19 August 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The Ministry of Rural Development is the nodal ministry for MGNREGA and VB-G RAM G, as it oversees rural employment and livelihood programmes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: VB-G RAM G replaced MGNREGA on July 1, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: ₹95,692 crore is only the Union Budget allocation; the total budget including state share is ~₹1.5 lakh crore. Statement 3 is correct: 70 crore person-days was generated in April-July 2026.

Explanation

The article states that even with the final estimate of ~9 crore person-days for July 2026, the decline vis-à-vis July 2025 would be above 40%. The 50% figure was based on premature data.

Explanation

The article highlights that the Ministry was not ready for the transition on April 1, 2026; rules were delayed until end of June; officials refused to open new works; and confusion prevailed, leading to a virtual standstill in employment generation.

Explanation

As per the RBI Act, 1934, the MPC is a statutory committee tasked with setting the repo rate to achieve inflation targeting. The article refers to the MPC's minutes where members discussed the repo rate decision.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the repo rate was kept unchanged at 5.25%. Statement 2 is incorrect: the inflation projection for FY27 was lowered from 5.1% to 5%, not raised to 5.9% (5.9% is the projected peak in Q3 only). Statement 3 is correct: Deputy Governor Poonam Gupta and others noted that a case for a rate hike may emerge.

Explanation

The article states that headline inflation is projected to peak to a level as high as 5.9% in Q3 2026-27. Options A and B are the overall inflation projection and previous forecast, while D is the GDP growth forecast.

Explanation

Governor Malhotra noted that elevated headline inflation is mainly due to food and fuel supply shocks, with limited signs of generalisation – core inflation remains modest. Therefore, the MPC judged that a demand-side monetary response is not yet needed, favouring a wait-and-watch stance.

Explanation

The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 is under the purview of the Ministry of Mines. This ministry oversees the regulation of mining and mineral development in India, including the recent amendment bill.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the amendment restricts states' tax powers. Statement 2 is incorrect because the SC upheld the right of states to impose such taxes. Statement 3 is correct as per the FIMI-EY report mentioned in the article, which states India's effective tax rate is >50% vs. global 35-40%.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the effective tax rate in India is higher than 50% of revenues, while it is 35 to 40% in other countries, according to the FIMI-EY report on States' Best Practices in Mining.

Explanation

The article states the Centre's rationale for the amendment is to provide greater certainty and predictability, facilitate investment flows, and prevent higher levies from feeding into infrastructure costs. While states are concerned about revenue loss, the core objective is investment attraction and price uniformity.

Explanation

The article states that the KCC scheme was introduced in 1998-99 based on the recommendations of the R.V. Gupta Committee. The other committees are associated with banking reforms, capital account convertibility, and monetary policy respectively.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the RBI proposes that NBFCs cannot offer revolving credit. Statement 2 is incorrect: KCC and similar agricultural credit lines are exempt from the restriction. Statement 3 is correct: the microfinance portfolio declined 17% YoY to ₹2.77 lakh crore as per the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that NBFCs had overall outstanding credit of ₹58.61 lakh crore by mid-2026. The other options refer to KCC outstanding (₹10.2 lakh crore), microfinance portfolio (₹2.77 lakh crore), and previous year's microfinance figure (₹3.35 lakh crore).

Explanation

The article notes that unlike agricultural or business revolving credit, many digital credit lines financed consumption rather than income-generating activities, which elevates risks of household indebtedness. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article states that the Supreme Court on August 18, 2026, said it will examine the proportionality of the use of facial recognition system during the students' protest. Hence, the Supreme Court is the correct answer.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Supreme Court indeed said it will examine proportionality. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Delhi Police affidavit said 'FRS does not automatically capture, create, generate, or maintain profiles of every individual present at the protest site'. Statement 3 is correct as they assured the use was legitimate, bona fide, and proportionate. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that the Supreme Court on Tuesday (August 18, 2026) said it will examine the proportionality of FRS. The other options are close distractors, but the correct date is August 18, 2026.

