9 September 2026, Questions & Answers
88 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
88 questions · 0 topics covered · 18 min revision
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This page contains 88 current affairs questions with answers from 9 September 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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88 QsWhich ministry/department is primarily responsible for implementing defence cooperation agreements with Japan in India?
- A.Ministry of External Affairs
- B.Ministry of Defence✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Home Affairs
- D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
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Explanation
The Ministry of Defence is the nodal ministry for all defence-related cooperation including exercises, equipment transfer, and industrial collaboration. While the Ministry of External Affairs plays a role in strategic diplomacy, the implementation of defence agreements falls under the Ministry of Defence.
Consider the following statements:
1. Japan's Defence Minister Shinjiro Koizumi visited India in August 2026.
2. The UNICORN system is a maritime surveillance radar developed jointly by India and Japan.
3. A memorandum of understanding for co-development of UNICORN masts was signed in November 2024.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the visit occurred in August 2026. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: MoU for UNICORN masts signed in November 2024. Statement 2 is incorrect because UNICORN is an integrated communications antenna system, not a maritime surveillance radar.
When did Japanese fighter aircraft participate in the Veer Guardian exercise in India?
- A.August 2026
- B.September 9-22, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.November 2024
- D.September 2025
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Japan's fighter aircraft are participating in the Veer Guardian exercise in India from September 9-22, 2026, for the first time.
What is the primary objective of the new maritime framework announced during the India-Japan defence ministerial meeting?
- A.To establish a joint naval command in the Indo-Pacific
- B.To enhance information sharing and Maritime Domain Awareness✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase defence exports from Japan to India
- D.To counter Chinese military activities in the South China Sea
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Explanation
The article highlights that the new maritime framework emphasises information sharing and Maritime Domain Awareness to create a continuous strategic picture across the Indo-Pacific. While countering coercion is implied, the core objective is building interoperability and situational awareness.
Which parliamentary committee suggested that only 70-75% of affected gram sabhas should consent for projects, potentially diluting the Forest Rights Act?
- A.Committee on Tribal Affairs
- B.Committee on Public Undertakings✓ Correct Answer
- C.Committee on Environment and Forests
- D.Committee on Rural Development
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions the 'Committee on Public Undertakings' suggestion regarding consent from most, rather than all, gram sabhas. This is a parliamentary committee that scrutinizes public sector undertakings and their policies.
Consider the following statements regarding the Forest Rights Act (FRA) and gram sabha consent:
1. The FRA explicitly requires a no-objection certificate from every affected gram sabha before a project can proceed.
2. The Committee on Public Undertakings suggested that consent from 70-75% of affected gram sabhas should suffice.
3. The Tribal Affairs Ministry claimed full jurisdiction over the issue of forest land diversion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) Both 2 and 3
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The article states that 'the FRA does not include a clause requiring a no-objection certificate from every affected gram sabha', though legal intent implies such consent. Statement 2 is correct: The committee proposed that 'acquiescence of 70%-75% of affected gram sabhas to suffice'. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Tribal Affairs Ministry 'refused to claim jurisdiction over this issue'.
What percentage of affected gram sabhas' consent was suggested by the Committee on Public Undertakings to be sufficient for a project?
- A.50%
- B.70-75%✓ Correct Answer
- C.80-85%
- D.100%
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Committee on Public Undertakings suggested 'the acquiescence of 70%-75% of affected gram sabhas to suffice'. This is a key data point for prelims.
What is the primary concern raised in the article regarding the proposed dilution of gram sabha consent?
- A.It will accelerate infrastructure projects at the cost of tribal rights.✓ Correct Answer
- B.It will reduce the role of the Environment Ministry in forest clearance.
- C.It will increase the revenue of state governments from land auctions.
- D.It will allow tribal communities to negotiate better compensation.
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Explanation
The article argues that the dilution would enable project developers to bypass consent of directly affected villages, leading to displacement and dispossession. This threatens the constitutional rights of forest-dependent communities, especially in projects like Teesta-IV. The other options are not supported by the article.
Which organisation is the nodal agency for promoting and authorising private sector participation in India's space activities?
- A.ISRO
- B.IN-SPACe✓ Correct Answer
- C.HAL
- D.Department of Space
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Explanation
IN-SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre) is the single-window nodal agency under the Department of Space that promotes, handholds, and authorises private sector participation in space activities. ISRO focuses on research and development, while HAL is a PSU involved in aerospace manufacturing.
Consider the following statements regarding the proposed changes in India's space sector:
1. IN-SPACe chairman Pawan Kumar Goenka stated that ISRO would eventually not manufacture any launch vehicles.
2. ISRO chairman V Narayanan categorically denied any move to privatise the space agency.
3. The government plans to transfer all ISRO technologies to private companies immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Goenka said ISRO would eventually not manufacture launch vehicles. Statement 2 is correct: Narayanan clarified there is no move to privatise ISRO. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article only mentions transfer of SSLV technology to HAL (a PSU), not all technologies to private companies immediately.
Which specific launch vehicle technology has ISRO transferred to HAL as part of the new space ecosystem model?
- A.GSLV Mk III
- B.PSLV
- C.SSLV✓ Correct Answer
- D.RLV-TD
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that ISRO developed the small rocket SSLV over the years and has now transferred the technology to HAL, a public-sector unit. Other options are different ISRO launch vehicles not mentioned in the context of technology transfer.
What is the primary concern raised by ISRO staff and old-timers regarding the shift towards private sector involvement?
