29 August 2026, Questions & Answers
76 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
76 questions · 0 topics covered · 16 min revision
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This page contains 76 current affairs questions with answers from 29 August 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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76 QsWhich institution is responsible for setting the repo rate in India?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Reserve Bank of India✓ Correct Answer
- C.Securities and Exchange Board of India
- D.National Institute of Public Finance and Policy
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Explanation
The repo rate is the rate at which the RBI lends to commercial banks. The article mentions the RBI cutting the repo rate by 125 bps between December 2024 and December 2025.
Consider the following statements regarding India's economic resilience during the West Asia war:
1. The repo rate was cut by 125 basis points between December 2024 and December 2025.
2. India's current account deficit rose sharply to 2% of GDP due to higher oil imports.
3. The services sector, with low inflation and high exports, helped keep headline inflation and the current account deficit contained.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article states a 125 bps repo rate cut. Statement 2 is incorrect: the CAD remained low at 0.3% of GDP, not 2%. Statement 3 is correct: the article explains that low services inflation and high services exports are keeping inflation and external deficits in check. Hence option C is correct.
According to the article, what was the current account deficit (CAD) as a percentage of GDP as per RBI's aggregated monthly data?
- A.0.1%
- B.0.3%✓ Correct Answer
- C.0.5%
- D.1.0%
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Explanation
The article states: 'The headline c/a deficit is low at 0.3% of GDP as per RBI’s aggregated monthly data.' The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the article.
What is the primary risk highlighted in the article if services inflation rises from its current low level?
- A.GDP growth will accelerate further
- B.The RBI may be forced to raise interest rates, dampening growth✓ Correct Answer
- C.Food inflation will automatically decline
- D.The current account deficit will turn into a surplus
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Explanation
The article states: 'If services inflation goes up and services exports take a hit, the RBI may be forced to raise interest rates, which, in turn, will likely dampen India’s growth.' This is the direct risk mentioned. Other options are not supported by the text.
Which ministry is the administrative parent of the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)?
- A.Ministry of Food Processing Industries
- B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Consumer Affairs
- D.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
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Explanation
FSSAI is a statutory body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, and functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. The other ministries are not responsible for food safety regulation.
Consider the following statements regarding the FSSAI's proposed front-of-pack warning label:
1. The proposed label is a red hexagonal symbol indicating high content of salt, sugar, or saturated fat.
2. The label will be mandatory for all packaged foods, including single-ingredient products like ghee and honey.
3. The proposal was filed in compliance with a Supreme Court directive.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the label is a red hexagonal warning. Statement 2 is incorrect: single-ingredient foods like ghee, oil, salt, sugar, jaggery, and honey are exempted. Statement 3 is correct: the proposal was a compliance affidavit filed in response to the Supreme Court's earlier direction. Hence option C is correct.
According to the article, which document provides the threshold values for determining whether a food is high in salt, sugar, or fat for the proposed warning label?
- A.WHO Global Nutrition Targets 2025
- B.Dietary Guidelines for Indians 2024 by ICMR-NIN✓ Correct Answer
- C.FSSAI's Food Safety and Standards Regulations
- D.Supreme Court's interim order
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Explanation
The affidavit explicitly states that thresholds are based on the Dietary Guidelines for Indians, 2024, issued by the Indian Council of Medical Research-National Institute of Nutrition. The other options are not mentioned in the article.
What is the primary objective of the proposed front-of-pack warning label as stated in the FSSAI affidavit?
- A.To replace the existing nutrition information table on the back of the pack
- B.To provide a simple, prominent, and easily comprehensible warning to consumers about high levels of nutrients of concern✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase government revenue through a tax on unhealthy foods
- D.To harmonize Indian food labeling with international trade standards
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Explanation
The affidavit explicitly states that the warning label is intended to provide a simple, prominent, and easily comprehensible warning to consumers, especially children and vulnerable groups, to facilitate informed food choices. The other options are not stated as objectives.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for coordinating India's foreign policy and diplomatic visits like the Prime Minister's SCO visit?
- A.Ministry of Defence
- B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Home Affairs
- D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
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Explanation
The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) handles India's foreign relations, including diplomatic visits, multilateral engagements, and policy formulation for international organizations like SCO, BRICS, and UNSC.
Consider the following statements based on the news:
1. India's trade with Central Asia grew from $500 million in 2010 to over $2 billion in 2025.
2. The SCO presidency will be handed over to Pakistan for the year 2027.
3. The India-Central Asia Summit was last held in-person in January 2022.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article states trade grew from $500 million to over $2 billion between 2010 and 2025. Statement 2 is correct: Kyrgyz President Japarov will hand over SCO presidency to Pakistan for 2027. Statement 3 is incorrect: the summit was held virtually in January 2022 due to COVID-19, not in-person.
According to the article, what was the volume of India's trade with Central Asia in 2025?
