4 September 2026, Questions & Answers
112 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
112 questions · 0 topics covered · 23 min revision
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This page contains 112 current affairs questions with answers from 4 September 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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112 QsThe Bar Council of India (BCI) is established under which Act?
- A.The Advocates Act, 1961✓ Correct Answer
- B.The Legal Practitioners Act, 1879
- C.The Indian Bar Councils Act, 1926
- D.The Constitution of India (Article 145)
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Explanation
As per the article, the Bar Council of India is a statutory body created by Parliament under the Advocates Act, 1961. It regulates and represents the Indian Bar and consists of members from State Bar Councils, the Attorney General, and the Solicitor General.
Consider the following statements regarding the Nancy Grace Roman Space Telescope:
1. It is named after the 'mother of Hubble' and was launched on a SpaceX rocket.
2. It will operate from Lagrange Point 1 (L1), located about 1.5 million km from Earth.
3. One of its scientific goals is to study gravitational lensing to map dark matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Roman Telescope is named after Nancy Grace Roman (mother of Hubble) and launched on a SpaceX rocket. Statement 2 is incorrect: It operates from Lagrange Point 2 (L2), not L1, located about 1.2 million km from Earth. Statement 3 is correct: It will measure gravitational lensing to create a 3D map of galaxy distribution and study dark matter.
According to the WMO warning, how many degrees Celsius above normal did the sea surface temperature anomaly reach in the Nino 3.4 region in July 2026?
- A.1.5°C
- B.2.0°C✓ Correct Answer
- C.2.5°C
- D.3.0°C
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Explanation
The article states: 'this temperature index value surpassed 1.5 degrees Celsius above normal during May-July and further escalated 2 degrees Celsius above normal in July.' Option A (1.5°C) was earlier in May-July, but the July value was 2°C. Options C and D are not mentioned.
What was the primary reason behind the Supreme Court ruling that the Bar Council of India cannot discipline law students?
- A.The BCI lacked statutory existence under any Act
- B.The disciplinary powers under the Advocates Act apply only to enrolled advocates, not students✓ Correct Answer
- C.The students were protected by Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution
- D.The incident took place at a private university outside BCI's jurisdiction
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Explanation
The SC bench held that the Advocates Act, 1961 does not confer any express or implied power on BCI or State Bar Councils to take disciplinary action against law students; such power is preceded by registration as an advocate. That domain belongs to the parent institution. Option A is false because BCI exists under the Act. Option C was not the primary reasoning. Option D is false as BCI has nationwide regulatory powers.
Which Indian space agency is responsible for the launch of the EOS-05 satellite?
- A.NASA
- B.ISRO✓ Correct Answer
- C.ESA
- D.JAXA
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Explanation
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is the national space agency of India, which launched the EOS-05 satellite using the GSLV-F17 vehicle from Sriharikota.
Consider the following statements:
1. EOS-05 is India's first imaging satellite in geosynchronous orbit.
2. EOS-05 was launched using the PSLV-C62 rocket.
3. The launch took place from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: EOS-05 is India's first imaging satellite in geosynchronous orbit. Statement 2 is incorrect: it was launched using GSLV-F17, not PSLV-C62. Statement 3 is correct: the launch was from the second launch pad of Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota.
What was the weight of the EOS-05 satellite launched by ISRO?
- A.1536 kg
- B.2367 kg✓ Correct Answer
- C.2500 kg
- D.3000 kg
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Explanation
The article states that the GSLV-F17 injected the heaviest satellite carried by this vehicle, weighing 2367 kg. 1536 kg was the payload of the first GSLV-D1 mission, not EOS-05.
What is the primary purpose of the EOS-05 satellite according to the article?
- A.To provide communication services across India
- B.To monitor weather patterns and cyclones
- C.To provide real-time imagery for agriculture, environment, and disaster management✓ Correct Answer
- D.To serve as a navigation satellite for GPS
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Explanation
The article mentions that EOS-05 will provide real-time imagery and help in agriculture, environment, disaster management, among others. It is an Earth observation satellite, not a communication or navigation satellite.
Which intergovernmental organisation held its 25th anniversary summit in Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan, as mentioned in the news?
- A.Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)✓ Correct Answer
- B.BRICS
- C.North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
- D.United Nations (UN)
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Explanation
The article specifically states that PM Modi attended the annual meeting of SCO leaders in Bishkek, marking 25 years of the Eurasian grouping. BRICS, NATO, and UN are different organisations.
Consider the following statements regarding the Bishkek declaration of the SCO summit:
1. It condemned the US-Israel attacks on Iran.
2. It supported Iran's right to peaceful nuclear technology under the NPT.
3. It explicitly named Pakistan as a state sponsoring terrorism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the declaration condemned the US-Israel attacks on Iran. Statement 2 is correct: it supported Iran's right to peaceful nuclear technology under the NPT. Statement 3 is incorrect: the declaration did not name Pakistan; India's reference to countries that 'use terrorism as an instrument of policy' was indirect.
Where was the 2026 annual meeting of SCO leaders held?
- A.Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan✓ Correct Answer
- B.Tashkent, Uzbekistan
- C.Delhi, India
- D.Tianjin, China
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that PM Modi attended the annual meeting of SCO leaders in Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan. Tashkent was also visited by PM Modi but for bilateral talks, not the summit. Tianjin hosted the 2025 summit.
What was India's primary strategic concern highlighted at the SCO summit, according to the article?
- A.Promoting economic integration with Central Asia
- B.Countering cross-border terrorism and terrorist safe havens✓ Correct Answer
- C.Securing energy imports from Iran
- D.Mediating the US-Israel war on Iran
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Explanation
PM Modi's speech focused on dismantling the ecosystem of terrorist financing, recruitment, radicalisation, and safe havens, and called for strong action against countries that use terrorism as an instrument of policy. This was India's key agenda.
Which Act defines Teacher Education Institutions (TEIs) as mentioned in the Supreme Court judgment?
- A.Right to Education Act, 2009
- B.National Council for Teacher Education Act, 1993✓ Correct Answer
- C.University Grants Commission Act, 1956
- D.All India Council for Technical Education Act, 1987
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Explanation
The Supreme Court referred to Section 2(e) of the NCTE Act, which defines Teacher Education Institutions (TEIs). The RTE Act focuses on elementary education but does not define TEIs. UGC and AICTE deal with higher and technical education respectively.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment:
1. The Court added two new duty-bearers under the RTE Act: Teacher Education Institutions (TEIs) and the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE).
2. The Court declared that teacher education has received sufficient attention in India.
3. The judgment upheld the NCTE's decision to call for annual Performance Appraisal Reports from TEIs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the Court added TEIs and NCTE as the sixth and seventh duty-bearers. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Court observed that teacher education has NOT received the attention it deserves. Statement 3 is correct as the Court upheld the NCTE's move to call for annual Performance Appraisal Reports.
According to the Supreme Court judgment, how many duty-bearers now safeguard the fundamental right to elementary education under the RTE Act?
