1 September 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

MGNREGA and its replacement VB-GRAM G Act are rural employment guarantee schemes. The Ministry of Rural Development is the nodal ministry for all rural development programmes, including employment generation and poverty alleviation in rural areas.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The SC in Olga Tellis case linked livelihood to Article 21. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article explicitly states that VB-GRAM G Act delinks wages from the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, and does not ensure minimum wage. Statement 3 is correct: The doctrine of non-retrogression, as affirmed in Navtej Singh Johar case, prohibits the state from diluting realized rights.

Explanation

The article clearly states a 68% decrease in employment in July and August 2026 compared with the average of the preceding five years. The other options are close distractors but incorrect.

Explanation

The doctrine of non-retrogression prohibits the state from taking measures that deliberately undo a realized right. MGNREGA provided a statutory, demand-driven right to work. The VB-GRAM G Act, by imposing arbitrary caps and delinking wages, has weakened this right, thus violating the doctrine. Options A and D are opposite of what the Act does, and B is incorrect as the burden is shifted to states.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the data was released by the National Statistics Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. The RBI provides projections, not releases GDP data.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: manufacturing grew 9.2% and operating profit rose to 21.3%. Statement 2 is incorrect: services grew by 10%, not 7.7% (construction was 7.7%). Statement 3 is correct: central capex grew by roughly 24% as per the article.

Explanation

The article clearly states that manufacturing grew at a strong 9.2% in the quarter. The other options are distractors: 7.1% is private consumption growth, 7.7% is construction growth, and 10% is services growth.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions external risks from continuing trade and geopolitical tensions (including Brent crude jump after US-Iran fire exchange) and domestic risk from a strengthening El Niño. Bank credit and capex are positive factors, not risks.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the budget allocation for the Ministry of Law and Justice in the Union Budget 2026-27. The other options are incorrect; there is no separate Ministry of Judiciary.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the committee was constituted on May 12, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: the chair is Justice Aravind Kumar, not the CJI. Statement 3 is correct: the Director General of CPWD is a member. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the Ministry has been allocated ₹4,509.06 crore in the Union Budget for 2026-27. ₹4,998.24 crore was the previous year's budget, and ₹5,189 crore was the revised estimate for 2025-26. ₹4,000 crore is a distractor.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the committee was tasked with assessing the infrastructural requirements of the Indian judiciary and identifying the government support and financial allocation needed to address them. While other options are related, the primary objective is as stated.

Explanation

The National Medical Commission (NMC) replaced the MCI in 2020 and is the apex body regulating medical education and medical professionals in India. IIT Kharagpur formally applied to the NMC for its MD program, as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: IIT Kharagpur applied for MD in March 2026. Statement 2 is correct: IISc's hospital was scheduled for December 2024 but delayed to late 2026. Statement 3 is incorrect: IIT Madras announced plans for MBBS, MD, and PhD in Medicine, not just PhD.

Explanation

The article states that the foundation stone for the 832-bed non-profit multi-specialty hospital at IISc Bengaluru was laid in June 2022. The other options are close distractors: 450-bed is the size of IIT Kanpur's hospital, while 750-bed is a target mentioned for IIT Kharagpur's original plan.

Explanation

The integrated campus model, where the institute builds and manages its own hospital, guarantees complete curriculum control and seamless continuity, as highlighted in the article. The research partnership model offers lower capital expenditure and regulatory risk but relies on MoUs that can fade with leadership changes.

Explanation

The article mentions that C-DAC is under the IT Ministry and the IT Minister announced the programme, so the nodal ministry is MeitY.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: advanced packaging gets 35% capex support, not 40%. Statement 3 is correct: C-DAC issues RFP for strategic design.

Explanation

The article states: 'Start-ups and MSMEs designing commercial chips can receive seed funding of up to Rs 15 crore, or 50% of project cost, whichever is lower.'

Explanation

The programme covers six pillars from design to supply chain, aiming to build indigenous capability across the entire semiconductor value chain, not just one segment.

Explanation

The Copyright Office functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India. It administers the Copyright Act, 1957. The Registrar of Copyright is a statutory officer appointed under the Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Copyright Office held that author must be a 'person' (human). Statement 2 is incorrect: the office actually ruled that the work can be considered 'original' as no evidence of copying was found. Statement 3 is correct: the Delhi High Court in April 2026 directed the Copyright Office to decide the matter. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

DABUS stands for Device for the Autonomous Bootstrapping of Unified Sentience, an AI system developed by Stephen Thaler. It generated the artwork 'A Recent Entrance to Paradise'. The other options are other AI systems – Dreamwriter (Tencent), ChatGPT (OpenAI), Midjourney (image generator).