- A.$500 million
- B.$1 billion
- C.$2 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$106 billion
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that 'trade in goods has risen from $500 million in 2010 to more than $2 billion in 2025'. $106 billion is China's trade with Central Asia, a distractor.
What is the primary objective of Prime Minister Modi's visit to Uzbekistan and the Kyrgyz Republic, beyond the SCO summit?
- A.To attend the SCO summit and meet with leaders
- B.To strengthen bilateral ties with Uzbekistan and Kyrgyzstan
- C.To address multiple multilateral issues including BRICS, UNSC election, and the India-Central Asia Summit✓ Correct Answer
- D.To discuss the Chabahar port and INSTC connectivity
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Explanation
The article states that the agenda includes engagements aimed at the BRICS Summit, UNSC term, and planning for the India-Central Asia Summit. This is broader than just bilateral ties or connectivity, making C the most comprehensive and correct answer.
Which ministry issued the official statement inviting stakeholder suggestions for the high-powered task force on NTA reforms?
- A.Ministry of Education
- B.Ministry of Personnel✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Home Affairs
- D.Ministry of Law and Justice
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Explanation
The article states that the official statement was issued by the Ministry of Personnel. The Ministry of Education oversees NTA, but the statement on the task force came from the Ministry of Personnel.
Consider the following statements regarding the high-powered task force on NTA reforms:
1. The task force was constituted by the Prime Minister after the NEET-UG 2026 paper leak.
2. The task force is chaired by former ISRO chairman K. Radhakrishnan.
3. The task force has invited suggestions in English, Hindi, or regional languages.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the task force was constituted by PM Modi after the NEET-UG 2026 leak. Statement 2 is incorrect: the chairperson is Nandan Nilekani, not K. Radhakrishnan (who headed an earlier committee). Statement 3 is correct: suggestions can be submitted in English, Hindi, or regional languages.
By what date must stakeholders submit their suggestions to the high-powered task force on NTA reforms?
- A.August 29, 2026
- B.September 13, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.October 13, 2026
- D.November 13, 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the task force has requested suggestions to be submitted by September 13, 2026. August 29 is the publication date, and the other dates are distractors.
What is the primary objective of the high-powered task force on NTA reforms?
- A.To conduct NEET-UG 2027 examinations
- B.To replace the National Testing Agency with a new body
- C.To recommend comprehensive reforms in the public examination system✓ Correct Answer
- D.To investigate the NEET-UG 2024 paper leak
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Explanation
The task force's mandate is to recommend reforms in conduct, security, design, governance, and inclusion of public examinations, as stated in the article. It is not conducting exams, replacing NTA, or investigating past leaks (which was the Radhakrishnan committee's role).
Which US department negotiated the Venezuela oil deal according to the article?
- A.Department of Defense
- B.Department of State✓ Correct Answer
- C.Department of Energy
- D.Department of Treasury
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Explanation
The article states the deal was negotiated by Secretary of State Marco Rubio, along with Defense Secretary Pete Hegseth and Venezuela's interim President Delcy Rodriguez. The State Department leads foreign policy and treaty negotiations.
Consider the following statements regarding the US-Venezuela oil deal:
1. The deal involves control of 65 billion barrels of Venezuelan oil reserves.
2. The deal was announced after the US captured Venezuela's President Hugo Chavez.
3. The deal aims to bring $100 billion in private investment into Venezuela.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions control of 65 billion barrels. Statement 2 is incorrect - the captured president was Nicolas Maduro, not Hugo Chavez (who died in 2013). Statement 3 is correct as Rubio posted that the deal would usher in $100 billion in private investment.
According to the article, what was the average gas price in the US on August 28, 2026?
- A.$3.21 per gallon
- B.$4.09 per gallon✓ Correct Answer
- C.$3.50 per gallon
- D.$4.50 per gallon
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the average price of gas stood at about $4.09 a gallon on Friday (August 28, 2026) according to AAA. The price a year earlier was $3.21.
What is the primary objective of the US-Venezuela oil deal as stated by Secretary Rubio?
- A.To overthrow the Venezuelan government
- B.To lower gas prices in the United States✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase US strategic petroleum reserves
- D.To nationalize Venezuelan oil assets
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Explanation
Secretary Rubio posted that the agreement would lead to lower gas prices in the United States. While the deal also aims to bring investment and control reserves, the primary stated objective is to address high gas prices exacerbated by the Iran war.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for India's 'Connect Central Asia' policy?
- A.Ministry of Defence
- B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Home Affairs
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Explanation
The 'Connect Central Asia' policy is a foreign policy framework aimed at deepening India's strategic, economic, and cultural ties with the five Central Asian republics. It is formulated and implemented by the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA), which oversees India's diplomatic engagements.