Explanation

The article states that the Supreme Court will examine the 'proportionality' of the use of FRS. Proportionality is a key constitutional principle requiring that any restriction on fundamental rights be necessary and not excessive. Reasonableness and necessity are related but distinct concepts; proportionality is the specific term used in the news.

Explanation

The Supreme Court in Gian Kaur vs State of Punjab (1996) held that Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty) includes the right to live with dignity and consequently the right to die with dignity. This article has been interpreted broadly to encompass various facets of human life.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Deena vs UOI (1983) upheld hanging as constitutional. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Law Commission's 187th report (2003) recommended lethal injection as an alternative, not that hanging was the only method. Statement 3 is correct: Section 393(5) BNSS indeed prescribes hanging by the neck till dead. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The Union government argued that only 8 executions have taken place in India since 2003, and no botched execution has been recorded. This data was used to counter the petitioners' claim that hanging is inherently unreliable.

Explanation

The Supreme Court noted that Parliament had retained the provision for hanging in the BNSS (2023), which it treated as a legislative reaffirmation of the existing framework. This, combined with the binding precedent of Deena vs UOI, was a key reason for dismissing the challenge. The Court did not make a finding on the relative pain of methods.

Explanation

The article mentions Minister of State for Consumer Affairs B L Verma, indicating that the Department of Consumer Affairs functions under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. This ministry oversees the implementation of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 and the consumer commissions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: 5,93,109 cases pending. Statement 2 is incorrect: NCDRC has only 16,915 cases (2.9%), while district commissions have the highest with 4,48,687 (75.7%). Statement 3 is correct as per the breakdown. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically states that the bulk of 4,48,687 cases are pending before district commissions. The other options are total pendency (5,93,109), state commissions (1,27,507), and NCDRC (16,915).

Explanation

Section 32 allows the state government to authorize another district commission to exercise jurisdiction or assign a president/member from another commission to fill the gap temporarily. This ensures that the functioning of district commissions is not disrupted due to vacancies, as explicitly mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) launched UPI in 2006. NPCI is a not-for-profit utility owned by the banks that use it, operating under the supervision of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). This distinction is important – NPCI is not the same as RBI, though both are involved in payment systems.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India shares its architecture with 24 partner countries at no charge, leaving ownership with the states that build it. Statement 2 is correct: the article contrasts India's model with the American approach (private platforms, fees, data) and the Chinese model (hardware, state control). Statement 3 is incorrect: Project Nexus is a multilateral platform that interlinks domestic Fast Payment Systems; it does not give India unilateral power to switch off systems in partner countries.

Explanation

The article states that India received a record ₹135.46 billion in the last financial year. The USD 129 billion figure is for 2024, not the record. Note the currency difference: the record is in rupees (₹), not dollars (USD). This is a common examiner trap – mixing up currencies and years.

Explanation

The article argues that India's model positions it as the Global South's reference model, different from Western and Chinese approaches. By sharing architecture at no charge with full local ownership, India moves from being a user to a norm-setter in digital public infrastructure. This creates leverage that could endure for decades, even though it generates no direct fees or control over partner systems.

Explanation

The article states that the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities is under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. This ministry oversees disability-related policies and the implementation of the RPwD Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: self-enumeration started August 17 for snowbound areas. Statement 2 is incorrect: only 9 categories are included, not 21. Statement 3 is correct: 2011 Census recorded 2.68 crore PwDs. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 2011 Census had included six disability categories. The other options are distractors: 7 was the number under the PwD Act 1995, 9 is the current proposal, and 21 is the RPwD Act 2016 list.

Explanation

Rights groups argue that grouping specific disabilities under broad categories (e.g., blood disorder) hides conditions like thalassemia, autism, etc., making them invisible. This impacts data accuracy, policy design, and resource allocation, as highlighted in the article.

