25 April 2026, Questions & Answers
76 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
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This page contains 76 current affairs questions with answers from 25 April 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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76 QsWhich regulatory body possesses the authority to cancel the banking licence of an entity like Paytm Payments Bank?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central banking and monetary authority of India. It regulates and supervises banks under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, which includes the power to grant and cancel banking licences.
Consider the following statements regarding the Paytm Payments Bank (PPBL) case:
1. The Reserve Bank of India first directed PPBL to stop onboarding new customers in March 2022.
2. In January 2024, RBI barred PPBL from accepting any fresh deposits or credit transactions.
3. The RBI has stated that PPBL lacks sufficient liquidity to repay its depositors, posing a risk to customers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: restrictions started on March 11, 2022. Statement 2 is correct as RBI barred fresh deposits in January 2024. Statement 3 is incorrect because both RBI and PPBL have stated there is sufficient liquidity to repay all deposits.
According to the article, how many FASTag units had Paytm Payments Bank issued, making it the largest issuer?
- A.Over 5 million
- B.Over 8 million✓ Correct Answer
- C.Over 12 million
- D.Over 15 million
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "We are also the largest issuer of FASTag with over 8 million FASTag units issued." The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is the primary objective behind the RBI's action to cancel the licence of Paytm Payments Bank and oversee its wind-down?
- A.To promote competition among private sector banks
- B.To safeguard customer deposits and ensure financial system stability✓ Correct Answer
- C.To nationalize the payments bank sector
- D.To reduce the number of non-banking financial companies (NBFCs)
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Explanation
The RBI's primary mandate includes maintaining depositor confidence and financial stability. The article emphasizes that both RBI and the bank assured full refunds, indicating the action's core objective is to protect customers and ensure an orderly exit, not to achieve other policy goals.
As per the Constitution, the removal process of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) is similar to that of which other constitutional functionary?
- A.Comptroller and Auditor General of India
- B.Judge of the Supreme Court of India✓ Correct Answer
- C.Chairperson of the Union Public Service Commission
- D.Attorney General of India
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Explanation
Article 324(5) of the Constitution explicitly states that the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from office except in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. This process involves an address by Parliament to the President.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Opposition's notice for removal of the CEC was backed by signatures of 73 Members of Parliament.
2. The AI model 'Claude Mythos', developed by OpenAI, has raised global cybersecurity concerns.
3. BRICS issued a unanimous joint statement strongly condemning the US-Israel war on Iran.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article, which mentions the notice had 73 MPs' signatures. Statement 2 is incorrect because 'Claude Mythos' is developed by Anthropic, not OpenAI. Statement 3 is incorrect as BRICS failed to reach a consensus, and India only issued a Chair's summary, not a unanimous joint statement.
According to the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act mentioned in the article, in which year was this legislation passed?
- A.2021
- B.2022
- C.2023✓ Correct Answer
- D.2024
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Explanation
The article clearly states that 'Parliament passed the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 in December 2023'. This act elaborates on the selection and removal process of Election Commissioners.
What is the primary reason cited in the article for the BRICS grouping's inability to issue a joint statement on the Iran war?
- A.Lack of interest in the Middle East conflict among member nations.
- B.The conflict occurred outside the geographical purview of BRICS.
- C.Direct involvement of some BRICS member countries in the ongoing conflict.✓ Correct Answer
- D.India, as the chair, unilaterally decided against a joint statement.
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Explanation
The article quotes the MEA spokesperson saying, 'Some members of the BRICS are directly involved in the current situation in the West Asia region, which has impacted forging a consensus...'. Members like Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the UAE, which are part of BRICS, are directly involved, making a unified position difficult.
The principle of 'transit passage' through international straits is codified under which international convention?
- A.Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties
- B.United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Geneva Conventions
- D.Montreal Protocol
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the foundational principle of open seas is 'codified in international law with the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)'. The right of 'transit passage' is a key part of this convention, as mentioned in the analysis.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent developments concerning maritime chokepoints:
1. Iran has closed the Strait of Hormuz, challenging the UNCLOS principle of transit passage.
2. Indonesia's finance minister publicly proposed implementing transit tolls on the Strait of Malacca.
3. The Suez Canal and the Bab al-Mandab are not considered critical chokepoints for India's trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Indonesian minister 'pondered' and 'mused' about tolls but noted its impracticality; he did not formally propose it. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article lists the Suez Canal and Bab al-Mandab among the critical chokepoints for India's trade.
According to the article, which of the following is NOT listed as a critical maritime chokepoint for global trade?
- A.Strait of Hormuz
- B.Strait of Malacca
- C.Panama Canal✓ Correct Answer
- D.Bab al-Mandab
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Explanation
The article explicitly lists 'the Strait of Hormuz, the Strait of Malacca, the Suez Canal, and the Bab al-Mandab' as critical chokepoints. The Panama Canal, while important, is not mentioned in this specific article.