Consider the following statements regarding the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO):
1. India became a full member of the SCO in 2017.
2. The SCO currently has 10 member states, including Iran and Belarus.
3. The 26th SCO Summit was held in Uzbekistan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: India and Pakistan became full members of the SCO in 2017. Statement 2 is correct: The SCO comprises 10 member states including India, Belarus, China, Iran, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan. Statement 3 is incorrect: The 26th SCO Summit was held in Bishkek, Kyrgyz Republic, not Uzbekistan.
What was the approximate bilateral trade between India and Uzbekistan in 2025-26?
- A.$500 million
- B.$1 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$1.5 billion
- D.$2 billion
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Explanation
The article states that India is among the top 10 trading partners of Uzbekistan, and the bilateral trade in 2025-26 stood close to $1 billion. The other options are plausible distractors but do not match the exact figure mentioned.
What is the primary strategic objective of India's engagement with Central Asia through the INSTC and Chabahar port?
- A.To counter China's Belt and Road Initiative in the region
- B.To establish a military base in Central Asia
- C.To bypass Pakistan's blockade and gain overland access to Central Asia✓ Correct Answer
- D.To increase cultural exchanges with the region
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Pakistan blocks India's overland access to Central Asia, and India wants to integrate the International North-South Corridor with the Chabahar port in Iran to access this resource-rich region. While countering China's influence is a secondary benefit, the primary objective is overcoming the connectivity barrier.
Which institution is primarily responsible for implementing monetary policy in India, as referenced in the article's mention of policy rate cuts?
- A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- B.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
The article states 'policy rates were cut effectively by 150 basis points' – this refers to the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) decisions on repo rate and other policy rates. RBI is the central bank responsible for monetary policy in India.
Consider the following statements regarding India's economic situation as described in the article:
1. India's GDP growth printed as high as 8% in the last quarter.
2. Fixed investment rate has increased to 35% of GDP in recent years.
3. Central capex growth slowed to 1.6% in 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: 'India's GDP growth for last quarter could print as high as 8 per cent'. Statement 2 is incorrect: Fixed investment remains at its decadal average of 32% of GDP, not increased. Statement 3 is correct: 'central capex... slowed to 1.6 per cent in 2025'. Hence option C.
According to the article, what was the growth rate of central government capital expenditure (capex) in 2025?
- A.30%
- B.11%
- C.1.6%✓ Correct Answer
- D.16%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'central capex... slowed to 11 per cent in 2024 and just 1.6 per cent in 2025'. Option A (30%) was the average growth between 2020 and 2023, option B (11%) was 2024 growth, and option D is not mentioned. Hence correct is 1.6%.
What is the primary reason cited in the article for corporate caution in undertaking capital expenditure (capex)?
- A.Lack of fiscal space due to tax cuts
- B.Low capacity utilisation and lack of demand visibility✓ Correct Answer
- C.High interest rates despite policy rate cuts
- D.Excessive regulation and trade deficits
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Explanation
The article states: 'With capacity utilisation stuck in the 75-76 per cent range over the last decade, and ever-increasing Chinese overcapacity flooding the world... it’s understandable why corporates remain cautious.' Only strong, sustained consumption and export demand will shake them out. Hence option B is correct.
Which tribunal is primarily responsible for adjudicating insolvency proceedings for companies under the IBC?
- A.National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)✓ Correct Answer
- B.Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT)
- C.Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT)
- D.Competition Commission of India (CCI)
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Explanation
The article mentions that NCLT approves resolution plans and initiates insolvency processes. DRT handles debt recovery, SAT handles securities appeals, and CCI handles competition matters. Hence, NCLT is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the IBC and haircuts:
1. The term 'haircut' is explicitly defined under the IBC.
2. The government believes the primary objective of IBC is resolution, not recovery.
3. In FY26, the recovery rate under IBC was 20%, the lowest in the last five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the article states the term 'haircut' is not defined under IBC. Statement 2 is correct as the government's opinion is that the primary objective is 'resolution, not recovery'. Statement 3 is correct as FY26 recovery was 20%, the lowest in five years. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the article, what was the average recovery rate for creditors under IBC between FY 2021-22 and FY 2025-26?
- A.20%
- B.29%✓ Correct Answer
- C.37%
- D.39%
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Explanation
The article states 'the average recovery, however, was close to 29%.' Option A is FY26's rate, C is FY25's, and D is FY23's. Hence, 29% is correct.
Why do banks argue that excessive haircuts occur under the IBC?
- A.Because the IBC process is too slow
- B.Because asset valuation does not reflect true enterprise value✓ Correct Answer
- C.Because creditors are not allowed to appeal
- D.Because the NCLT is biased towards debtors
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Explanation
Banks, as mentioned, suggest that valuation systems should ensure reflection of enterprise value instead of liquidation value, and point to opacity in valuation. Option A is not mentioned, C is incorrect as HDFC Bank is considering an appeal, and D is not stated. Hence, B is correct.
Which ministry is the nodal ministry for the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)?