- A.Loss of technological leadership to foreign companies
- B.Reduction in ISRO's revenue from commercial launches and increased dependence on government budgets✓ Correct Answer
- C.Inability of private companies to meet quality standards
- D.Delay in Chandrayaan and Gaganyaan missions
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Explanation
The article mentions that by stepping away from commercial launches, ISRO is foregoing an important source of revenue. Becoming entirely dependent on government budgets will constrain its capabilities for R&D and exploration projects. Other options are not raised as primary concerns in the article.
Which international court issued the Advisory Opinion on July 19, 2024, declaring Israel's continued presence in the Occupied Palestinian Territory unlawful?
- A.International Criminal Court (ICC)
- B.International Court of Justice (ICJ)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA)
- D.United Nations International Law Commission (ILC)
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Explanation
The ICJ, the principal judicial organ of the UN, issued the Advisory Opinion. The ICC deals with individual criminal responsibility, not state obligations under international law. The PCA and ILC are not courts of binding jurisdiction for such opinions.
Consider the following statements regarding the UK ban on goods from Israeli settlements:
1. The ban covers all agricultural, processed, and manufactured goods produced in Israeli settlements in the West Bank, including East Jerusalem.
2. The UK government has also prohibited UK firms from providing services such as construction, infrastructure, real estate, advertising, and financing that facilitate settlement expansion.
3. The ban was announced by UK Prime Minister Keir Starmer in the House of Commons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is also correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because the ban was announced by Foreign Secretary Ed Miliband, not the Prime Minister. Hence option C is correct.
According to the article, what was the estimated annual contribution of settlements in Area C and occupied East Jerusalem to Israel's economy between 2000 and 2020 (in constant 2015 dollars)?
- A.$15 billion
- B.$30 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$50 billion
- D.$100 billion
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Explanation
The UNCTAD report cited in the article estimated that settlements contributed about $30 billion annually to Israel's economy between 2000 and 2020. The other options are plausible distractors, but $30 billion is the exact figure mentioned.
What is the primary objective of the UK ban on settlement goods as stated in the article?
- A.To reduce the bilateral trade deficit with Israel
- B.To punish Israel for the October 7, 2023 attacks
- C.To respond to Israel's settlement expansion in the E1 corridor and uphold the two-state solution✓ Correct Answer
- D.To protect Palestinian workers from exploitation in settlements
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Explanation
The article states that the decision is a response to Israel's approval of new construction projects in the E1 corridor, which would sever the territorial link between northern and southern West Bank, and that the UK government believes it is a clear attempt to bury the two-state solution. While other options may be related, the primary objective is to counter settlement expansion and preserve the two-state solution.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for organizing India's foreign policy and the BRICS summit?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Prime Minister's Office
- D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
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Explanation
The article mentions 'Ministry of External Affairs (MEA)' as the official source for summit details. The MEA is responsible for India's foreign relations and organizing international summits.
Consider the following statements:
1. BRICS expanded in 2024 to include Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, the UAE and Saudi Arabia.
2. Indonesia joined BRICS as a full member in 2025.
3. Belarus, Bolivia, Kazakhstan, Cuba, Malaysia, Nigeria, Thailand, Uganda, Uzbekistan and Vietnam became BRICS partner countries in 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article says 'expanded in 2024 to include Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, the UAE and Saudi Arabia'. Statement 2 is correct: 'Indonesia joining in 2025'. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article says 'became BRICS partner countries last year' – since the article is from 2026, 'last year' refers to 2025, not 2026.
According to the article, what percentage of the global population does the BRICS grouping represent?
- A.40%
- B.49.5%✓ Correct Answer
- C.26%
- D.35%
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Explanation
The article states BRICS represents 'around 49.5 per cent of the global population'. The other options are close distractors: 40% is the GDP share, 26% is trade share, and 35% is not mentioned.
What is the primary diplomatic challenge India faces in hosting the BRICS summit, as per the article?
- A.Ensuring participation of all leaders despite travel restrictions
- B.Bridging the divide between Iran and UAE over the West Asia war✓ Correct Answer
- C.Managing the economic impact of the Strait of Hormuz crisis
- D.Achieving a consensus on climate change commitments
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Explanation
The article repeatedly highlights the discord between Iran and UAE over the war, and India's efforts to bring them on the same page for a joint declaration. Other options are secondary or not mentioned as the primary challenge.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for conducting the decennial Census in India?
- A.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Law and Justice
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The Census is conducted under the Census Act, 1948, and is administered by the Office of the Registrar General & Census Commissioner, which falls under the Ministry of Home Affairs. The other ministries are not directly involved in census operations.
Consider the following statements regarding the Census 2027 questionnaire:
1. The questionnaire includes Aadhaar number as a mandatory field for all respondents.
2. The question on ‘nationality as declared’ was previously included in the 1951 and 1961 Censuses.
3. The United Nations’ Fundamental Principles of Official Statistics allow individual census data to be shared with other government agencies for administrative purposes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the article says Aadhaar number is asked ‘if available’, not mandatory. Statement 2 is correct: the nationality question was included in 1951 and 1961 Censuses and discarded from 1971. Statement 3 is incorrect: UN Principle 6 mandates strict confidentiality and use only for statistical purposes, not administrative sharing.
According to the article, how many questions are included in the population enumeration phase of the 2027 Census?
- A.30
- B.35
- C.40✓ Correct Answer
- D.45
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that ‘the questionnaire for the population enumeration phase of the 2027 Census comprises 40 questions’. The other numbers are distractors not mentioned in the article.