What is the primary strategic implication for India, as highlighted in the article, arising from the closure of the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.India must increase its domestic oil production immediately.
- B.India should take the lead in reinforcing the law of the sea and ensuring free passage in international waters.✓ Correct Answer
- C.India should impose sanctions on Iran for violating international law.
- D.India must reduce all trade dependencies on maritime routes.
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Explanation
The article's concluding paragraph directly states that 'New Delhi should, therefore, take the lead in reinforcing the law of the sea, ensuring the free and safe passage of vessels in international waters, and working with like-minded partners...'. This is presented as the key strategic response.
The authors of the article are associated with which international business council?
- A.G20 Business Council
- B.BRICS Business Council✓ Correct Answer
- C.ASEAN Business Council
- D.QUAD Business Council
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Explanation
The article's byline states that Krishnan is the India chair of the Energy, Green Economy, Climate Working Group of the BRICS Business Council. This is a directly stated fact from the source.
Consider the following statements regarding India's energy resilience pathways as discussed in the article:
1. The annual net yield of crop residues available for biofuel production is about 400 million metric tonnes.
2. Biomethane produced from cattle and poultry manure has the potential to fully replace India's current consumption of natural gas.
3. Small-Scale LNG (SSLNG) is proposed primarily to replace the existing natural gas pipeline network.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article which states net crop residue is c. 400 mmta. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says biomethane can replace current LNG imports (~35 BCM), not total natural gas consumption (~70 BCM). Statement 3 is incorrect; SSLNG is suggested to supplement, not replace, the pipeline network for smaller-scale demands.
According to the article, what is India's target for nuclear power capacity by the year 2047?
- A.50 GW
- B.100 GW✓ Correct Answer
- C.150 GW
- D.200 GW
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the target of '100 GW nuclear power by 2047'. This is a specific data point crucial for energy sector goals.
What is identified as a major challenge in utilizing biomass and manure for energy production, as per the article?
- A.Lack of conversion technology
- B.High capital cost of drilling
- C.Logistical difficulties in procurement and transport✓ Correct Answer
- D.Absence of carbon credit mechanisms
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Explanation
The article states that biomass and manure are 'low-value, low-bulk-density commodities' and that 'significant logistical difficulties' exist in procuring and transporting them to processing centres. This is the primary challenge highlighted, while other options are either not mentioned or are secondary.
Who is the head of the executive branch of the European Union, as mentioned in the news?
- A.President of the European Council
- B.President of the European Commission✓ Correct Answer
- C.High Representative of the Union for Foreign Affairs
- D.President of the European Parliament
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions European Commission President Ursula von der Leyen making the announcement. The European Commission is the EU's executive body.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The EU's proposal is aimed at funding alternative energy routes to bypass the Strait of Hormuz.
2. The initiative was triggered by a fuel crunch and high energy prices caused by the Russia-Ukraine war.
3. The announcement was made during a summit held in Nicosia, Cyprus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's core proposal. Statement 2 is incorrect; the trigger was the Iran war, not the Russia-Ukraine war. Statement 3 is correct, as the summit location was Nicosia, Cyprus.
On which date did the European Commission President announce the EU's readiness to work on alternative energy infrastructure?
- A.April 24, 2026
- B.April 25, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.April 26, 2026
- D.April 27, 2026
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Explanation
The article clearly states the announcement was made by Ursula von der Leyen on Friday, April 25, 2026. The summit was held on April 24, but the announcement was the next day.
What is the primary geopolitical objective of the EU's proposed energy infrastructure plan in West Asia?
- A.To reduce the cost of renewable energy technology
- B.To secure energy supplies from being held hostage to regional conflicts✓ Correct Answer
- C.To establish military bases in the Persian Gulf region
- D.To promote democratic reforms in West Asian countries
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Explanation
The article's core theme is creating energy projects that "wouldn't be held hostage to war or geopolitical strife," directly aiming to insulate supply chains from regional conflicts like the Iran war.
The Supreme Court judgment discussed provisions for revoking a probate. Under which central Act are these provisions primarily found?
- A.The Hindu Succession Act, 1956
- B.The Indian Succession Act, 1925✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
- D.The Indian Contract Act, 1872
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Explanation
The article explicitly discusses Sections 263 and 283 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925, which deal with the revocation of probate and citation of interested parties, respectively. This is the principal law governing testamentary succession for non-Muslims in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment on probate revocation:
1. The Court held that a purchaser who acquires an interest in a testator's estate from the heirs is a 'stranger' to the probate proceedings.
2. The Court referred to the case of Banwarilal v Kusum Bai to establish the threshold for being an 'interested party'.
3. The Court ruled that the Madras High Court committed a 'grave error' by not engaging with the provisions of Sections 263 and 283 of the Indian Succession Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court held the opposite: a purchaser from heirs is NOT a stranger and must be cited. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the Court referred to the 1972 Madhya Pradesh HC decision in Banwarilal v Kusum Bai. Statement 3 is correct as the SC stated the HC's omission to engage with Sections 263 and 283 was a 'grave error'.