- A.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Food Processing Industries
- D.Ministry of Consumer Affairs
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Explanation
FSSAI operates under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, as per the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006. The other ministries are not directly responsible for food safety regulation.
Consider the following statements regarding the proposed FSSAI warning labels:
1. In Phase I, the warning label will be required only if a product is high in two of the three nutrients: fat, sugar, and salt.
2. Single-ingredient food products like milk and inherently rich items like ghee, oil, salt, and sugar are exempt from the regulation.
3. The warning label will be displayed on the back of the pack.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Phase I requires high in two of three nutrients. Statement 2 is correct: single-ingredient and inherently rich products are exempt. Statement 3 is incorrect: the warning label will be on the front of the pack, not the back.
According to the article, what percentage drop in sugary drink consumption was observed in Chile after the introduction of similar warning labels?
- A.14%
- B.24%✓ Correct Answer
- C.34%
- D.44%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Chile witnessed a 24% drop in sugary drink consumption. The other options are not mentioned in the article.
What is the primary purpose of introducing front-of-pack warning labels as proposed by FSSAI?
- A.To increase the tax revenue from packaged food products
- B.To inform consumers about the healthiness of packaged foods at a glance✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce the cost of packaged food by standardizing labels
- D.To promote the export of Indian packaged foods
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Explanation
The article states that the warning label is intended to ensure that people do not consume unhealthy foods without knowing. The primary goal is consumer awareness and informed choice, not revenue generation, cost reduction, or export promotion.
FSSAI (Food Safety and Standards Authority of India) operates under which ministry?
- A.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
- B.Ministry of Food Processing Industries
- C.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- D.Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
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Explanation
FSSAI is a statutory body under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, administered by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. It is responsible for regulating food safety and standards in India.
Consider the following statements regarding FSSAI's proposed warning labels:
1. The proposed warning label is red hexagonal in shape.
2. The warning is triggered when a product is high in any one of the three nutrients of concern (added sugar, added salt, added saturated fat).
3. The next Supreme Court hearing on this matter is scheduled for September 10, 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct – the proposed label is red hexagonal. Statement 2 is incorrect – the warning is triggered only when high in two or more nutrients (the 'two or more' loophole). Statement 3 is correct – the next SC hearing is on September 10, 2026. Hence option C is correct.
On what date did FSSAI submit its compliance affidavit to the Supreme Court regarding the proposed warning labels?
- A.August 28, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- B.August 29, 2026
- C.September 10, 2026
- D.August 1, 2026
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Explanation
According to the article, FSSAI submitted a compliance affidavit on August 28, 2026, proposing the red hexagonal warning label. August 29 is the publication date of the article, and September 10 is the next hearing date.
What is the primary criticism raised by expert Arun Gupta regarding FSSAI's proposed warning label framework?
- A.The warning label size is too small compared to international standards.
- B.The threshold of 'two or more' nutrients allows products high in a single nutrient to escape warning.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The labels are only in English and not in Hindi.
- D.The timeline for implementation is too slow.
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Explanation
Dr. Arun Gupta argued that the 'two or more' nutrient threshold is a major loophole because a product high in sugar alone (or salt alone) would carry no warning. He advocates for a simpler rule: high in any one nutrient → warning.
What type of vaccine is an mRNA tumour vaccine?
- A.Prophylactic vaccine
- B.Therapeutic vaccine✓ Correct Answer
- C.Booster vaccine
- D.Live attenuated vaccine
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Explanation
The article states: 'Unlike traditional vaccines, which prevent infection, these are therapeutic vaccines, developed after a disease has been diagnosed, to help trigger the body's immune system.' Therefore, mRNA tumour vaccines are therapeutic, not prophylactic.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Phase III INTerpath-001 trial evaluated a personalised mRNA vaccine in combination with pembrolizumab.
2. The vaccine reduced the risk of recurrence by 59% compared to pembrolizumab alone.
3. The trial enrolled approximately 1,100 patients with high-risk melanoma who had not undergone surgery.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the trial tested intismeran autogene plus pembrolizumab. Statement 2 is incorrect: the reduction in recurrence risk was 49%, not 59% (59% was for distant metastasis). Statement 3 is incorrect: patients had undergone complete surgical removal of visible disease before enrollment.
What was the reduction in distant metastasis risk reported in the INTerpath-001 trial for the personalised mRNA vaccine plus pembrolizumab?
- A.39%
- B.49%
- C.59%✓ Correct Answer
- D.69%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Earlier studies of the same strategy had already shown roughly a 49% reduction in the risk of recurrence or death, and a 59% reduction in the risk of distant metastasis or death.' Thus, 59% is the correct figure for distant metastasis risk reduction.
What is the primary difference between mRNA tumour vaccines and traditional vaccines?