Explanation

The ruling clarified that while the AI cannot be the author, the person who conceived and configured the system (like Dr. Thaler) can be the author. The work itself can be protected if it meets the originality threshold. Option A is wrong – AI has no legal personality. Option B is wrong – the work can be copyrighted. Option D is wrong – no such automatic public domain rule.

Explanation

The CRPF is a central armed police force under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). The article mentions the Union Home Ministry's affidavit and the Home Secretary's office, confirming MHA's oversight.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the court ordered promotion with financial benefits. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article does not mention any direction for free ART; it only deals with discrimination in promotion. Statement 3 is correct: the court held the rules 'ultra vires' the Constitution and discriminatory.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'In its judgment on August 4, 2025, the High Court not only ordered that she be given promotion and consequential financial benefits, but also directed the authorities to amend the CRPF’s medical and recruitment rules.'

Explanation

The court cited the Act to counter the discrimination faced by the officer. The Act aims to prevent discrimination in employment, education, healthcare, etc., and the court emphasized that the stigma must end as per the Act's provisions.

Explanation

According to the article, the Court of Arbitration was constituted by the World Bank in September 2022. India has argued that this was done in patent breach of the treaty's terms. The World Bank played a key role in the original 1960 treaty as well.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because India has not been participating in the PCA proceedings (it has not appointed arbitrators and boycotted). Statements 2 and 3 are directly mentioned in the article: the PCA ruled abeyance impermissible and ordered halt to Ratle project. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the two orders on Monday were the fourth 'award' from the Court of Arbitration, all going in favour of Pakistan. The previous orders included declaration of competence and binding nature. Thus, 4 awards have been issued so far.

Explanation

The article mentions that India has said the Treaty would remain in 'abeyance' till Pakistan continues to support cross-border terrorism. India has not stopped water flow; in fact, the article clarifies that water continues to flow to Pakistan. The abeyance is a political and legal stance linked to terrorism concerns.

Explanation

The article states that DHS added the proposal to its regulatory agenda under RIN 1615-AD14. While USCIS is a component of DHS, the agency itself is DHS. OIRA is part of the Office of Management and Budget, not the proposing agency.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the 2015 rule under Obama first allowed H-4 spouses to work. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 2017-2018 attempt was never finalized and was withdrawn in 2021. Statement 3 is correct: the attempts in 2017-2018, 2021 withdrawal, and 2026 revival make it the third attempt.

Explanation

The article cites a 2017 CRS report stating that of roughly 126,853 H-4 EAD applications approved between 2014 and 2017, 93% went to Indian nationals. 71% refers to the share of Indian nationals in H-1B petitions in FY2024, and 94% refers to the share of women among those H-4 EAD holders.

Explanation

The article explains that 306,601 Indians are stuck in the employment green card backlog with waits of decades, making the H-4 work permit a crucial secondary income. 71% of H-1B petitions in FY2024 were Indian. Options A and C are contradicted by the data; option D is not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article mentions that the Union Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) published the draft Central Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Rules, 2026 to mandate V2V. MoRTH is the nodal ministry for road transport and vehicle safety regulations in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: V2V allows real-time data exchange beyond line of sight. Statement 2 is incorrect: The DoT exempted this frequency band from licensing requirements on June 10, 2026. Statement 3 is correct: The notification says vehicles manufactured on or after October 1, 2028, must be fitted with V2V systems per AIS-230.

Explanation

The study by Ashim Sattar and Nandu Krishnan, published in Nature in April 2026, inventoried 219 hanging glaciers in the Alaknanda basin, with nearly a third concentrated in the Upper Alaknanda basin. This is a key data point for Prelims.

Explanation

The article states that after the Pahalgam terrorist attack in April 2025, the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) decided to hold the treaty in abeyance until Pakistan credibly abjures support for cross-border terrorism. This is a foreign policy and security linkage, not a technical water dispute.

Explanation

The judgment was delivered by the Kerala High Court, with Justice Mohammed Nias C P making the observation. The case involved a wild elephant attack in Wayanad, Kerala.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the court explicitly said the state is the deemed owner and custodian. Statement 2 is incorrect: the court rejected the argument that the victim's negligence absolves the state, and held the state liable regardless. Statement 3 is correct: the court cited Article 21 as the basis for the state's duty to protect the right to life.

Explanation

The article states that the government had earlier paid Rs 20,000 as compensation. The family later sought additional compensation, and the court calculated the total compensation at Rs 1.98 lakh, ordering the remaining amount after deducting the Rs 20,000 already paid.

