24 August 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act is administered by the Ministry of Mines, Government of India. The Ministry of Mines is responsible for the exploration and mining of all minerals, except coal, petroleum, and atomic minerals.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the bill was passed by both Houses on August 13, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect because the bill centralizes control (from states to central government), not the other way. Statement 3 is correct as Odisha is mineral-rich and the opposition, led by BJD, fears the law will harm the state's fiscal health.

Explanation

The article states the bill was passed on August 13 and later became an Act after Presidential assent, but does not give the exact date of assent. The article was published on August 24, 2026, so the assent occurred between August 13 and August 24.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Odisha fears the new law will impact the state's fiscal health and disrupt Centre-State relations. The centralization of mineral control reduces state revenue from mining royalties and taxes, which is a key source of income for mineral-rich states.

Explanation

The Triple Test was laid down by Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer in the 1978 case of Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board vs A. Rajappa. This case expansively defined 'industry' under Section 2(j) of the ID Act, 1947.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the majority of the 9-judge bench ruled that BWSSB will not be a 'sheet anchor' for IRC 2020. Statement 2 is correct: the ID Act was repealed on Nov 21, 2025. Statement 3 is incorrect: the Triple Test explicitly states that 'profit motive was irrelevant' for determining whether an activity is an industry.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the ID Act was repealed on November 21, 2025, when the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 came into force. August 20, 2026, is the date of the Supreme Court judgment.

Explanation

The majority judgment severs the established interpretive framework (the Triple Test) that had guided courts for decades. Since the new code (IRC 2020) reproduces much of the same wording, the removal of this binding precedent creates legal uncertainty. This is particularly concerning as more workers move to the private sector post-liberalisation and need broader protections.

Explanation

The Special Representative from India is the National Security Advisor (currently Ajit Doval). The Chinese counterpart is the Foreign Minister or a Politburo member. This mechanism was established in 2003 for political-level boundary resolution.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the meeting was the 25th round, not the 24th. Statement 2 is correct as mentioned in the article. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's reference to the August 2025 agreement. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The Special Representative mechanism was established in 2003 during Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee's visit to China. The 25th round is being held in 2026, showing continuity over two decades. The other options are close distractors but incorrect.

Explanation

The WMCC, established in 2012, is a diplomatic mechanism for discussing boundary delimitation, border management, and trans-border cooperation. It is not a military exercise platform (distractor A) nor related to trade or Kashmir issues.

Explanation

The Ministry of Commerce and Industry, under the Department of Commerce, is the nodal ministry for India's foreign trade policy, including the negotiation of Free Trade Agreements (FTAs). The Finance Ministry handles tariffs but the negotiation is led by Commerce.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India signed nine FTAs in the last four years. Statement 2 is correct: these cover $60 trillion GDP and 38 developed countries. Statement 3 is incorrect: the target is to cover 75% of global trade, not India's domestic trade.

Explanation

The article states that the nine FTAs signed in the last four years cover $60 trillion, and earlier pacts with Japan, Korea, and ASEAN add another $10 trillion, making the total $70 trillion. $15 trillion is the additional GDP from new negotiations.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the FTAs will 'help position India as a trusted partner in global value chains'. This is a strategic move to integrate India into global production networks, attract investment, and boost exports, not to increase tariffs or reduce WTO dependence.

Explanation

The Supreme Court impleaded the Centre through the Ministries of Housing and Urban Affairs, Rural Development, and Road Transport and Highways. Hence all three are involved in ensuring demarcated footpaths.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the SC held the right under Article 19(1)(d) read with Article 21, and also Articles 19(1)(a), (b), (c). Statement 2 is correct as per the judgment. Statement 3 is incorrect because duty bearers include urban development authorities, municipalities, and even panchayats, not just municipal corporations.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that on June 19, in a significant verdict, the top court held that the right to walk on a demarcated footpath is a fundamental right. August 3 was the date of the earlier direction to the Centre, and August 24 is the date of the current hearing.

Explanation

The SC emphasized that pedestrians should have confidence that the space is meant for them and they can walk freely without threat of moving vehicles. The ruling is about constitutional rights, not merely traffic management or revenue generation.

Explanation

The amendment Bill, passed in July 2026, substitutes Section 3 of the 1971 Act to extend protection to Vande Mataram. The original Act already protected the national anthem and flag. Options A, C, and D are unrelated statutes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is false because the amendment does not prescribe any stanzas or compel singing. Statement 2 is false because the Supreme Court in Bijoe Emmanuel protected silent standing as not violating the Act. Statement 3 is correct as per the substituted Section 3.