What is the primary concern raised by experts regarding the inclusion of personal identifiers (Aadhaar, voter ID, passport) in the Census 2027 questionnaire?
- A.Increased cost of printing and data processing
- B.Violation of data confidentiality and potential linkage to NPR/NRC✓ Correct Answer
- C.Difficulty in training enumerators to handle sensitive data
- D.Longer time required for enumeration
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Explanation
The article highlights that these personal identifiers are not useful for statistics and may be used to update the NPR, which states had previously objected to. This raises concerns about confidentiality (UN Principle 6) and the integrity of the census process. While cost, training, and time are practical issues, the core worry is about privacy and the backdoor creation of a citizen register.
Which constitutional body conducted the performance audit of the Smart City Mission in Tamil Nadu?
- A.Election Commission of India
- B.Comptroller and Auditor General of India✓ Correct Answer
- C.Finance Commission of India
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
The CAG is the constitutional authority under Article 148 responsible for auditing government expenditure. The audit report was tabled in the Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly on September 8, 2026.
Consider the following statements from the CAG audit of Smart City Mission in Chennai:
1. Eight projects worth ₹279.03 crore were dropped without any recorded justification.
2. The Chennai Smart City Limited had paid-up capital of ₹10 crore against the prescribed ₹200 crore.
3. Statutory approvals were not obtained for projects like the biogas plant and modernisation of Kannammapettai Crematorium.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct – CAG noted no justification for dropping eight projects included the Street Light Monitoring System. Statement 2 is incorrect – the actual paid-up capital was ₹10 lakh, not ₹10 crore. Statement 3 is correct – projects like biogas plant and crematorium lacked required approvals.
According to the CAG audit, what was the total value of projects implemented outside the approved Area Based Development zone in Chennai?
- A.₹76.32 crore✓ Correct Answer
- B.₹189.66 crore
- C.₹248.47 crore
- D.₹279.03 crore
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Explanation
The audit specifically found that 13 projects involving an expenditure of ₹76.32 crore were implemented outside the approved ABD zone. The other options refer to different figures: ₹189.66 crore is the value of unplanned projects, ₹248.47 crore is the dropped Street Light Monitoring System, and ₹279.03 crore is total value of dropped projects.
What is the primary objective of the Smart Cities Mission that was undermined by the deviations highlighted in the CAG audit?
- A.To increase foreign direct investment in urban infrastructure
- B.To promote sustainable and inclusive urban development through Area Based Development and citizen participation✓ Correct Answer
- C.To generate employment through construction projects
- D.To reduce fiscal deficit by cutting urban expenditure
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Explanation
The mission aims to create smart cities with core infrastructure, clean environment, and quality of life using ABD and ICT. The audit found violations like lack of citizen consultation, spending outside ABD zone, and unplanned projects – all undermining the core objective of inclusive and focused development.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for the compilation and release of GDP data in India?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.NITI Aayog
- D.Reserve Bank of India
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Explanation
MoSPI is the nodal ministry for GDP estimation and release, as mentioned in the article. The Finance Ministry handles fiscal policy, NITI Aayog is a policy think tank, and RBI manages monetary policy.
Consider the following statements regarding the new GDP series:
1. The new GDP series has 2022-23 as the base year.
2. It relies solely on proxy-based estimates for the informal sector.
3. The new Index of Industrial Production (IIP) series was released in May 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the new series uses 2022-23 as base year. Statement 2 is incorrect: the new series uses direct surveys like ASUSE and PLFS, not proxies. Statement 3 is correct: the new IIP series was released in May 2026 as per the article.
According to the new GDP series, what was India's real GDP growth in the first quarter (April-June) of 2026-27?
- A.6.8%
- B.7.2%
- C.7.5%
- D.7.8%✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article states that MoSPI released Q1 2026-27 GDP data showing 7.8% growth, which was well above expectations. The other options are close distractors: 6.8% is last year's actual growth, 7.2% and 7.5% are common projections.
According to MoSPI Secretary Saurabh Garg, why is the furore over the new GDP series considered 'unnecessary'?
- A.Because the old GDP numbers were not overestimates.
- B.Because the methods and data sources were already made public months ago.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Because the Q1 growth of 7.8% is higher than expected.
- D.Because the new series uses digital data from e-Vahan and PFMS.
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Explanation
Garg said the furore is surprising as it comes six months after the series was released, and all relevant data (PPI, IIP, methodology booklets) were already in the public domain. While other options are true, the primary reason given is that the methods were public.
Which body recommended the appointment of Justice Ashwani Kumar Mishra as Chief Justice of Punjab and Haryana High Court?
- A.Union Cabinet
- B.Supreme Court Collegium✓ Correct Answer
- C.Law Commission
- D.President of India
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Explanation
The article states that the Supreme Court Collegium recommended Justice Mishra and three other judges for appointment as chief justices on August 6, 2026. The Collegium is the body responsible for recommending senior judicial appointments.
Consider the following statements regarding the Punjab High Court Chief Justice appointment:
1. Punjab Chief Minister attended the oath-taking ceremony of Justice Mishra.
2. The Memorandum of Procedure (MoP) fixes a deadline of 3 weeks for state response.
3. The Supreme Court has set a benchmark that the Centre must clear reiterated Collegium names within 3-4 weeks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect – the article says the CM's chair was empty at the oath-taking. Statement 2 is incorrect – the MoP fixes no deadline for state response. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: 'The SC has set the Centre a benchmark for names reiterated by the Collegium — they must be cleared within three to four weeks.'