Explanation

The ICC was established by the Rome Statute, which was adopted in 1998 and came into force in 2002. The US signed but never ratified this treaty. The Geneva Conventions relate to war crimes, the UN Charter established the UN, and the Treaty of Westphalia is a historical peace treaty.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Sanctions targeted ICC President Tomoko Akane of Japan. Statement 2 is incorrect: The sanctions were primarily a response to ICC investigations targeting Israel, a US ally, not US officials. Statement 3 is correct: In 2024, the ICC issued an arrest warrant for Israeli PM Netanyahu over the Gaza war.

Explanation

The ICC was established in 2002 when the Rome Statute came into force. 1998 is the year the Rome Statute was adopted, not when the court became operational. The other options are incorrect.

Explanation

The US sanctions were a direct response to the ICC's investigations targeting Israel, a US ally. The US Secretary of State stated the individuals sanctioned engaged in efforts to investigate, arrest, or prosecute officials of states that have not consented to ICC jurisdiction, referencing the Israel probe.

Explanation

The article states that the court took note of gaps in the implementation of the POCSO Act and Juvenile Justice Act cases. Hence both acts are mentioned together.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court directed the Chief Secretary to constitute the committee. Statement 2 is incorrect – the court did not direct the government to file a curative petition; it only recorded the government's intention. Statement 3 is correct as the court suggested avoiding FIRs against minor boys for non-heinous offences. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the judges directed the government to revert back within four months. The other options are distractors commonly used in exams.

Explanation

The court noted that police invariably book only male children despite the POCSO Act being gender and sex neutral. The suggestion to inform parents of both sides aims to apply the law in a gender-neutral manner and avoid undue criminalization of adolescent relationships.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions 'The writer is a civil servant posted in the Ministry of Women and Child Development, Government of India.' Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: 'In STEM foundation, women account for 43 per cent of India's STEM graduates.' Statement 2 is incorrect: women hold 12% of advanced AI roles, not 26% (26% is the share in the tech workforce). Statement 3 is correct: 'Only 57 per cent of women have independent internet access.' Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'In senior AI leadership, women hold just 10 per cent of senior AI leadership positions.' The other options are distractors: 12% is for advanced AI roles, 26% for tech workforce, 43% for STEM graduates.

Explanation

The article directly states: 'AI learns from society; if society is unequal, AI inevitably reflects those inequalities.' This is the core argument for why biased data leads to biased AI outcomes, as illustrated through examples of credit models and maternal health tools.

Explanation

The judgment was delivered by a bench of Justices J J Munir and Tarun Saxena of the Allahabad High Court, as explicitly mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per UP Police Regulations. Statement 2 is incorrect because the last crime was recorded in 2015, not 2020. Statement 3 is correct as the court held that the surveillance violated Articles 19 and 21.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'the last crime recorded in the history sheet dates back to 2015'. The history sheet was opened in 2020, with no crimes during those five years.

Explanation

The court found that there was no material to show professionalism in crime, the last crime was in 2015, and the approval was rubber-stamped. All three factors contributed to the quashing as violations of Articles 19 and 21.

Explanation

The High Court of Karnataka, presided over by Justice Chillakur Sumalatha, delivered the judgment. The Motor Accident Claims Tribunal was the lower court that originally awarded compensation, while the Supreme Court was not involved in this case.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the court explicitly said 'homemaker' is gender-neutral. Statement 2 is incorrect: the court said it is NOT necessary to be illiterate or stay home 24x7. Statement 3 is correct: the claimant had a Master's degree in Biotechnology. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The court awarded an additional compensation of ₹1.96 lakh with 6% interest from the date of appeal. The original tribunal award was ₹4.55 lakh with 8% interest. Option A and D mix up the amounts and interest rates.

Explanation

The ruling recognizes that homemaking has economic value and that anyone, regardless of gender or employment status, can be a homemaker. This expands who can claim compensation for loss of homemaking ability, and does not limit or reduce compensation. Options A, C, and D are directly opposite to the judgment's intent.

