30 April 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

As per the article, fresh petitions are before the Supreme Court, which has issued notices to the Centre and States. The Supreme Court is the apex judicial body in India, vested with the power of constitutional interpretation under Article 141.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Supreme Court issued notices on such a PIL. Statement 2 is incorrect; the petitions claim sanction from the 2024 Davinder Singh judgment, not the 1992 Indra Sawhney case. Statement 3 is correct, as the article explicitly mentions the debate about whether 'social justice can be trapped inside an economic test'.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the petitions claim constitutional sanction from the seven-judge bench decision in 'State of Punjab v. Davinder Singh (2024)'. The other options are other landmark judgments related to reservations but are not the basis cited in the current petitions.

Explanation

The article's central theme is the debate about 'whether income can serve as a proxy for caste-based disadvantage'. This is the core constitutional question regarding the nature of reservations for SCs and STs, which are based on social stigma, not just economic criteria.

Explanation

As per the article, the reservation will be effective after a census and subsequent delimitation is undertaken. The Delimitation Commission is the body responsible for redrawing parliamentary and assembly constituency boundaries based on population data.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states the share has rarely breached 15% and never exceeded it in the Lok Sabha. Statement 2 is correct as the 106th Amendment (Nari Shakti Vandan Act) provides for 33% reservation. Statement 3 is correct as the amendment ensures one-third of SC/ST reserved seats go to women from those communities.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "India was ranked at 147 out of some 190 countries according to April 2026 data by Parline, a tracker on national parliaments maintained by the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU)."

Explanation

The article quotes Renuka Ray's argument that reservation would be "an impediment to our growth and an insult to our very intelligence and capacity." Both she and Hansa Mehta believed women should advance by merit alone.

Explanation

The AMOC is the Atlantic component of the global thermohaline circulation, which is driven by differences in water density (temperature and salinity). The other options refer to atmospheric circulation patterns.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the AMOC is a thermohaline circulation driven by temperature and salinity. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's explanation. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states a 15% slowdown has already occurred over the last 50 years, and the new projection is for a much sharper decline of up to 59% by 2100.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that new research projects the AMOC could weaken by up to 59% by 2100. The 15% figure is the estimated slowdown over the past 50 years, making it a close distractor.

Explanation

As explained in the article, when the AMOC slows, less heat travels north. This shift pulls the planet's tropical rain belt (the Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone) southward, away from the Indian subcontinent, thereby weakening the monsoon circulation.

Explanation

The judgment extensively relies on Article 14, emphasizing the state's duty as a 'model employer' to act fairly and without arbitrariness, which flows directly from the Right to Equality. While Article 16 is related, the Court's core reasoning is built on the broader equality principle under Article 14.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Supreme Court set aside the 2012 scheme. Statement 2 is incorrect; permanent status was granted retrospectively from September 9, 2010, not from the 1990s. Statement 3 is correct as the Court explicitly ordered the benefit to be extended to all similarly placed workers.

Explanation

The article states the Court granted permanent status with retrospective effect from September 9, 2010. This is the date from which the Central Administrative Tribunal's (CAT) original direction, which attained finality, should have been implemented. The other dates correspond to other tribunal or court orders mentioned in the timeline.

Explanation

The judgment is fundamentally based on the principle that the State, as a model employer, must act fairly and without arbitrariness towards its employees. This obligation is derived from Article 14 (Right to Equality). The Court held that denying regularisation to long-serving workers strikes at the root of fairness and dignity in public employment.

Explanation

The Supreme Court's observation that a minor cannot be forced to bear a pregnancy relates to the right to live with dignity and bodily autonomy, which are derived from Article 21. The court has previously expanded Article 21 to include reproductive rights.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the apex court order allowing the termination. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states the Court asked to amend the law for termination beyond the 20-week limit, not 24 weeks. Statement 3 is correct as the Bench included Chief Justice Surya Kant.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Supreme Court allowed a 15-year-old girl to medically terminate her 30-week pregnancy. The other options are common gestational limits under the MTP Act and its amendments.

Explanation

The court's impassioned observations highlight that forcing a minor rape survivor to continue a pregnancy causes lifelong scar and trauma. The directive aims to amend the law to protect their bodily integrity and autonomy, which is the core issue addressed.

Explanation

The Supreme Court specifically held that the existing framework of substantive criminal law, including the provisions of the IPC (Sections 153A, 153B, 295A, 298, 505), adequately addresses hate speech. The other acts, while important, were not the focus of this judgment on hate speech.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the Court explicitly held "there is no complete legislative vacuum". Statement 2 is incorrect as the Court refused to issue a continuing mandamus, stating it would turn the court into a supervisory authority. Statement 3 is correct as the bench located hate speech as incompatible with 'vasudhaiva kutumbakam'.