On what date did the Supreme Court Collegium recommend the appointment of Justice Ashwani Kumar Mishra as Chief Justice?
- A.August 6, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- B.September 5, 2026
- C.September 9, 2026
- D.Not mentioned in the article
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The Supreme Court Collegium recommended Justice Mishra and three other judges for appointment as chief justices of four high courts on August 6.'
What is the primary concern raised in the editorial regarding Punjab's action?
- A.Lack of funding for state governments
- B.Political interference in judicial appointments✓ Correct Answer
- C.Delay in pension payments to judges
- D.Need for more high courts in Punjab
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Explanation
The editorial criticizes the Punjab government for treating adverse court orders as personal affronts and delaying the appointment. It warns that 'letting political bickering hijack judicial appointments sets a disturbing precedent', directly pointing to political interference.
Which trade agreement is primarily affected by the US-Canada trade war mentioned in the article?
- A.USMCA (United States-Mexico-Canada Agreement)✓ Correct Answer
- B.NAFTA (North American Free Trade Agreement)
- C.WTO (World Trade Organization)
- D.GATT (General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade)
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the US-Mexico-Canada Agreement (USMCA) as being threatened by the trade war. NAFTA is its predecessor, and WTO/GATT are broader international trade frameworks not directly mentioned in this context.
Consider the following statements:
1. US banned Canadian alcohol, dairy, and motorcycles effective September 29.
2. Canada imposed retaliatory tariffs after US imposed 25% tariffs on $20 billion Canadian goods.
3. US President Donald Trump threatened to increase tariffs on Canadian autos to 50% by January 1.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: US banned alcohol, dairy, and motorcycles effective Sept 29. Statement 2 is incorrect: the US tariffs were 50%, not 25%. Statement 3 is correct: Trump threatened to increase auto tariffs to 50% by January 1. Hence option C is correct.
According to the article, what was the value of Canadian goods subject to the US 50% tariffs?
- A.$10 billion
- B.$20 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$30 billion
- D.$50 billion
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Explanation
The article states: '50% US tariffs charged on some $20 billion of Canadian goods'. The other options are distractors; $20 billion is the exact figure mentioned.
What is a likely consequence of the US-Canada trade war as highlighted in the article?
- A.Strengthening of the USMCA agreement
- B.Canada's pivot away from the US as its primary trade partner✓ Correct Answer
- C.Reduction in US tariffs on Canadian goods
- D.Increase in Canadian exports to the US
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Explanation
The article states that Canadian PM Mark Carney indicated a shift away from Canada's 'biggest partner in trade' and that the trade war has 'cast a shadow on the viability of the USMCA'. This suggests Canada will seek alternative trade partners, not strengthen ties with the US.
Which High Court delivered the judgment quashing the PSA detention of a scholar in the recent news?
- A.Supreme Court of India
- B.Jammu and Kashmir High Court
- C.Jammu, Kashmir & Ladakh High Court✓ Correct Answer
- D.Delhi High Court
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Explanation
The judgment was delivered by the Jammu, Kashmir & Ladakh High Court, which is the successor to the Jammu and Kashmir High Court after the reorganization of the state in 2019. The court specifically noted that mere possession of books does not make a person a criminal.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent High Court ruling on PSA detention:
1. The court held that possession of books with dispiriting titles is sufficient grounds for preventive detention.
2. The detention order cited the detenue's father's former militant links and invitations to international conferences.
3. The court found that there was non-application of mind by the detaining authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the court ruled that mere possession of books does not make a person a criminal. Statement 2 is correct as the detention order indeed cited the father's militant links and international conference invitations. Statement 3 is correct because the court observed that the detaining authority did not derive satisfaction regarding prejudicial activity, indicating non-application of mind. Hence option C is correct.
Under which law was the scholar Shafat Maqbool Wani detained before the High Court quashed the order?
- A.National Security Act (NSA)
- B.Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967
- C.Public Safety Act (PSA)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Preventive Detention Act, 1950
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Explanation
The detention was under the Public Safety Act (PSA), a state-level preventive detention law in Jammu and Kashmir. The UAPA case was a separate criminal case in which the scholar had already been granted bail. The PSA detention order was quashed by the High Court.
What is the primary significance of the High Court's ruling in this case?
- A.It strengthens the government's power to detain individuals under PSA without trial.
- B.It establishes that academic scholars cannot be detained under any circumstances.
- C.It reinforces that preventive detention must be based on specific evidence of subversive activity, not on vague grounds.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It declares the Public Safety Act unconstitutional.
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Explanation
The court emphasized that the detaining authority must show specific prejudicial activity and cannot rely on factors like family background or possession of books. This ruling limits the misuse of preventive detention laws and upholds the principle of personal liberty.
Which space agency is the Indian counterpart in the cooperation discussed in the news?
- A.European Space Agency (ESA)✓ Correct Answer
- B.National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
- C.Roscosmos
- D.China National Space Administration (CNSA)
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the European Space Agency (ESA) as the partner with ISRO. ESA is a multinational intergovernmental organization dedicated to space exploration.
Consider the following statements regarding the Venus Orbiter Mission (VOM):
1. The Venus Orbiter Mission has been approved by the Union Cabinet.
2. The mission will be launched using the GSLV Mark III (LVM-3) rocket.
3. The spacecraft will carry a total of 19 payloads, with 16 being Indian.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: VOM approved by Union Cabinet. Statement 2 is incorrect: the launch vehicle is LVM-3 (Launch Vehicle Mark-3), not GSLV Mark III (though often referred similarly, the article specifically says LVM-3). Statement 3 is correct: 19 payloads total, 16 Indian, 2 collaborative, 1 international.
