21 August 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The article states that the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 replaced the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. The other options are other labour laws but not the one specifically replaced according to the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article quotes Chief Justice Kant saying the 1978 judgment will no longer act as the 'sheet anchor'. Statement 2 is correct as Justice Nagarathna cautioned about uncertainty and disruption. Statement 3 is incorrect because the ruling does not overrule the 1978 case; it only says it does not automatically apply to the new code.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions a 'nine-member Constitution Bench'. The other options are common bench sizes but not the correct number in this case.

Explanation

The ruling severs the new code from the 1978 precedent, establishing a clean slate. Option A is opposite, C is incorrect as the definition is now open to fresh interpretation, and D is not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The Supreme Court in the Vanashakti verdict explicitly referred to Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 as the enabling provision under which the central government can frame a fresh statutory mechanism for violation cases. The other options are environmental laws but do not contain the specific power cited in the judgment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the judgment firmly reiterates the mandatory nature of prior EC. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Court held that the 2017 and 2021 mechanisms are no longer available for fresh cases. Statement 3 is correct: the Court acknowledged the government's statutory power under Section 3 of EPA 1986 to frame a new framework.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the judgment was delivered on July 29, 2026. August 21, 2026 is the date of publication of the opinion article, not the judgment date. The other options are incorrect years or dates.

Explanation

The judgment closes the old routes but leaves open the possibility for the central government to frame a fresh statutory notification under Section 3 of EPA 1986. This notification, if issued, would be a one-time opportunity with safeguards like environmental damage assessment and remediation, not a blanket closure or exemption.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) released the draft rules and regulations for the SHANTI Act. DAE is the nodal agency for nuclear energy in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per article: SHANTI Act allows private companies to build, own, operate nuclear plants. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article says it allows private players to manufacture nuclear fuel. Statement 3 is correct as India targets 100 GW nuclear power by 2047. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that DAE released the draft rules and sought comments by September 4. The other dates are distractors: August 21 is the publication date, September 1 and October 4 are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the SHANTI Act opens the civil nuclear sector in India to private companies and joint ventures, allowing them to build, own, operate, decommission plants, and engage in R&D and fuel manufacturing. While other options may be secondary, the core objective is private participation.

Explanation

FDI policy is administered by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Press Note 3 was issued by this ministry, and the March 2026 amendment also falls under its purview.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because Press Note 3 required government approval only for FDI from countries sharing a land border with India, not all foreign countries. Statement 3 is correct as reported up to August 20, 2026. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that a total of 29 FDI investments have been reported under the revised framework up to 20 August 2026. The other options are close distractors but the exact number is 29.

Explanation

The amendment specifically carves out an exception for companies with up to 10% ownership by land-border countries (including China) to invest via the automatic route. This aims to reduce transaction times and improve ease of doing business while maintaining oversight on larger stakes.

Explanation

Article 21 guarantees the right to life and personal liberty. The Supreme Court noted that the Act could lead to detention without trial, which is akin to preventive detention, and any such detention must comply with the procedural safeguards under Article 21.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Court declared the Act 'stillborn' because it fails to define a valid offence. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Court quashed a specific case, not the entire Act. Statement 3 is correct: the Court warned the law is prone to misuse.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Act was enacted in 1986. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

A 'stillborn' law means the statute is invalid and legally dead from the beginning because it does not create a valid legal offence. The Court used this term to indicate the Act's fundamental defect, not that it was repealed or suspended.

Explanation

Entry-level judicial service examinations for Civil Judges (Junior Division) are conducted by the High Courts of the respective states under Article 233 of the Constitution. The Supreme Court judgment modifies the eligibility criteria for these examinations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the SC reduced the practice requirement to one year. Statement 2 is incorrect: the relaxation applies to exams notified between May 25, 2025 and March 31, 2027, not after August 21, 2026. Statement 3 is correct: the judgment mandated one-year traineeship and one-year clerkship. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The Supreme Court modified the earlier three-year requirement to one year for exams notified within the specified transitional period (May 25, 2025 to March 31, 2027). The other options are distractors: 6 months was not mentioned, 2 years is not the reduced period, and 3 years was the original requirement.