Explanation

The amended Section 3 prescribes punishment of up to three years imprisonment, fine, or both, with a mandatory minimum of one year imprisonment for repeat offenders. This matches the provision for the national anthem under the same section.

Explanation

The later stanzas of Vande Mataram explicitly invoke Durga, Lakshmi, and Saraswati, making them devotional in nature. The Bijoe Emmanuel case protected silent dissent during a secular anthem; a fortiori, a citizen objecting to participating in what is essentially a prayer to deities of another faith has even stronger protection under Articles 25 and 26.

Explanation

The article states that UPI was 'Developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) under the regulatory oversight of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).' NPCI is the umbrella organisation for retail payments in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions UPI launched on August 25, 2016. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says volume increased 13,000-fold, while value increased 4,000-fold. Statement 3 is correct: UPI is operational in the listed 11 countries. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that July 2026 recorded 2,366 crore transactions, the highest monthly transaction volume in UPI's decade-long journey. 2,320 crore was recorded in May 2026 (first time crossing 2,300 crore), and 24,162 crore is the annual volume for FY26.

Explanation

The article states that UPI has emerged as a key pillar of India's digital public infrastructure, providing an interoperable, real-time platform that has expanded access to digital financial services, helped bridge the digital divide, and strengthened financial inclusion.

Explanation

The GCC was established in 1981 as a political, economic, and security grouping of six Arab states: Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates. This is a standard static GK fact that is linked to the current news about FTA negotiations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: talks resumed in February 2026. Statement 2 is correct: GCC is India's largest trading partner bloc with $178.56 billion trade. Statement 3 is incorrect: the talks were stalled due to the West Asia crisis, not COVID-19. Hence, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation

The article states India's exports to the GCC stood at about $56.87 billion during 2024-25. Imports were $121.68 billion, bilateral trade was $178.56 billion, and cumulative investments were $31.14 billion. The other options are distractors representing different data points from the same news.

Explanation

The news emphasizes that the GCC is India's largest trading partner bloc with $178.56 billion in trade and that India's imports from GCC are dominated by crude oil, LNG, and petrochemicals. This underscores energy security and trade partnership as the primary significance. FDI (option A) is present but not the primary highlight; tourism and gold are not the main strategic factors mentioned.

Explanation

The Union Budget, which includes capital expenditure allocations, is presented by the Ministry of Finance. The article references the 'Centre's capital expenditure' and 'Union Budget 2026-27', which are under the purview of the Ministry of Finance. Other ministries implement specific projects but do not prepare the overall budget.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the Centre's capex target for 2026-27 is Rs 12.22 lakh crore. Statement 2 is incorrect: Effective capital expenditure adds grants to states and other agencies for creating capital assets, on top of the Centre's own spending. Statement 3 is correct: The NSO estimates private corporate capital expenditure on new assets at around Rs 11.44 lakh crore in 2025-26.

Explanation

The article mentions that the Economic Survey 2025-26 states the share of capital spending in total central government expenditure increased from 12.5% (FY20) to 22.6% (FY25). Option A (12.5%) is the FY20 figure, option C (4%) is effective capex as % of GDP, and option D (2.6%) is effective capex as % of GDP in an earlier period.

Explanation

The article states that PLI schemes had attracted more than Rs 2 lakh crore in investment and supported incremental production and sales of over Rs 18.7 lakh crore by September 2025. This shows the primary objective is to incentivize private investment and boost manufacturing output, not to fund revenue expenditure or reduce deficit directly.

Explanation

International treaties are negotiated by the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA). The Ministry of Jal Shakti handles domestic water resources, but the treaty is a bilateral diplomatic instrument under MEA's purview.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: treaty signed 12 Dec 1996, 30-year term. Statement 2 is incorrect: the treaty does NOT have a minimum flow guarantee clause; it only provides for emergency consultations if flow falls below 50,000 cusecs. Statement 3 is correct: Farakka Barrage built in 1975.

Explanation

The treaty specifically regulates water sharing during the dry season from January 1 to May 31. The other options are incorrect: the period is exactly five months, not three or four.

Explanation

Bihar officials argue that the Farakka Barrage traps silt, raising the riverbed and causing severe floods during monsoons, along with water scarcity in summers. Option A is not a stated goal; option C is the opposite of Bihar's demand; option D is a political alignment but not the primary reason.