According to the Supreme Court judgment, in which year did the appellants purchase the disputed properties in Coimbatore from the legal heirs of the original buyers?
- A.1976
- B.1983
- C.1997✓ Correct Answer
- D.2009
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'In 1997, the appellants purchased the properties from the legal heirs of the 1976 buyers.' The other dates are distractors: 1976 is the year of the will, 1983 is the year of the testator's death, and 2009 is when the probate petition was filed.
What was the primary legal consequence, as emphasized by the Supreme Court, of obtaining a grant of probate?
- A.It conclusively determines the ownership title of the properties mentioned in the will.
- B.It operates as a judgment in rem, serving as conclusive proof of the will's validity against everyone.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It prevents any further civil suits related to the deceased's estate from being filed.
- D.It automatically invalidates any prior sale deeds executed by the testator.
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Explanation
The article quotes the Court: 'the grant of probate is a judgment in rem and conclusive and binds not only the parties but also the entire world.' The Court clarified that probate courts do not decide title questions (making option A incorrect). Its binding nature on the world is the core reason why proper citation of all interested parties is crucial.
The Kalaignar Magalir Urimai Thittam, a monthly cash transfer scheme for women, is an initiative of which state government?
- A.Government of Kerala
- B.Government of Tamil Nadu✓ Correct Answer
- C.Government of Karnataka
- D.Government of Andhra Pradesh
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Kalaignar Magalir Urimai Thittam (KMUT) is a scheme in Tamil Nadu, providing ₹1,000 monthly to eligible women heads of households. It is a state-specific welfare initiative.
Consider the following statements regarding welfare schemes in Tamil Nadu:
1. The noon-meal programme for school children was scaled statewide by Chief Minister M. G. Ramachandran in the early 1980s.
2. The Kalaignar Magalir Urimai Thittam provides a monthly transfer of ₹1,500 to all women above 18 years of age in the state.
3. The 'Amma' brand ecosystem, including canteens and pharmacies, was promoted under the leadership of Chief Minister Jayalalithaa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: MGR expanded the noon-meal programme statewide in the early 1980s. Statement 2 is incorrect; KMUT provides ₹1,000 (not ₹1,500) monthly to eligible women heads of households, not to all women above 18. Statement 3 is correct; Jayalalithaa's tenure saw the expansive 'Amma' brand ecosystem.
As per the article, what was the total number of beneficiaries under the Kalaignar Magalir Urimai Thittam by early 2026?
- A.Approximately 1.13 crore
- B.Approximately 1.31 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.Approximately 1.50 crore
- D.Approximately 2.00 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "By early 2026, the programme had expanded to about 1.31 crore beneficiaries, up from 1.13 crore in its first phase after an additional 17 lakh women were added in late 2025." The other options are close distractors based on earlier or rounded figures.
According to the analysis in the article, what is a key socio-political implication of welfare schemes like free bus travel for women in Tamil Nadu?
- A.Primarily to increase state government revenue from public transport
- B.To reduce transport costs and expand the geography of work, study, and care for women✓ Correct Answer
- C.To replace the central government's subsidies on LPG cylinders
- D.To directly boost voter turnout among male industrial workers
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Explanation
The article explains that free bus travel "altered mobility at scale. For some, it reduced transport costs. For others, it expanded the geography of work, study and care." This highlights its role in enhancing women's agency and economic participation, which is the core socio-political implication discussed.
The indigenous Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) system module development mentioned in the news is led by which DRDO laboratory?
- A.Naval Science & Technological Laboratory (NSTL)
- B.Naval Physical & Oceanographic Laboratory (NPOL)
- C.Naval Materials Research Laboratory (NMRL)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the AIP programme is led by the Naval Material Research Laboratory (NMRL), a key DRDO lab based in Ambernath, Maharashtra. NSTL and NPOL are other DRDO naval labs with different specialisations.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The flagged-off module is a simulated Liquid Nitrogen storage tank for the AIP system.
2. The module was developed by INOX India Ltd at its facility in Kalol, Gujarat.
3. The primary objective of the AIP system is to enhance the speed of submarines on the surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The module is for Liquid Oxygen (LOX), not Liquid Nitrogen. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect: The primary objective of an AIP system is to enhance submerged endurance and stealth, not surface speed.
As per the news, where is the Naval Material Research Laboratory (NMRL), which is leading the AIP programme, located?
- A.Pune, Maharashtra
- B.Hyderabad, Telangana
- C.Ambernath, Thane, Maharashtra✓ Correct Answer
- D.Bengaluru, Karnataka
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions that the Naval Material Research Laboratory (NMRL) is based in Ambernath in Maharashtra's Thane district. The other locations are associated with different DRDO labs.
What is the primary strategic advantage that the indigenous Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) system seeks to provide to India's conventional submarine fleet?