Explanation

The Court explicitly stated that while prior experience is necessary, the sudden imposition of a three-year rule created hardship for young lawyers and law graduates. The one-year requirement, combined with post-selection training, balances the need for exposure with fairness. Options A, C, and D are not mentioned in the judgment as primary reasons.

Explanation

The article states that the MoA was signed by Defence Minister Rajnath Singh and Japanese Defence Minister Shinjiro Koizumi in New Delhi on August 20, 2026, providing a framework between their Defence Ministries. The Indian Navy and Japan Maritime Self-Defense Force are operational forces that will implement cooperation under this framework.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the MoA was signed in New Delhi on August 20, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect because Dharma Guardian is the Army exercise, while JAIMEX is the maritime exercise. Statement 3 is correct because the article states Veer Guardian 26 is a bilateral air exercise in which Japanese fighter aircraft are scheduled to visit India for the first time.

Explanation

The article explicitly says the first trilateral naval PASSEX involving India, Japan and Indonesia was conducted in February 2026. August 2026 is when the MoA was signed, and the other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article says access to Indian facilities could provide additional options for supporting Japanese naval deployments in the wider Indian Ocean region, while India could utilise its expanding naval shipbuilding and maintenance infrastructure. There is no mention of a formal military alliance, replacement of exercises, or Indian control over Japanese operations.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the UGC Act, 1956 as the statute under which UGC submits annual reports to Parliament. UGC is a statutory body created by this Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states that the VBSA Bill draws controversy over the lack of a grant-giving function, and grants will be given directly by the Ministry of Education. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says the Regulatory Council's feedback on institutional performance will be the major factor, not the Academic Council. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions the VBSA Bill was published on August 21, 2026 and drew controversy.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Minor Research Project beneficiaries collapsed from 900 in 2019-20 to 18 in 2020-21, and to exactly one teacher nationwide by 2023-24. Options 18 and 42 are from other years or schemes (42 was MRP beneficiaries in 2020-21).

Explanation

The article highlights that grants will be disbursed through mechanisms devised by the Ministry of Education rather than by the regulatory or academic councils, indicating a centralisation of control. The trend of declining state university funding and growing central university grants also points to centralisation. Option A is opposite, option C contradicts the collapse of teacher grants, and option D is incorrect as VBSA is not grant-giving.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the Citizenship Rules, 2003 provide for the preparation of a Population Register and its verification for preparation of the citizens' register. This is a direct static fact from the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says the questionnaire has 40 questions. Statement 2 is incorrect: only 8 of the 14 new questions are part of the NPR schedule, not all 14. Statement 3 is correct: the article defines NPR as a register of usual residents, not a citizenship register. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that 8 of the new/modified questions—nationality, father's and mother's particulars, mobile number, Aadhaar, voter ID, passport, and driving licence—were also included in the NPR schedule. The other options are distractors: 14 is the total new/modified, 40 is total questions, 20 is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article directly quotes that the Congress alleged the questions could facilitate surveillance and serve a 'deeper nefarious purpose'. This is a key concern highlighted in the news. Other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The draft rules were released by the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), which is the nodal body for nuclear energy and regulation in India. The other ministries are not directly involved in nuclear liability framework.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the graded caps. Statement 2 is incorrect because the SHANTI Act removes Section 17(b) of CLNDA, which allowed recourse for latent defects; it only retains recourse for contractual provisions (a) and intentional acts (c). Statement 3 is correct as per Rule 78 composition.

Explanation

A 2,000 MWe reactor falls in the 1,500-3,600 MWe range, for which the cap is ₹1,500 crore. The ₹3,000 crore cap is for reactors above 3,600 MWe, and ₹750 crore for 750-1,500 MWe.

Explanation

The article states that clause (b) exposing suppliers to long-term liability for latent defects was repeatedly flagged by foreign vendors as a deterrent to investing in India's nuclear sector. Removing it (while retaining other recourse clauses) is aimed at encouraging foreign participation.

Explanation

Stare decisis is the legal principle of adhering to precedents set by previous judgments. It is the foundation of the doctrine of judicial precedent, ensuring consistency and stability in law. Judicial review (A) is the power of courts to review laws, judicial activism (C) involves proactive interpretation, and judicial restraint (D) is the opposite of activism.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Court did NOT hold that hanging is conclusively the most humane method; it only found insufficient basis to overturn the precedent. Statement 2 is correct; the Court applied stare decisis. Statement 3 is incorrect; the petitioner argued that hanging, not lethal injection, violates Article 21. Hence, only statement 2 is correct.