Explanation

The article clearly states the bench comprised Justices Vikram Nath and Sandeep Mehta. The other options list sitting Supreme Court judges but were not part of this specific bench.

Explanation

The Court's core finding was that the field is "not unoccupied" by legislation. It identified deficits in "consistent and effective enforcement" of existing provisions as the key concern, not the absence of law. The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Explanation

The article repeatedly mentions the 'MTP Act' and its 24-week cut-off period. The Supreme Court's deliberations and the legal framework for the termination are based on this Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court earlier allowed the MTP. Statement 2 is incorrect; AIIMS argued continuation would be better, but this was for the fetus and the minor's health, not just the fetus. Statement 3 is correct as the CJI suggested amending the law for such cases, implying the current limit is problematic.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the pregnancy is at '30 weeks' and that AIIMS referred to it as a '30-week pregnancy'. The 24-week option is the standard MTP limit, creating a potential trap.

Explanation

The court emphasized that 'unwanted pregnancies cannot be burdened on the woman' and that it was a 'foetus vs child fight,' highlighting the trauma of the minor. Its focus was on her rights, not systemic burden, strict legality, or fetal survival.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the ruling weakens 'one of the last major protections of the voting rights act of 1965.' This landmark legislation was enacted to prohibit racial discrimination in voting, particularly in Southern states.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states 'The court ruled 6-3 along ideological lines.' Statement 2 is incorrect because the ruling actually weakens Section 2 by raising the bar for proving discrimination. Statement 3 is correct as directly quoted from Justice Kagan in the article.

Explanation

The article specifically states: 'Election law expert Nicholas Stephanopoulos has estimated that nearly 70 of the House's 435 congressional districts are currently shaped by protections under Section 2 of the Voting Rights Act.'

Explanation

The article states: 'But the Supreme Court's conservative majority narrowed how Section 2 can be used, needing plaintiffs to prove something much closer to intentional discrimination.' This represents a significant raising of the evidentiary bar for voting rights cases.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the primary regulator for Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India. The news article explicitly mentions that the 'Reserve Bank of India (RBI)' issued the circular on this matter.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the exemption is specifically for NBFCs with an asset size of less than ₹1,000 crore. Statement 2 is correct as per the article which states the exemption is for 'non-deposit taking Non-Banking Finance Companies... and not availing public funds'. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the exemption is effective 'from July 1, 2026'.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the exemption applies to 'Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs) with an asset size of less than ₹1,000 crore'. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

While not explicitly stated, the action of 'exempting' and 'reducing compliance requirements' logically aims to ease the regulatory burden. This allows smaller NBFCs to operate with fewer formalities, potentially fostering their growth and enhancing credit flow in niche segments, which is a key policy objective.

Explanation

The article states that the current guidelines are by the apex regulator National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO). NOTTO operates under the Ministry of Health and is the central body for organ transplant regulations in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the guidelines require a four-member board to declare brain death at least twice with a 12-hour interval. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the AIIMS study published in Neurology India.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India's rate of deceased donation is 0.77 per million population. The other options are rates of neighboring countries: Japan (1.18), Sri Lanka (3.38), and Thailand (6.21), which are mentioned for comparison.

Explanation

Experts in the article stated that EEG and angiogram tests are only available at tertiary hospitals. Mandating them would mean smaller hospitals could not declare brain death, thereby reducing the pool of potential donors and further lowering India's low deceased donation rate.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the UAE announced its exit from OPEC (Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries). The IEA is a consumer-country group, and while the UAE is part of the GCC, the exit is specifically from OPEC.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the UAE was OPEC's fourth-largest producer in 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect because experts say there will be no immediate impact as long as the Strait of Hormuz remains blocked. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions ADNOC's investments worth about $150 billion.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the UAE's current capacity is around 4.8 million barrels per day (bpd). It produced 3.1 million bpd in 2025 under OPEC quotas, and its target is to reach 5 million bpd by 2027.

Explanation

The article states that the UAE's exit and potential increase in production are expected to exert downward pressure on oil prices in the longer term. For India, which imports 1.8-2 billion barrels a year, every $1-per-barrel drop saves up to $2 billion annually.

Explanation

Article 324 of the Constitution vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission of India, an autonomous constitutional authority.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states SIR was first rolled out ahead of an election in Bihar. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions it shifted the burden of proof onto the vulnerable voter and demanded difficult-to-access documents. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly states 89 lakh names were deleted in West Bengal.