- A.Increased weapon-carrying capacity
- B.Enhanced submerged endurance and stealth✓ Correct Answer
- C.Faster construction timelines for new submarines
- D.Reduced maintenance costs for the fleet
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Explanation
The article states the AIP system is a 'critical advancement in enhancing the endurance and stealth of our submarines.' By allowing submarines to stay submerged longer without surfacing, it directly addresses a key vulnerability and enhances their survivability and operational effectiveness.
Which constitutional authority is primarily responsible for deciding on disqualification petitions under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law) for members of a State Legislative Assembly?
- A.The Chief Minister of the State
- B.The Governor of the State
- C.The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Election Commission of India
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Explanation
As per the Tenth Schedule, the presiding officer of the House (Speaker in Assembly, Chairman in Council) is the authority to decide on disqualification of members on grounds of defection. This is a core static GK fact linked to the news.
Consider the following statements regarding defections mentioned in the article:
1. In 2022, Eknath Shinde split the Shiv Sena, taking a majority of its MLAs to ally with the BJP.
2. The defection of seven AAP Rajya Sabha MPs in 2026 was aimed at toppling the AAP government in Punjab.
3. In Goa, a petition to disqualify Congress MLAs who merged with the BJP in 2022 was dismissed by the state Assembly Speaker.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states Shinde took 40 out of 55 Shiv Sena MLAs in 2022. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article clarifies the AAP government in Punjab had an absolute majority and the defection's objective was not to topple it. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions Speaker Ramesh Tawadkar dismissed the Congress's disqualification petition in 2024.
According to the article, how many of the 15 Congress MLAs in Goa switched to the BJP in 2019?
- A.8 MLAs
- B.10 MLAs✓ Correct Answer
- C.12 MLAs
- D.All 15 MLAs
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "In 2019, 10 of the 15 Congress MLAs switched to the BJP". This is a precise data point from the news that can be tested in Prelims.
What is the primary legal mechanism used by defecting legislators, as discussed in the article, to avoid disqualification under the Tenth Schedule?
- A.Obtaining a stay order from the Supreme Court
- B.Resigning from their legislative membership before defecting
- C.Merging with another party with the support of two-thirds of their legislature party✓ Correct Answer
- D.Seeking prior permission from the President of India
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Explanation
The article repeatedly highlights the use of Paragraph 4 of the Tenth Schedule, which allows a group constituting not less than two-thirds of a legislature party to merge with another party without facing disqualification. This is the core legal loophole discussed.
Which U.S. government department is primarily responsible for implementing economic sanctions, as highlighted in the news?
- A.U.S. Department of State
- B.U.S. Department of Defense
- C.U.S. Department of the Treasury✓ Correct Answer
- D.U.S. Department of Commerce
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Explanation
The U.S. Treasury Department, through its Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC), is the primary agency responsible for administering and enforcing economic and trade sanctions. The news mentions the announcement by Treasury Secretary Scott Bessent.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The U.S. announced it would renew the waiver for Iranian oil purchases.
2. The announcement was made in the context of the closure of the Strait of Malacca.
3. Treasury Secretary Scott Bessent stated that Iran might have to shutter oil production soon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the U.S. announced it would NOT renew the waiver for Iranian oil. Statement 2 is incorrect; the context is the closure of the Strait of Hormuz, not the Strait of Malacca. Statement 3 is correct as per the article, where Bessent said Iran would have to start shuttering production.
On which date did U.S. Treasury Secretary Scott Bessent announce the non-renewal of oil waivers for Iran and Russia?
- A.April 23, 2026
- B.April 24, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.April 25, 2026
- D.April 26, 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly states 'Treasury Secretary Scott Bessent said Friday (April 24, 2026) that the U.S. does not plan to renew a waiver...'. April 25 is the publication date of the news article.
What is the primary geopolitical context for the U.S. decision to terminate oil waivers, as mentioned in the article?
- A.The Russia-Ukraine conflict in Eastern Europe
- B.Trade negotiations with China in the Pacific
- C.The U.S.-Israeli war in Iran and closure of the Strait of Hormuz✓ Correct Answer
- D.OPEC+ decisions to cut oil production
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Explanation
The article directly states that Mr. Bessent's statements come 'as the world is on edge over the U.S.-Israeli war in Iran, and global energy markets have been ensnarled by the closure of the Strait of Hormuz.' This is the immediate geopolitical backdrop for the sanctions decision.
The Corporate Average Fuel Efficiency (CAFE) norms in India are set and regulated by which body?
- A.Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
- B.Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Central Pollution Control Board
- D.Ministry of Heavy Industries
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Explanation
As per the article, the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) is the sector's standards-setting body for fuel efficiency and emissions reduction targets. BEE is a statutory body under the Ministry of Power.