Explanation

The court noted that no forest fencing or trenches were made along the forest boundary to prevent wild animals from entering private property. It concluded that if precautionary measures had been taken, the incident could have been avoided, thus establishing the state's negligence.

Explanation

The article states that the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) under the IT Ministry will invite bids, and the scheme is driven by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Track 1 is for national security and critical infrastructure. Statement 2 is correct: Startups and MSMEs can receive seed funding up to Rs 15 crore or 50% of project cost. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article says OCIs are eligible for the second track (commercial), not the first track.

Explanation

The article states that eligible semiconductor IP, chips and SoCs will receive a reimbursement equivalent to 9% of their net sales for five years, capped at Rs 30 crore per application.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Semicon 2.0 seeks to build more Indian-owned IP and fabless companies, and to support the development of strategic semiconductor technologies and commercially viable chips.

Explanation

The Bishkek Declaration was adopted at the SCO leaders' summit in Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan. The SCO includes India, Pakistan, Iran, Russia, China, and Central Asian countries. The other options are regional groupings but not related to this declaration.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the declaration explicitly said 'double standards' in the fight against terrorism are unacceptable, not acceptable. Statement 2 is correct as the declaration condemned military strikes on Iran's territory. Statement 3 is correct as the SCO amended its charter to include English as an official and working language. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The Bishkek Declaration stated that the 'SCO presidency will pass to the Islamic Republic of Pakistan, where the next meeting of the Council of Heads of State of the SCO will be convened in 2027.' The other options are distractors; 2026 was the current summit year.

Explanation

India has consistently raised the issue of cross-border terrorism from Pakistan in international forums. The declaration's strong language against 'double standards' and calls to combat cross-border movement of terrorists aligns with India's stance. The other options are not mentioned or implied by the article.

Explanation

The article states that Kyrgyzstan President Sadyr Japarov hosted the summit and served as its chair. The summit was held in Bishkek, the capital of Kyrgyzstan.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as PM Modi urged dismantling the entire ecosystem of terrorism. Statement 2 is incorrect because he said the global fight against terror cannot allow selective approaches or double standards. Statement 3 is correct as he said the shared goal of a peaceful and secure Eurasia is closely connected to stability in Afghanistan. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions the '26th SCO Summit' multiple times. The other options are distractors, as no other summit numbers are referenced in the news.

Explanation

PM Modi explicitly said that countries cannot be allowed to treat terrorism as a 'strategic asset' by means of state policy, and the global fight against terror cannot allow selective approaches or double standards. This is the core message on terrorism. Other options are either secondary or not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The Supreme Court invoked Article 142, which grants it plenary powers to pass orders for complete justice. Article 136 deals with special leave appeal, Article 32 with writ jurisdiction, and Article 226 with High Court writs. The article explicitly states that the SC directed FIRs be quashed under Article 142.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as PM Modi urged SCO to 'dismantle the entire ecosystem' of terror financing. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions presence of Pakistan PM Shehbaz Sharif and Chinese President Xi Jinping. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article says remarks were 'widely viewed as a direct swipe at Pakistan' but not an explicit naming. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Supreme Court quashed all FIRs concerning NEET-UG protests registered between July 20 and July 25, 2026. The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article states that the UFBU announced strikes over 'unresolved issues related to the five-day banking week and the government's revised Performance Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme'. The other options are not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, the preliminary data on CAD was released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The RBI is responsible for compiling and publishing India's Balance of Payments data, including the current account deficit.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: CAD widened to $4.2 billion from $3.4 billion. Statement 2 is incorrect: FPI recorded a net outflow of $9.6 billion, not an inflow. Statement 3 is correct: Forex reserves declined by $8.1 billion on a BoP basis.

Explanation

The article states that FPI recorded a net outflow of $9.6 billion during Q1FY27, reversing a net inflow of $1.6 billion in Q1FY26. $6.1 billion is the net FDI inflow, and $3.3 billion is the net ECB inflow.

Explanation

A widening CAD means the country needs more capital inflows to finance the deficit. When FPI outflows occur simultaneously, it puts additional pressure on the balance of payments, leading to a decline in forex reserves (as seen with an $8.1 billion drop) and potential depreciation pressure on the rupee.