- A.5
- B.6
- C.7✓ Correct Answer
- D.8
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Explanation
The original five duty-bearers (government, local authority, school, parents/guardians, teacher) plus the two newly added (TEIs and NCTE) make a total of seven. The Court explicitly listed these seven duty-bearers in its observation.
What is the primary role of the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) as highlighted in the Supreme Court judgment?
- A.To conduct teacher recruitment exams
- B.To lay down minimum qualifications for teachers✓ Correct Answer
- C.To manage school infrastructure
- D.To fund teacher salaries
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Explanation
The Court stated that for the RTE Act to work effectively, an academic authority like NCTE has to lay down the minimum qualifications for teachers. This is a core function of NCTE, distinguishing it from other bodies. Recruitment, infrastructure, and salaries are not its primary role.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for implementing the RAKSHA framework?
- A.Ministry of External Affairs
- B.Ministry of Defence✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Home Affairs
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The RAKSHA framework was unveiled by Defence Minister Rajnath Singh, indicating that the Ministry of Defence is the nodal ministry for its implementation. The framework integrates defence diplomacy with foreign policy, but the lead remains with the Ministry of Defence.
Consider the following statements regarding the RAKSHA framework:
1. It is a 10-year blueprint for India's defence diplomacy.
2. It focuses exclusively on military exercises and ceremonial exchanges.
3. It emphasizes defence industrial cooperation and exports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly calls it a 10-year blueprint. Statement 2 is incorrect because RAKSHA moves beyond ceremonial exchanges to include industrial cooperation, capacity building, and exports. Statement 3 is correct as the framework places strong emphasis on defence industrial cooperation and boosting exports. Hence option C is correct.
According to the article, what was the value of India's defence exports in FY 2025-26?
- A.₹28,424 crore
- B.₹38,424 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹48,424 crore
- D.₹58,424 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'India's defence exports touched a record ₹38,424 crore in FY 2025-26'. The other options are close distractors designed to test precise recall of the exact figure.
What is the primary objective of the RAKSHA framework as described in the article?
- A.To increase defence imports from friendly countries
- B.To promote ceremonial military exchanges only
- C.To integrate defence diplomacy with foreign policy, economic interests, and national security✓ Correct Answer
- D.To reduce the defence budget through efficiency
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Explanation
The article states that the blueprint 'seeks to integrate defence diplomacy more closely with India's wider foreign policy, economic interests and national security objectives'. Options A and B are opposite to the framework's intent, while D is not mentioned.
Which international agreement sets the 1.5°C global warming goal as a key target?
- A.Kyoto Protocol
- B.Paris Agreement✓ Correct Answer
- C.Montreal Protocol
- D.Copenhagen Accord
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Explanation
The 1.5°C target was established under Article 2 of the Paris Agreement (2015), which aims to limit global warming to well below 2°C and pursue efforts to limit it to 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels.
Consider the following statements regarding the UNEP report 'Limiting Overshoot':
1. The report states that the world will likely exceed the 1.5°C target temporarily.
2. According to the report, overshoot is avoidable if all countries immediately implement their net-zero pledges.
3. The report warns that some damage from overshoot, like sea-level rise, may be irreversible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the report says overshoot is unavoidable. Statement 2 is incorrect: the report says overshoot is unavoidable even under an optimistic scenario with full implementation of pledges. Statement 3 is correct: the report notes that some damage, including sea-level rise and ecosystem shifts, may continue even after temperatures decline.
According to the UNEP report, what is the expected peak global warming under the optimistic scenario?
- A.1.5°C
- B.1.8°C✓ Correct Answer
- C.2.0°C
- D.2.5°C
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Explanation
The UNEP report 'Limiting Overshoot' states that even under an optimistic scenario where governments fully implement current climate plans and net-zero pledges, warming is expected to peak at about 1.8°C above pre-industrial levels.
What is the primary strategic shift recommended by the UNEP report in response to the inevitability of overshooting 1.5°C?
- A.Abandon the 1.5°C target and aim for 2°C
- B.Minimize the extent and duration of overshoot while approaching 1.5°C from above✓ Correct Answer
- C.Increase fossil fuel use to adapt to the new temperature regime
- D.Delay climate action until after the peak warming is reached
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Explanation
The report explicitly says that the world must shift strategy to approach 1.5°C from above, meaning countries should aim to keep the peak as low as possible for as short a time as possible, and then work on bringing temperatures down. It does not abandon the 1.5°C goal.
Which body developed the 'Jadui Pitara' (magic box) toy-based pedagogy mentioned in the article?
- A.Ministry of Education
- B.NCERT✓ Correct Answer
- C.NITI Aayog
- D.Department of School Education and Literacy (DoSEL)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'NCERT has developed toy-based pedagogy and has named it the Jadui Pitara'. NCERT (National Council of Educational Research and Training) is the apex body for curriculum development in India.
Consider the following statements regarding teacher training reforms in India:
1. The National Professional Standards for Teachers (NPST) are being implemented through the existing 2-year D.El.Ed and B.Ed programmes.
2. Madhya Pradesh improved training consistency by reducing the number of training cascades from three to two.
3. The NISHTHA programme provides certification courses for teachers at the elementary, secondary, and FLN levels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Only 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The article states that NEP 2020 envisions a four-year Integrated Teacher Education Programme (ITEP) to meet NPST benchmarks, not the existing D.El.Ed/B.Ed. Statement 2 is correct: MP reduced cascades from three to two. Statement 3 is correct: NISHTHA provides certification courses at elementary, secondary, and FLN levels.
According to the article, what percentage of Indian teachers use some form of technology in their teaching?
- A.50%
- B.67%
- C.87%✓ Correct Answer
- D.90%
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Explanation
The article states: '87% of teachers use some form of technology.' The other options are distractors: 50% use it daily, and 90% refers to the percentage of Indian households with a smartphone.
What is the primary purpose of introducing the 4-Year Integrated Teacher Education Programme (ITEP) as mentioned in the article?
- A.To increase the number of teachers in rural areas
- B.To reduce the theoretical nature of teacher training and improve practical classroom skills✓ Correct Answer
- C.To standardize teacher salaries across all states
- D.To replace all existing teacher training colleges with new ones
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Explanation
The article criticizes current pre-training (D.El.Ed/B.Ed) as 'overly theoretical, lacking practical classroom training.' The ITEP, aligned with NPST, aims to address this by focusing on ECE, FLN, and inclusive education, ensuring teachers meet practical competencies.
Which department has been designated as the nodal department for GLOF hazard assessment and mitigation studies in Sikkim?
- A.National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
- B.Central Water Commission (CWC)
- C.Sikkim Department of Science and Technology✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Jal Shakti
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Explanation
The article states that Sikkim's Department of Science and Technology was designated the nodal department for GLOF hazard assessment and mitigation studies in February 2025. NDMA and CWC are involved in DPR preparation but are not the nodal body at the state level.