Explanation

The Delhi Development Authority, under the Delhi Development Act, 1957, is the statutory body that prepares and notifies the Master Plan for Delhi. The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs oversees DDA, but the plan itself is DDA's mandate. MCD is a civic body for service delivery, not planning. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the Master Plan notified in August 2026 is the FOURTH Master Plan, not the third. The third Master Plan was notified around 2001. Statement 2 is correct: the article explicitly mentions an ambition of roughly 40 lakh additional homes at affordable rates by 2047. Statement 3 is correct: the plan promotes mixed land use, environment-friendly transport, and restoration of water bodies and green spaces to improve ecological health and air quality. Hence option C (Both 2 and 3) is correct.

Explanation

The article states, 'About 25 years ago, when Delhi's third Master Plan came into effect, the city's population was about 14 million.' Since then, about 10 million more people have arrived, taking the current population to about 24 million. Option B is correct.

Explanation

Mixed land use integrates housing, workplaces, and services in the same area, so residents can walk, cycle, or take short public transport trips instead of long commutes by private vehicles. This reduces traffic congestion and emissions. The other options are either incorrect (CNG ban, vehicle bans) or not related to land-use planning (flyovers). Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the World Bank is being restructured under new President Ajay Banga. Ajay Banga took over as World Bank President in June 2023.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because Mishra said India cannot create all the jobs needed at current growth; 10% growth is needed but unrealistic. Statement 2 is correct: he explicitly says rising inequality is due to labour surplus and capital shortage. Statement 3 is correct: he argues AI can revolutionise access to education and overcome teacher quality issues.

Explanation

The article mentions that 'non-government financial credit is now $3 trillion, growing 15 per cent a year'. This is a key data point for India's financial sector size.

Explanation

Mishra states that 'there is an inevitable rise in inequality at this stage. There are ways to address it, if we can democratise access to capital.' This reflects his view that enabling broader access to financial resources is key to reducing inequality.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'the Bandi river flows through Pali'. The Jojari passes through Jodhpur and Luni through Balotra. Hence Bandi is correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: construction banned within 100 metres. Statement 2 is incorrect: hazardous industries prohibited within 500 metres, not 200 metres. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: bench of Justices Vikram Nath and Sandeep Mehta. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The court also prohibited hazardous industries within 500 metres of the river's flow path.' The other distances are distractors; construction ban is 100 metres.

Explanation

The article mentions that contamination has affected around two million lives in the water-starved state. The court's ban aims to protect the seasonal river from further pollution. Other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The General Administration Department (GAD) under Chief Minister Samrat Choudhary issued the notification. GAD handles administrative reforms and policy coordination in the state.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect — the deadline is three months, not six. Statement 3 is correct — the committee will cover recruitment and competitive examinations as one of five categories.

Explanation

The article explicitly states it is a 'five-member expert committee'. Options 3, 7, and 9 are common distractors used in such questions.

Explanation

The article states the objective is to 'strengthen the reliability, integrity, and public trust of examinations conducted by the State' and to stop malpractices like paper leaks and impersonation. While digitization may be part of it, the core goal is systemic integrity.

Explanation

The Union Home Ministry issued the statement and Home Minister Amit Shah announced the committee. The Ministry of Home Affairs handles internal security, state reorganization, and matters related to the Union Territories and hill councils.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the committee is chaired by Pankaj Kumar Singh, former Deputy NSA. Statement 2 is incorrect: DGHC was established in 1988, and GTA in 2011. Statement 3 is correct: Siliguri Corridor is indeed the 'Chicken's Neck' connecting the Northeast to mainland India.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that DGHC was established in 1988. GTA was established in 2011. The year 2017 marks the 100-day shutdown, and 2026 is the year of the committee announcement.

Explanation

The article highlights that Darjeeling is close to the Siliguri Corridor, the sole land link connecting mainland India to its northeastern states. Any political solution must consider this strategic vulnerability, making it a key factor in the decision-making process.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the data comes from the CMS-E 2025, unit-level data, Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. This is a key nodal body to remember for prelims.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: private coaching is the largest item at ₹1,855. Statement 2 is incorrect: only 27% of students receive private coaching, not more than half. Statement 3 is correct: the course fee (₹324) is the smallest meaningful item on the list. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the average annual expenditure is about ₹4,757 per year. ₹2,500 is the median expenditure, ₹1,855 is the average private coaching cost, and ₹324 is the average course fee. This is a direct data recall question.

Explanation

The article argues that the problem is not aim but scale: scholarships reach the intended groups (caste-based) but are too small to appear as the primary source for most children. This highlights the gap between policy design and impact. Option A is false because families still bear significant costs. Option C is not supported. Option D is speculative; the article acknowledges the survey's limitations but stands by the data.