Explanation

The article states that India's total fertility rate has fallen below replacement level to 2.0 children per woman according to NFHS-5. Replacement level is 2.1, making 2.0 a significant milestone. Option A (2.1) is the replacement level, not the actual TFR. Options C and D are older figures for Muslim fertility (2.4) and historical (4.4).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article defines pronatalism as a belief system encouraging higher birth rates. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article notes that South Korea 'continues to have extraordinarily low fertility despite extensive family policies.' Statement 3 is correct: The article says 'India's projected median age is about 29.2 years in 2026.' Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'India's projected median age is about 29.2 years in 2026.' Option A (26.9 years) is the median age of Uttar Pradesh, option C (37 years) is Kerala's median age, and option D (47 years) is Kerala's projected median age by 2051. The correct answer is 29.2 years.

Explanation

The article emphasises that uneven demographic ageing (e.g., Kerala older, UP younger) creates friction over taxation, fiscal transfers, and political representation. It discusses how these differences, combined with the impending delimitation after 2027 Census, pose challenges to federalism. Options A, C, and D are not the central focus of the article.

Explanation

Article 124(3) lays down three routes to qualify for appointment as a Supreme Court judge, including being a 'distinguished jurist' in the opinion of the President. Article 217(2) pertains to High Court judges, and Article 124(1) deals with the establishment of the Supreme Court. The correct answer is Article 124(3).

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the provision has never been used. Statement 2 is correct: the amendment was moved by H.V. Kamath on May 24, 1949. Statement 3 is correct: the 42nd Amendment (1976) added 'distinguished jurist' to High Court appointments under Article 217(2), but it was omitted by the 44th Amendment (1978). Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The Constitution came into effect in 1950, and the provision has never been used. As of the article's publication in September 2026, it has been 76 years. The other options are close distractors based on different timelines.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Rule 49 of the BCI Rules prohibits full-time salaried employees (including law teachers) from practising as advocates, depriving them of courtroom experience that is considered essential for judicial work. While ambiguity in definition is also a factor, the rule is the primary practical barrier highlighted.

Explanation

The article mentions only CGST, SGST, and IGST. UTGST (Union Territory GST) is a separate component but not referred to in the news report.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct (14.8% growth in gross GST). Statement 2 is false because net GST was ₹1.68 lakh crore, not ₹2 lakh crore. Statement 3 is correct as refunds jumped 68% to ₹31,795 crore. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that gross GST collections rose to 'about ₹2 lakh crore' in August. ₹1.68 lakh crore is the net collection, ₹1.37 lakh crore is domestic revenue, and ₹62,604 crore is import revenue.

Explanation

A rise in import GST revenue suggests either higher import volumes (more goods imported) or better tax compliance on imports (or both). The article does not provide further breakdown, but this is the most logical inference from the data given.

Explanation

The article states that INS Nipun was 'indigenously designed and constructed by Hindustan Shipyard Limited (HSL), Visakhapatnam'. HSL is a shipbuilding company under the Ministry of Defence, known for building naval vessels.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because INS Nistar was the first vessel of the Nistar class, commissioned in July 2025. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions dynamic positioning as a critical capability of INS Nipun. Statement 3 is incorrect because INS Nipun was commissioned on August 31, 2026.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'Commissioned at the Naval Dockyard in Mumbai on Monday (August 31, 2026)'. July 31, 2025 is the commissioning date of INS Nistar. September 1, 2026 is the publication date of the article.

Explanation

The article describes these vessels as Diving Support Vessels designed for submarine rescue, salvage, and underwater intervention. They are not primarily for anti-piracy, escort, or surveillance, but for specialized underwater operations including supporting submarine emergencies.

Explanation

The article states that Myristica swamps in Kerala are now limited to 53 patches in Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary and the Anchal and Kulathupuzha forest areas. Shendurney is the only sanctuary explicitly mentioned, making it the correct answer.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article describes plants with pneumatophores and stilt roots adapted to waterlogged conditions. Statement 2 is incorrect because freshwater swamp forests occupy no more than 2.1% of Earth's surface. Statement 3 is correct: the swamps occur only in the Western Ghats (below 15.50°N) and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands have a small distribution.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Freshwater swamp forests occupy no more than 2.1 per cent of the Earth’s surface.' The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the text.

Explanation

The article highlights that Myristica swamps operate as a 'sponge' that holds water, helping keep water in groundwater and streams throughout the year and acting as a natural flood control system. The other options are either threats (plywood, areca nut) or not the primary function described.

Explanation

The Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (formerly Ministry of Shipping) is the nodal ministry for the development and regulation of major ports in India, including Vizhinjam International Seaport.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: MSC Beryl is part of MSC's Himalaya service. Statement 2 is incorrect: two containers were from Thiruvananthapuram and six were brought from Kochi by road. Statement 3 is correct: the vessel is expected to berth at Valencia in about 20 days. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that MSC Beryl carried the first eight export containers from Vizhinjam seaport. Two were from Thiruvananthapuram and six were brought from Kochi by road.