Consider the following statements regarding glacial lakes and GLOFs in Sikkim:
1. Sikkim has identified 40 high-hazard glacial lakes, with 16 classified in Category A (highest risk).
2. The 2023 GLOF in Sikkim resulted in at least 60 fatalities and destroyed the Chungthang dam.
3. Shako Chho has been identified as the most vulnerable lake, and its DPR has been submitted to the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: 40 high-hazard lakes identified, 16 in Category A. Statement 2 is correct: the October 2023 GLOF caused at least 60 deaths and destroyed the Chungthang dam. Statement 3 is incorrect because the DPR for Shako Chho was submitted to the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), not the Ministry of Jal Shakti (a preliminary report was sent to Jal Shakti Ministry).
According to the article, how many high-hazard glacial lakes in Sikkim are classified as Category A (highest risk of outburst)?
- A.40
- B.16✓ Correct Answer
- C.13
- D.9
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Explanation
The article clearly states that of the 40 high-hazard lakes, 16 are in Category A (highest risk), 2 in Category B (high risk), 9 in Category C (moderate to low risk), and 13 remain unclassified. Option A (40) is the total high-hazard lakes, not Category A.
What is the primary objective of developing India's first dedicated GLOF Risk Mitigation Protocol in Sikkim?
- A.To ban all construction activities near glacial lakes
- B.To create a standardized scientific framework for assessing, preparing for, and mitigating glacial flood risks✓ Correct Answer
- C.To relocate all settlements in the Teesta River basin
- D.To reduce tourism in the Himalayan region
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Explanation
The article states that Sikkim is working on what could be the country's first dedicated GLOF Risk Mitigation Protocol, aimed at creating a standardized scientific framework for assessing, preparing for, and mitigating glacial flood risks. It could also serve as a model for other Himalayan regions.
Which High Court passed the judgment regarding discriminatory compensation for manual scavenging deaths in Maharashtra?
- A.Delhi High Court
- B.Bombay High Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.Madras High Court
- D.Calcutta High Court
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Explanation
The judgment was delivered by a bench of Justices Bharati H Dangre and Manjusha A Deshpande of the Bombay High Court. The case dealt with Maharashtra government resolutions on compensation for manual scavenging deaths.
Consider the following statements regarding the Bombay High Court ruling on manual scavenging compensation:
1. The court set aside the Maharashtra Government Resolutions of December 2019 and April 2025 that discriminated against private sanitation workers.
2. The court ordered compensation of ₹20 lakh to the families of each deceased sanitation worker.
3. The bench consisted of Justices Bharati H Dangre and Manjusha A Deshpande.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the HC set aside the December 2019 and April 2025 GRs. Statement 2 is incorrect – the compensation ordered was ₹30 lakh, not ₹20 lakh. Statement 3 is correct as the bench comprised Justices Dangre and Deshpande. Hence option C is correct.
What compensation amount did the Bombay High Court order for each deceased sanitation worker's family?
- A.₹10 lakh
- B.₹20 lakh
- C.₹30 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹50 lakh
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Explanation
The HC explicitly directed the state authorities to pay ₹30 lakh to the kin of five private sanitation workers who died while engaged in manual scavenging. The other options are common distractors.
What was the primary reason the Bombay High Court termed the Maharashtra Government Resolutions as discriminatory?
- A.They excluded private sanitation workers from any compensation.
- B.They paid lower compensation to private workers compared to government workers.✓ Correct Answer
- C.They only applied to workers employed by private contractors.
- D.They did not comply with the Supreme Court's 2014 judgment on manual scavenging.
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Explanation
The article states the GRs 'discriminated against sanitation workers employed with private establishments under private contractors by paying them lower compensation than those employed by the state government'. Option B directly captures this discriminatory aspect. Option D is also a factor but the primary reason stated is the differential payment.
Which body conducts the Foreign Medical Graduate Examination (FMGE) for Indian citizens with foreign medical degrees?
- A.National Medical Commission (NMC)
- B.Medical Council of India (MCI)
- C.National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences (NBEMS)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
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Explanation
The FMGE is conducted by NBEMS, as clearly stated in the article. NMC is the regulatory body for medical education, but NBEMS administers the screening exam. MCI was replaced by NMC in 2019. The Ministry of Health is the parent ministry, not the exam conducting body.
Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi High Court judgment on FMGE:
1. The court upheld the NMC's decision barring students with foreign medical degrees obtained from multiple institutions from appearing in FMGE.
2. The court ruled that embassy attestation of foreign medical degrees is not mandatory under the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956.
3. The petitioners had studied at Micronesia Medical College and later at Belize Medical University, producing overlapping qualifications.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the court upheld NMC's decision holding students ineligible. Statement 2 is incorrect: the court upheld the embassy attestation requirement as necessary to prevent fake degrees; petitioners argued that the IMC Act does not prescribe it, but the court rejected that argument. Statement 3 is correct: the students first studied at Micronesia Medical College and then moved to Belize Medical University, and they submitted qualifications from both institutions covering the same period.
On which date did the Delhi High Court deliver its judgment in the FMGE multi-college degree case?
- A.May 14, 2025
- B.September 3, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.June 2023
- D.December 2023
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Explanation
The article states that the judgment was penned on September 3, 2026. May 14, 2025 is the date when NMC communicated the ineligibility to the petitioners. June 2023 and December 2023 are the months when the students applied for FMGE.
What was the primary reason the Delhi High Court upheld the NMC's decision to bar students with multi-college foreign medical degrees from FMGE?
- A.To reduce the number of foreign medical graduates in India
- B.To protect public interest by ensuring only qualified medical professionals practice in India✓ Correct Answer
- C.To uphold the sovereignty of Indian medical colleges
- D.To comply with international medical standards set by WHO
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Explanation
The court explicitly stated that fragmented education compromises the quality of medical professionals and is not in public interest. The judgment emphasized that allowing such candidates would amount to playing with the health of the people. Options A and C are not mentioned; option D is not the primary reason given by the court.
Which Indian Army corps, headquartered at Rangapahar in Nagaland, is responsible for operations in the central and eastern sectors of Arunachal Pradesh along the LAC?
- A.XIV Corps (Fire and Fury Corps)
- B.III Corps (Spear Corps)✓ Correct Answer
- C.XXXIII Corps (Trishakti Corps)
- D.IV Corps (Gajraj Corps)
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Explanation
The Spear Corps (III Corps) is headquartered at Rangapahar, Dimapur, Nagaland. It is responsible for operations in Nagaland, Manipur, and the central and eastern sectors of Arunachal Pradesh along the Line of Actual Control. The Fire and Fury Corps (XIV Corps) is based in Ladakh.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent India-China border talks:
1. New military hotlines were agreed for the eastern sector (Kolkata) and the middle sector (Lucknow).
2. A new Border Personnel Meeting (BPM) point will be established in Chushul, Ladakh.
3. The Special Representatives for the boundary talks are NSA Ajit Doval and Chinese FM Wang Yi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: new hotlines at Kolkata (eastern sector) and Lucknow (middle sector). Statement 2 is incorrect: the new BPM point is in Joshimath, Uttarakhand, not Chushul. Statement 3 is correct: Doval and Wang Yi are the Special Representatives. Hence option C is correct.