Explanation

The article specifically states that the threatened list included goods that were duty-free under the CUSMA (Canada-United States-Mexico Agreement). CUSMA replaced NAFTA in 2020. Hence, the US tariffs on $28 billion of Canadian goods directly violated the spirit of this agreement.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states the target is two-way trade of $50 billion by 2030. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article mentions that an earlier CEPA attempt stalled in 2017, not that it was successfully concluded. Statement 3 is correct: the terms of reference were signed in New Delhi in March 2026.

Explanation

The article states 'two-way trade of $50 billion by 2030, from a goods base of roughly $8.5 billion'. Option B is the exact figure mentioned. The other options are distractors: $5.5 billion and $12.5 billion are not mentioned, and $15.5 billion is close but incorrect.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'India offers Canada a large, fast-growing market that lies beyond the reach of American tariffs' and lists commodities Canada supplies (uranium, potash, LNG, pension capital). Option A is incorrect as India is not a G7 member. Option C is factually wrong as China's GDP is larger than India's. Option D is an exaggeration not stated in the article.

Explanation

The article states that collaborative research was led by Dr Asis Bala from IASST, an autonomous institute under the Department of Science & Technology, and Dr K.P. Bhabak from IIT Guwahati. IASST is the lead institute mentioned.

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct as per the article: RK-251 uses ROS levels for activation and releases NBDHEX. Statement 3 is false because the drug is still experimental and requires further studies and human clinical trials before use.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'HPV types 16 and 18 are considered to be the most likely to lead to tumour development, causing about 70% of all cervical cancer cases globally.' The other options are distractors; types 6 and 11 cause genital warts but are less common in cancer.

Explanation

The article emphasises that RK-251 is designed to activate only in cancer cells with high ROS, thereby avoiding harm to healthy cells. This contrasts with conventional chemotherapy which affects healthy cells and causes side effects like hair loss and nausea. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article mentions the India Employment Report 2024 was jointly published by the International Labour Organisation (ILO) and the Institute of Human Development. The ILO is a UN agency focused on labour standards and employment issues.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: 103 million NEET youth as per the report. Statement 2 is incorrect: In this article, NEET stands for 'Not in Education, Employment, or Training', not the medical exam. Statement 3 is correct: The article states that the precariat in India is taking to confrontational politics, as seen in the Jantar Mantar agitation and rise of the Cockroach Janta Party.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'There were at least 103 million youth in the country, representing 1 in every 3 young Indians in the age group of 15-30 years, who can be classified as NEET.' The other options are common distractors.

Explanation

The article notes that for most college-going Indians, real wages of their parents have hit a flat-line over the past decade while college costs have more than doubled, and the RBI Financial Stability Report shows middle-class being priced out of housing. This wage stagnation amid rising costs is a key driver of precarity.

Explanation

Vishaka and Ors v. State of Rajasthan (1997) defined sexual harassment at workplace, later codified by POSH Act 2013.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct per the 2013 amendment. Statement 2 is false - SC acquitted the policemen in Mathura. Statement 3 is false - Bombay HC said past sexual history is inadmissible.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the new law came into being with effect from February 3, 2013.

Explanation

The Vishaka Guidelines were formulated to protect women's right to safety at work, as stated in the article. They were later codified into the POSH Act 2013.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the HCES is conducted by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). This is a static GK fact linked to the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: PM CARES Fund was registered as a public charitable trust under the Registration Act, 1908. Statement 2 is incorrect: It is a trust, not a government fund, so it does not receive budgetary support from the Consolidated Fund. Statement 3 is correct: The article's Test Your Knowledge section confirms that donations qualify as CSR expenditure under the Companies Act, 2013.

Explanation

The article specifies total contributions of Rs 479.96 crore for FY2024-25, comprising domestic donations (Rs 479.04 crore) and foreign donations (Rs 92 lakh). Option B is the closing balance, C is the spending, D is only domestic portion.

Explanation

The article explains that MPMS has two tracks: one for large manufacturers (successor to PLI) and a second track for Indian smartphone brands that keep intellectual property, management control, design, and R&D in India. The primary objective is to move beyond being a manufacturing base for global brands and build domestic handset companies.

Explanation

According to the article, the Delhi Cabinet gave a nod to the draft Bill relating to the establishment and incorporation of Private Universities in Delhi. The Bill was to be introduced in the Delhi Assembly but did not come up for discussion. Hence, the approving body is the Delhi Cabinet, not the Assembly or other entities.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article explicitly says 'for the first time, permits residential schools to operate in the city.' Statement 2 is incorrect: the FAR was increased to 180 from 150, not to 150 from 120. Statement 3 is correct: 'schools have to use at least 15% of the FAR for developing infrastructure for extra-curricular activities.' Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that MPD-2047 allocates 340 acres in Narela for an education hub, which is an increase of over 180 acres from the existing 160 acres earlier proposed. Thus the correct area is 340 acres.