What is the approved budget for India's Venus Orbiter Mission (VOM)?
- A.₹1,236 crore✓ Correct Answer
- B.₹2,500 crore
- C.₹900 crore
- D.₹1,500 crore
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Venus Orbiter Mission has been approved at a cost of ₹1,236 crore. Other options are distractors commonly used for other space missions.
What is the primary purpose of the Technical Implementing Plan (TIP) signed between ISRO and ESA?
- A.To provide ground tracking support for the Gaganyaan mission✓ Correct Answer
- B.To collaborate on a joint lunar sample return mission
- C.To share technology for Venus atmospheric studies
- D.To develop a new launch vehicle for heavy satellites
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Explanation
The article mentions that the TIP enables ESA to provide ground station support for Gaganyaan missions, ensuring continuous data flow and communication with the orbital module. The other options are not mentioned in the article.
Which Act was cited by the petitioner in the Chhattisgarh High Court case challenging the Shariya court's divorce order?
- A.Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937
- B.Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986✓ Correct Answer
- C.Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939
- D.Indian Divorce Act, 1869
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Explanation
The petitioner argued that the Shariya court's order violated Section 2(c) of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986, which provides for maintenance and rights of divorced Muslim women. The other acts are not mentioned in the article.
Consider the following statements regarding the Chhattisgarh High Court ruling:
1. The court declared that no religious institution can function as a court.
2. The court also declared Talaq-e-Hasan unconstitutional.
3. The petitioner was a 38-year-old Muslim woman from Raipur.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the court observed that no religious institution can assume court authority. Statement 2 is incorrect: the court explicitly refrained from adjudicating on Talaq-e-Hasan as it is pending before the Supreme Court. Statement 3 is correct: the petitioner was a 38-year-old Muslim woman from Raipur.
What was the date of the impugned order passed by the Idara-E-Shariya Islami Court that was challenged in the Chhattisgarh High Court?
- A.January 18, 2022✓ Correct Answer
- B.January 18, 2023
- C.September 09, 2026
- D.September 09, 2025
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Explanation
The article states the impugned order was dated January 18, 2022. September 09, 2026 is the date of the High Court judgment. The other dates are distractors.
What is the primary significance of the Chhattisgarh High Court's ruling?
- A.It bans all forms of triple talaq in India.
- B.It affirms that no private religious body can override the legal system established by the Constitution.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It grants Muslim women the right to divorce without any judicial process.
- D.It establishes Sharia courts as valid alternative dispute resolution forums.
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Explanation
The court held that religious institutions cannot assume court authority and the rule of law remains paramount. It did not ban triple talaq (that was done earlier by SC) nor did it grant automatic divorce rights or legitimize Sharia courts.
Which international court is hearing Nicaragua's case against Germany under the Genocide Convention?
- A.International Criminal Court (ICC)
- B.International Court of Justice (ICJ)✓ Correct Answer
- C.International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS)
- D.Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA)
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Explanation
The ICJ, also known as the World Court, settles legal disputes between states. Nicaragua invoked the Genocide Convention which provides for ICJ jurisdiction. The ICC prosecutes individuals, not states.
Consider the following statements:
1. Nicaragua filed its case against Germany at the ICJ in 2024.
2. The Genocide Convention was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1948.
3. The Genocide Convention currently has 154 signatories, including Israel and India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Nicaragua filed the case in 2024. Statement 2 is correct: the Convention was adopted in 1948. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article says 154 signatories, but it does not state that Israel is a signatory in that number (though Israel is a signatory). The phrase 'including Israel and India' is not explicitly stated in the article; the article says 'including Nicaragua, Germany and Israel. India is also a signatory.' So statement 3's phrasing is misleading. Thus only 1 and 2 are correct.
According to the article, how many people have been killed in Gaza since October 2023?
- A.Over 1,200
- B.Over 10,000
- C.Over 70,000✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over 1,300
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Explanation
The article states: 'Israeli strikes in Gaza have killed over 70,000 people'. 1,200 were killed in the October 7 attack on Israel, and 1,300 were killed after the ceasefire. The correct figure for total deaths in Gaza from Israeli strikes is over 70,000.
What is the primary legal basis for Nicaragua's claim that Germany violated international law?
- A.The United Nations Charter
- B.The Geneva Conventions
- C.The Genocide Convention✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Rome Statute of the ICC
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Explanation
Nicaragua argues that Germany's arms supply to Israel contributed to the commission of genocide against Palestinians, thus violating the 1948 Genocide Convention. The case is filed under the Convention's dispute resolution clause. The other options are not invoked in the article.
Which body approved the eight railway multi-tracking projects mentioned in the news?
- A.Ministry of Railways
- B.Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Indian Railways
- D.Prime Minister's Office
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Explanation
The article states that the CCEA, chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, approved the eight projects. The Ministry of Railways is the implementing ministry, while Indian Railways is the network operator. The PMO is not the approving body for such economic decisions.
Consider the following statements:
1. The approved projects will add 1,196 km to the existing Indian Railways network.
2. All eight projects will be implemented only in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Telangana.
3. The first five projects will enhance connectivity to about 2,121 villages having a population of about 52 lakhs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct because the article says the eight projects will increase the existing network by 1,196 km. Statement 2 is incorrect because the other three projects span West Bengal, Jharkhand, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. Statement 3 is correct as the first five projects cover 2,121 villages with about 52 lakh population. Hence option C is correct.
