and Doubles High-Speed Network →
Q81.

Which constitutional court delivered the judgment lifting the status quo order on housing projects in Tamil Nadu?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Madras High Court
  • B.Supreme Court of India✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Green Tribunal
  • D.District Court of Kancheepuram
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that a bench of the Supreme Court, comprising Justices Sanjay Kumar and K Vinod Chandran, lifted the status quo order and disposed of the petitions. The Madras High Court was involved earlier in 2019, but the final ruling came from the Supreme Court.

Source: Supreme Court Vacates 2019 Status Quo Order, Paves Way for 2,000+ Homes in Tamil Nadu, Citing Third-Party Rights →
Q82.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment on Tamil Nadu housing projects:

1. The court lifted a status quo order that had been in place since 2018.

2. The bench emphasized that the state government cannot ignore third-party rights created over several decades.

3. The court dismissed a contempt petition as it was filed beyond the one-year time limit from the alleged violation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the status quo order was from October 2019, not 2018. Statement 2 is correct as the court held that the state cannot undo decades-old transactions affecting innocent third parties. Statement 3 is correct as the court dismissed the 2026 contempt petition for being time-barred, reiterating that contempt proceedings must generally be initiated within one year.

Source: Supreme Court Vacates 2019 Status Quo Order, Paves Way for 2,000+ Homes in Tamil Nadu, Citing Third-Party Rights →
Q83.

According to the news, approximately how many homes (flats and villas) were impacted by the legal dispute in Tamil Nadu?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Around 1,000
  • B.Over 1,500
  • C.Over 2,000✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Nearly 3,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Supreme Court's decision paves the way for possession and regularization of 'more than 2,000 homes including flats and villas'. The breakdown includes 450 occupied flats, 482 flats in one project, 852 flats in another, and 333 villas, totaling well over 2,000.

Source: Supreme Court Vacates 2019 Status Quo Order, Paves Way for 2,000+ Homes in Tamil Nadu, Citing Third-Party Rights →
Q84.

What was the primary legal principle invoked by the Supreme Court to protect the homebuyers in this case?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The Doctrine of Basic Structure of the Constitution
  • B.The Principle of Third-Party Rights and legitimate expectation✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Directive Principles of State Policy on adequate housing
  • D.The Fundamental Right to Freedom of Trade and Commerce
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court's central reasoning was that third-party rights created over decades involving innocent citizens who invested their money cannot be brushed aside by the state attempting to reclaim land. It emphasized that a welfare state cannot 'turn back the clock' and undo old transactions, protecting the legitimate expectations of homebuyers.

Source: Supreme Court Vacates 2019 Status Quo Order, Paves Way for 2,000+ Homes in Tamil Nadu, Citing Third-Party Rights →
Q85.

The Strait of Hormuz connects which two bodies of water?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea
  • C.Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal
  • D.Gulf of Aden and Indian Ocean
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow channel situated between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman. It is the only sea passage from the Persian Gulf to the open ocean, making it a critical global oil transit route.

Source: Iran-US Standoff Over Strait of Hormuz Naval Blockade Continues Amid West Asia War Ceasefire →
Q86.

Consider the following statements regarding the news article:

1. Iran has vowed to keep the Strait of Hormuz closed if the United States continues its naval blockade.

2. The standoff is occurring despite a ceasefire in the broader West Asia war.

3. The Strait of Hormuz is a minor route for regional trade, with less than 5% of global oil passing through it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: Iran vowed it would not reopen the Strait of Hormuz as long as the US continues the blockade. Statement 2 is correct: the article states the standoff has dominated the ceasefire in the West Asia war. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Strait of Hormuz is a crucial chokepoint for global oil trade, typically accounting for about 20-30% of it, not less than 5%.

Source: Iran-US Standoff Over Strait of Hormuz Naval Blockade Continues Amid West Asia War Ceasefire →
Q87.

According to the news article, on which date did Iran make its statement regarding the Strait of Hormuz?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.April 22, 2026
  • B.April 23, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.April 24, 2026
  • D.April 25, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the tense standoff occurred 'on Thursday (April 23, 2026)' and the publication date is also April 23, 2026. The other dates are close distractors.

Source: Iran-US Standoff Over Strait of Hormuz Naval Blockade Continues Amid West Asia War Ceasefire →
Q88.

What is the primary strategic objective behind Iran's threat to keep the Strait of Hormuz closed, as described in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To launch a direct military attack on US naval forces
  • B.To use economic leverage to force the US to lift its blockade✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To divert global attention from internal political issues
  • D.To demonstrate its advanced naval technology
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article frames the situation as a 'standoff' where 'the two sides exercising their economic leverage in a bid to force the other to back down.' Iran's closure of the strait is a countermeasure to the US blockade, aiming to apply economic pressure (by threatening global oil trade) to achieve its political goal.

Source: Iran-US Standoff Over Strait of Hormuz Naval Blockade Continues Amid West Asia War Ceasefire →
Q89.