Explanation

The article states that the changes are 'aimed at making better use of the city’s limited land while expanding its education infrastructure' and that the Bill will 'enable the development of modern, multi-storey urban campuses suited to a land-constrained metropolis like Delhi.' While NEP compliance and attracting foreign institutions are related, the core objective is land optimization.

Explanation

The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 inserted Articles 15(6) and 16(6) to provide 10% reservation in educational institutions and public employment for EWS. This amendment is directly linked to the judgment as the EWS quota was one of the reasons for denial of government seats to the petitioners.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the court ordered reimbursement with 6% simple interest. Statement 2 is incorrect: the costs awarded were ₹50,000 each to the petitioners, not ₹1,00,000. Statement 3 is incorrect: the inquiry was directed to the Principal Secretary, Medical Education Department, not the Chief Secretary.

Explanation

The article states that the four petitioners scored 527, 526, 524, and 522 out of 720. The highest is 527, likely scored by Prajwal Kasbekar. This data point is crucial for prelims fact-based questions.

Explanation

The court emphasized that 'merit can never be compromised' and criticized the 'non-transparent' and 'pick and choose' method of implementing the reimbursement scheme. The judgment reinforces that while reservations are valid, their implementation must be transparent and respect merit. It does not strike down any reservation but seeks to ensure fairness.

Explanation

The Annapoorani Super Six scheme was announced by Tamil Nadu Chief Minister C Joseph Vijay in the state assembly. It is a state-level welfare scheme targeting women-headed households in Tamil Nadu.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the scheme provides 3 free LPG cylinders/year. Statement 2 is incorrect: beneficiaries will book cylinders through the existing network and the government will reimburse the price via bank accounts (DBT model). Statement 3 is correct: the annual cost is ₹4,000 crore. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

CM Vijay announced that the expanded Vetri Payanam scheme would cost the state approximately ₹6,000 crore annually. The LPG scheme costs ₹4,000 crore (distractor A), and the combined cost is ₹10,000 crore (distractor D).

Explanation

CM Vijay framed the scheme as a 'social investment' to ensure women's freedom of movement, which he said forms the foundation for economic freedom and family advancement. The scheme aims to remove transportation cost barriers for women accessing education, employment, healthcare and essential services.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that CPI data comes from the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). This is a standard static GK fact for exam aspirants.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Morgan Stanley coined 'chipflation' in June 2026. Statement 2 is correct: The article states DRAM prices fell 90% every five years historically. Statement 3 is incorrect: The shortage affects both data center chips and consumer electronics chips (DRAM, etc.). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'JPMorgan Global Research estimating DRAM prices will have risen more than 400% from the start of 2024 to the end of 2026.' The other options are plausible distractors but the exact figure is 400%.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The global artificial intelligence (AI) investment boom has created an acute shortage of the memory chips used in the manufacture of everyday consumer electronics.' Options A, C, and D are not mentioned or are contrary to the article.

Explanation

The article mentions U.S. Treasury Secretary Scott Bessent as the official announcing the sanctions. The Department of Treasury is responsible for implementing and enforcing economic sanctions, including those related to Iran.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the 'economic D-Day' is aimed at economic lifelines, not military capabilities. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: Iran's Supreme National Security Council vowed to shut Gulf oil exports. Statement 3 is correct: Kpler data shows China buys >80% of Iran's shipped oil. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'China, which buys more than 80% of Iran's shipped oil, according to 2025 data from analytics firm Kpler.' The other options are close distractors but not supported by the article.

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz is a critical chokepoint for global oil shipments. Iran's threat to shut down exports would directly disrupt this route, impacting global oil prices and energy security, especially for countries like India and China that rely on Gulf oil.

Explanation

TLMAL is a joint venture between Tata Advanced Systems (a subsidiary of Tata Group) and Lockheed Martin, established in 2010. It focuses on aerospace manufacturing, specifically C-130J empennages.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: TLMAL is the single global source of C-130J empennages. Statement 2 is correct: the JV was established in 2010. Statement 3 is incorrect: TLMAL produces only empennages, not full aircraft. The article mentions the JV is eyeing the MTA opportunity but does not currently manufacture full aircraft.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'The IAF is currently operating 12 C-130J aircraft.' 80 is the number of Medium Transport Aircraft India seeks to acquire, not the current fleet size.

Explanation

The visit underscores the proven partnership and India's role in global supply chain. Lockheed Martin's VP stated the JV reflects an existing integration of Indian industry. The visit also signals support for the MTA competition under Make in India, not a finalization of purchase.