Explanation

Vizhinjam's direct mainline service to Spain allows Indian exporters to bypass transshipment hubs like Colombo and Singapore, reducing logistics costs and transit times. This strengthens India's export competitiveness and aligns with the Sagarmala program's objective of port-led development.

Explanation

The article states that CSIR-NPL is the National Metrology Institute mandated to maintain and disseminate IST, and IST is a registered trademark of CSIR-NPL. The other options are not involved in timekeeping.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the rules make IST legally enforceable. Statement 2 is false: the article mentions multiple methods – NTP, PTP, satellite links, and NavIC, not only GPS. Statement 3 is correct: the article explicitly states that the genesis of NavIC was the denial of GPS during the Kargil War. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'NTP can provide millisecond-level accuracy.' The other options are associated with PTP (microsecond), satellite links (nanosecond), and optical links (picosecond).

Explanation

The article emphasizes 'One Nation, One Time' and the need for a common national time reference to improve cybersecurity, reduce crime, and make critical infrastructure resilient. It does not create a new time zone, nor does it aim to replace GPS entirely (only reduce reliance), and tourism is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article states that the SCO summit was held in Kyrgyzstan’s capital, Bishkek. Kyrgyzstan is a founding member of the SCO and hosted the 2026 summit.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says the war began in February 2026 with US and Israeli attacks on Iran. Statement 2 is incorrect: Modi said 'we cannot limit ourselves to a mere action-reaction mindset' – he advocated dismantling the entire terror ecosystem. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions India proposed the SCO Civilizational Dialogue Forum and its first session will be held in India.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'the war in West Asia, which began in February this year with US and Israeli attacks on Iran'. The current year in the context of the article is 2026 (published Sept 1, 2026).

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'India wants access to Central Asia through Iran, since Pakistan doesn’t grant India overland transit access to the Central Asian region.' This is a strategic geopolitical rationale.

Explanation

The Sachar Committee (2006) examined the social, economic, and educational status of Muslims in India. It highlighted barriers such as inadequate access beyond primary school, safety concerns, cultural hostility, and limited hostel facilities, which affect Muslim girls' education.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Court noted that the petitioner had worn the scarf for years without objection, but held that this did not create an estoppel against later enforcement. Statement 2 is correct: The article cites UDISE+ data showing 12.9% for higher-secondary. Statement 3 is correct: Bijoe Emmanuel v. State of Kerala protected students who stood respectfully but did not sing due to conscience.

Explanation

The article states: 'In Uttar Pradesh, the corresponding shares were 20.3, 16.4, 15 and 13.3 per cent' for primary, upper-primary, secondary, and higher-secondary respectively. So upper-primary is 16.4%.

Explanation

The article acknowledges that uniforms can promote equality inside the classroom, but argues that if a rule justified in equality's name makes continued education harder, courts should weigh the cost. It advocates for reasonable accommodation, citing the drop in Muslim girls' enrolment and the Sachar Committee's findings on cultural hostility.

Explanation

The Income Tax Department, under the Ministry of Finance, administers all tax-related schemes including FAST-DS. The scheme is a tax disclosure window, hence falls under the purview of the Ministry of Finance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The scheme covers foreign assets up to an aggregate value of Rs 5 crore. Statement 2 is correct: For category 1, the fee is 30% tax + 30% additional tax. Statement 3 is incorrect: The valuation date is fixed as March 31, 2026, not the launch date.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the valuation date is fixed as March 31, 2026, irrespective of exchange rate movements or asset value changes. Other options are distractors: August 16, 2026 is the launch date, not the valuation date.

Explanation

The article highlights that for a salaried employee with Rs 90,000 in US stocks, the flat Rs 1 lakh fee erases the entire investment. Experts argue that the fee should be materiality-based, not a flat amount that penalizes small taxpayers disproportionately.

Explanation

Article 124(3) of the Constitution lists the qualifications for appointment as a Supreme Court judge, including the option of a 'distinguished jurist' in the opinion of the President. Article 124(1) deals with the establishment of the Supreme Court, and Article 217 deals with High Court judges. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the clause was added on May 24, 1949, following H V Kamath's amendment. Statement 2 is correct: the 42nd Amendment added a 'distinguished jurist' provision for High Courts, which was repealed by the 44th Amendment. Statement 3 is incorrect: no distinguished jurist has ever been appointed to the Supreme Court. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the clause was added during the Constituent Assembly debates on May 24, 1949. The Constitution came into force in 1950, but the amendment was passed in 1949. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

Justice Bhuyan offered two possible explanations: (1) perception of insufficient depth in Indian academia, and (2) lack of serious exploration by the government and collegium. Additionally, the article notes that Bar Council rules generally prevent full-time law teachers from practising law, creating a further barrier. Hence all three are reasons mentioned in the article. Option D is correct.