Explanation

The PIL challenged Section 354(5) of the CrPC, 1973, which prescribes hanging as the sole method of execution. The corresponding provision in the new Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 is Section 393(5). Options C and D refer to the BNSS provision but are not the CrPC section challenged.

Explanation

The Court dismissed the PIL primarily because the petitioner could not provide unimpeachable scientific or empirical evidence proving that lethal injection or other methods are demonstrably more humane than hanging. The Court also relied on the principle of stare decisis, but the lack of evidence was a key factor in upholding the precedent.

Explanation

The Supreme Court of India, in a bench comprising Justice J B Pardiwala and Justice K Vinod Chandran, delivered the verdict while hearing appeals by two advocates. The court described the Act as 'stillborn' for punishing without creating a distinct offence.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the SC specifically noted that the Act does NOT create a distinct offence — it only defines 'gangster' and prescribes punishment. Statement 2 is correct as the court invoked the principle nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege. Statement 3 is incorrect because the SC did NOT strike down the Act; it left its constitutional validity open.

Explanation

The Act prescribes a minimum fine of ₹5,000 along with imprisonment of at least 2 years, which can extend up to 10 years. The other options are distractors; ₹1,000 is too low, while ₹10,000 and ₹15,000 are higher than the statutory minimum.

Explanation

The Supreme Court held that the 'Gang Chart' is an administrative document under the 2021 Rules, but the Rules cannot create criminal liability that the legislature has not created in the statute. This effectively gives the Executive 'unbridled and unfettered power' to classify someone as a gangster and impose punishment.

Explanation

The article repeatedly refers to 'Civil Judge (Junior Division)' as the entry-level post for which the judicial service examination is conducted. This is part of the basic structure of the subordinate judiciary.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the majority retained the three-year exposure requirement but altered its composition. Statement 2 is correct about the transition period. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article explicitly says the court rejected counting postgraduate education towards the requirement, as academic study cannot substitute for courtroom familiarity.

Explanation

The article states that the transition period runs from May 20, 2025 to March 31, 2027. After this date, candidates must have at least one year of actual practice certified by the High Court.

Explanation

The article highlights that the court recognized that women may face social/familial constraints and persons with disabilities may face difficulties in obtaining meaningful practice opportunities. The modification aims to attract capable candidates while maintaining practical exposure.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The plan was approved by the Delhi Development Authority on August 12.' The DDA is the nodal planning body responsible for Delhi's Master Plan.

Explanation

Statement 1 directly matches the article's claim of nearly 43 lakh new houses, mostly affordable. Statement 2 is a trap: the minimum plot size has been reduced, not increased. Statement 3 is correct because the plan cuts land-use categories from 133 to 45.

Explanation

The article states that the maximum floor area ratio has been increased from 300 to 500 under the revised TOD policy. 300 is the old cap, while 400 and 600 are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article quotes Union Minister Manohar Lal saying the plan will help address the city's growing population and housing demand despite limited land availability. Options A, C and D distort the article: the population is projected to reach 3.2 crore, not targeted for increase.

Explanation

PMAY-G is a flagship rural housing scheme under the Ministry of Rural Development. The Union Minister for Rural Development, Shivraj Singh Chouhan, announced the new housing package for Bihar, confirming the ministry's nodal role.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article confirms Shivraj Singh Chouhan announced the approval. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Bihar Government contributes 40% (not 60%). Statement 3 is correct as Bihar CM Samrat Choudhary stated that 50 lakh houses were sanctioned between 2014 and 2026.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions an allocation of ₹13,427 crore for the 11,18,937 houses approved for Bihar. The other options are close distractors with similar numerical patterns.

Explanation

The article quotes Union Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan stating that the initiative is about providing dignity, security and a better quality of life to poor families. A pucca house is described as a symbol of dignity and confidence, not just a structure of brick and cement.