According to the news, what is the total cost of the eight railway multi-tracking projects approved by CCEA?
- A.₹18,509 crore
- B.₹20,804 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹22,500 crore
- D.₹24,000 crore
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the CCEA approved eight projects with a total cost of ₹20,804 crore. The other options are close distractors; ₹18,509 crore is not mentioned in the article.
What is the primary objective of planning these railway projects under the PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan?
- A.To reduce passenger fares across Indian Railways
- B.To enhance multi-modal connectivity and logistics efficiency through integrated planning✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase the number of railway zones in India
- D.To privatise railway freight operations
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Explanation
According to the article, the projects are planned on PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan with focus on enhancing multi-modal connectivity and logistics efficiency through integrated planning and stakeholder consultations. The other options are not mentioned or supported by the article.
Under which type of company is MC2 Plus registered, as per the Companies Act?
- A.Private Limited Company
- B.Public Limited Company
- C.Section 8 Company✓ Correct Answer
- D.One Person Company
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the consortium formed a 'Section 8 company, MC2 Plus'. Section 8 companies are non-profit entities formed for promoting commerce, science, research, etc. The other options are different forms of companies under the Companies Act, 2013.
Consider the following statements regarding the MC2 Plus initiative:
1. MC2 Plus is an incubator and accelerator for deep-tech startups in the energy sector.
2. The India Energy Fund (AIF) has already been launched and is operational.
3. HPCL will establish an incubator at its research facility in Bengaluru.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: MC2 Plus will operate as an incubator and accelerator. Statement 2 is incorrect: the AIF is 'expected to be launched shortly' and not yet operational. Statement 3 is correct: HPCL CMD said the company would establish an incubator at its Bengaluru research facility. Hence option C is correct.
What is the approximate annual energy expenditure of India's refining industry, as mentioned in the article?
- A.₹50,000 crore
- B.₹1 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹2 lakh crore
- D.₹5 lakh crore
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Explanation
The article states that India's refining sector spends 'close to ₹1 lakh crore a year on energy used in the refining process alone'. The other options are distractors; ₹50,000 crore is half, ₹2 lakh crore and ₹5 lakh crore are higher than stated.
What is the primary objective of the MC2 Plus and India Energy Fund initiative?
- A.To increase India's refining capacity to 500 million tonnes
- B.To reduce the energy cost in refining through deep-tech innovation and startup support✓ Correct Answer
- C.To export petroleum products to neighboring countries
- D.To invest only in electric vehicle startups
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the initiative aims to solve 'the energy sector's biggest technology challenges' and specifically targets cutting the ₹1 lakh crore annual refining energy bill. Option D is incorrect because only 45% of energy startups are in EVs; the initiative focuses on core energy deep-tech. Options A and C are not mentioned.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for the Deep Ocean Mission under which the vessel 'Sagar Manthan' was built?
- A.Ministry of Defence
- B.Ministry of Earth Sciences✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- D.Ministry of Science and Technology
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Explanation
The Deep Ocean Mission is a flagship program of the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES). The article explicitly states that the vessel is being built for the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR) under MoES, and the Earth Sciences secretary was present at the launch. The other ministries are not involved in this specific mission.
Consider the following statements regarding the ocean research vessel 'Sagar Manthan':
1. It is being built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE) for the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR).
2. The vessel is designed to operate only in the Indian Ocean region and cannot venture into the Southern Ocean.
3. It will be capable of launching autonomous underwater vehicles (AUVs) and remotely operated vehicles (ROVs) developed under the Deep Ocean Mission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states GRSE launched the vessel for NCPOR. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly says the vessel is capable of undertaking research in the equatorial Indian Ocean, Bay of Bengal, and the Southern Ocean including waters around Antarctica. Statement 3 is correct as the vessel will be capable of launching AUVs and ROVs being developed by NIOT under the Deep Ocean Mission.
What is the total cost of the ocean research vessel 'Sagar Manthan' as mentioned in the news?
- A.₹680 crore
- B.₹840 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹1,020 crore
- D.₹950 crore
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the research vessel costs ₹840 crore. The other options are plausible distractors: ₹680 crore is close but incorrect, ₹1,020 crore and ₹950 crore are higher figures not mentioned in the article.
What is the primary objective of deploying the ocean research vessel 'Sagar Manthan'?
- A.To enhance India's naval defence capabilities in the Indian Ocean
- B.To conduct scientific research in deep-sea environments and explore marine mineral resources✓ Correct Answer
- C.To provide passenger and cargo transport services to remote islands
- D.To monitor illegal fishing activities in the exclusive economic zone
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that the vessel will significantly enhance the country's ability to undertake scientific research in the Indian Ocean region and beyond, and will strengthen India's efforts to explore marine mineral resources including manganese nodules and polymetallic sulphides. It is not a defence vessel, nor a transport or monitoring ship.
Which ministry or department is primarily responsible for implementing the Sustainable Electric Mobility Policy 2024-29 in Andhra Pradesh?
- A.Ministry of Heavy Industries, Government of India
- B.Transport Department, Government of Andhra Pradesh✓ Correct Answer
- C.NITI Aayog
- D.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
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Explanation
The policy was announced by Andhra Pradesh's Transport Minister Mandipalli Ramprasad Reddy, indicating the Transport Department as the nodal agency. Central ministries are involved in national schemes like FAME, but this is a state-level policy.
Consider the following statements regarding the Andhra Pradesh Sustainable Electric Mobility Policy 2024-29:
1. The policy provides a subsidy of up to 5% of the ex-showroom price on purchase of electric two-wheelers, autos, buses, transport vehicles and tractors.