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow waterway between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman. It is a critical chokepoint for global oil shipments. The other options refer to other straits: Bab-el-Mandeb (Red Sea to Gulf of Aden), Turkish Straits (Mediterranean to Black Sea), and Malacca (South China Sea to Indian Ocean).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The US said it attacked two Iranian rocket launchers preparing to deploy sea mines in the Strait of Hormuz. Statement 2 is correct: Iran counterattacked US fighter jets at air bases in Jordan. Statement 3 is correct: Treasury Secretary Scott Bessent threatened an 'economic D-Day' to force Iran to the negotiating table. Hence all three statements are correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that China buys up to 90 per cent of Iran's oil. This gives China significant leverage over US sanctions policy. The other options are plausible distractors but not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article explains that China buys up to 90% of Iran's oil and has threatened to retaliate if Chinese companies are included in secondary sanctions. With Trump and Xi due to meet for trade negotiations, the US is unlikely to risk antagonizing China. The other options contradict the article: Iran's oil is significant, and the US does have legal authority (secondary sanctions).

Explanation

The article states that a contract for construction of two DSVs (Nistar-class) was signed with Hindustan Shipyard Limited, Visakhapatnam in September 2018. INS Nipun is the second vessel of this class.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because INS Nipun is the second Nistar-class DSV; the first, INS Nistar, was commissioned in July 2025. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: 'the ship also serves as the Mother Ship for the DSRV'. Statement 3 is correct: the DSRV can rescue up to depths of 650 metres.

Explanation

The article quotes the Chief of Naval Staff describing INS Nipun as a '9,000-tonne vessel'. The other options are distractors; INS Nistar is also 9,000 tonnes.

Explanation

The article explains that a DSV is a specialised platform to sustain complex underwater operations, including deep-sea diving, underwater intervention, and submarine rescue. It provides diving systems, medical facilities, and serves as mothership for DSRV.

Explanation

The division bench of Justices Shampa Sarkar and Arjun Ray Mukherjee of the Calcutta High Court delivered the ruling. The article explicitly mentions Calcutta High Court as the court that made the observation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court explicitly said electricity is essential for 'meaningful civilized living' under Article 21. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court clarified that restoration does not create any right or equity in favour of occupants. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: CESC disconnected due to water percolation to the meter board. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article clearly states that 'Justices Shampa Sarkar and Arjun Ray Mukherjee were hearing an appeal' and delivered the order. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that CESC disconnected power because 'water was percolating to the existing meter board position' and that disconnection was necessary to prevent accidents like fire or electrification. The other options were mentioned in the context of property dispute but not as the primary reason for disconnection.

Explanation

The article explicitly discusses the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation summit held in Bishkek. The SCO is a Eurasian political, economic, and security alliance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article states 'even without a formal bilateral meeting' with Xi. Statement 2 is correct as the article says 'What makes this SCO summit different is Iran'. Statement 3 is correct as the article describes the Nalanda Approach as a soft power tool. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Iran is 'vital to projects such as Chabahar and the International North-South Transport Corridor' for India's access to Central Asia, as Pakistan denies overland access.

Explanation

The article describes the Nalanda Approach as an international knowledge ecosystem converting 'admiration into relationships and relationships into influence'. It is a soft power strategy based on civilisational familiarity without domination.

Explanation

The judgment specifically interprets the provisions of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956 (ITPA), which is the central law dealing with trafficking and commercial sexual exploitation. The other options are unrelated statutes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court explicitly held customers liable. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court did not discuss prosecution of sex workers; rather, it noted that sex workers are often coerced victims. Statement 3 is correct as the court said both brothel keepers and customers sustain the commercial activity. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the order was passed on August 11, 2026. The publication date is September 1, 2026, which is a distractor. The other options are incorrect dates.

Explanation

The court noted that the Act was enacted with the principal object to prevent the commercialisation of vice and the trafficking of women and girls. The judgment used this objective to interpret the Act broadly to include customers. The other options do not match the stated legislative intent.