Explanation

The US Treasury Department, through its Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC), administers and enforces economic sanctions. In this news, Treasury Secretary Scott Bessent announced the new economic pressure campaign against Iran.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Bessent said 'you are either with us or against us'. Statement 2 is incorrect - Iran called it 'economic terrorism' and 'crimes against humanity'. Statement 3 is correct - the article states China is the biggest buyer of Iranian oil.

Explanation

The article states that on Thursday, August 20, 2026, the US warned allies and China. August 19 is when Trump promised the 'most crushing' operation, and August 24 is when Bessent will give more details.

Explanation

Bessent stated the goal is to 'collapse this regime' and that maximum economic pressure means there will likely not be a large-scale military restart. The shift aims to achieve regime change through economic isolation rather than war.

Explanation

The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is responsible for formulating and implementing India's foreign trade policy, including import-export regulations. The notification was issued by DGFT, as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the DGFT notification. Statement 2 is incorrect; the stockholding limit is 15 days' consumption, not 30 days. Statement 3 is correct as the order comes into force from September 1 and remains effective till November 30, 2026.

Explanation

The article states that the all-India average ex-mill price rose to ₹5,400-5,500 per quintal on Tuesday (from ₹3,900 a year earlier). Option A is the price from a year ago, not the current price. Options B and D are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the stockholding limit was imposed 'to control prices' amid rising sugar costs and low opening stocks. Bulk consumers (confectioners, soft drink manufacturers, etc.) are restricted from holding more than 15 days' consumption to prevent hoarding and ensure supply, especially during the high-demand festival season (Aug-Nov).

Explanation

Gaganyaan is India's human spaceflight mission under the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). The other options are foreign space agencies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct based on the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states that the remaining heat is still intense enough to melt the module. Statement 3 is correct as the TPS is essential to prevent melting. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the module will hit the atmosphere at a speed of 7,500-8,000 m/s. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explains that the TPS is needed to prevent the module from melting due to the intense heat generated during re-entry. The other options are not mentioned as functions of the TPS.

Explanation

The Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India (RG&CCI) is the nodal authority under the Ministry of Home Affairs that conducts the decennial census. The article mentions that the RG&CCI notified the 40-question questionnaire on August 14, 2026.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Census 2027 is the first digital census. Statement 2 is incorrect: the required Android version is Android 13 or above, not Android 12. Statement 3 is correct: the enumeration in snow-bound areas (J&K, Ladakh, Uttarakhand, HP) runs from September 1 to 30, 2026.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the mobile devices must have a minimum of 8 GB of RAM and Android 13 or above. This is a direct factual question for Prelims.

Explanation

The article mentions that the second phase is being conducted ahead of the rest of the country in snow-bound areas because winter would make door-to-door enumeration difficult. The early start (September) ensures enumerators can reach remote villages before snowfall.

Explanation

The Supreme Court in Shreya Singhal vs Union of India (2015) struck down Section 66A for violating the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution. The court held the provision was vague and overbroad, and did not serve a legitimate state interest under Article 19(2).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Section 66A was struck down in Shreya Singhal vs Union of India (2015) for being vague and overbroad. Statement 2 is incorrect: the committee recommended amending the BNS, not the IT Act. Statement 3 is correct: the BNS (criminal law) is on the Concurrent List, allowing both Centre and states to legislate. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The Supreme Court struck down Section 66A on March 24, 2015 in the landmark case Shreya Singhal vs Union of India. The other options are common distractors: 2013 and 2014 are before the judgment, and 2016 is after.

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, the BNS amendment route was preferred because it would be vetted at multiple levels (state legislature, Centre, President) and have a stronger footing if challenged in courts, compared to amending the state law. The IT Act was not chosen as it is a central law that cannot be amended at the state level alone.

Explanation

The Election Commission of India (ECI) is the constitutional body responsible for conducting all electoral processes in India, including the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls. The Chief Electoral Officer acts as the state-level representative of the ECI.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the previous SIR was in 2002, a gap of over 24 years. Statement 2 is incorrect: all 25 constituencies are urban/city seats, not rural. Statement 3 is correct: Form 6 is for new inclusion and Form 8 for correction during the claims period.