Explanation

The article clearly states that 19 appellate tribunals were set up by the Supreme Court. The other numbers are close distractors to test precise factual recall from current affairs.

Explanation

The article's core argument is that the opaque and onerous SIR process makes it difficult for citizens to exercise their basic right to vote, which is essential for a representative democracy. While other options touch on constitutional principles, the article's focus is squarely on voter disenfranchisement.

Explanation

As per the article, the Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister, approved the creation of the Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool. The Cabinet is the supreme executive decision-making body of the Government of India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the sovereign guarantee amount is ₹12,980 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect because the pool covers all four major risks (Hull & Machinery, Cargo, P&I, and War) and also extends to Indian-controlled and India-destined vessels, not just Indian-flagged ones. Statement 3 is correct as one objective is to reduce dependence on foreign entities like the International Group of P&I Clubs.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the combined underwriting capacity of the pool members would be around ₹950 crore. The ₹12,980 crore figure is the sovereign guarantee amount, not the underwriting capacity.

Explanation

The article clearly states that global insurers and reinsurers withdrew coverage for ships going to West Asia due to the conflict there, leaving Indian trade exposed. This directly triggered the decision to create a sovereign-backed domestic insurance pool.

Explanation

The Jharkhand High Court, as per the article, ruled that the right to be considered for promotion is a fundamental right guaranteed under Articles 14 (Equality) and 16 (Equality in public employment) of the Constitution of India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The court ruled the right to be 'considered' for promotion is fundamental, not the right to promotion itself. Statement 2 is incorrect. The DPC met in Dec 2023, but the CBI chargesheet was filed later in April 2024. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the apex court case 'Union of India v Hemraj Singh Chauhan' was cited.

Explanation

The court held that since the petitioners were eligible for promotion as of 2023, their case ought to have been considered from December 2023, and they are liable to receive all notional benefits from that month, as stated in the article.

Explanation

The court explicitly held that 'any resort to sealed cover procedure would amount to denial of the fundamental right of the petitioners to be considered for promotion' in this context, where they were eligible before the chargesheet was filed.

Explanation

Section 196 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) mandates that no court shall take cognisance of offences against the state (Chapter VI IPC) or criminal conspiracy to commit such an offence, except with the previous sanction of the Central or State Government or the District Magistrate.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court upheld the findings that the remarks did NOT incite communal violence or public disorder. Statement 2 is correct as the SC clarified sanction under S.196 is required at the cognisance stage. Statement 3 is correct as the judgment reinforced the mandatory nature of FIR registration under S.154 for cognisable offences.

Explanation

The Supreme Court explicitly stated that the requirement of prior sanction arises only at the stage of the magistrate taking cognisance, not before. It clarified that there is no embargo on FIR registration or investigation at the pre-cognisance stage due to this sanction requirement.

Explanation

The core significance is that by clarifying sanction is needed only at cognisance, the SC ensures that the sanction requirement under S.196 CrPC cannot be invoked to block the registration of an FIR or the start of an investigation where a cognisable offence is disclosed. This prevents institutional inaction at the threshold.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the Allahabad High Court, with Justice Irshad Ali, made this observation and passed the directions. This is a factual recall from the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect - the court specifically said the appointment was 'irregular' and not 'illegal'. Statement 3 is correct as the court directed payment of salary and arrears within three months.

Explanation

The article states the court directed the respondents to 'Release arrears of salary to the petitioner within a period of three months from the date of production of a certified copy of this order.' This is a direct data point.

Explanation

The court's order explicitly stated, 'Non-payment of salary for work taken is violative of Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution of India and amounts to exploitation.' Article 23 specifically prohibits exploitation but was not cited; the court derived exploitation from violations of Articles 14 and 21.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the report was released by 'Reporters Without Borders (RSF)'. This Paris-based NGO is solely responsible for compiling and publishing the World Press Freedom Index.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the article states press freedom is at its 'lowest' level, not highest. Statement 2 is correct verbatim from the article. Statement 3 is correct as the article's published date is April 30, 2026. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly mentions that press freedom is at its 'lowest level in a quarter of a century' and references the 'Index's 25-year history'. This makes 25 years the correct factual answer.

Explanation

The core finding of the report, as per the article, is that conditions for journalists have deteriorated to a historic low, with a majority of nations now facing serious challenges. This represents a structural decline, not an improvement or an economic commentary.