Consider the following statements regarding the proposed CAFE-III norms:
1. The target is to reduce corporate average CO2 emissions to 77 grams per kilometre by 2031-32.
2. Compliance will be assessed annually to ensure consistent pressure on manufacturers.
3. The norms include super-credits where a battery electric vehicle can count as three vehicles for compliance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the target is 77 g/km by 2031-32. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article mentions compliance is to be assessed over three-year blocks, not annually. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions super-credits where a battery electric vehicle could count as three vehicles.
According to the article, what was the approximate corporate average CO2 emission target under the previous CAFE-II norms?
- A.90 g/km
- B.100 g/km
- C.113 g/km✓ Correct Answer
- D.125 g/km
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the target under CAFE-II was about 113 grams of CO2 per kilometre. The new CAFE-III target is 77 g/km.
What is a major criticism, as highlighted in the article, regarding the flexible design of the proposed CAFE-III norms?
- A.It imposes excessive financial burden on small car manufacturers.
- B.It may weaken compliance and slow the transition to cleaner technologies like electrification.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It excludes the use of alternative fuels like ethanol completely.
- D.It mandates an unrealistic annual reduction target for all vehicle segments.
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Explanation
The article argues that flexible provisions like super-credits, credit banking/trading, and three-year compliance blocks reduce immediate pressure on manufacturers. This allows them to meet targets with incremental technologies rather than making a structural shift to electric mobility, thereby potentially slowing down the urgent transition.
Under which Union Ministry does IREL (India) Limited operate?
- A.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- B.Ministry of Mines
- C.Department of Atomic Energy✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
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Explanation
IREL (India) Limited is a Public Sector Undertaking under the administrative control of the Department of Atomic Energy, Government of India. It is responsible for the mining and processing of rare earths and atomic minerals.
Consider the following statements regarding the IREL project in Kanniyakumari district:
1. The project requires clearance under the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Notification.
2. The mining area is located in the Kanyakumari taluk of the district.
3. The minerals to be extracted include monazite and zircon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions IREL seeking CRZ clearance. Statement 2 is incorrect; the mining area is in Killiyoor taluk, not Kanyakumari taluk. Statement 3 is correct as monazite and zircon are listed among the target minerals.
What is the total area (in hectares) of the coastal belt identified for atomic minerals mining by IREL in Killiyoor taluk?
- A.1,000 hectares
- B.1,144 hectares✓ Correct Answer
- C.1,200 hectares
- D.1,250 hectares
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the project is designed to mine atomic minerals across a 1,144-hectare coastal belt in Killiyoor taluk. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.
What is the primary environmental regulatory hurdle for the IREL atomic minerals project in Kanniyakumari?
- A.Clearance from the Ministry of Mines
- B.Approval under the Forest Conservation Act, 1980
- C.Clearance under the Coastal Regulation Zone Notification✓ Correct Answer
- D.A No-Objection Certificate from the State Pollution Control Board
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Explanation
The article's core news is that IREL is seeking CRZ clearance from the Union Environment Ministry. Since the project is along the coastline, the CRZ Notification is the primary environmental regulation applicable, not the Forest Act or a standard pollution NOC.
NITI Aayog, as mentioned in the news, replaced which earlier institution?
- A.Finance Commission
- B.Planning Commission✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Development Council
- D.Inter-State Council
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Explanation
NITI Aayog (established in 2015) replaced the Planning Commission, which was India's central planning body from 1950 until its dissolution. This is a fundamental static GK fact related to India's governance structure.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent revamp of NITI Aayog:
1. Ashok Lahiri was appointed as the new Vice-Chairperson, replacing Suman Berry.
2. The revamp resulted in the replacement of all five full-time members of the Aayog.
3. Former Cabinet Secretary Rajiv Gauba was the only full-time member retained in the reconstituted Aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because four of the five full-time members were replaced, not all five. Statement 3 is correct as Rajiv Gauba was reappointed and retained. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the article, in which year was NITI Aayog established?
- A.2014
- B.2015✓ Correct Answer
- C.2016
- D.2017
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that this is the first major revamp of NITI Aayog 'since its inception in 2015'. This is a key factual date often asked in prelims to test knowledge of important institutions.
What is the primary significance of the recent appointments to NITI Aayog as highlighted in the news?
- A.It indicates a shift towards greater centralization of economic planning.
- B.It represents the first major leadership revamp of the think tank since its establishment.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It signals the government's intent to dissolve the institution in the near future.
- D.It is a routine administrative change with no significant policy implications.
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Explanation
The article's core news is the 'first major revamp of the NITI Aayog since its inception in 2015'. This structural change in its top leadership is significant for policy direction, unlike a routine change. The other options are not supported by the article's content.
The 'E-Prisons Early Release Processing Module' is being developed by which government organization as per the Supreme Court's direction?