When is the BRICS summit scheduled to be held in New Delhi, as mentioned in the article?
- A.September 5-6, 2026
- B.September 12-13, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.October 12-13, 2026
- D.August 25-26, 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Chinese President Xi Jinping is expected to attend the BRICS summit in New Delhi on September 12-13, 2026. The other dates are distractors: August 25 was the Doval-Wang meeting, and October dates are not mentioned.
What is the primary purpose of establishing new military hotlines and Border Personnel Meeting points between India and China?
- A.To facilitate joint military exercises
- B.To enhance real-time communication and prevent border escalation✓ Correct Answer
- C.To demarcate the Line of Actual Control permanently
- D.To allow civilian movement across the border
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Explanation
Military hotlines and BPM points are confidence-building measures (CBMs) designed to enable direct communication between local commanders, reduce misunderstandings, and prevent small incidents from escalating into larger conflicts. They do not demarcate the border or facilitate civilian movement.
Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (Quad)?
- A.India
- B.Japan
- C.Australia
- D.United Kingdom✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The Quad consists of India, USA, Japan, and Australia. The UK is not a member. This is a common static GK question that can be linked to the news about Quad summit preparations.
Consider the following statements about the Quad:
1. The Quad Foreign Ministers met in New Delhi on 26th May 2026.
2. The Quad Sherpas meeting discussed only maritime security issues.
3. The Quad summit is likely to take place on the margins of the G20 summit in December 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.Only 1
- B.Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- C.Only 2 and 3
- D.All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the Quad FMs met on 26 May 2026 in New Delhi. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Sherpas also discussed economic prosperity, critical technologies, and humanitarian assistance, not just maritime security. Statement 3 is correct: the Quad summit is likely on the G20 sidelines.
The G20 Summit in 2026 is scheduled to be held on which dates?
- A.December 12-13, 2026
- B.December 14-15, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.December 16-17, 2026
- D.December 18-19, 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the G20 summit at Trump National Doral Miami on December 14-15. The close distractors use adjacent dates to test accurate recall.
What is the primary strategic significance of holding the Quad summit on the margins of the G20 summit?
- A.To save travel costs for leaders
- B.To ensure high-level participation and enhance coordination among Quad members on global issues✓ Correct Answer
- C.To protest against China's absence from G20
- D.To discuss bilateral trade deals among Quad members
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Explanation
Holding the Quad summit alongside the G20 leverages the presence of all Quad leaders (who attend G20) for focused discussions on Indo-Pacific cooperation, without requiring separate travel. The article notes PM Modi's likely attendance at G20, making the sideline summit logistically efficient and strategically aligned.
Which ministry is the Employees' State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) primarily under?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Labour and Employment✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- D.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
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Explanation
ESIC is a statutory body under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, established under the ESI Act, 1948. This is standard static GK about the nodal ministry for social security schemes.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent report on ESIC:
1. The report recommends raising the wage ceiling for ESIC coverage from ₹21,000 to ₹33,000.
2. The report states that privatisation should be the default ideological position for ESIC.
3. The Director General of ESIC said Panchdeep 2.0 digital platform will be rolled out soon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the report recommends increasing the wage ceiling to ₹33,000. Statement 2 is incorrect: the report warns against privatisation as a default ideological position, calling it counter-productive. Statement 3 is correct: DG Ashok Kumar Singh mentioned Panchdeep 2.0 will be rolled out soon. Hence option C is correct.
According to the 'ESI Ki Baat' report, what is the current wage ceiling for ESIC coverage?
- A.₹21,000✓ Correct Answer
- B.₹25,000
- C.₹33,000
- D.₹30,000
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Explanation
The report explicitly states the current wage ceiling is ₹21,000 and recommends raising it to ₹33,000. The other options are distractors; ₹33,000 is the recommended amount, not the current one.
What is the primary objective of the report's recommendation to increase the ESIC wage ceiling?
- A.To reduce the financial burden on the government
- B.To expand social security coverage to more workers✓ Correct Answer
- C.To facilitate privatisation of ESIC hospitals
- D.To increase out-of-pocket expenses for insured persons
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Explanation
The report recommends raising the wage ceiling to include more workers under ESIC's social security net. The DG ESIC also emphasised that implementation of the Code on Social Security would help more workers avail benefits. Options A, C, and D are not supported by the article.
Which organization released the new series of National Accounts Statistics (NAS) mentioned in the article?
- A.National Statistical Office (NSO)✓ Correct Answer
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
The article states that the National Statistical Office (NSO) released the new series of National Accounts Statistics early this year. The other bodies are not associated with the release of NAS.
Consider the following statements:
1. The official manufacturing GVA for 2023-24 is ₹38.6 lakh crore at current prices.
2. The combined GVA of units covered by ASI and ASUSE is ₹31.0 lakh crore.
3. Manufacturing GVA constitutes 14.7 per cent of GDP for 2023-24.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per NAS data. Statement 2 is incorrect because the ASI+ASUSE combined GVA is ₹27.4 lakh crore, while ₹31.0 lakh crore is the likely potential GVA after adding residual workers' contribution. Statement 3 is correct: manufacturing GVA is 14.7% of GDP.
According to the article, by what percentage is the official manufacturing GVA estimate higher than the Alternative Estimate from ASI and ASUSE?
- A.14.7%
- B.24.5%
- C.40.9%✓ Correct Answer
- D.19.7%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the official figure is higher than the Alternative Estimate by 40.9%. The other options are related figures: 14.7% is the share of GDP, 24.5% is the remaining shortfall after adding potential GVA, and 19.7% is the unexplained share.
What is the main statistical concern raised by the authors about the official manufacturing GVA estimate?
- A.It relies entirely on ASI data and ignores the unincorporated sector
- B.It may be overestimated due to scaling up MCA-21 company sample estimates for an unverified universe✓ Correct Answer
- C.It uses the wrong base year for calculating constant-price GVA
- D.It excludes companies making statutory filings to the Ministry of Corporate Affairs
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Explanation
The authors question the NSO methodology of scaling up sample estimates of active companies for a universe whose size and composition are hazy and unverified. Option A is false because ASUSE covers the unincorporated sector. Option C is not discussed. Option D is opposite to the article, which says MCA-21 data are used.
Which organization conducted the Gadchiroli field trial that demonstrated the effectiveness of home-based neonatal care?
- A.Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
- B.Society for Education, Action and Research in Community Health (SEARCH)✓ Correct Answer
- C.World Health Organization (WHO)
- D.Public Health Foundation of India (PHFI)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Gadchiroli field trial was conducted by the Society for Education, Action and Research in Community Health (SEARCH). SEARCH is a community health research organization founded by Dr. Abhay Bang.