Explanation

The article states the depot is being developed in collaboration with Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL) and Kinet Railway Solutions, a Russia-India joint venture. Hence both are involved.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article calls it the country's first maintenance depot for Vande Bharat Sleeper trains. Statement 2 is incorrect because the depot can maintain three rakes simultaneously, not five. Statement 3 is correct as the depot is set up at Bhagat Ki Kothi in Jodhpur.

Explanation

The article mentions the first phase costs ₹167 crore and the total project cost is estimated at ₹362 crore after completion of the second phase. ₹167 crore is only the first phase cost.

Explanation

The Divisional Railway Manager stated that increase in Vande Bharat Sleeper services is possible only with seamless periodic maintenance infrastructure. The depot's capacity to service three rakes within six hours directly supports scaling up of services.

Explanation

The article states that the United Arab Emirates announced it was suspending all trade with Iran. The UAE has long been one of Iran's largest trading partners.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the rial dropped to 2.02 million to the dollar. Statement 2 is correct: the official rate is 1.5 million. Statement 3 is incorrect: rice prices increased 60%, not 150% (beef increased 150%). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article quotes the IMF forecasting that GDP will contract more than 5%. The other options are close distractors but do not match the exact wording.

Explanation

The article states that Iran's attacks and threats on ships in the Strait of Hormuz have brought traffic to a near halt, damaging the world economy. This control is Iran's key strategic advantage.

Explanation

The article states that Britain's national weather agency, the UK Met Office, issued the forecast. Adam Scaife, head of long-range forecasting at the Met Office, is quoted. NOAA provided Pacific temperature data but did not issue the forecast. WMO and Copernicus are mentioned in the article but are not the forecasting agency for this specific prediction.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because El Nino typically results in drier (not wetter) conditions across southeast Asia and Australia. Statement 2 is correct: the forecast is for over 3°C warming, described by scientists as 'unheard of' and 'unprecedented'. Statement 3 is correct: the El Nino threshold is at least 0.5°C above baseline, and it is a natural cycle.

Explanation

The article states: 'Temperatures in the Pacific region are currently running about 2.6°C above a rolling 30-year average, according to the Climate Brink dashboard based on data from the US National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA).' The forecast is for a peak over 3°C, but the current anomaly is 2.6°C.

Explanation

The article explicitly quotes forecasters expecting 'really severe droughts in places like South America, and the West Pacific'. El Nino typically causes drier conditions in India (not wetter), drives up global temperatures (making 2027 likely the hottest, not cooler), and is expected to bring 'increased rainfall and storminess' to the UK in autumn, not reduced storminess.

Explanation

The Pay Research Unit (PRU) under the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance, maintains data on central government civilian posts. The RTI reply was from this unit.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: 8,23,556 vacancies. Statement 2 is incorrect: the highest vacancies are in Defence Ministry civilian positions (2,41,643), not MHA. Statement 3 is correct: the article explicitly states civilian roles in Defence exclude armed forces and DRDO.

Explanation

The article states: 'the highest number of vacancies are in the Ministry of Defence’s civilian positions, with 2,41,643 lying vacant'. The other options are for Railways (2,40,125), MHA (1,10,885), and Department of Posts (61,546).

Explanation

While unfilled posts save salary costs, the core issue is operational inefficiency – departments cannot function optimally. The article links this to rising unemployment, but the primary implication is on governance efficiency. Option C is a related context, not the direct implication.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA) proposed the cap on airport bundles and submitted it to the PPPAC. The Ministry of Civil Aviation is the nodal ministry for civil aviation policy and airport infrastructure.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because PPPAC gave only in-principle approval, not final approval. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: Adani Group operates 8 airports. Statement 3 is correct: MoCA proposed to allow cross-sectoral infrastructure experience. Hence option D is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the next round of privatisation includes 11 airports, clubbed into five bundles. 6 was the number of airports in the previous round (2019), and 8 is the number currently operated by Adani Group. 13 is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article states that the cap is intended to mitigate risks arising from market concentration and potential over-leveraging, including their possible cascading impact across projects. Revenue, speed, and domestic-only participation are not mentioned as objectives.

Explanation

The article states that the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) issued the advisory to renewable energy implementing agencies. The Ministry of Finance had earlier classified the West Asia situation as a war, but the extension was granted by MNRE.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the advisory mentioned extension for projects commissioned on or after Feb 28, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says the force majeure clause in PPAs 'recognizes war as a force majeure event'. Statement 3 is correct: the Finance Ministry's April memorandum classified the West Asia situation as a war. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'In the April-June 2026 quarter, solar capacity additions stood at 11.8 GW, down 18.1% from 14.4 GW in the previous quarter.' 14.4 GW is the previous quarter figure, 16.3 GW is the distributed solar capacity for FY26, and 28.31 GW is the utility-scale solar capacity for FY26.