Which state government department arrested the kingpin in the ₹410 crore GST fraud case?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Karnataka Police's Economic Offences Wing
  • B.Enforcement Directorate (ED)
  • C.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
  • D.Enforcement Wing of the Commercial Taxes Department, Karnataka✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the arrest was made by the 'Enforcement Wing (South Zone) of the Commercial Taxes Department, Government of Karnataka.' The other agencies are central investigative bodies not mentioned in the report.

Source: Karnataka CTD Arrests Mastermind in ₹410 Cr Inter-State Fake ITC Fraud; ₹102.5 Cr Wrongful Claims →
Q90.

Consider the following statements regarding the GST fraud case:

1. The fraudulent transactions were worth ₹410 crore, with wrongful Input Tax Credit claims of ₹102.5 crore.

2. The arrested accused, Shaik Jakeer Hussain, was the mastermind, while Mohammed Tauqeer is absconding.

3. The racket operated through a network of bogus firms across Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the names are swapped. Mohammed Tauqeer was arrested, and Shaik Jakeer Hussain is absconding. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the three states.

Source: Karnataka CTD Arrests Mastermind in ₹410 Cr Inter-State Fake ITC Fraud; ₹102.5 Cr Wrongful Claims →
Q91.

What was the estimated value of the wrongful Input Tax Credit (ITC) claims in the inter-state GST fraud racket?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹102.5 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • B.₹410 crore
  • C.₹250 crore
  • D.₹500 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'wrongful ITC claims estimated at ₹102.5 crore.' ₹410 crore is the total value of fraudulent transactions, making it a key distractor.

Source: Karnataka CTD Arrests Mastermind in ₹410 Cr Inter-State Fake ITC Fraud; ₹102.5 Cr Wrongful Claims →
Q92.

What is the primary significance of this arrest by the Karnataka Commercial Taxes Department?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It marks the first-ever arrest under the GST Act since its implementation.
  • B.It demonstrates state-level enforcement action against a large-scale, inter-state fake ITC network.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It led to the immediate recovery of the entire ₹410 crore lost to fraud.
  • D.It resulted in the amendment of the CGST Act to introduce stricter penalties.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core news is about a state tax department cracking down on a significant inter-state fraud network. The article does not mention it being the first arrest, full recovery of funds, or any immediate amendment to the law.

Source: Karnataka CTD Arrests Mastermind in ₹410 Cr Inter-State Fake ITC Fraud; ₹102.5 Cr Wrongful Claims →
Q93.

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is constituted under which act?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.The Banking Regulation Act, 1949
  • B.The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Companies Act, 2013
  • D.The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The MPC is a statutory committee established by an amendment to the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. Its primary mandate is to determine the policy repo rate to achieve the inflation target.

Source: RBI MPC Unanimously Holds Policy Rate Amid West Asia Conflict Risks to Supply Chains & Inflation →
Q94.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The West Asia conflict was cited as posing downside risks to India's growth and upside risks to inflation.

2. The MPC meeting was held from April 5 to April 7, 2026.

3. All members of the MPC voted for a change in the policy rate.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the meeting was held from April 6 to April 8, 2026. Statement 3 is incorrect; all members voted for a status quo, not a change in the policy rate.

Source: RBI MPC Unanimously Holds Policy Rate Amid West Asia Conflict Risks to Supply Chains & Inflation →
Q95.

On which date in 2026 did the U.S. President announce a ceasefire related to the West Asia conflict, as per the MPC minutes?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.April 6, 2026
  • B.April 7, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.April 8, 2026
  • D.April 9, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that a ceasefire was announced by U.S. President Donald Trump on April 7, 2026. This event preceded the MPC's unanimous vote for a status quo on April 8.

Source: RBI MPC Unanimously Holds Policy Rate Amid West Asia Conflict Risks to Supply Chains & Inflation →
Q96.

According to the MPC minutes, what is the primary channel through which the West Asia conflict challenges the Indian economy?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Reduction in Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) inflows
  • B.Disruption in global financial markets
  • C.Supply chain disruptions affecting growth and inflation✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Weakening of the Indian Rupee against the US Dollar
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's sub-headline and content highlight that supply chain disruptions pose downside risks to growth and upside risks to inflation. While other options may be secondary effects, the primary channel discussed is supply chain disruption.