Explanation

Bhiwandi East recorded the highest rate at 49.11%, nearly two-and-a-half times the state average of 21.16%. The other options are rates for other constituencies: 46.43% for Nalasopara, 46.98% for Colaba, and 46.64% for Khadakwasla.

Explanation

The SIR aims to ensure accurate and up-to-date electoral rolls by conducting door-to-door verification, removing names of deceased/duplicate voters, and enrolling eligible citizens who were missed. This is distinct from increasing turnout, delimitation, or EVM introduction.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the data is from the CMS-E 2025, unit-level data, Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. The other ministries are involved in education or social welfare but not in conducting this specific survey.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the article says household spending explains almost none of the caste gap in coaching; it is largely geography. Statement 2 is correct: the OBC gap disappears after controlling for household spending, but a small state-related gap remains. Statement 3 is correct: the gender gap is about 2 percentage points and stays the same across income quintiles and social groups. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'Some 42% of General-category children attend private schools. For Adivasi children, the figure is 16%.' Option A (42%) is for General-category, option B (26%) is the national average for private coaching for girls, and option D (13%) is the residual gap after controlling for income for Adivasi children.

Explanation

The article concludes that the gender gap is uniform across all income groups, including the richest fifth, so it is not a scarcity issue. Economic growth alone will not close it. The gap is due to consistent household decision-making that favors sons over daughters, requiring changes in attitudes and norms. Option A is incorrect because the gap exists even in wealthy households. Option B is contradicted by the data. Option D relates to geography, which explains the coaching gap for caste but not for gender.

Explanation

Article 233 deals with appointment of district judges, while Article 234 deals with appointment of persons other than district judges to the judicial service of a state. These are the relevant constitutional provisions for judicial service entry as mentioned indirectly in the Supreme Court judgment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the transition window ends on March 31, 2027. Statement 2 is correct: fresh graduates can apply, but must undergo one year academy training and one year clerkship. Statement 3 is incorrect: after April 1, 2027, the requirement is at least one year of actual practice, not two years.

Explanation

The court directed that after academy training, candidates undergo 'another year of law clerkship' — 6 months under a principal district judge / sessions judge / higher judicial service member, and 6 months under a sitting high court judge. This totals one year.

Explanation

The CJI's observation stated that from the first day, a civil judge deals with matters of life, liberty, property and personal rights, making familiarity with court working essential. The transitional scheme provides such experience through training and clerkship, achieving the same objective as the practice requirement.

Explanation

The article states that the provisional data came from the 'petroleum ministry', which is the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. The Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell (PPAC) under this ministry compiles the data.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the net import bill rose 43.4% to $57.8 billion. Statement 2 is incorrect: crude oil import volumes were only marginally higher (81.9 MT vs 81.5 MT). Statement 3 is correct: the article explicitly states that every $1 per barrel increase bumps up the import bill by up to $2 billion annually.

Explanation

The article states that the average landed price for imported crude in April-July was about $106 per barrel, sharply higher than $68 per barrel in the corresponding period of the previous year. The other options are distractors: $68 is last year's price, $100 is a close distractor, and $122 billion was the total crude import bill for FY25.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that high oil prices have ramifications for the trade balance and current account. It also cites Nomura's report stating that every 10% oil price increase widens CAD by 0.4% of GDP. While other options like fiscal deficit or inflation are also affected, the direct and quantified impact is on CAD.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Madhya Pradesh High Court, presided by Justice Anand Singh Bahrawat, passed the order on August 18, 2026. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The court found the punishment order was non-speaking and unreasoned. Statement 2 is incorrect: The court explicitly said that the absence of reasons in the original order cannot be compensated by reasons in the appellate order. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions the petitioner submitted a detailed 17-page reply on August 5, 2025. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'A man approached the court challenging a disciplinary authority’s order dated October 15, 2025, which imposed the punishment of withholding 50 per cent of his pension.' The other options are dates of the court decision (August 18, 2026), the appellate order (June 5, 2026), and the date of the petitioner's reply (August 5, 2025).