Explanation

The article states that supply-chain disruptions were 'beyond developers' control' and that delays could lead to loss of ISTS transmission charge waivers. The extension aims to prevent penalizing developers for circumstances beyond their control, as per the industry representation and the Finance Ministry's classification.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the project is being developed by the Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO). While Indian Railways is the overarching body, RDSO is the specific agency responsible for development. North Western Railway is the administrative jurisdiction, not the developer.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the track is located between Gudha and Thathana Mithri in Rajasthan. Statement 2 is incorrect because the track is dedicated for testing, not commercial operations. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: 'India will be the first country to have comprehensive testing facilities of international standards in accordance with UIC-518/EN-14363.'

Explanation

The article clearly states the project is being developed at a cost of Rs 967.07 crore. The other options are close distractors; Rs 867.07 crore and Rs 1,067.07 crore are plausible but incorrect amounts.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that the test track will be used to test trains, track materials, bridges, TRD equipment, signalling systems, and various geotechnical parameters. It is not for commercial operations or revenue generation; it is a dedicated testing facility.

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) handles India's foreign relations, including diplomatic meetings and bilateral commissions like IRIGC. The article mentions EAM Jaishankar leading the Indian delegation, which is under MEA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article mentions a bilateral trade target of $100 billion by 2030. Statement 2 is incorrect: The trade in FY 2024-25 was $68.7 billion (record high), while $59.863 billion was for FY 2025-26. Statement 3 is correct: Jaishankar co-chaired the 27th IRIGC-TEC with Russian First Deputy PM Manturov.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that bilateral trade touched a record high of $68.7 billion in FY 2024-25. The other options are distractors: $59.863 billion is the figure for FY 2025-26, $100 billion is the target for 2030.

Explanation

Putin mentioned doing everything to address fertiliser supplies for Indian farmers and agriculture. India imports a significant portion of its fertilisers, especially from Russia. Ensuring low-cost fertiliser is critical for food security and farmer welfare. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article mentions a statement by a Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) spokesperson, confirming that the conference is organized under the MHA. The Home Minister inaugurated it, reinforcing the MHA's role in national security strategy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Shah inaugurated the conference. Statement 2 is incorrect because the first day also covered counter-terrorism, MAC, narcotics, proxy warfare, etc. Statement 3 is correct: the article explicitly states the second day will focus on bio-security framework among other topics.

Explanation

The article states 'more than 850 participants from across the country' attended the conference in hybrid format. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Its objective is to find solutions to major national security challenges by drawing on the experience of officers working at the grassroots level in collaboration with domain experts.' The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that the arrests were made under Section 19 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002. The ED is the nodal agency for enforcing PMLA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions 330 victim complaints and 163 FIRs across 20 states/UTs. Statement 2 is correct: the aggregate reported loss is Rs 417.49 crore. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article mentions that funds were routed through banking channels (accounts, BNAT), not solely cash.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that approximately Rs 584.70 crore was deposited through 61,448 bulk note acceptance machine transactions at multiple locations. The other options are close distractors to test attention to detail.

Explanation

The article states that the money was converted into foreign currency using companies holding RBI licences as full-fledged money changers. This is a key detail showing how formal financial channels were misused for money laundering.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the NIA conducted searches at five locations across five states. While the case was originally registered by Gujarat ATS, the searches were carried out by the NIA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: '54 websites of Government of India entities'. Statement 2 is incorrect – Operation Sindoor occurred 'last year' (2025), not 2026. Statement 3 is correct: 'originally registered by the Gujarat ATS'. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that the accused attempted a DDoS attack against '54 websites of Government of India entities'. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article quotes the NIA spokesperson: 'with the intent to compromise national sovereignty, security and unity, and to incite public fear'. This aligns with disrupting government services and inciting fear, not financial theft or ransom.

Explanation

The order was passed by Justice Anand Sharma of the Rajasthan High Court on August 20, 2026. The directions were specifically addressed to the Rajasthan Police and RBI.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court did not ban all freezes; it only barred blanket freezes. Transaction-specific restraint on the disputed amount is allowed. Statement 2 is correct as per the order. Statement 3 is correct as the court directed periodic review by the Investigating Officer and supervisory officer. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The order was passed on August 20, 2026, as mentioned in the article. August 24 is the publication date, January 2 is the date of the Central Government SOP, and March 17 is an unrelated image date.