- A.mRNA tumour vaccines are for prevention of infectious diseases
- B.mRNA tumour vaccines are therapeutic and personalised✓ Correct Answer
- C.mRNA tumour vaccines use weakened pathogens
- D.mRNA tumour vaccines require no injection
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Explanation
The article explains that unlike traditional vaccines that prevent infection, mRNA tumour vaccines are therapeutic, designed after diagnosis, and personalised to each patient's tumour mutations (neoantigens). They train the immune system to attack existing cancer cells, not prevent infection.
Which US government department proposed the new $103,265 fee on H-1B cap-subject petitions?
- A.Department of Labor
- B.Department of Homeland Security✓ Correct Answer
- C.Department of State
- D.US Citizenship and Immigration Services
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Explanation
The article states that the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) published the proposal in the Federal Register. While USCIS is part of DHS, the formal proposer is DHS, as per the article.
Consider the following statements regarding the proposed H-1B fee:
1. The proposed fee of $103,265 must be paid by the employer for each H-1B cap-subject petition.
2. The fee applies to all existing H-1B holders, including those already in the US.
3. A previous attempt to impose a $100,000 fee was struck down by a federal judge in June 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The fee is paid by the employer/petitioner at the time of filing. Statement 2 is incorrect: The proposal applies only to new cap-subject petitions, not existing H-1B holders. Statement 3 is correct: The earlier $100,000 fee was struck down in June 2026. Hence option C is correct.
According to the article, what percentage of approved H-1B petitions in FY2024 were for people born in India?
- A.45%
- B.71%✓ Correct Answer
- C.85%
- D.60%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that in FY2024, 71% of approved H-1B petitions were for people born in India. China is a distant second at just over 10%. The other options are close distractors not supported by the article.
Why does India have a significant interest in the proposed $103,265 H-1B fee?
- A.Because India is the largest recipient of US foreign aid, and the fee may reduce aid.
- B.Because Indian professionals constitute 71% of approved H-1B petitions, so any cost increase disproportionately affects them.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Because the fee will be collected by the Indian government to fund skill development.
- D.Because the fee applies only to Indian workers, not other nationalities.
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Explanation
The article highlights that India's outsized share (71%) of H-1B approvals means any major change to the system has a disproportionate impact on Indian professionals. The proposed fee makes it more expensive for US employers to sponsor Indian workers, potentially reducing opportunities.
Which tribunal is responsible for adjudicating personal insolvency cases under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) in India?
- A.Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT)
- B.National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)✓ Correct Answer
- C.High Court
- D.Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT)
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Explanation
Under the IBC, both corporate and personal insolvency matters are adjudicated by the NCLT. The article specifically mentions NCLT approving Subhash Chandra's personal insolvency repayment plan. DRT deals with debt recovery for banks, not insolvency resolution.
Consider the following statements regarding the Subhash Chandra personal insolvency case:
1. The repayment plan proposed to pay creditors Rs 6.25 crore against admitted claims of over Rs 22,000 crore.
2. Banks and NBFCs, including HDFC Bank and Canara Bank, voted in favour of the repayment plan.
3. The resolution professional admitted 1,260 claims without adequate documentary verification.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the plan proposed Rs 6.25 crore against claims of Rs 22,006.57 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect: all banks voted against the repayment plan (they had only 19.186% vote share). Statement 3 is correct: NCLT found that 1,260 claims were admitted without due diligence. Hence option C is correct.
What was the total value of admitted claims in Subhash Chandra's personal insolvency case?
- A.Rs 6.25 crore
- B.Rs 22,006.57 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.Rs 19,186 crore
- D.Rs 28.49 crore
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Explanation
The article states that 'the admitted claims amounted to approximately Rs 22,006.57 crore'. Rs 6.25 crore is the repayment amount (distractor), Rs 19,186 refers to the banks' vote share percentage (wrong amount), and Rs 28.49 is World Crest's vote share. Hence the correct amount is Rs 22,006.57 crore.
Why did banks opposing the repayment plan challenge the voting process before NCLT?
- A.Because the repayment amount was too high
- B.Because entities with 61.78% voting share were allegedly related parties of Subhash Chandra✓ Correct Answer
- C.Because the resolution professional was biased towards banks
- D.Because the NCLT had no jurisdiction over personal insolvency
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Explanation
Banks argued that five entities (Veena Investments, Direct Media, World Crest, Lemonade Capital, Corpcall Capital) were associates/related parties of Chandra, and their votes should not be counted. The article states that banks alleged these entities fall within the category of associate parties, and their inclusion vitiated the voting outcome.
In which year did India become a full member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)?
- A.2015
- B.2017✓ Correct Answer
- C.2026
- D.2001
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'In 2017, India also became a full member of the SCO.' 2015 was the year of PM Modi's visit to all five Central Asian republics, not the year of membership. 2001 is the founding year of SCO, and 2026 is the year of the Bishkek summit.