Explanation

The article repeatedly refers to the 'POCSO Act', which stands for the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012. This is a key statute for child protection in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the High Court quashed the conviction, not upheld it. Statement 2 is correct – the court noted misuse in matrimonial disputes. Statement 3 is correct – the trial court had imposed 40 years under Section 6 read with Section 5(n). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the trial court sentenced the man to 40 years' rigorous imprisonment and a Rs 1 lakh fine under Section 6 read with Section 5(n) of the POCSO Act (aggravated penetrative sexual assault by a relative). An additional 20 years was awarded under Section 6 read with Section 5(l) for repeated assault.

Explanation

The High Court found inconsistencies in the child's testimony regarding the period of assault, failure to disclose during a stay in Kuwait, and that medical evidence alone could not link the accused. The court concluded that the prosecution evidence was 'riddled with serious doubts' and the benefit of doubt must go to the accused.

Explanation

VERVE-102 uses gene editing to permanently switch off the PCSK9 gene inside liver cells. This gene produces the PCSK9 protein that regulates LDL cholesterol levels. Natural loss-of-function mutations in PCSK9 lead to lifelong low LDL and reduced heart disease risk.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article describes VERVE-102 as in vivo gene editing that permanently alters the PCSK9 gene. Statement 2 is incorrect because the longest follow-up was 18 months, not 12. Statement 3 is incorrect; the therapy is not yet a replacement for statins and is only a potential future option for high-risk patients.

Explanation

The article states that after four weeks, the highest-dose group showed reductions: PCSK9 fell by about 88%, LDL fell by about 62%, and LDL decreased by approximately 78 mg/dL on average. The other options are close distractors: 62% is the relative reduction, 88% is the PCSK9 reduction, and 60% is a rounded figure.

Explanation

VERVE-102 is designed as a 'one-and-done' treatment that permanently reduces the liver's ability to produce PCSK9 after a single intravenous infusion, eliminating the need for daily medication. The article notes that traditional treatments require continued compliance, and the convenience of a one-time therapy is a key potential breakthrough.

Explanation

APEDA, established under the APEDA Act of 1985, regulates and promotes exports of scheduled agricultural products including buffalo meat. FSSAI deals with food safety standards, MPEDA handles marine products, and Spices Board focuses on spices.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: India is the third largest bovine meat exporter, not the largest. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect: India does NOT permit export of beef (cattle meat).

Explanation

The article states that unit value rose to $3,591/tonne in 2025-26. $3,240/tonne was the value in 2014-15, $4,392/tonne is for Q1 FY27, and $5,000/tonne is the approximate price of Brazilian beef.

Explanation

The article explains that meat exports create a market for old, infertile, or male buffaloes that are no longer economical for dairying. The sale proceeds (avg Rs 50,000 per animal) help farmers replace them with high-yielding young stock, improving dairy productivity.

Explanation

ISRO operates under the Department of Space, which is directly under the Prime Minister's Office. The article mentions Union Minister Jitendra Singh, who is the Minister of State for Space, confirming this linkage.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: GISAT-1A is the second attempt after GISAT-1 failed in 2021. Statement 2 is false: the PSLV missions in 2025 and early 2026 were failures, not successes. Statement 3 is false: the government decided not to publish the expert committee report.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that ISRO is set to launch GISAT-1A in September 2026. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article highlights that 'all eyes are on GISAT-1A' because ISRO aims to mend its faulty launch streak after two PSLV failures. The mission is crucial for restoring trust in ISRO's reliability. Other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that PM CARES was created as a public charitable trust in March 2020. It is not a statutory body, government company, or NGO, though it is often mistaken for a government fund.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: corpus grew from ₹6,722 crore to ₹8,453 crore, a 25.8% increase. Statement 2 is incorrect: utilisation dropped from ₹437.9 crore to ₹87.5 lakh. Statement 3 is correct: interest income was ₹475 crore and donations ₹480 crore in 2024-25.

Explanation

The article states that utilisation in 2024-25 was just ₹87.5 lakh, which was 0.01% of the ₹8,453 crore corpus. The other options are plausible distractors, but only 0.01% matches the exact figure quoted.