Explanation

The court balanced the state's duty to combat cyber fraud with the need to protect bona fide account holders from arbitrary restrictions. It allowed transaction-specific freezes but barred blanket freezes, reinforcing property rights and faith in digital transactions.

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is responsible for India's foreign relations, including diplomatic visits, bilateral ties, and representation at international summits like BRICS.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the news. Statement 2 is incorrect because the upcoming summit is the BRICS summit, not G20. Statement 3 is correct as Jaishankar co-chaired talks with Manturov on economic cooperation.

Explanation

The article states that Jaishankar and Lavrov met in Manila on July 22, 2026 on the sidelines of ASEAN-related ministerial meetings. The other options are dates related to this visit or the upcoming summit.

Explanation

The meeting aimed to expand cooperation and deepen economic engagement ahead of Putin's visit for the BRICS summit. It was not about a specific defense deal, protest, or new alliance, but about reinforcing the resilient partnership.

Explanation

The article mentions that Goyal held bilateral talks with his counterpart Akazawa Ryosei, Minister of Economy, Trade and Industry (METI). METI is the Japanese ministry responsible for trade and industry, equivalent to India's Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Goyal led a 200-member delegation. Statement 2 is incorrect: the delegation visited Tokyo, Nagoya, and Osaka. Statement 3 is correct: the visit coincided with the 50th edition of the India-Japan Business Cooperation Committee and the 75th year of diplomatic relations. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'Union Minister for Commerce and Industry Piyush Goyal will lead a strong 200-member delegation to Japan'. The other options are distractors.

Explanation

The article states that dedicated sessions on semiconductors and AI reflect India's growing pull as an investment and innovation destination. The delegation aims to draw investments and forge ties, not reduce dependence or establish a plant in Japan. No FTA for digital goods is mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that ‘The IndiaAI Mission can play an important role’ in creating an adaptive Indian model of AI governance. The other options are prominent government initiatives but are not mentioned in the article in this context.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Omnibus entered into force on July 27, 2026, and extends deadlines. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says ‘This is not a retreat from regulation.’ Statement 3 is correct: it simplifies compliance requirements to allow more preparation time. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: ‘The EU’s AI Omnibus, which entered into force on July 27, 2026.’ Option C (August 24, 2026) is the publication date of the article, not the Omnibus. Options A and D are incorrect years.

Explanation

The article’s first lesson is: ‘good regulation must be capable of learning’ and ‘regulation should be a continuing process.’ Option A is incorrect because the article warns against rigid laws. Option C is wrong as simplification does not mean deregulation. Option D is not stated; India’s strengths are acknowledged.

Explanation

MoSPI is the nodal ministry for all official statistics in India, including IIP, GVA, GDP, and CPI. It replaced the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) and is responsible for data collection, compilation, and dissemination. The Ministry of Finance uses this data for policy formulation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: IIP measures output volumes (quantity) for mining, manufacturing, and electricity. Statement 2 is incorrect: IIP excludes the informal sector, which is a key reason for divergence with GVA. Statement 3 is incorrect: IIP is a volume-based index, not a value-added measure; GVA is the value-added measure.

Explanation

The article states that real GVA manufacturing growth averaged 11% annually during 2022-23 to 2025-26, compared to 6% measured by IIP. The 15% figure refers to the level divergence between the two series in 2025-26, not the growth rate.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that without plausible explanations for the divergence, policymakers cannot confidently assess the state of manufacturing or the impact of initiatives like Make in India and PLI. Option A is incorrect because the informal sector is proxied by formal sector data. Option C is incorrect as both series show positive growth. Option D is too extreme — the article says the issues are 'not dispositive' about the new series' quality.

Explanation

CERT-In, under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, is the nodal agency for cybersecurity incident response in India. The article mentions that CERT-In has adopted AI-driven threat detection since 2025 and issued an advisory in April 2026.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states ChatGPT models are used to mine social media for precise details to craft spear-phishing emails. Statement 2 is incorrect: traditional malware relies on fixed signatures, but polymorphic malware constantly changes code to evade detection. Statement 3 is correct: Anthropic's Claude Mythos Preview found a 27-year-old vulnerability in OpenBSD.

Explanation

The article states that CloudSEK's 2024 report placed India as the second-most cyber-attacked nation after the US. Its 2025 report placed India sixth, so the correct answer for 2024 is 2nd.

Explanation

The article specifies that zero-day vulnerabilities found by AI are especially dangerous for OT and ICS that govern nuclear facilities, energy grids, pharmaceutical manufacturing, and other critical infrastructure. Traditional defences are ineffective, and these systems are increasingly exposed as they integrate with AI.