Consider the following statements regarding India's Central Asia policy:
1. India has established strategic partnerships with all Central Asian countries except Turkmenistan.
2. The 'Connect Central Asia' policy was announced in 2015.
3. The SCO Development Strategy 2035 was adopted at the Tianjin summit in 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'New Delhi has established strategic partnerships with all Central Asian countries except Turkmenistan.' Statement 2 is incorrect: the policy was announced in 2012, not 2015. Statement 3 is correct: 'At Tianjin last year, leaders adopted the SCO Development Strategy 2035' – since the article is dated 2026, 'last year' refers to 2025.
According to the article, how many dialogue partners does the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) currently have?
- A.10
- B.12
- C.15✓ Correct Answer
- D.20
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'the organisation has expanded to ten members and fifteen dialogue partners.' Therefore, the correct answer is 15. The other numbers are distractors – 10 is the number of members, not dialogue partners.
What is the core principle of the 'Shanghai Spirit' that originally guided the Shanghai Five?
- A.Economic integration and free trade
- B.Promotion of democracy and human rights
- C.Mutual trust and resolving border disputes✓ Correct Answer
- D.Counter-terrorism and intelligence sharing
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Explanation
The article mentions: 'Its earlier incarnation, the Shanghai Five, was established to promote peace and stability in Eurasia, with a particular emphasis on resolving border disputes through mutual trust among its members.' This aligns with the core of the Shanghai Spirit. While counter-terrorism is important, the foundational principle was mutual trust and border resolution.
Which organization deputed a yoga teacher to the Yoga Federation of Uzbekistan?
- A.Ministry of AYUSH
- B.Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of External Affairs
- D.Indian Embassy in Tashkent
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Explanation
The article states that the Yoga Federation of Uzbekistan was 'nurtured by the Indian Council of Cultural Relations (ICCR) which had deputed a yoga teacher to it for four years.' ICCR is the nodal agency for cultural diplomacy.
Consider the following statements regarding PM Modi's visit to Uzbekistan:
1. This was PM Modi's first bilateral visit to Uzbekistan.
2. The 26th SCO Summit was held in Bishkek, Kyrgyz Republic.
3. Uzbekistan is the first country in Central Asia to conduct yoga certification under the Yoga Certification Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: PM Modi's visit to Uzbekistan is his fourth overall and second bilateral visit (earlier in July 2015). Statement 2 is correct: The SCO Summit was in Bishkek. Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly says Uzbekistan became the first Central Asian country to conduct yoga certification under YCB.
What was the approximate bilateral trade between India and Uzbekistan in 2025-26?
- A.$500 million
- B.$1 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$1.5 billion
- D.$2 billion
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Explanation
The article states: 'India is among the top 10 trading partners of Uzbekistan with bilateral trade in 2025-26 close to US$ 1 billion.' The other options are plausible distractors, but only $1 billion matches the data.
What is the primary strategic objective of India's engagement with Central Asia as highlighted in the article?
- A.To increase tourism and cultural exchanges
- B.To counter China's influence and secure energy resources✓ Correct Answer
- C.To establish Indian universities in the region
- D.To promote yoga and traditional medicine
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions: 'to counter China’s influence in the strategically vital region, establish connectivity project including the INSTC, meet its growing energy needs (Kazakhstan uranium, TAPI pipeline).' While cultural and educational ties are important, the core strategic driver is geopolitical and energy security.
Which constitutional article empowers Parliament to provide for adjudication of disputes relating to inter-state rivers?
- A.Article 246
- B.Article 262✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 256
- D.Article 263
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Explanation
Article 262 of the Constitution allows Parliament to provide for adjudication of disputes relating to inter-state rivers and river valleys, and to exclude such disputes from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. The Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, was enacted under this article.
Consider the following statements regarding the SYL canal dispute:
1. The SYL canal was designed as a 214-km link, with 122 km falling in Punjab and 92 km in Haryana.
2. Punjab passed the Punjab Termination of Agreements Act in 2004, which was upheld by the Supreme Court in 2016.
3. The Ravi-Beas Waters Tribunal (Eradi Tribunal) was set up in 1986 to re-verify water claims.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the SYL canal is 214 km long, with 122 km in Punjab and 92 km in Haryana. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Supreme Court struck down the Punjab Termination of Agreements Act in 2016, not upheld it. Statement 3 is correct: the Ravi-Beas Waters Tribunal (Eradi Tribunal) was set up in 1986 to re-verify water claims.
According to the article, what percentage of Punjab's blocks are overexploited in terms of groundwater?
- A.60-65%
- B.73-76%✓ Correct Answer
- C.80-85%
- D.50-55%
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Explanation
The article states that roughly 73–76% of Punjab's blocks are overexploited, meaning groundwater extraction exceeds recharge. This is a key driver of Punjab's resistance to sharing water with Haryana.
What is the primary legal principle invoked by Punjab to resist the construction of the SYL canal?