Explanation

The court emphasized that disciplinary authorities exercising quasi-judicial powers must pass a speaking and reasoned order, applying their mind to the facts. The entire judgment revolves around the absence of reasons in the punishment order. The other options are not central to the case: proportionality relates to punishment severity, speedy trial is not involved, and res judicata is about finality of judgments.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Supreme Court of India is organising the Samadhan Samaroh initiative to advance participative justice and doorstep delivery of justice. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says the initiative commenced on April 21, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article lists a wide range of disputes including land acquisition, matrimonial, property, commercial, motor accident claims, and cheque-bouncing cases. Statement 3 is correct as the Special Lok Adalat is scheduled for August 21, 22 and 23.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the Supreme Court is organising the ‘Supreme Court Action for Mediated Adjudication and Disputes Harmonization Across Nation’ to advance participative justice. This is the full name behind the acronym ‘Samadhan Samaroh’. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Justice Narasimha identified the shortage of trained mediators as one of the key challenges. He noted that lawyers who take up mediation need to shed their courtroom techniques and relearn mediation techniques. The other options are not mentioned in the article as challenges.

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) handles India's diplomatic relations and provides consular access and assistance to Indian citizens detained overseas. In this case, the MEA and the Indian High Commission in London are monitoring the situation and ensuring Pant's rights.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Smyrtos was intercepted on June 14. Statement 2 is correct: Pant is the only crew member charged, facing up to 10 years. Statement 3 is incorrect: the cargo was destined for Egypt's Port Said, not a Russian port. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the tanker was carrying about 98,000 tonnes of oil, as per details presented in court. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the text.

Explanation

The article highlights that seafarers may not always know their ship is carrying sanctioned oil, leaving them at risk of being 'stuck in the middle' of geopolitical conflicts. This case, being the first to charge an individual captain, raises concerns about personal criminal liability for actions taken under employment orders.

Explanation

The news explicitly mentions 'Chief Commissioner of State Tax Babu A' as the official who announced the AI model. In the GST framework, each state has its own Commissioner of State Tax responsible for SGST administration.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the event was the '6th National Co-ordination Meeting', not the 'GST Council Meeting'. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the Legal-AI Officer was trained on GST laws and 22,000 judgments. Statement 3 is correct with the exact figures given.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'six months of AI-driven return scrutiny led to revenue detection of ₹743.43 crore'. ₹365.75 crore was the figure for the earlier manual process. ₹13,700 refers to the number of cases brought under the AI system, and ₹22,000 refers to the number of judicial judgments used to train the Legal-AI Officer.

Explanation

The article describes the system as covering 'the entire tax administration process, from case selection and return scrutiny to audit, inspection and litigation'. While it assists officers, it does not replace them entirely. The system is state-specific, not a national database, and does not involve changing tax rates.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions the 'UN Security Council's 1267 sanctions committee' report. This committee is responsible for monitoring and enforcing sanctions against individuals and entities associated with Al-Qaeda and the Taliban.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. India has NOT granted formal diplomatic recognition to the Taliban, as evidenced by the Afghan embassy still flying the old Republic's tricolour. Statement 2 is correct: the article states the Taliban-appointed Charge d'affaires attended the PM's Independence Day address. Statement 3 is correct: India provided 50,000 MT of wheat and other aid.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India has delivered '50,000 metric tons of wheat' as part of its humanitarian aid to Afghanistan. The other options are close distractors but incorrect.

Explanation

The article highlights that India's engagement is driven by the need to protect its $2-3 billion investment in Afghanistan and to counter China's growing influence in the region, especially as Beijing eyes natural resources. Option A is not mentioned; options C and D are not the primary objectives.

Explanation

ICAI is a statutory body established under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, enacted by the Parliament of India. It regulates the profession of Chartered Accountancy in India. The Companies Act, 2013 governs corporate affairs, while the Finance Act deals with taxation matters.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the MRA aims to provide a more comprehensive framework for recognition. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 2023 recognition allowed eligible Indian CAs to become ISCA Associate Members, not full practice rights. Statement 3 is correct as ICAI has over 4.67 lakh members and 16 MoUs with overseas bodies.

Explanation

According to the article, ICAI has developed over 150 GPT-based tools as part of its AI-focused initiatives. It has also trained more than 50,000 members in AI and introduced a three-level AICA certification programme. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The MRA specifically focuses on reciprocal recognition between ICAI and ISCA, enhancing Indian CAs' ability to work in Singapore. It does not cover all ASEAN countries, nor does it automatically grant membership in all global bodies. It builds upon, rather than replaces, existing arrangements.