Explanation

The article explicitly attributes the sharp increase in interest income to the Union government moving the corpus from savings account to fixed deposits in 2023-24. This decision boosted earnings despite falling donations.

Explanation

NALCO (National Aluminium Company Limited) is a Navratna Central Public Sector Enterprise under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Mines, as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the fly ash plant capacity is 50 kg/day. Statement 2 is correct: the iron hydroxide residue is enriched with REE including scandium. Statement 3 is incorrect: the red mud pilot plant recovers ferro-titanium alloy, metallic iron, and REE, not alumina and calcium silicate (those are from fly ash). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the fly ash processing pilot plant has a capacity of 50 kg per day. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article highlights that rare earth elements are critical for defence, electronics, and renewable energy, and recovery from secondary resources improves resource efficiency and critical mineral security. The company also mentions aligning with national priorities on circular economy and critical mineral security. Options A, C, and D are not the primary objectives stated.

Explanation

The article states that the Gujarat High Court is monitoring the compliance via a suo motu Public Interest Litigation (PIL). The Bench of Chief Justice Sunita Agarwal and Justice D N Ray perused the affidavit filed by the Conservator of Forest, Junagadh.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions IDS includes AI-based monitoring and CCTV surveillance. Statement 2 is incorrect because the affidavit describes the AI as 'trackside AI and surveillance technology, not an AI system installed inside locomotives.' Statement 3 is correct as per the article: 'After 19 lions were fatally hit by trains between 2014 and 2024.' Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'The broader compliance report placed before the court records 6,682 lions diverted from railway tracks and 1,148 other animals diverted under the safety regime.' The other options are distractors: 1,104 refers to lion-diversion operations between April-July 2026, 5,909 is the number of caution orders, and 1,148 is the number of other animals diverted.

Explanation

The IDS, which includes AI-based monitoring, CCTV surveillance, and fibre optic sensing cables, is specifically designed to detect lion movement near railway tracks and raise alarms to loco pilots. This is part of a broader effort to prevent railway accidents that killed 19 lions between 2014 and 2024. The system is trackside, not for monitoring drivers or census purposes.

Explanation

According to the article, DUSIB is the nodal agency for slums on Delhi government land, under the Urban Development department. DDA handles slums on Union government land.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: FAR increased to 500 for both. Statement 2 is incorrect: commercial sale share increased from 40% to 60%, not reduced. Statement 3 is correct: cut-off date extended to Jan 1, 2025. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that under MPD-2047, the FAR of both the rehabilitation and commercial component has been increased to 500. Previously, the commercial component had a FAR of 300 under MPD-2021.

Explanation

The article explains that previous tenders received lukewarm response. By allowing developers to sell a larger share of land for profit, the new framework aims to incentivize their participation in PPP projects. This is a policy shift to attract private investment.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that Trump hinted at reviving the Keystone XL Pipeline, which was cancelled by Biden in 2021. The other options are notable pipelines but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Trump paused tariffs for 3 days. Statement 2 is incorrect: The tariffs were on 'certain Canadian goods' (e.g., hockey equipment, alcohol), not all exports. Statement 3 is correct: Trump and Carney spoke twice before the deadline. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the additional tariffs were set to hit about $20 billion worth of Canadian goods. The other options are plausible distractors; $10 billion is too low, $30 and $50 billion are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article mentions that the proposed duties were part of Trump's broader effort to use tariffs to reshape US trade ties. While revenue and retaliation may be secondary, the stated objective is reshaping trade ties. The pipeline is a related element but not the primary objective.

Explanation

The article mentions that queries were sent to the Ministry of Finance and the RBI regarding the proposal, indicating the Ministry of Finance is the nodal ministry for the gold monetisation scheme. The scheme is a financial sector reform, falling under the Finance Ministry's purview.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article explicitly states that jewellers will be the contact point instead of banks. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says 'in addition to jewellery, gold coins and bars may be eligible to be deposited.' Statement 3 is correct: experts estimate idle gold at over 20,000 tonnes. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'the previous scheme launched in 2015 that had mobilised just 38 tonnes of gold by March 2025, as per government data.' 20,000 tonnes is the estimated idle gold held by households, not the mobilised amount. 400 tonnes and 80 tonnes are distractors.