- A.National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB)
- B.National Informatics Centre (NIC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA)
- D.Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Supreme Court suggested to the National Informatics Centre (NIC) that the software be coded for nationwide implementation. NIC is the premier IT solution provider for the government.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's order on the E-Prisons module:
1. The module will be first piloted in Central Jail, Agra and District Jail, Lucknow.
2. The software is being developed to be applicable uniformly across all states without any modifications.
3. The court's intervention was triggered by a case highlighting administrative delays in the premature release of life convicts in Uttar Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the pilot is in Agra and Lucknow jails. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court mentioned tweaking the software to adapt to different state policies. Statement 3 is correct as the case from Uttar Pradesh revealed the delays.
According to data submitted before the Supreme Court, how many prisoners in Uttar Pradesh had completed over 14 years of imprisonment but faced delays in premature release consideration?
- A.915
- B.1,678✓ Correct Answer
- C.431
- D.158
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'Data submitted before the apex court revealed 1,678 prisoners had completed over 14 years of imprisonment.' 915 were cases yet to be forwarded, and 431 were pending before district magistrates.
What is the primary objective of the Supreme Court mandating the 'E-Prisons Early Release Processing Module'?
- A.To increase the number of prisoners eligible for premature release.
- B.To automate the identification and processing of eligible prisoners to eliminate administrative delays.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To transfer the power of granting remission from the government to the judiciary.
- D.To standardize the minimum imprisonment period for life convicts across all states.
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Explanation
The core objective, as stated in the article, is to eliminate 'humongous administrative delay' by automating the process. The module aims to automatically identify eligible prisoners, enable paperless processing, and enforce timelines, not to change eligibility criteria or transfer powers.
The newly appointed Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog, Ashok Kumar Lahiri, previously served as a member of which constitutional body?
- A.15th Finance Commission✓ Correct Answer
- B.Election Commission of India
- C.Union Public Service Commission
- D.National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Ashok Kumar Lahiri was a member of the 15th Finance Commission. The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280.
Consider the following statements regarding Ashok Kumar Lahiri:
1. He served as the Chief Economic Advisor to the Government of India from 2002 to 2007.
2. He is currently a Member of the Legislative Assembly (MLA) for the Bharatiya Janata Party from the state of Odisha.
3. He has served as an Executive Director at the Asian Development Bank (ADB).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; he is a BJP MLA from West Bengal, not Odisha. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions he retired as an executive director from the Asian Development Bank. Hence, option C is correct.
Ashok Kumar Lahiri succeeded which individual as the Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog?
- A.V K Paul
- B.Suman Bery✓ Correct Answer
- C.Arvind Virmani
- D.Rajiv Gauba
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Explanation
The article clearly states that Lahiri will take over from Suman Bery, whose term was ending. V K Paul, Arvind Virmani, and Rajiv Gauba are other members mentioned but were not the outgoing Vice Chairperson.
According to the article, what is a key aspect highlighted by Ashok Kumar Lahiri's appointment as Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog?
- A.A shift towards leadership with international banking experience only.
- B.A continuation of purely academic and research-focused leadership.
- C.A blend of economic expertise with political and administrative experience.✓ Correct Answer
- D.A focus on increasing the number of full-time members from the corporate sector.
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Explanation
The article contrasts Lahiri with his predecessor, noting his extensive experience in administration and electoral affairs as a BJP MLA, alongside his economic credentials. This signifies a blend of expertise, not a singular focus on international banking, pure academia, or corporate representation.
Which Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) is manufacturing the B28 bullet train as per the news?
- A.Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL)
- B.Bharat Earth Movers Limited (BEML)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Rail India Technical and Economic Service (RITES)
- D.Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation (IRCTC)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the defence PSU BEML is manufacturing the B28 bullet train at its Aditya plant in Bengaluru. BHEL is involved in power equipment, RITES in consultancy, and IRCTC in catering and tourism.
Consider the following statements regarding the B28 bullet train project:
1. The B28 trainset has a design speed of 280 kmph and is being developed indigenously.
2. The manufacturing contract was awarded to BEML by the Mumbai-based Central Railway Workshop.
3. The first train is likely to be ready by the first quarter of 2027 and will initially operate between Surat and Vapi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the Ministry of Railways statement in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the contract was awarded by the Chennai-based Integral Coach Factory (ICF), not a Mumbai workshop. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the first train ready by Q1 2027 and initial operation on the Surat-Vapi route.
What is the targeted date for the B28 bullet train to become operational on the Surat-Vapi route?
- A.March 2027
- B.August 2027✓ Correct Answer
- C.October 2027
- D.December 2027
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Explanation
The article directly states: "Efforts are underway to start operation using B28... for Surat to Vapi (97km) in Aug 2027." March 2027 is the target for manufacturing completion, not operational launch.
What is a significant implication of manufacturing the B28 bullet train indigenously at a defence PSU like BEML?
- A.It primarily aims to reduce the project's overall financial cost.
- B.It demonstrates the application of defence sector expertise in civilian infrastructure projects.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It is intended to replace all foreign technology in the Mumbai-Ahmedabad corridor immediately.
- D.Its main goal is to accelerate the construction of new railway tracks.