Explanation

As per the article, the operation of Look-Out Circulars is mostly governed by executive instructions issued by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), with relevant Office Memoranda dating back to 1979 and the 2000s.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because LOCs are not created by any standalone statute; they are governed by executive instructions from the MHA. Statement 2 is correct as per the Delhi HC judgment cited in the article. Statement 3 is correct as the article states guidelines have expanded to allow PSBs to request LOCs against wilful defaulters.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that in November 2022, the CBI registered an FIR alleging that the company had caused a loss of Rs. 464 crore to a consortium of banks by inflating its financials and diverting funds.

Explanation

The article states that the right to travel abroad is a recognized fundamental right under the right to life as enshrined in Article 21. Since an LOC restricts this liberty, its use must be constitutionally valid, making Article 21 the primary ground for challenge.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'Mythos' is Anthropic's upcoming proprietary large language model, and it is developed under 'Project Glasswing' with a $100 million budget. The other companies are major AI players but not linked to this specific project in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article argues the opposite, stating that deploying open-source models locally is the only economically viable way to bypass prohibitive costs. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's discussion on FOSS security evolving to 'given enough eyeballs and AI agents'. Statement 3 is incorrect; the author argues that relying on proprietary foreign models harms digital sovereignty and cybersecurity.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Anthropic has set aside $100 million for the project.' The other figures are plausible distractors but are not mentioned in the provided content.

Explanation

The core argument is that dependence on a proprietary model controlled by a foreign entity (the US) makes India's cyber defenses vulnerable to external political decisions, revocable 'by a whim of US foreign policy'. This is framed as a supply-chain risk and a direct threat to digital sovereignty. The article does not claim it leads to immediate obsolescence, violates trade agreements, or is less effective than traditional methods.

Explanation

The Vande Bharat Express is a train service operated by Indian Railways, which falls under the administrative control of the Ministry of Railways. This ministry is responsible for the development, policy, and operation of the national rail network.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the train's piping prevents water freezing, allowing operation at -10°C. Statement 3 is incorrect; the world's highest railway bridge is over the Chenab river, not Anji Khad (which has a cable-stayed bridge).

Explanation

The article explicitly states the train leaves Jammu at 6:20 AM and reaches Srinagar at 11:10 AM, resulting in a travel time of 4 hours and 50 minutes. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article states the decision to increase coaches to 20 was taken due to overwhelming passenger response on the Katra-Srinagar stretch, aiming to ease reservation pressure and waiting lists, particularly during peak tourist season and the Amarnath Yatra. While it transports produce, that is not its primary objective.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the petitions challenged notifications issued under the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013, and the High Court upheld the acquisition under this Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the court upheld the acquisition of nearly 1,858 hectares. Statement 2 is incorrect; the mandatory consent threshold is 70% for PPP projects, and the court found 73.02% consent, not 80%. Statement 3 is correct as per the court's clarification mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that the High Court held that 73.02% of affected families had consented, which exceeded the statutory threshold of 70%. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the court observed the project is aimed at decongesting Delhi's IGI airport and boosting economic activity, employment, and tourism in the region. This constitutes the core 'public purpose' argument.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Punjab Police dismantled an 'ISI-backed spy ring'. The Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI) is Pakistan's primary intelligence agency, frequently mentioned in the context of cross-border security threats to India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article which mentions 'China-made solar-powered CCTV cameras equipped with 4G/SIM connectivity'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the footage was streamed via 'simple mobile applications or cloud platforms like EseeCloud', not specifically WhatsApp. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the Delhi Police bust on April 10 where 'nine identical solar-powered Chinese CCTV cameras were recovered'.

Explanation

The article clearly states that in the Delhi Police operation on April 10, 'nine identical solar-powered Chinese CCTV cameras were recovered'. The number 11 refers to the number of suspects arrested in that operation, not the cameras seized.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that these cameras, 'powered by solar panels... require no wiring or frequent maintenance, making them ideal for remote border areas'. This characteristic of being low-maintenance and off-grid is cited as a key factor in their utility for persistent surveillance in sensitive locations.

Explanation

The article states that the 'Union Home Ministry' notified the rules. The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is the nodal ministry for internal security and citizenship matters in India, including the administration of the Citizenship Act, 1955.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the rules introduce e-OCI and a fully digital process. Statement 2 is incorrect; a new proviso explicitly prohibits a minor from holding dual passports. Statement 3 is correct as applicants must consent to biometric data use for programmes like the Fast Track Immigration Programme.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "an application for registration as an Overseas Citizen of India cardholder under section 7A shall be made in Form XXVIII electronically." Section 7A of the Citizenship Act, 1955, is the specific provision governing OCI registration.

Explanation

The article states the new proviso, which bans minors from holding dual passports, 'addresses concerns over dual citizenship misuse.' The other options are not mentioned as objectives; OCI does not grant full citizenship rights like voting, and the article does not discuss fees or automatic conversion.