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) handles all diplomatic communications, including the announcement of visits by foreign dignitaries. The article explicitly states that MEA usually announces visits in coordination with the concerned governments.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Rashtrapati Bhavan issued and then retracted the press release. Statement 2 is correct as Dhaka has made extradition of Hasina a precondition. Statement 3 is incorrect because MEA spokesperson said 'I have nothing to say right now'—they did not confirm the visit.

Explanation

The article states: 'The request for Hasina's extradition was first moved by the interim government led by Muhammad Yunus in 2024.' This was shortly after her ouster in August 2024.

Explanation

The article clearly states that Dhaka's precondition for the visit is a 'propitious environment,' referring to Hasina's presence in India and her public statements. The extradition issue is the core hurdle, not date disagreements or other issues.

Explanation

The article states that the 'West Bengal Government has launched the Mukhyamantri Swasthya Bima Yojana' and the health department released the SOP. Hence, the state health department is the nodal agency.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says 'covering pre-existing conditions from day one'. Statement 2 is incorrect: families with income exceeding Rs 8 lakh are NOT eligible. Statement 3 is correct: the scheme covers 'schizophrenia, mood disorders, substance abuse, etc.' Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions '1,240 private and 627 government facilities within West Bengal'. Adding them gives 1,867. Option A (1,240) is only private, B (627) only government, D (2,000) is the number of diseases, not hospitals.

Explanation

The article states the scheme is 'to expand health coverage for underprivileged families' and that it integrates with Swasthya Sathi and PM-JAY, targeting those not in NFSA records. Option A is too broad, C is incorrect (Swasthya Sathi continues for some), D is too narrow as it covers many diseases.

Explanation

The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) is the regulatory body established under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, responsible for protecting consumer rights. In this case, the CCPA imposed the penalty on the e-commerce platform for violating mandatory BIS standards for toys.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the CCPA fined the e-commerce platform Rs 5 lakh. Statement 2 is incorrect because the CCPA rejected the platform's defense of being a mere intermediary, holding it liable for its active role. Statement 3 is correct as the CCPA noted the platform enabled listing, hosting, advertising, and facilitation of transactions, thereby playing an active role.

Explanation

The article states that the QCO for toys came into force on January 1, 2021. The other options are distractors: August 19, 2026 is the date of the CCPA order, and August 21, 2026 is the publication date of the news article.

Explanation

The CCPA held that regulatory obligations under consumer law must be determined by the functional role and consumer impact of the platform, and cannot be avoided by platform design choices or self-characterization. This means platforms cannot hide behind the 'intermediary' defense and must actively ensure compliance with quality standards for all products listed.

Explanation

The petitioners argued that the curriculum for Classes 6 to 8 falls within the domain of NCERT, not CBSE. This is a static fact about the division of responsibilities in school education.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the bench included CJI Surya Kant, Justice Bagchi and Justice Mohana. Statement 2 is incorrect; the implementation date is July 1, 2026, not 2025. Statement 3 is correct as the Court suggested an expert committee. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions that CBSE has provided 23 language options under the new framework. This is a direct data point from the news.

Explanation

The CBSE stated that the change is part of its alignment with NEP 2020 and the National Curriculum Framework for School Education (NCF-SE) 2023. While promoting multilingualism is a secondary goal, the immediate objective cited is policy alignment.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that US drugmakers Merck and Moderna developed the personalized cancer treatment intismeran autogene. Pfizer and BioNTech are known for COVID-19 mRNA vaccines, but this trial involves Merck and Moderna.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the trial included 1,137 patients after surgical removal of their cancers. Statement 2 is incorrect: only two-thirds received intismeran autogene plus pembrolizumab, while the rest received pembrolizumab alone. Statement 3 is correct: the article states this is the first time such a drug showed positive results in a large, late-stage trial.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the trial lasted approximately a year and involved 1,137 patients. The other options are close distractors but incorrect.

Explanation

The article states the drug showed success in 'reducing the recurrence of melanoma tumors' in patients who had their cancers surgically removed. It is a therapeutic vaccine, not a preventive one, and was tested as an adjuvant therapy after surgery.