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Explanation
The article highlights the complexity of high-speed rail technology and developing it within the country as a milestone for indigenous engineering. Using a defence PSU (BEML) showcases cross-sectoral capability transfer and advances the goal of technological self-reliance, which is a core strategic implication.
The Finance Minister directed which regulatory body to lead the standardization of KYC norms across the financial sector?
- A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- B.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
- D.Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman asked the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) to drive the adoption of standardized KYC norms. SEBI is the regulator for the securities market in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the directives given by the Finance Minister to SEBI:
1. SEBI must work towards a seamless and portable KYC experience across the entire financial sector.
2. SEBI should focus solely on corporate bonds and avoid municipal bonds to deepen the bond market.
3. SEBI's existing Cybersecurity and Cyber Resilience Framework came into effect in April 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the FM emphasized the need for a 'seamless, secure, and portable KYC experience'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the FM specifically called for a 'serious push for Municipal Bonds' to deepen the bond market. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the Cybersecurity and Cyber Resilience Framework came into effect in April 2025.
According to the news, in which month and year did SEBI's Cybersecurity and Cyber Resilience Framework come into effect?
- A.April 2024
- B.April 2025✓ Correct Answer
- C.January 2025
- D.April 2026
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Explanation
The article clearly states: "SEBI has done commendably well and good work with the Cybersecurity and Cyber Resilience Framework that came into effect in April 2025." The other options are close distractors based on the article's publication date (2026) or common policy implementation timelines.
What was the primary rationale given by the Finance Minister for emphasizing cybersecurity preparedness for SEBI and regulated entities?
- A.To reduce the operational costs of financial institutions.
- B.To attract more foreign portfolio investments into Indian markets.
- C.To prevent potential national-scale market disruption and erosion of public trust.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To comply with the latest data protection regulations from the European Union.
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Explanation
The article quotes the FM stating that a single successful cyberattack could 'disrupt markets at national scale, erase wealth, and shake public confidence in ways that take years to rebuild.' This directly highlights systemic risk and loss of trust as the core concern, not cost reduction, foreign investment, or foreign compliance.
Which organization's data showed that India's peak electricity demand touched 252 GW on April 24, 2026?
- A.India Meteorological Department (IMD)
- B.Ministry of Power
- C.GRID-INDIA✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'Data from GRID India shows peak power demand touched 252 gigawatts (GW) on April 24.' GRID-INDIA is the national grid operator responsible for such data.
Consider the following statements regarding India's power demand as per the news article:
1. The peak power demand in April 2026 was 252 GW, which is higher than the 235 GW recorded in April 2025.
2. The Ministry of Power has estimated that the peak power demand for the year 2026 will be 277 GW.
3. To manage the summer demand, the government has deferred the planned maintenance of hydro-based power plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article mentions the rise from 235 GW in April 2025 to 252 GW in April 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: The forecast for 2026 is 271 GW, not 277 GW (which was last year's projected peak). Statement 3 is incorrect: The government deferred maintenance of coal-based power plants, not hydro-based plants.
According to the India Meteorological Department (IMD) data mentioned in the article, which location recorded the highest temperature in the country on April 24, 2026?
- A.Delhi
- B.Rajasthan
- C.Prayagraj, Uttar Pradesh✓ Correct Answer
- D.Punjab
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Explanation
The article states: 'On April 24, Prayagraj in Uttar Pradesh recorded the highest temperature in the country at 45.2°C.' This is a specific data point directly from the IMD.
As per the expert from TERI quoted in the article, what is the primary challenge for India's power sector currently?
- A.Building new thermal power capacity to meet base load
- B.Managing the sharp peaks in electricity demand efficiently✓ Correct Answer
- C.Resolving the shortage of installed generation capacity
- D.Phasing out all coal-based power plants immediately
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Explanation
The TERI expert, Alekhya Datta, stated that 'India’s challenge is no longer one of capacity shortage but of managing demand peaks efficiently.' This marks a shift from the earlier deficit scenario to a focus on peak load management.
The Finance Minister's address on cybersecurity challenges was made during the foundation day celebrations of which regulatory body?
- A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- B.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
- D.Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the address was made during the 38th SEBI Foundation Day celebrations. SEBI is the regulator for the securities market in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the Finance Minister's address on cybersecurity:
1. She stated that AI-led tools are making cyberattacks more scalable and autonomous.
2. The address was delivered during the 37th Foundation Day of the Reserve Bank of India.
3. She warned that a cyberattack on a large broker alone would not significantly impact national markets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the address was during the 38th SEBI Foundation Day, not RBI's. Statement 3 is incorrect; she warned that an attack on a major exchange, depository, clearing corporation, or large broker could disrupt markets at a national scale.
According to the news, on which date did the Finance Minister deliver the address highlighting cybersecurity risks at the SEBI Foundation Day?
- A.April 24, 2026
- B.April 25, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.April 26, 2026
- D.April 27, 2026
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Explanation
The article clearly mentions the address was given on Saturday, April 25, 2026, during the 38th SEBI Foundation Day celebrations. The other dates are close distractors.