Consider the following statements:
1. India's institutional delivery rate increased from 39% in 2005-06 to 90% in 2023-24.
2. The number of sick newborns hospitalized in SNCUs increased by 28% from 2021-22 to 2023-24.
3. The Gadchiroli model resulted in a 50% reduction in neonatal mortality.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: institutional deliveries rose from 39% (NFHS-3) to 90% (NFHS-6). Statement 2 is correct: sick newborns in SNCUs rose from 11.3 lakh to 14.45 lakh, a 28% increase. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Gadchiroli model achieved a 62.2% reduction, not 50%.
According to the article, what was the percentage reduction in neonatal mortality achieved in the Gadchiroli field trial?
- A.50%
- B.62.2%✓ Correct Answer
- C.75%
- D.90%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Gadchiroli field trial resulted in a 62.2% reduction in neonatal mortality, as published in The Lancet in 1999. The other options are distractors.
What is the primary objective of the three-part strategy proposed in the article?
- A.To completely replace hospital care with home-based care for all newborns
- B.To decongest SNCUs by strengthening home-based care while ensuring hospital safety✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase the number of SNCUs across the country
- D.To reduce the number of institutional deliveries
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Explanation
The article advocates a 'hospital plus home' approach, not either/or. The three-part strategy focuses on decongesting SNCUs via HBNC, strengthening SNCUs, and ensuring safety. It does not aim to replace hospital care or reduce institutional deliveries, but to optimize the continuum of care.
Which ministry is responsible for the overall administration of Indian Railways, including zones like South Central Railway?
- A.Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
- B.Ministry of Railways✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Civil Aviation
- D.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
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Explanation
The Ministry of Railways is the nodal ministry for all railway operations in India, including the 19 zones such as South Central Railway. The other ministries handle different transport modes.
Consider the following statements regarding South Central Railway (SCR):
1. SCR was established in 1966 and was the first zone to introduce Kavach, India's indigenous automatic train protection system.
2. SCR eliminated all unmanned level crossings in its network by 2020.
3. As of 2026, SCR has three divisions: Secunderabad, Hyderabad, and Nanded.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: SCR was established in 1966 and Kavach was first tested here. Statement 2 is incorrect: SCR eliminated all unmanned level crossings by 2018, not 2020. Statement 3 is correct: After the creation of South Coast Railway in 2026, SCR retained three divisions: Secunderabad, Hyderabad, and Nanded. Hence option C is correct.
What was the total number of passengers handled by South Central Railway in the year 2025-26?
- A.115 million
- B.286.46 million✓ Correct Answer
- C.350 million
- D.454 million
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Explanation
The article specifically states that SCR handled 286.46 million passengers in 2025-26. 115 million was the figure for 1966-67. 350 is the number of passenger-carrying train services in 1966-67, and 454 is the number of daily trains currently.
What is the primary objective of the Amrit Bharat Station Scheme mentioned in the news?
- A.To increase railway freight capacity
- B.To redevelop railway stations with modern amenities and improved accessibility✓ Correct Answer
- C.To introduce high-speed bullet trains on select routes
- D.To privatize the management of all railway stations
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Explanation
The Amrit Bharat Station Scheme aims to redevelop stations across India with enhanced passenger facilities, accessibility, and modern infrastructure. SCR has identified 43 stations for redevelopment under this scheme. The other options are not the primary objective of this scheme.
Which international organization's CEO provided the recommendations on LPG imports and storage for India?
- A.International Energy Agency (IEA)
- B.Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
- C.World Liquid Gas Association (WLGA)✓ Correct Answer
- D.United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
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Explanation
The article quotes James Rockall, CEO and Managing Director of the World Liquid Gas Association (WLGA). The WLGA is a global industry body representing the LPG sector.
Consider the following statements regarding India's LPG imports and related recommendations:
1. India currently sources 67% of its LPG imports from the United States.
2. The WLGA CEO recommended that India should focus solely on expanding LPG storage and not worry about freight costs.
3. According to the WLGA, Canada and Algeria are among the potential alternative sources of LPG for India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 3
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Union Oil Minister Hardeep Puri said India sources 67% of LPG imports from the US. Statement 2 is incorrect: the WLGA CEO also emphasised actively managing freight costs, not just storage. Statement 3 is correct: the article lists Canada, Algeria, Argentina, Australia, and West Africa as potential sources. Hence option C is correct.
What percentage of India's total LPG imports are sourced from the United States, as per the Union Oil Minister?
- A.57%
- B.67%✓ Correct Answer
- C.77%
- D.87%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'India currently sources 67% of its LPG imports from the North American country, Union Oil Minister Hardeep Puri had said.' The other options are close distractors.
What is the primary reason the WLGA CEO advises India to expand its LPG storage capacity?
- A.To reduce import dependence on the US
- B.To manage market volatility and provide a buffer during supply crises✓ Correct Answer
- C.To lower the cost of LPG for domestic consumers
- D.To increase exports of LPG to neighbouring countries
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Explanation
The CEO said: 'Having storage does not solve the problem but it gives you a little bit more time to fix the issues. I think greater storage is something India should look at to manage the volatility of the market.' Option B is the direct purpose. Options A, C, and D are not the primary objective mentioned.
Which committee presented the report 'Affordability and Accessibility of Healthcare Facilities in Public and Private Sector' to Parliament?
- A.Parliamentary Standing Committee on Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
- B.Standing Committee on Finance
- C.NITI Aayog Expert Group
- D.National Health Mission Review Committee
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Health and Family Welfare as the body that presented the report with 368 recommendations. The other options are plausible but not mentioned in the article.
Consider the following statements regarding healthcare in India as per the Parliamentary Committee report:
1. More than 60% of inpatient care is delivered by the private sector.
2. Out-of-pocket spending on childbirth in private facilities is about 16 times higher than in public facilities.
3. Medicines account for nearly 50% of current health expenditure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) Both 1 and 3
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: 'more than 60% of inpatient care... delivered by the private sector'. Statement 2 is correct: childbirth cost is ₹37,630 private vs ₹2,299 public, which is over 16 times. Statement 3 is incorrect: medicines account for nearly 30%, not 50%.
According to the Parliamentary Committee report, how many times higher is the average out-of-pocket spending on childbirth in private facilities compared to public facilities?
- A.10 times
- B.12 times
- C.16 times✓ Correct Answer
- D.20 times
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Explanation
The article states: 'Average out-of-pocket spending on childbirth is ₹37,630 in private facilities against ₹2,299 in public facilities — more than 16 times higher.' The other options are close but incorrect.
What is the primary policy recommendation of the Parliamentary Committee to address the vulnerability of the 'missing middle'?