Explanation

The article highlights that monetising idle gold can make India a 'trade account surplus nation' and reduce the need for imports. While the scheme may have secondary benefits, the core objective is to mobilise domestic gold to curb imports and improve the current account. Options A, C, and D are not mentioned as primary objectives in the article.

Explanation

The article states that the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, chaired by the Prime Minister, approved the four railway projects. CCEA is responsible for major economic and infrastructure decisions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the projects are under PM Gati Shakti. Statement 2 is incorrect: the completion target is 2030-31, not 2029-30. Statement 3 is correct: 6,448 villages and 60 lakh population as per the Railway Ministry spokesperson.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the projects will increase track capacity by about 410 km. The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article mentions that the projects are planned under PM Gati Shakti with a focus on enhancing multimodal connectivity and logistical efficiency. While increased capacity may indirectly help passengers, the primary objective is freight and connectivity improvement.

Explanation

The article states that the Andhra Pradesh Legislative Assembly passed the Bill. The Legislative Council does not exist in Andhra Pradesh currently. Parliament and Cabinet are not involved in state-level municipal law amendments.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Bill restores direct election. Statement 2 is incorrect because the term is five years, not four. Statement 3 is correct as the Bill rationalises the Offices of Deputies to one Deputy Mayor and one Vice-Chairperson.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the mode of election was reverted to 'indirect' from August 6, 2005. August 19, 2026 is the date the new Bill was passed. The other options are incorrect dates.

Explanation

The article states the decision is intended to give people democratic authority to directly choose heads of civic bodies and ensure pursuance of master plans and city-wide systems instead of ward-level considerations. Option A is not mentioned. Option C is incorrect as the number of representatives is not increased. Option D is wrong because the relevant amendment is the 74th CAA, not the 73rd.

Explanation

The Ethics and Medical Registration Board (EMRB) is one of the four autonomous boards under the NMC. It is tasked with maintaining the National Medical Register and allotting UID numbers. The other boards handle assessment, undergraduate, and postgraduate education respectively.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: once UID is allotted, no fresh registration or separate licence is needed. Statement 2 is incorrect because the State Medical Council continues to scrutinise applications and grant registration/licence. Statement 3 is correct: temporary registration for foreign nationals is extended from 12 to 24 months.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the proposal retains the five-year validity of a license. If a doctor does not apply for renewal within three months of expiry, the registration will be marked inactive.

Explanation

The core aim of the proposal is to remove interstate mobility barriers for doctors. Once registered and allotted a UID, a doctor can practise in any state or UT without fresh registration or a separate licence, thereby streamlining the licensing process.

Explanation

The railway multi-tracking projects fall under the purview of the Ministry of Railways, which oversees the expansion and maintenance of the Indian Railways network. The other ministries are involved in related sectors but not directly responsible for railway projects.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states multi-tracking will increase the existing network by about 410 km. Statement 2 is incorrect: the highway project is a 4-lane brownfield corridor, not 6-lane. Statement 3 is correct: the Gummidipundi-Gudur section forms part of both the Delhi-Chennai and Howrah-Chennai HDN routes. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the four railway projects together will cost around ₹9,450 crore. The total Cabinet approval including the highway is ₹13,041 crore, and the highway alone is ₹3,591 crore. Option D is a distractor not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the projects aim to decongest the Howrah-Chennai high density route and that the multi-tracking will result in additional freight traffic of 76 MTPA. While passenger benefits may occur, the primary stated objective is decongestion and freight capacity enhancement.