- A.Prior appropriation doctrine
- B.Riparian principle✓ Correct Answer
- C.Eminent domain
- D.Doctrine of territorial nexus
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Explanation
Punjab invokes the riparian principle, which grants states through which rivers flow primary rights to their waters. This principle is often used in inter-state water disputes in India, contrasting with the 'prior appropriation' doctrine used in some other countries.
Which Supreme Court bench made observations on August 13, 2026 regarding food packaging and public health?
- A.Bench headed by Justice J.B. Pardiwala✓ Correct Answer
- B.Bench headed by Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
- C.Bench headed by Justice S.A. Bobde
- D.Bench headed by Justice N.V. Ramana
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Explanation
The article states that the compliance affidavit followed scathing comments on August 13 from a Bench headed by Justice J.B. Pardiwala on the state's obligations to protect public health.
Consider the following statements:
1. The warning label will be in red hexagonal shape.
2. Phase I will cover products high in any one nutrient of concern.
3. Single-ingredient foods like ghee and honey are exempted from the warning requirement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The FSSAI proposal includes a red hexagonal warning label. Statement 2 is incorrect: Phase I covers products high in two or more specified nutrients, not any one. Statement 3 is correct: Single-ingredient foods like ghee, edible oil, jaggery, and honey are exempted.
What is the font size requirement for the front-of-pack warning label compared to the nutrition information table on the back of the pack?
- A.One point larger✓ Correct Answer
- B.One point smaller
- C.Same size
- D.Two points larger
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Explanation
As per the article, the warning label will be displayed in a font one point larger than that used in the nutrition information table on the back of the pack.
What is the primary objective of the FOP warning proposal according to FSSAI's affidavit?
- A.To increase industry compliance with international standards
- B.To provide a simple, prominent and easily comprehensible warning to consumers✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce the consumption of all packaged foods
- D.To generate revenue through penalties on non-compliant products
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Explanation
The FSSAI affidavit explicitly states that the proposal is intended to provide a simple, prominent and easily comprehensible warning to consumers regarding food products high in specified nutrients of concern.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for the administration of the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)?
- A.Ministry of Defence
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Civil Aviation
- D.Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises
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Explanation
CISF is a central armed police force under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). It is not under Defence or Civil Aviation, though it secures airports and other critical infrastructure.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent MoU signed by CISF:
1. The MoU was signed with the Drone Federation of India (DFI) to enhance counter-drone capabilities.
2. CISF is the designated nodal agency for handling aerial threats at its guarded installations.
3. CISF has trained 3,000 personnel and all its 370 units now use drones for monitoring.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The MoU is with DFI. Statement 2 is correct: CISF is the nodal agency for aerial threats (as per the article). Statement 3 is incorrect: Only 80 units use drones, not all 370 units.
According to the news article, how many vital installations are currently under the security cover of CISF?
- A.270
- B.300
- C.370✓ Correct Answer
- D.400
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the paramilitary force guards 370 units across the country, including sensitive sectors like aviation, nuclear power, space, and oil refineries.
What is the primary objective of the MoU between CISF and the Drone Federation of India (DFI)?
- A.To enhance offensive drone strike capabilities of the force
- B.To facilitate structured engagements with Indian drone startups for capacity building and operational preparedness✓ Correct Answer
- C.To import advanced counter-drone systems from foreign vendors
- D.To train all CISF personnel as drone pilots for surveillance
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Explanation
The MoU aims to leverage Indian drone startups for applied research and operational readiness, not offensive capabilities or foreign imports. It focuses on building indigenous counter-drone skills and partnerships.
Which US department is primarily responsible for the foreign policy negotiations mentioned in the news?
- A.Department of War
- B.Department of State✓ Correct Answer
- C.Department of Energy
- D.Department of Defense
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Explanation
The article mentions that the deal was negotiated by Secretary of State Marco Rubio, indicating the Department of State's lead role in foreign policy and international agreements.
Consider the following statements regarding the US-Venezuela oil deal:
1. The deal gives the US partial control of 65 billion barrels of Venezuelan oil.
2. The deal was announced after the US captured Venezuelan President Delcy Rodriguez.
3. The US Strategic Petroleum Reserve fell below 300 million barrels in early August 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article says 'US to take partial control of 65 billion barrels'. Statement 2 is incorrect as the captured president was Nicolás Maduro, not Delcy Rodriguez (who is the interim president). Statement 3 is correct as the article states stockpiles fell below 300 million barrels in early August 2026.
According to the article, how much had the US Strategic Petroleum Reserve declined since the start of 2026?
- A.More than 50 million barrels
- B.More than 100 million barrels✓ Correct Answer
- C.More than 150 million barrels
- D.More than 200 million barrels
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Explanation
The article states that the US Strategic Petroleum Reserve fell below 300 million barrels in early August 2026, down more than 100 million barrels since the start of 2026.
What is the primary objective of the US-Venezuela oil deal as mentioned in the news?