- A.Expand Ayushman Bharat coverage to all citizens
- B.Strengthen public healthcare infrastructure and implement the Clinical Establishments Act✓ Correct Answer
- C.Provide tax exemptions for private health insurance premiums
- D.Set up a new regulatory authority for private hospitals
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Explanation
The article says the Committee has called for stronger public healthcare infrastructure, nationwide implementation of the Clinical Establishments Act, mandatory quality standards, and greater price transparency. While expanding Ayushman Bharat is not mentioned, the focus is on structural reforms beyond insurance.
Which global organization estimated the number of practising physiotherapists in India at 52,000?
- A.World Health Organization (WHO)
- B.World Physiotherapy✓ Correct Answer
- C.Indian Association of Physiotherapists
- D.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
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Explanation
The article mentions 'World Physiotherapy's profile of the Indian Association of Physiotherapists estimates 52,000 practising physiotherapists in India'. Thus, World Physiotherapy is the global organization that provided the estimate.
Consider the following statements regarding physiotherapy in India:
1. India has over 1 lakh practising physiotherapists.
2. Several European countries have over 10 physiotherapists per 10,000 people.
3. Physiotherapy is only useful for treating back pain and helping injured athletes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Only 3
- D.(D) Both 1 and 2
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as India has 52,000 physiotherapists, not over 1 lakh. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: 'several countries in Europe have over 10 per 10,000 people'. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article clearly states physiotherapy helps in stroke, heart disease, surgery, etc. Hence only statement 2 is correct.
According to the article, what is the ratio of physiotherapists to population in India (per 10,000 people)?
- A.0.36✓ Correct Answer
- B.3.6
- C.36
- D.0.036
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Explanation
The article explicitly states 'equivalent to only 0.36 physiotherapists per 10,000 people'. The other options are common distractors: 3.6 would be 10 times higher, 0.036 would be 10 times lower, and 36 is unrealistic.
What is the primary barrier to accessing rehabilitation services highlighted through the story of Sidhartha's father?
- A.Lack of awareness among patients about the need for rehabilitation
- B.High cost of physiotherapy equipment and sessions
- C.Geographical distance and cost of travel for regular treatment✓ Correct Answer
- D.Shortage of doctors to prescribe physiotherapy
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Explanation
The article describes that the physiotherapy service was far away, and the family dependent on daily earnings had to spend on transport, lose working days, and manage moving a dependent person, eventually giving up on regular rehabilitation. This highlights distance and travel cost as the primary barrier.
Which central bank announced the forex swap facility measures to boost capital flows?
- A.Reserve Bank of India✓ Correct Answer
- B.Securities and Exchange Board of India
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.International Monetary Fund
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the RBI announced measures to boost capital flows, including the forex swap facility. The other options are not involved in this monetary policy action.
Consider the following statements:
1. The total inflows through the forex swap facility stood at $136.3 billion by end of August 31.
2. The liquidity surplus increased from Rs 3 lakh crore to Rs 6.7 lakh crore during the month of August.
3. The RBI's forex reserves rose to $729 billion as on August 21, which is a record high.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: inflows through the forex swap facility stood at $136.3 billion by end of August 31. Statement 2 is correct: liquidity surplus began to swell from over Rs 3 lakh crore to Rs 6.7 lakh crore by end of month. Statement 3 is correct: RBI's forex reserves rose to a record high of $729 billion as on August 21. Hence all three statements are correct.
What was the total amount of inflows through the forex swap facility as of August 31?
- A.$63.5 billion
- B.$127 billion
- C.$136.3 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$729 billion
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Explanation
The article states that by end of August 31, inflows through the forex swap facility stood at $136.3 billion. The other options are distractors: $63.5 billion is the amount coming in the last 10 days, $127 billion is the FCNR(B) route inflow, and $729 billion is the total forex reserves.
What is the primary challenge created by the surge in capital inflows as mentioned in the article?
- A.Increase in inflation due to excessive liquidity✓ Correct Answer
- B.Depreciation of the rupee against the dollar
- C.Decline in foreign portfolio investment
- D.Rise in current account deficit
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Explanation
The article highlights that the surge in inflows has created a liquidity surplus, which comes at a time when inflation is edging upwards, and the MPC may need to raise interest rates. The other options are not the primary challenge; the rupee's fall has been stemmed, FPIs are net buyers, and CAD is a separate issue.
Which United Nations body received the report 'Challenges related to sea level rise and ways and approaches to address'?
- A.UN Security Council
- B.UN General Assembly✓ Correct Answer
- C.UN Environment Programme (UNEP)
- D.World Meteorological Organization (WMO)
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Explanation
The article states that the report was submitted to the UN General Assembly on August 31, 2026. The UN General Assembly is the main deliberative body of the UN, and such reports are often submitted to it for consideration.
Consider the following statements:
1. Global sea levels rose at a record rate of 5.9 mm in 2024.
2. The UN report projects at least 1 metre of global sea level rise by 2100 under aggressive emissions reduction scenarios.
3. Mumbai's Climate Action Plan (MCAP) was released by the Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation in 2021.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article says global sea levels rose at a record rate of 5.9 mm in 2024. Statement 2 is incorrect: the report projects at least 0.5 metres (not 1 metre) of sea level rise by 2100 under aggressive emissions reduction scenarios. Statement 3 is correct: MCAP was released by the BMC in 2021.
According to the UN report, what was the average annual sea level rise between 2014 and 2023?
- A.5.9 mm
- B.4.7 mm✓ Correct Answer
- C.0.5 m
- D.2 m
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the average annual sea level rise between 2014 and 2023 was 4.7 mm, compared to the record 5.9 mm in 2024. Options A (5.9 mm) is the 2024 record, C (0.5 m) is the projected minimum rise by 2100, and D (2 m) is the worst-case projection.
What is the primary risk highlighted for Mumbai besides sea level rise that compounds its vulnerability?
- A.Land subsidence and saltwater intrusion✓ Correct Answer
- B.Storm surges
- C.Extreme rainfall events
- D.All of the above
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Explanation
The article states: 'For Mumbai, the risks are compounded by land subsidence and saltwater intrusion, which can contaminate freshwater aquifers and coastal wells.' While storm surges and extreme rainfall are also mentioned as additional pressures, the primary compounding factors highlighted are land subsidence and saltwater intrusion.
Which organization conducts the National Family Health Survey (NFHS) in India?
- A.National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)
- B.International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Central Statistics Office (CSO)
- D.Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
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Explanation
The NFHS is conducted by the International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS) under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. NSSO conducts employment and consumption surveys, CSO compiles national accounts, and ICMR focuses on medical research.
Consider the following statements regarding the NFHS-6 data on education:
1. The national gender gap in completion of 10+ years of schooling decreased from 9.2 to 8.2 percentage points compared to NFHS-5.
2. In urban India, the gender gap is 10.2 percentage points, which is four times the rural gap of 2.5 percentage points.
3. The only states where rural women have completed more education than rural men are Kerala, Sikkim, and Meghalaya.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the national gap decreased from 9.2 to 8.2 pp. Statement 2 is incorrect: the urban gap is 2.5 pp and rural gap is 10.2 pp (the reverse). Statement 3 is correct: only Kerala (4.5 pp lead), Sikkim (4.3 pp), and Meghalaya (3.2 pp) have rural women ahead of men. Hence option C is correct.