Explanation

The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) is the autonomous organisation under the Ministry of Education that assists and advises central and state governments on school education, including textbook development and curriculum design. SCERT operates at the state level, UGC handles higher education, and AICTE oversees technical education.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the team is led by academic Sandeep Shastri, not Dinesh Prasad Saklani (who is the NCERT Director). Statement 3 is correct; the Class 11 textbook deadline is November 2026. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the Class 12 textbook is to be developed by July next year (2027), while the Class 11 textbook is to be developed by November 2026. Option A (November 2026) is the deadline for Class 11, not Class 12.

Explanation

The NCERT notification explicitly mandates the team to integrate cross-cutting themes such as cultural rootedness, Indian knowledge systems, inclusion, educational technology, and assessment. The other options are not mentioned as the primary objective in the article.

Explanation

The Supreme Court specifically cited the UPSC as an example of a vibrant institution with institutional memory and expertise, capable of conducting foolproof exams year after year. UPSC is a constitutional body under Articles 315-323, while NTA is a statutory autonomous body under the Ministry of Education.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the deadline given was 3 weeks, not 4 weeks. Statement 2 is correct: the Nilekani Committee was formed for end-to-end reforms using AI and blockchain. Statement 3 is correct: the court specifically asked if NTA has a sovereign database to store question papers securely.

Explanation

The Supreme Court directed the secretary to file an affidavit 'within a period of three weeks from today', where 'today' refers to August 19, 2026, as per the article's publication date. The other options are close distractors to test precise recall.

Explanation

The court explicitly stated that NTA must develop institutional memory and expertise to conduct exams year after year without leaks or malpractices, using UPSC as a benchmark. The focus is on systemic reform, not reduction of exams, privatisation, or merger.

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz is the narrow passage between Oman and Iran, carrying about 20% of global crude oil and LNG. It is a key maritime chokepoint for energy trade.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: US claims control but data shows only 6 vessels crossed on Tuesday. Statement 2 is incorrect: Iran has partially lost control, but still poses a threat and ships are using Omani corridor with US protection, not completely unopposed. Statement 3 is correct: Reuters reported Chinese shipping companies avoided Hormuz and Bab el-Mandeb since late July.

Explanation

The article states Kpler recorded only six commodity vessels crossing the strait on Tuesday. The other options are distractors: 9 was the previous day's count, 11 is the 10-day daily average, and 130 is the pre-war daily average.

Explanation

India imports a large share of its crude oil from the Gulf region. Disruption in Hormuz raises global crude prices, increasing India's import bill and contributing to inflation. The article explicitly states 'Why India should care' and mentions dependence on Gulf oil.

Explanation

The Karnataka High Court, presided by Justice Chillakur Sumalatha, delivered this landmark judgment. The court held that a woman with a Master's degree and prior work experience can still be treated as a homemaker for compensation purposes under the Motor Vehicles Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court explicitly rejected the idea that a homemaker must be illiterate or stay at home. Statement 2 is correct as the court stated 'homemaker' is gender-neutral. Statement 3 is incorrect because the court held that medical insurance is a contractual benefit while motor accident compensation is a statutory entitlement, so reimbursement does not reduce liability.

Explanation

The court adopted ₹8,000 per month as the notional income, following the Karnataka State Legal Services Authority's rate for persons who cannot provide substantive proof of occupation and earnings. The claimant's actual past salary of ₹35,000 was not used as she was not employed at the time of the accident.

Explanation

The judgment's core significance is its recognition that homemaking is defined by the services rendered to family, not by educational or professional status. This broadens the scope of compensation under the Motor Vehicles Act to include educated women, working professionals, and even men who contribute to family care.

Explanation

The article states that MPD-2047 was approved by the Delhi Development Authority (DDA) last week. The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs is awaiting final approval and notification.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: TDR is awarded for heritage conservation, Walled City regeneration, and slum rehabilitation. Statement 2 is incorrect: TDR certificates provide development rights only within the National Capital Territory of Delhi, not the entire NCR. Statement 3 is correct: DDA will create a dedicated single-window portal for trading TDRs.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the new MPD provides a Floor Area Ratio (FAR) of 500 for slum rehabilitation, which allows for the building of highrises.