2. The incentives for EV buyers are applicable only until March 2027.
3. The state aims to establish a charging station every 50 km across the state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Only 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the Minister confirmed subsidy up to 5% on various EV types. Statement 2 is correct: the incentive is applicable until March 2027. Statement 3 is incorrect because the target is one charging station for every 30 km, not 50 km.
According to the news, what was the year-on-year growth in nationwide electric vehicle sales in August 2026?
- A.42.1%
- B.45.7%
- C.52.9%✓ Correct Answer
- D.58.3%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that around 2.98 lakh electric vehicles were sold nationwide in August 2026, registering a 52.9% growth compared to the previous year. The other percentages are plausible distractors.
What is the primary objective of the Andhra Pradesh government's new EV policy incentives?
- A.To generate revenue through higher vehicle registration fees
- B.To promote the use of electric vehicles by reducing upfront and ownership costs✓ Correct Answer
- C.To attract foreign direct investment in automobile manufacturing
- D.To comply with central government mandates on EV adoption
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Explanation
The policy offers buyer subsidies and tax exemptions to make EVs more affordable, and charging station incentives to address range anxiety. Revenue generation or FDI attraction are not mentioned. While national goals exist, the state's own commitment to transform AP into a leading EV state is the stated objective.
Which US government body suspended Cognizant's filings under the Permanent Labour Certification programme?
- A.US Department of Homeland Security
- B.US Department of Labour✓ Correct Answer
- C.US Department of State
- D.US Citizenship and Immigration Services
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the US Department of Labour suspended Cognizant's PERM filings. The announcement was made by the department's Inspector General Anthony D'Esposito.
Consider the following statements regarding the US suspension of Cognizant's PERM filings:
1. The suspension was announced by the US Department of Labour Inspector General amid a fraud investigation.
2. The suspension applies only to H-1B visa applications, not green card filings.
3. Cognizant had recently announced plans to hire 1,500 US college graduates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the announcement was made by Inspector General Anthony D'Esposito. Statement 2 is incorrect: PERM is for permanent labour certification (green card), not H-1B. Statement 3 is correct: Cognizant announced hiring 1,500 US graduates on September 7, 2026. Hence option C is correct.
How many US college graduates did Cognizant plan to hire according to its September 7 announcement?
- A.1,000
- B.1,500✓ Correct Answer
- C.2,000
- D.15,000
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Explanation
The article states: 'Cognizant announced that it planned to hire 1,500 US college graduates.' The 15,000 figure refers to the target for its Frontier workforce, not the number of new graduates hired.
What is the primary implication of the PERM suspension for the broader IT industry, as highlighted by experts in the article?
- A.Immediate reduction in H-1B visa approvals
- B.Increased scrutiny on immigration compliance including wages and recruitment✓ Correct Answer
- C.Complete ban on hiring foreign workers
- D.Shift of IT companies from the US to India
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Explanation
The article quotes experts saying the development signals greater scrutiny of immigration-related compliance—wages, recruitment practices, and documentation. It warns that the era of treating sponsorship as an HR process is changing. The suspension is not an immediate ban on hiring but a warning for tighter compliance.
Which institute identified the Navier-Stokes existence and smoothness problem as one of the seven Millennium Prize Problems?
- A.The Clay Mathematics Institute✓ Correct Answer
- B.The Institute for Advanced Study
- C.The Fields Institute
- D.The American Mathematical Society
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Explanation
The Clay Mathematics Institute (CMI) of Cambridge, Massachusetts, designated the seven Millennium Prize Problems in 2000, each with a $1 million prize. The other options are distinguished mathematics institutes but not the ones that set the Millennium Prize Problems.
Consider the following statements regarding the Navier-Stokes problem and OpenAI's claim:
1. The Navier-Stokes problem deals with whether smooth three-dimensional fluid motion can develop a singularity.
2. OpenAI's proof was generated by a single AI model using 1,000 agents over 100 hours.
3. The proof was formally verified using a computer system called Lean.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the problem asks whether the Navier-Stokes equations can develop a singularity (breakdown of smoothness). Statement 2 is incorrect: the article states 10,000 AI agents were used, not 1,000, and the time was 88 hours. Statement 3 is correct: the proof was formally verified using Lean, a computer proof checker. Hence option C is correct.
How many AI agents did OpenAI deploy to work on the Navier-Stokes problem simultaneously?
- A.1,000
- B.10,000✓ Correct Answer
- C.100,000
- D.1 million
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'around 10,000 AI agents worked on the problem simultaneously.' The other options are common distractors; 1,000 is too low, 100,000 and 1 million are not mentioned.
What is the primary significance of the Lean verification system used by OpenAI in this context?
- A.It speeds up the generation of the proof by using parallel computing.
- B.It provides a formal, step-by-step check of the mathematical proof's correctness.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It translates the proof into natural language for mathematicians.
- D.It generates counterexamples to test the conjecture.
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Explanation
Lean is a proof assistant that verifies mathematical proofs by checking each logical step. The article mentions that the proof was 'formally verified using Lean, which is a computer system used to check mathematical proofs step-by-step.' This ensures the proof is logically sound, independent of human interpretation.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for launching the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) and Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan?
- A.(A) Ministry of Earth Sciences
- B.(B) Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
- D.(D) Ministry of Heavy Industries
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that NCAP was launched in January 2019 by MoEFCC and that Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan is also an initiative of MoEFCC. SAFAR, by contrast, is administered by the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
Consider the following statements:
1. Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan is an annual assessment of 130 cities under NCAP and was launched in 2022-23.