According to NFHS-6 data, what is the percentage point difference between the proportion of urban women and rural women who have completed 10 or more years of schooling?
- A.14.1 percentage points
- B.21.8 percentage points✓ Correct Answer
- C.10.2 percentage points
- D.8.2 percentage points
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Explanation
The article states: 'Nationally, an urban woman is 21.8 percentage points more likely than a rural woman to finish ten years of schooling.' The other options are distractors: 14.1 pp is the urban advantage for men, 10.2 pp is the rural gender gap, and 8.2 pp is the national gender gap.
What is the primary reason highlighted in the article for the persistent gender gap in rural areas, as opposed to the traditional focus on household discrimination?
- A.Lack of awareness about the importance of girls' education
- B.Insufficient number of conditional cash transfer schemes
- C.Non-availability of nearby secondary schools in villages✓ Correct Answer
- D.Higher dropout rates due to early marriage
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Explanation
The article argues that 'the main limitation facing the majority of Indian girls is no longer a household decision; rather, it is the availability of a nearby secondary school.' In states like Kerala and Himachal where schools are accessible, the gender gap vanishes. The article contrasts this with the anganwadi system which has smaller urban-rural gaps because of state provision.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for India's trade policy and FTAs, as represented by Minister Piyush Goyal in the news?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of External Affairs
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Home Affairs
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Explanation
Piyush Goyal is the Commerce Minister, hence the Ministry of Commerce and Industry handles trade policy, FTAs, and matters related to the US trade deal.
Consider the following statements:
1. The US has accused over 40 countries, including India, of acting as a 'shadow transhipment network' to hide Chinese goods.
2. India was placed in Tier-2 of the shadow network, along with Vietnam and Malaysia.
3. The US has imposed an additional 10% tariff on India from July 24.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the White House report. Statement 2 is incorrect – India is in Tier-1, not Tier-2. Statement 3 is correct; the additional 10% tariff was imposed from July 24.
According to the article, how many free trade agreements (FTAs) does India currently have that provide preferential access to nearly two-thirds of global trade?
- A.4
- B.5
- C.9✓ Correct Answer
- D.12
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Explanation
The article explicitly states 'India's nine free trade agreements (FTAs), spanning economies representing about $60 trillion of GDP.' The list includes pacts with UK, Mauritius, Oman, UAE, Australia, and more.
What is the primary objective of Piyush Goyal's statement on avoiding unethical trade transhipments?
- A.To increase India's tariff revenue from transhipment goods
- B.To protect India's reputation as a trusted partner in global trade✓ Correct Answer
- C.To expedite the Bilateral Trade Agreement with the US
- D.To reduce India's dependency on Chinese imports
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Explanation
Goyal said 'We should be trusted partners of the world' and emphasized that India's country of origin certificates should carry weight. The statement is about maintaining trust, not revenue or dependency reduction.
Which body under the Ministry of Education is responsible for launching the AIEDFP doctoral fellowship programme?
- A.University Grants Commission (UGC)
- B.All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
- D.Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR)
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Explanation
The All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) is the statutory body for technical education in India. It launched the AIEDFP programme, as clearly stated in the article. UGC oversees higher education broadly, while NAAC handles accreditation and ICSSR focuses on social science research.
Consider the following statements regarding the AICTE Innovation and Entrepreneurship Doctoral Fellowship Programme (AIEDFP):
1. The programme has a financial outlay of Rs 245 crore over five years.
2. It aims to support 250 PhD fellowships focused on purely academic research.
3. The programme seeks to promote problem-driven and application-oriented research.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions a Rs 245 crore outlay over five years. Statement 2 is incorrect because the programme supports 150 fellowships, not 250, and focuses on innovation/entrepreneurship, not purely academic research. Statement 3 is correct as the article states it will promote 'problem-driven and application-oriented research'. Hence option C is correct.
How many PhD fellowships will be supported under the AICTE Innovation and Entrepreneurship Doctoral Fellowship Programme (AIEDFP)?
- A.100
- B.150✓ Correct Answer
- C.200
- D.250
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the initiative will support '150 PhD fellowships'. The other options are close distractors — 100, 200, and 250 are plausible but incorrect numbers often used in similar schemes.
What is the primary objective of the AIEDFP programme launched by AICTE?
- A.To increase the number of PhD holders in India
- B.To promote research that leads to tangible outcomes like technology transfer and commercialisation✓ Correct Answer
- C.To provide financial aid to all doctoral students in technical education
- D.To replace all existing doctoral fellowships with a single centralised scheme
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Explanation
The article emphasises that AIEDFP is designed to promote 'problem-driven and application-oriented research' leading to 'technology transfer, commercialisation, innovation and societal impact'. While increasing PhD numbers may be a secondary effect, the core objective is outcome-driven research with real-world impact, not just financial aid or replacement of existing schemes.
Which section of the RTI Act, 2005 was cited by the Allahabad High Court to exempt CCTV footage from direct disclosure?
- A.Section 8(1)(a)
- B.Section 8(1)(g)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Section 8(1)(j)
- D.Section 8(1)(e)
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Explanation
The Allahabad High Court noted that CCTV footage is covered by the exception contained in Section 8(1)(g) of the RTI Act, 2005, which exempts information that could endanger life or safety, impede investigation, or invade privacy.
Consider the following statements regarding the Allahabad High Court ruling on CCTV footage under RTI:
1. The court held that CCTV footage cannot be provided directly to an applicant under RTI.
2. The court allowed direct supply of CCTV footage if a complaint is filed before a court or commission.
3. The petitioner had not filed any complaint before any court or commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the court held that CCTV footage cannot be provided directly. Statement 2 is incorrect: the court clarified that a court or commission can direct preservation and production, but not direct supply. Statement 3 is correct: the petitioner had not filed any complaint before any court or commission.
What is the date of the order passed by the Allahabad High Court in this case?
- A.September 1, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- B.September 4, 2026
- C.August 17, 2026
- D.September 2, 2026
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Explanation
The article states that the court noted its order dated September 1. The news was published on September 4, 2026, but the order date is September 1.
What is the primary implication of the Allahabad High Court ruling on CCTV footage under RTI?
- A.CCTV footage is completely exempt from any disclosure under any circumstances.
- B.Applicants must approach the appropriate court or commission to seek access to CCTV footage.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The RTI Act does not apply to CCTV footage at all.
- D.CCTV footage can be obtained by anyone through a simple RTI application.
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Explanation
The court ruled that CCTV footage cannot be directly provided under RTI, but if a complaint is filed before a court or commission, that forum can direct preservation and production of the footage. Thus, the proper procedure is through a judicial or quasi-judicial body.
Which court delivered the judgment allowing a Hindu man to adopt his own illegitimate biological child?