Explanation

The article states that TDR is a market-based mechanism designed to incentivise private property owners and encourage them to participate in heritage preservation and slum rehabilitation efforts. It is not primarily about revenue generation or reducing FAR.

Explanation

The article focuses on the NTA's overhaul. NTA is the autonomous body established to conduct entrance exams like NEET, JEE, and CUET. CBSE conducts school exams, UGC oversees higher education, and AICTE regulates technical education, but none are responsible for these entrance exams.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions air-gapped systems. Statement 2 is incorrect because the four-tier system is operationalized at two levels: one during question paper setting and another for physical security. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the system was tested in the recent CSIR exam and NEET re-exam.

Explanation

The report stated that 'in the year 2024 alone, of the 14 competitive examinations conducted by the NTA, at least five faced major issues.' The other options are distractors; only five is correct as per the article.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the measures are aimed at preventing the 'mafia' from compromising experts and to secure the exam process. While cost reduction or speed could be secondary benefits, the core objective is to tackle the issue of paper leaks and restore confidence in the system.

Explanation

Sergio Gor, US Ambassador and special envoy to South and Central Asia, made the declaration. Kenneth Juster was the US ambassador in 2020 who visited J&K as part of a delegation. Morgan Ortagus was the State Department spokesperson in 2019, and Mark Esper was the Defence Secretary.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: On August 5, 2019, US State Department spokesperson Morgan Ortagus expressed concern and urged respect for rights and dialogue. Statement 2 is correct: On August 20, 2019, US Defence Secretary Mark Esper called the developments an 'internal matter' of India. Statement 3 is incorrect: Kenneth Juster's visit in Jan 2020 was part of a delegation of 15 envoys, not a standalone visit. The first standalone visit was by Sergio Gor in August 2026.

Explanation

The article states that Sergio Gor's visit in August 2026 is the first standalone visit by a serving US Ambassador to the Valley since 2019. Previous visits in 2020 (Kenneth Juster) were part of a multi-envoy delegation, and the 2023 and 2024 visits were by lower-level delegations (G20 meeting and embassy delegation).

Explanation

The article highlights that Gor's declaration underlines Delhi's stand and is seen as a signal to Islamabad and Beijing, especially post-Operation Sindoor. It reinforces the US view that J&K is an internal matter of India, contrary to options A, C, and D which misrepresent the current US stance.

Explanation

The Solid Waste Management Rules are notified under the Environment Protection Act, 1986, which is administered by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). This is a standard static GK fact linked to environmental governance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the court's directive on disconnection of services. Statement 2 is incorrect because the SCMC was constituted by the Supreme Court, not the Ministry. Statement 3 is correct as the court explicitly said trained students would function as household-level supervisors.

Explanation

The Supreme Court specifically directed District Collectors to identify all BWGs 'within six weeks'. This is a precise timeline to remember for prelims. The other options are common distractors used in exams.

Explanation

The court explicitly stated that 'an educated child is the most effective and least coercive instrument for educating a parent or a relative for the implementation of Solid Waste Management.' This highlights a behavioral change approach rather than a punitive one.

Explanation

The NTA is an autonomous body established in 2017 under the Ministry of Education (formerly Ministry of Human Resource Development). It conducts entrance exams like NEET-UG, UGC-NET, and JEE Main.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: 600 experts were removed. Statement 2 is correct: a four-tier checking system is being implemented. Statement 3 is incorrect: the CISF (Central Industrial Security Force), not the CBI, will provide security at the new premises. The CBI investigated the NEET-UG paper leak.

Explanation

The article specifically states that '20 to 25 new officials will be inducted over the next two to three weeks.' The other options are close distractors that do not match the exact figure mentioned in the news.

Explanation

Air-gapped systems are physically and wirelessly isolated from the internet, making remote cyberattacks nearly impossible. This is a security measure to protect confidential question paper data from being leaked or hacked. The other options are not related to the core function of air-gapping.