Explanation

The AFT explicitly relied on the Juvenile Justice Act, 2000, along with rulings of the Supreme Court, Delhi High Court, and other AFT benches, to protect the minor's non-disclosure of the FIR. The Act prevents discrimination in employment based on a minor's involvement in an offence.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the AFT allowed the petition on August 17, 2026. Statement 2 is correct: the Army discharged Chauhan under Item IV of Rule 13(3) of the Army Rules, 1954. Statement 3 is incorrect: the High Court order directed that the matter 'may not be treated as a pendency of criminal case' for recruitment.

Explanation

The article states that the AFT Bench allowed the petition on August 17, 2026. January 20, 2026 was the date of the Army's discharge order. September 1, 2026 is the publication date of the news. April 10, 2025 is the date of the Allahabad High Court order.

Explanation

The AFT held that the Allahabad High Court order was binding on the Army and that the Juvenile Justice Act, 2000 protects minors from being prejudiced by their involvement in criminal cases. Therefore, the non-disclosure could not be treated as an 'act unbecoming' or a disqualification.

Explanation

The news mentions the 'Commerce Ministry' and 'Union Minister of Commerce & Industry Piyush Goyal'. The Department of Commerce under this ministry handles trade negotiations, including the BTA with the US.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The meeting was chaired by Additional Secretary Darpan Jain, not the Commerce Secretary. Statement 2 is correct: India's exports to the US grew to $87.31 billion in 2025-26. Statement 3 is correct: The US imposed an additional 10% tariff on India from July 24, 2026. Hence option D is correct.

Explanation

The article states total trade was up by 6.53% to $140.76 billion in 2025-26 from $132.2 billion in 2024-25. $87.31 billion is exports, $53.45 billion is imports. $132.2 billion is the previous year's figure.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that exporters urged early conclusion of the trade pact to reduce uncertainties on the tariff front, as U.S. buyers are not placing big or long-term orders due to prevailing tariff uncertainties.

Explanation

The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the apex vigilance body that supervises CBI's functioning in corruption cases. It was established in 1964 and given statutory status in 2003. The Lokpal is a separate anti-corruption ombudsman, while Election Commission and Supreme Court are not involved in this supervisory role.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions over 7,200 cases pending trials. Statement 2 is incorrect because 739 appeals/revisions were pending for more than 20 years, and many for over 10 years. Statement 3 is correct as there were 473 pending investigations. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'Out of the total of 7,229 cases pending trials in courts'. The other options are close distractors; 7,200 is a rounded figure, but the exact number is 7,229. 6,900 and 8,000 are incorrect.

Explanation

The pendency of cases for decades compromises the constitutional right to speedy trial guaranteed under Article 21. It also undermines the effectiveness of anti-corruption laws. While CBI efficiency is a factor, the core issue is judicial delay impacting fundamental rights.

Explanation

The Supreme Court used its extraordinary powers under Article 142 to quash all FIRs related to the NEET protests. Article 142 allows the SC to pass any order necessary for doing complete justice in a pending matter.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because 2,873 individuals with serious criminal records were excluded from the quashing. Statement 2 is correct: the bench consisted of CJI Surya Kant, Justice Joymalya Bagchi, and Justice V Mohana. Statement 3 is incorrect as the court explicitly directed that the order shall not be treated as a precedent.

Explanation

The Delhi Police informed the court that 2,873 individuals with serious criminal charges including murder, attempt to murder, dacoity, rape, and POCSO were present at the protest sites. The court excluded them from the quashing and allowed a fresh FIR against them.

Explanation

The order explicitly states that it is subject to the condition that both sides shall abide by the statements and commitments made before the court. This reflects a cooperative resolution where the government gave assurances and the CJP withdrew the march.

Explanation

Section 14A of the Citizenship Act, 1955 empowers the Central Government to compulsorily register every citizen of India and to issue a National Identity Card. It also provides for the maintenance of the National Register of Indian Citizens (NRIC). The other options relate to different provisions: Section 3 (citizenship by birth), Section 5 (citizenship by registration), and Section 8 (renunciation of citizenship).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The demand for NRC in Manipur predates the May 2023 violence, as seen in the June 2022 joint memorandum by COCOMI and UNC. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Kuki-Zo Council has opposed an NRC before the Census, calling it 'premature and unjustified'. Statement 3 is correct: The UNC has demanded an NRC with 1951 as the base year.

Explanation

The article states that between 2001 and 2011, the hill districts of Manipur saw a population growth of 250.9%, compared to 125.4% in the valley. The 153.3% figure refers to growth in the hill districts between 1971 and 2001.