Source: RBI MPC Unanimously Holds Policy Rate Amid West Asia Conflict Risks to Supply Chains & Inflation →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 23 April 2026?▼

This page contains 96 current affairs questions from 23 April 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 23 April 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. As per Article 145(3) of the Indian Constitution, what is the …
  2. Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  3. Q3. is the size of the Supreme Court Constitution Bench mentioned …
  4. Q4. The Supreme Court's observation on 'WhatsApp University' in th…
  5. Q5. institution releases the monthly data on India's Foreign Direc…
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the capital flows …
  7. Q7. According to the RBI data cited in the article, what was the v…
  8. Q8. As discussed in the article, a sustained weakening in net FDI …
  9. Q9. As per the news, which constitutional articles are primarily u…
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the Sabarimala cas…
  11. Q11. According to the article, on which date did the five-judge Sup…
  12. Q12. is the primary constitutional issue being examined by the nine…
  13. Q13. ministry is primarily responsible for the defence partnership …
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the India-Germany …
  15. Q15. For how many days was Defence Minister Rajnath Singh on an off…
  16. Q16. is the primary strategic objective behind India's push for co-…
  17. Q17. national authority is primarily responsible for issuing the gu…
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements regarding heatwaves in India…
  19. Q19. According to a 2022 World Bank report cited in the article, ap…
  20. Q20. is identified as a primary structural weakness in India's poli…
  21. Q21. The article mentions the Punjab and Haryana High Court ordered…
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding Punjab's finances …
  23. Q23. According to the State Finances Audit Report cited in the arti…
  24. Q24. is a primary implication of Punjab's high 'committed expenditu…
  25. Q25. constitutional body is primarily responsible for the preparati…
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the West Bengal vo…
  27. Q27. According to the article, how many former High Court judges we…
  28. Q28. was a primary ground cited by voters in their appeals to the t…
  29. Q29. ministry's spokesperson welcomed Japan's review of its defence…
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Japa…
  31. Q31. According to the article, to how many countries with defence a…
  32. Q32. is a primary strategic implication of Japan's relaxation of it…
  33. Q33. non-governmental organization presented the arguments on Islam…
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the AIMPLB's submi…
  35. Q35. On which date did the Supreme Court deliver its judgment that …
  36. Q36. is the primary reason cited by AIMPLB's counsel, as mentioned …
  37. Q37. The India-UK Strategic Dialogue mentioned in the news is held …
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the India-UK talks…
  39. Q39. Under the India-UK Technology Security Initiative (TSI), a joi…
  40. Q40. was a primary security concern for India that was discussed in…
  41. Q41. The Allahabad High Court ruling dealt with the conflict betwee…
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Allahab…
  43. Q43. As per the Allahabad High Court judgment, which specific rule …
  44. Q44. is the primary legal significance of the Allahabad High Court'…
  45. Q45. state government is hosting the foundation stone ceremony for …
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding Google's new AI da…
  47. Q47. is the power capacity of the hyperscale AI data centre Google …
  48. Q48. is a primary strategic implication of Google establishing its …
  49. Q49. The International Criminal Court (ICC), which has confirmed ch…
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  51. Q51. On which date did the ICC judges confirm the charges and commi…
  52. Q52. is the primary significance of the ICC's decision to try forme…
  53. Q53. The India-Africa Forum Summit (IAFS) is described as the apex …
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the India-Africa F…
  55. Q55. According to the article, what was the approximate value of In…
  56. Q56. is a primary strategic objective for India in hosting the Indi…
  57. Q57. Under which ministry is the newly established Online Gaming Au…
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the Promotion and …
  59. Q59. From which date are the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gam…
  60. Q60. is a key rationale mentioned in the article for the central go…
  61. Q61. constitutional body is responsible for enforcing the Model Cod…
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the Model Code of …
  63. Q63. According to the Model Code of Conduct, what is the duration o…
  64. Q64. is the primary purpose of the Model Code of Conduct (MCC), as …
  65. Q65. The National Investigation Agency (NIA) was established after …
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the Bombay High Co…
  67. Q67. According to the article, how many people were killed and inju…
  68. Q68. was the primary legal reason cited by the Bombay High Court fo…
  69. Q69. ministry is responsible for the policy regarding petrol and di…
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the fuel pricing s…
  71. Q71. According to the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, what w…
  72. Q72. is the primary objective of the government's policy to keep pe…
  73. Q73. High Court initially heard the petition in this case before it…
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
  75. Q75. was the amount of costs awarded by the Supreme Court to be pai…
  76. Q76. was the primary ground, besides the petitioner's original opti…
  77. Q77. Union Ministry is primarily responsible for the modernization …
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the modernization …
  79. Q79. According to the article, approximately how many kilometers of…
  80. Q80. has been a primary outcome of the widespread adoption of Ultra…
  81. Q81. constitutional court delivered the judgment lifting the status…
  82. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
  83. Q83. According to the news, approximately how many homes (flats and…
  84. Q84. was the primary legal principle invoked by the Supreme Court t…
  85. Q85. The Strait of Hormuz connects which two bodies of water?
  86. Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the news article: …
  87. Q87. According to the news article, on which date did Iran make its…
  88. Q88. is the primary strategic objective behind Iran's threat to kee…
  89. Q89. state government department arrested the kingpin in the ₹410 c…
  90. Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the GST fraud case…
  91. Q91. was the estimated value of the wrongful Input Tax Credit (ITC)…
  92. Q92. is the primary significance of this arrest by the Karnataka Co…
  93. Q93. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is constituted under which…
  94. Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  95. Q95. On which date in 2026 did the U.S. President announce a ceasef…
  96. Q96. According to the MPC minutes, what is the primary channel thro…