- A.To increase US oil exports to Europe
- B.To substantially cut gas prices for Americans✓ Correct Answer
- C.To establish a military base in Venezuela
- D.To reduce global oil production quotas
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Explanation
The article states that the deal 'would substantially cut gas prices for Americans long into the future', addressing domestic pressure on Trump to bring down high gas prices amid the Iran war disrupting global oil flows.
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For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
- Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
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Frequently Asked Questions
What are the important current affairs questions for 29 August 2026?▼
This page contains 76 current affairs questions from 29 August 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 29 August 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
- Q1. institution is responsible for setting the repo rate in India?
- Q2. Consider the following statements regarding India's economic r…
- Q3. According to the article, what was the current account deficit…
- Q4. is the primary risk highlighted in the article if services inf…
- Q5. ministry is the administrative parent of the Food Safety and S…
- Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the FSSAI's propos…
- Q7. According to the article, which document provides the threshol…
- Q8. is the primary objective of the proposed front-of-pack warning…
- Q9. ministry is primarily responsible for coordinating India's for…
- Q10. Consider the following statements based on the news: 1. India…
- Q11. According to the article, what was the volume of India's trade…
- Q12. is the primary objective of Prime Minister Modi's visit to Uzb…
- Q13. ministry issued the official statement inviting stakeholder su…
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the high-powered t…
- Q15. By what date must stakeholders submit their suggestions to the…
- Q16. is the primary objective of the high-powered task force on NTA…
- Q17. US department negotiated the Venezuela oil deal according to t…
- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the US-Venezuela o…
- Q19. According to the article, what was the average gas price in th…
- Q20. is the primary objective of the US-Venezuela oil deal as state…
- Q21. ministry is primarily responsible for India's 'Connect Central…
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the Shanghai Coope…
- Q23. was the approximate bilateral trade between India and Uzbekist…
- Q24. is the primary strategic objective of India's engagement with …
- Q25. institution is primarily responsible for implementing monetary…
- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding India's economic s…
- Q27. According to the article, what was the growth rate of central …
- Q28. is the primary reason cited in the article for corporate cauti…
- Q29. tribunal is primarily responsible for adjudicating insolvency …
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the IBC and haircu…
- Q31. According to the article, what was the average recovery rate f…
- Q32. Why do banks argue that excessive haircuts occur under the IBC?
- Q33. ministry is the nodal ministry for the Food Safety and Standar…
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the proposed FSSAI…
- Q35. According to the article, what percentage drop in sugary drink…
- Q36. is the primary purpose of introducing front-of-pack warning la…
- Q37. FSSAI (Food Safety and Standards Authority of India) operates …
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding FSSAI's proposed w…
- Q39. On what date did FSSAI submit its compliance affidavit to the …
- Q40. is the primary criticism raised by expert Arun Gupta regarding…
- Q41. type of vaccine is an mRNA tumour vaccine?
- Q42. Consider the following statements: 1. The Phase III INTerpath…
- Q43. was the reduction in distant metastasis risk reported in the I…
- Q44. is the primary difference between mRNA tumour vaccines and tra…
- Q45. US government department proposed the new $103,265 fee on H-1B…
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the proposed H-1B …
- Q47. According to the article, what percentage of approved H-1B pet…
- Q48. Why does India have a significant interest in the proposed $10…
- Q49. tribunal is responsible for adjudicating personal insolvency c…
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the Subhash Chandr…
- Q51. was the total value of admitted claims in Subhash Chandra's pe…
- Q52. Why did banks opposing the repayment plan challenge the voting…
- Q53. In which year did India become a full member of the Shanghai C…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding India's Central As…
- Q55. According to the article, how many dialogue partners does the …
- Q56. is the core principle of the 'Shanghai Spirit' that originally…
- Q57. organization deputed a yoga teacher to the Yoga Federation of …
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding PM Modi's visit to…
- Q59. was the approximate bilateral trade between India and Uzbekist…
- Q60. is the primary strategic objective of India's engagement with …
- Q61. constitutional article empowers Parliament to provide for adju…
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the SYL canal disp…
- Q63. According to the article, what percentage of Punjab's blocks a…
- Q64. is the primary legal principle invoked by Punjab to resist the…
- Q65. Supreme Court bench made observations on August 13, 2026 regar…
- Q66. Consider the following statements: 1. The warning label will …
- Q67. is the font size requirement for the front-of-pack warning lab…
- Q68. is the primary objective of the FOP warning proposal according…
- Q69. ministry is primarily responsible for the administration of th…
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the recent MoU sig…
- Q71. According to the news article, how many vital installations ar…
- Q72. is the primary objective of the MoU between CISF and the Drone…
- Q73. US department is primarily responsible for the foreign policy …
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the US-Venezuela o…
- Q75. According to the article, how much had the US Strategic Petrol…
- Q76. is the primary objective of the US-Venezuela oil deal as menti…