- A.Supreme Court of India
- B.Allahabad High Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.Delhi High Court
- D.Madras High Court
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Explanation
The article states that the Allahabad High Court, presided by Justice Arun Kumar, delivered the ruling on September 3, 2026. This is a direct factual question from the news.
Consider the following statements regarding the Allahabad High Court ruling:
1. The court held that a Hindu man can adopt his own biological child born out of wedlock.
2. The court ruled that a formal adoption deed is mandatory for a valid adoption.
3. The adoption in question took place in 1970.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the court allowed adoption of illegitimate child. Statement 2 is incorrect: the court held that absence of a formal adoption deed was not fatal since the adoption was before 1977. Statement 3 is correct: the adoption ceremony took place in 1970. Hence option C is correct.
Under which Act did the Allahabad High Court interpret the adoption of an illegitimate child?
- A.Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
- B.Hindu Succession Act, 1956
- C.Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956✓ Correct Answer
- D.Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, as the statute under which the court analyzed the adoption. The other options are related but distinct Hindu personal laws.
What is the key legal distinction made by the Allahabad High Court in this ruling?
- A.Between legitimate and illegitimate children
- B.Between capacity to give and capacity to take a child in adoption✓ Correct Answer
- C.Between adoption before and after 1977
- D.Between ceremonial and registered adoption
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Explanation
The court held that Sections 9 and 6-7 operate in different fields. The capacity to give (Section 9) does not disqualify a biological father from taking the child in adoption under Sections 6-7. This distinction is the core of the ruling.
Which committee recommended a prudent limit of 20% debt-GSDP ratio for states?
- A.Finance Commission headed by N.K. Singh
- B.FRBM Committee headed by N.K. Singh✓ Correct Answer
- C.Economic Advisory Council headed by Bibek Debroy
- D.NITI Aayog's State Finance Committee
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Explanation
The FRBM Committee (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management) headed by former civil servant N.K. Singh in its 2017 report recommended 20% as the prudent limit for states' debt-GSDP ratio. This is a key static fact from the news article.
Consider the following statements regarding Tamil Nadu's debt-GSDP ratio:
1. The sustainable debt-GSDP ratio for Tamil Nadu is 23% as per the economic consultant.
2. The FRBM Committee had prescribed 20% as the prudent limit for all states without exception.
3. Only three states (Gujarat, Odisha, Maharashtra) have debt-GSDP ratios below 20%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Only 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the economic consultant K.R. Shanmugam said the sustainable debt-GSDP ratio for TN is 23%. Statement 2 is incorrect because the FRBM Committee's 20% prudent limit is for states in general, but the article mentions an allowance of additional 3 percentage points for TN considering macroeconomic factors. Statement 3 is correct: the article explicitly states that only Gujarat, Odisha, and Maharashtra have debt-GSDP ratios below 20%.
What was Tamil Nadu's debt-GSDP ratio in the COVID-19 pandemic year (2020-21)?
- A.22.78%
- B.26.00%
- C.28.67%✓ Correct Answer
- D.27.00%
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Explanation
The article states that in 2019-20 the ratio was 22.78%, and it rose to 28.67% in 2020-21. The other options are distractors: 22.78% is the pre-pandemic level, 26% is an approximate later figure, and 27% is the current approximate level.
What is the primary concern regarding Tamil Nadu's revenue deficit of 1.4% of GSDP?
- A.It indicates that the state is spending too much on capital projects.
- B.It means nearly 50% of borrowed money is spent on consumption, not investment.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It shows that the state's tax revenue is insufficient to meet salary expenses.
- D.It implies that the state is not adhering to the FRBM Act targets.
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Explanation
The article quotes the economic consultant saying that the revenue deficit of 1.4% of GSDP means that nearly 50% of the borrowed money is spent on consumption and not on investment. This is concerning because it indicates unsustainable borrowing for day-to-day expenses rather than productive assets that generate future income.
Which public transport corporation will operate the 4,500 electric buses procured under the PM E-DRIVE scheme?
- A.BMTC (Bengaluru Metropolitan Transport Corporation)✓ Correct Answer
- B.KSRTC (Karnataka State Road Transport Corporation)
- C.DTC (Delhi Transport Corporation)
- D.BEST (Brihanmumbai Electric Supply and Transport)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the 4,500 electric buses are procured for the Bengaluru Metropolitan Transport Corporation (BMTC). The other options are state transport corporations of other regions.
Consider the following statements:
1. The electric buses will be procured under the central government's PM E-DRIVE programme.
2. All 4,500 electric buses will be air-conditioned.
3. The total expenditure of the project is estimated to be around ₹12,000 crore over 20 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct – the article confirms procurement under PM E-DRIVE. Statement 2 is incorrect – only 400 of the 4,500 buses will be air-conditioned. Statement 3 is correct – the article states total expenditure of ₹12,000 crore over 20 years. Hence option C is correct.
How many electric buses of 12-metre length will be procured for Bengaluru?
- A.3,800✓ Correct Answer
- B.900
- C.4,500
- D.400
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Explanation
The article specifies that of the 4,500 electric buses, 3,800 will be 12-metre buses and 900 will be 9-metre buses. 400 of the total will be AC. Therefore, 3,800 is the correct answer.
What is the primary objective of the distribution of free 'Shakti' smart cards to women in Karnataka?
- A.To reduce air pollution by promoting electric buses
- B.To improve mobility and provide free bus travel for women under the welfare scheme✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase bus fare revenue for BMTC
- D.To replace all paper tickets with smart cards
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Explanation
The article mentions the free 'Shakti' smart cards as part of the free bus travel scheme for women. The primary objective is to facilitate free travel, improving women's mobility and welfare. Options A, C, and D are not the main objective.
Related Current Affairs Resources
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Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?
For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
- Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
- Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
- Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.
Frequently Asked Questions
What are the important current affairs questions for 4 September 2026?▼
This page contains 112 current affairs questions from 4 September 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 4 September 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
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- Q97. section of the RTI Act, 2005 was cited by the Allahabad High C…
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the Allahabad High…
- Q99. is the date of the order passed by the Allahabad High Court in…
- Q100. is the primary implication of the Allahabad High Court ruling …
- Q101. court delivered the judgment allowing a Hindu man to adopt his…
- Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the Allahabad High…
- Q103. Under which Act did the Allahabad High Court interpret the ado…
- Q104. is the key legal distinction made by the Allahabad High Court …
- Q105. committee recommended a prudent limit of 20% debt-GSDP ratio f…
- Q106. Consider the following statements regarding Tamil Nadu's debt-…
- Q107. was Tamil Nadu's debt-GSDP ratio in the COVID-19 pandemic year…
- Q108. is the primary concern regarding Tamil Nadu's revenue deficit …
- Q109. public transport corporation will operate the 4,500 electric b…
- Q110. Consider the following statements: 1. The electric buses will…
- Q111. many electric buses of 12-metre length will be procured for Be…
- Q112. is the primary objective of the distribution of free 'Shakti' …