What was the primary objective of the Finance Minister's warning about cyberattacks on financial market infrastructure?
- A.To announce a new government scheme for digital payments
- B.To direct SEBI to prioritize preparedness against emerging cybersecurity threats✓ Correct Answer
- C.To criticize the performance of public sector banks
- D.To propose a reduction in the securities transaction tax
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Explanation
The core of the news is the Finance Minister asking SEBI to be ready to meet emerging challenges, specifically cybersecurity challenges. This is a directive to the regulator to enhance its focus and frameworks for market resilience.
Related Current Affairs Resources
More Current Affairs Questions
Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?
For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
- Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
- Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
- Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.
Frequently Asked Questions
What are the important current affairs questions for 25 April 2026?▼
This page contains 76 current affairs questions from 25 April 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 25 April 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
- Q1. regulatory body possesses the authority to cancel the banking …
- Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Paytm Payments…
- Q3. According to the article, how many FASTag units had Paytm Paym…
- Q4. is the primary objective behind the RBI's action to cancel the…
- Q5. As per the Constitution, the removal process of the Chief Elec…
- Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q7. According to the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Electio…
- Q8. is the primary reason cited in the article for the BRICS group…
- Q9. The principle of 'transit passage' through international strai…
- Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the recent develop…
- Q11. According to the article, which of the following is NOT listed…
- Q12. is the primary strategic implication for India, as highlighted…
- Q13. The authors of the article are associated with which internati…
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding India's energy res…
- Q15. According to the article, what is India's target for nuclear p…
- Q16. is identified as a major challenge in utilizing biomass and ma…
- Q17. is the head of the executive branch of the European Union, as …
- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q19. On which date did the European Commission President announce t…
- Q20. is the primary geopolitical objective of the EU's proposed ene…
- Q21. The Supreme Court judgment discussed provisions for revoking a…
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q23. According to the Supreme Court judgment, in which year did the…
- Q24. was the primary legal consequence, as emphasized by the Suprem…
- Q25. The Kalaignar Magalir Urimai Thittam, a monthly cash transfer …
- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding welfare schemes in…
- Q27. As per the article, what was the total number of beneficiaries…
- Q28. According to the analysis in the article, what is a key socio-…
- Q29. The indigenous Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) system module …
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q31. As per the news, where is the Naval Material Research Laborato…
- Q32. is the primary strategic advantage that the indigenous Air Ind…
- Q33. constitutional authority is primarily responsible for deciding…
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding defections mention…
- Q35. According to the article, how many of the 15 Congress MLAs in …
- Q36. is the primary legal mechanism used by defecting legislators, …
- Q37. U.S. government department is primarily responsible for implem…
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q39. On which date did U.S. Treasury Secretary Scott Bessent announ…
- Q40. is the primary geopolitical context for the U.S. decision to t…
- Q41. The Corporate Average Fuel Efficiency (CAFE) norms in India ar…
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the proposed CAFE-…
- Q43. According to the article, what was the approximate corporate a…
- Q44. is a major criticism, as highlighted in the article, regarding…
- Q45. Under which Union Ministry does IREL (India) Limited operate?
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the IREL project i…
- Q47. is the total area (in hectares) of the coastal belt identified…
- Q48. is the primary environmental regulatory hurdle for the IREL at…
- Q49. NITI Aayog, as mentioned in the news, replaced which earlier i…
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the recent revamp …
- Q51. According to the article, in which year was NITI Aayog establi…
- Q52. is the primary significance of the recent appointments to NITI…
- Q53. The 'E-Prisons Early Release Processing Module' is being devel…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q55. According to data submitted before the Supreme Court, how many…
- Q56. is the primary objective of the Supreme Court mandating the 'E…
- Q57. The newly appointed Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog, Ashok Kuma…
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding Ashok Kumar Lahiri…
- Q59. Ashok Kumar Lahiri succeeded which individual as the Vice Chai…
- Q60. According to the article, what is a key aspect highlighted by …
- Q61. Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) is manufacturing the B28 bulle…
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the B28 bullet tra…
- Q63. is the targeted date for the B28 bullet train to become operat…
- Q64. is a significant implication of manufacturing the B28 bullet t…
- Q65. The Finance Minister directed which regulatory body to lead th…
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the directives giv…
- Q67. According to the news, in which month and year did SEBI's Cybe…
- Q68. was the primary rationale given by the Finance Minister for em…
- Q69. organization's data showed that India's peak electricity deman…
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding India's power dema…
- Q71. According to the India Meteorological Department (IMD) data me…
- Q72. As per the expert from TERI quoted in the article, what is the…
- Q73. The Finance Minister's address on cybersecurity challenges was…
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the Finance Minist…
- Q75. According to the news, on which date did the Finance Minister …
- Q76. was the primary objective of the Finance Minister's warning ab…