Explanation

The article mentions the Information Fusion Center-Indian Ocean Region in Gurugram. This centre is established and led by the Indian Navy to enhance maritime domain awareness through information sharing with international partners.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The plan exchanged was for 2026-27, not 2025-26. Statement 2 is correct: India conveyed concerns over transfer of sensitive defence tech to Pakistan. Statement 3 is correct: The article states avenues for defence industrial cooperation under Atmanirbhar Bharat and Italy's initiative were discussed.

Explanation

The article explicitly states, "The centre has information sharing links with 50 nations and multinational/maritime centres, according to its website." The other numbers are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Explanation

The article quotes the Italian Ministry of Defence, stating the dialogue focused on "stability in the Indo-Pacific, maritime security, freedom of navigation, as well as the protection of energy and commercial routes." The other options are actions not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The Election Commission of India, the constitutional body responsible for conducting elections, is established under Article 324. Article 352 deals with National Emergency, Article 356 with President's Rule, and Article 368 with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article specifies that QR code authentication is at the third and final checkpoint, not the first. Statement 3 is correct as it mentions implementation for Assembly elections in West Bengal, Assam, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Puducherry (a UT, making a total of five counting jurisdictions).

Explanation

The article states the system is being introduced for votes to be counted on May 4, and the article itself is published on April 30, 2026. Therefore, the implementation is for the year 2026.

Explanation

The article directly quotes an official saying the core idea is ensuring only authorized persons enter, and it aims to tighten access control and strengthen public confidence. It does not mention speeding up counting, reducing costs, or changing media access rules.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), which is the nodal medical body assigned by the court for abortion cases'. The other institutions, while prominent, are not mentioned in this context.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states: 'Medical termination of pregnancies is allowed up to 24 weeks.' Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says a medical board is required post-24 weeks only if there is a 'substantial foetal abnormality', not specifically for rape or incest. Statement 3 is directly quoted from the article.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'Medical termination of pregnancies is allowed up to 24 weeks.' The 2021 amendment to the MTP Act increased the limit from 20 to 24 weeks for certain categories of women.

Explanation

The article directly quotes the argument made by the Centre's lawyers and AIIMS that 'termination of pregnancy in advanced cases is "akin to foeticide"'. This is presented as the core ethical and legal objection, prioritizing the potential life of the foetus.

Explanation

OPEC (Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries) was founded in 1960 in Baghdad by five countries: Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela. The UAE later became a member.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the exit is effective May 1. Statement 2 is incorrect; the UAE's capacity is 'nearing five million' barrels per day, while the quota is '3.2–3.4 million', so it is not double. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Strait of Hormuz is between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman, not the Mediterranean Sea.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the UAE was chafing at quotas capping its output at '3.2–3.4 million barrels per day'. This is the key factual data point related to the quota dispute.

Explanation

The article highlights that the timing is notable as the UAE bears the brunt of Iranian attacks and the war has 'severely disrupted global oil flows through the Strait of Hormuz'. This geopolitical crisis adds a layer of urgency and strategic calculation to the exit decision.

Explanation

The launch and operation of all railway services, including the Vande Bharat Express, fall under the purview of the Ministry of Railways. The article mentions the Railways Minister, Ashwini Vaishnaw, flagging off the train.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article, which calls it the 'first direct train'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the train was flagged off on April 30, 2026, and services start on May 2. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions it is a '20-coach Vande Bharat Express train'.

Explanation

The article's title and content clearly state that services are 'from May 2'. The flagging-off ceremony happened on April 30, but the service start date is a distinct, testable fact.

Explanation

The article's sub-headline explicitly mentions providing 'an all-weather surface transport link' as a key benefit, alongside reducing travel time and boosting tourism. The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Explanation

The article lists Mauritius, UAE, Australia, EFTA, UK, EU, and Oman as recent FTA partners. The CPTPP is a major Asia-Pacific trade bloc but is not mentioned in the article as a recent Indian FTA partner.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states NZ will remove all goods tariffs immediately. Statement 2 is incorrect because India managed to avoid concessions on sensitive sectors, with dairy specifically mentioned as an exclusion. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions NZ's commitment to facilitate $20 billion in investments over 15 years.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that New Zealand's economy is 'one-sixteenth the size of India's'. This fact is used to explain why the FTA might seem underwhelming in isolation.

Explanation

The article states that the COVID-19 pandemic and US tariff frictions showed India the need to diversify supply chains. It specifically mentions weaning off imports from China (which accounts for 16% of India's imports) as a tough but necessary task, making diversification a key strategic goal.