2. Lucknow, which topped Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan 2026, has met the annual PM10 standard of 60 µg/m³.
3. Improvements in PM10 concentration reduction carry only 2.5 per cent weightage in the final ranking.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) 1 and 2 only
- B.(B) 2 and 3 only
- C.(C) 1 and 3 only✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan is an annual assessment of 130 cities under NCAP launched in 2022-23. Statement 2 is false — Lucknow's annual PM10 concentration is 137 µg/m³, still above the 60 µg/m³ NAAQS. Statement 3 is correct: PM10 reduction is given only 2.5% weightage.
According to the article, what is the annual National Ambient Air Quality Standard for PM10?
- A.(A) 250 µg/m³
- B.(B) 137 µg/m³
- C.(C) 60 µg/m³✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) 15 µg/m³
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Explanation
The article states that Lucknow has yet to meet the PM10 annual ambient air quality standard of 60 µg/m³ prescribed under national standards. 137 µg/m³ is Lucknow's current PM10 level, 250 µg/m³ was Lucknow's 2017-18 level, and 15 µg/m³ is the WHO guideline for PM10.
In Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan, the reduction in which pollutant is given only a 2.5 per cent weightage while ranking cities?
- A.(A) PM2.5
- B.(B) PM10✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) NO2
- D.(D) SO2
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Explanation
The article says 'improvements in the reduction of particulate matter 10 concentrations are given only a 2.5 per cent weightage.' The ranking mainly assesses waste management, road dust control, construction and demolition dust, and vehicular/industrial pollution. This tests the difference between outcome measurement and action measurement.
Which organization's Director General wrote the letter to the Rajya Sabha member regarding the National One Health Mission?
- A.World Health Organization (WHO)
- B.Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)✓ Correct Answer
- C.NITI Aayog
- D.Ministry of Home Affairs
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Explanation
The letter was written by Dr Rajiv Bahl, Director General of ICMR, as stated in the article. ICMR is the apex body for medical research in India, under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Consider the following statements regarding the National One Health Mission:
1. Waste-water surveillance is currently being undertaken for 13 priority pathogens across 47 cities.
2. The surveillance will be expanded to 100 cities by 2027.
3. Five genomic and metagenomic hubs have been established to detect novel pathogens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'waste-water surveillance of 13 priority pathogens across 47 cities'. Statement 2 is incorrect – the expansion target is 75 cities, not 100. Statement 3 is correct: 'Five genomic and metagenomic hubs have been established'. Hence option C is correct.
According to the ICMR DG's letter, how many priority pathogens are currently under waste-water surveillance under the National One Health Mission?
- A.10
- B.13✓ Correct Answer
- C.15
- D.20
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Explanation
The article clearly states 'waste-water surveillance of 13 priority pathogens across 47 cities'. The other options are close distractors; 10 and 15 are common numbers used in other health surveillance contexts.
What is the primary objective of the National One Health Mission as highlighted in the ICMR DG's letter?
- A.To address bioterrorism through a national biosecurity policy
- B.To integrate surveillance of human, animal, and wildlife health for early detection of diseases✓ Correct Answer
- C.To expand the number of genomic hubs to 75 by 2027
- D.To draft a new policy on pandemic preparedness
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Explanation
The letter mentions 'syndromic surveillance, integrated animal-human-wildlife surveillance, and waste-water surveillance' as activities under the mission. The core of One Health is integration across species. While biosecurity is a related aspect, the mission's primary objective is integrated surveillance for early detection and response.
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Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?
For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
- Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
- Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
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Frequently Asked Questions
What are the important current affairs questions for 9 September 2026?▼
This page contains 88 current affairs questions from 9 September 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 9 September 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
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- Q57. body approved the eight railway multi-tracking projects mentio…
- Q58. Consider the following statements: 1. The approved projects w…
- Q59. According to the news, what is the total cost of the eight rai…
- Q60. is the primary objective of planning these railway projects un…
- Q61. Under which type of company is MC2 Plus registered, as per the…
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the MC2 Plus initi…
- Q63. is the approximate annual energy expenditure of India's refini…
- Q64. is the primary objective of the MC2 Plus and India Energy Fund…
- Q65. ministry is primarily responsible for the Deep Ocean Mission u…
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the ocean research…
- Q67. is the total cost of the ocean research vessel 'Sagar Manthan'…
- Q68. is the primary objective of deploying the ocean research vesse…
- Q69. ministry or department is primarily responsible for implementi…
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the Andhra Pradesh…
- Q71. According to the news, what was the year-on-year growth in nat…
- Q72. is the primary objective of the Andhra Pradesh government's ne…
- Q73. US government body suspended Cognizant's filings under the Per…
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the US suspension …
- Q75. many US college graduates did Cognizant plan to hire according…
- Q76. is the primary implication of the PERM suspension for the broa…
- Q77. institute identified the Navier-Stokes existence and smoothnes…
- Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the Navier-Stokes …
- Q79. many AI agents did OpenAI deploy to work on the Navier-Stokes …
- Q80. is the primary significance of the Lean verification system us…
- Q81. ministry is primarily responsible for launching the National C…
- Q82. Consider the following statements: 1. Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan …
- Q83. According to the article, what is the annual National Ambient …
- Q84. In Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan, the reduction in which pollutant is…
- Q85. organization's Director General wrote the letter to the Rajya …
- Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the National One H…
- Q87. According to the ICMR DG's letter, how many priority pathogens…
- Q88. is the primary objective of the National One Health Mission as…