Explanation

The Kuki-Zo Council opposes a pre-Census NRC because Kuki, Zomi, and Chin communities straddle the India-Myanmar border. An NRC based on an old documentary cut-off could raise questions about people whose families have lived in Manipur for generations. They argue the demand is based on unsubstantiated allegations.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the data was released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The RBI compiles and publishes Balance of Payments data including CAD.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the data. Statement 2 is incorrect because net services receipts actually increased (from $47.9 bn to $51.6 bn), not declined. Statement 3 is correct as remittances rose sharply to $42.9 bn from $33.2 bn. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that net services receipts rose to $51.6 billion in Q1 2026-27 from $47.9 billion a year earlier. $42.9 billion is the remittances figure, $86.1 billion is the merchandise trade deficit.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the modest widening in CAD came primarily on the back of a sharper merchandise trade deficit, which increased to $86.1 bn from $68.9 bn. While FPI outflow occurred, it is a financing element, not the primary cause of the CAD widening. FDI and remittances actually improved.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the judgment was delivered by the Karnataka High Court (Division Bench of Justices D K Singh and H Shanthi Bhushan). The case involved land in Anekal taluka of Bengaluru urban district, Karnataka.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court actually held that elephant corridors are 'not merely a passage but an essential part of their natural habitat and existence.' Statement 2 is correct as the Deputy Conservator of Forests stated the eco-sensitive zone was located 10 km from the boundary. Statement 3 is correct as the court explicitly noted that 'no public purpose can supersede the object of environmental and ecological conservation.'

Explanation

The article states: 'the eco-sensitive zone was located 10 kilometer from the boundary of Bannerghatta National Park.' This is a key factual detail for prelims questions on ESZ norms.

Explanation

The court specifically noted that the project would have 'seriously affected the Karadikkal-Madeshwara Elephant Corridor' and that the Forest Department had flagged increased human-wildlife conflict. The court called the project 'misconceived' and capable of 'irreversible ecological, environmental and wildlife related consequences.'

Explanation

The Patna High Court explicitly referred to Rule 23(2) of the Bihar Government Service Conduct Rules, 1976, which restricts a government servant with a living spouse from entering into a second marriage but permits the government to allow it under certain conditions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the court quashed the 2019 order because the 1982 application was not considered. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 1996 resolution actually disentitles the second wife to family pension, though minor children get it. Statement 3 is correct: the first wife died in December 2009 after the husband's death in April 2009.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the husband submitted an application on February 28, 1982, seeking permission to solemnise the second marriage. This application was produced before the court.

Explanation

The court stated that the petitioner and the deceased employee had lived and cared for each other, and at old age she should not be denied the 'status of spouse'. The court did not strike down the rules but directed fresh consideration of the application.

Explanation

Sainik Schools are run by the Sainik Schools Society under the Ministry of Defence, as mentioned in the article where AVM Shakti Sharma served as Principal of Sainik School, Kapurthala. The Ministry of Defence oversees all defence-related institutions and training establishments.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: AVM Shakti Sharma is the first woman non-medical officer to reach AVM rank. Statement 2 is incorrect: she was commissioned on June 18, 1994, not 2000. Statement 3 is correct: IAF granted PC to women in 2010. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states she was commissioned into the Education Branch of the IAF on June 18, 1994. The other options are common distractors: 1990 is too early for women officers in IAF, 2000 and 2005 are post-commission years for other officers.

Explanation

The article mentions that the Army and Navy started granting Permanent Commission in select arms/services in 2008, but it was extended to multiple other branches in 2020 after the Supreme Court's intervention. This landmark judgment paved the way for women to compete for higher ranks like AVM, as seen in this case.

Explanation

The article mentions Union Civil Aviation Minister K. Ram Mohan Naidu, indicating that the Ministry of Civil Aviation is the nodal ministry for aviation policies including the hub-and-spoke model and UDAN scheme.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because Ahmedabad is the third city, not the first. The other two cities with the service are Amritsar and Varanasi. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: all checks are completed at the originating airport. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly states that Amritsar and Varanasi already offer the services.

Explanation

The Civil Aviation Minister stated that in 2014 the country had 74 airports, which have now increased to more than 160. The other options are distractors: 54 and 94 are not mentioned, and 160 is the current count.

Explanation

The article states that under the hub-and-spoke model, all baggage, customs, and immigration checks are completed at the originating airport, eliminating the need for repeated security checks or check-in at the hub. This saves time and reduces hassle for passengers from smaller cities. While the model may also reduce airline costs and boost tourism, its primary objective as described is passenger convenience and connectivity.