18 August 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The Delhi High Court passed the interim order on July 24, 2026, in the case of Asian News International (ANI) vs OpenAI. The Supreme Court, Madras High Court, and Bombay High Court were not involved in this specific ruling.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court ruled that training LLMs on copyrighted works falls within fair dealing. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court rejected the US four-factor test and developed a unique fairness test. Statement 3 is correct as per the article, which states that 'lawful access' is not mandated under fair dealing. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the Delhi High Court passed a 'significant interim ruling on July 24' (implied year 2026 from the article publication date). August 18, 2026 is the publication date of the expert article, not the court order. The other options are incorrect years.

Explanation

The court gave a 'balanced and forward-looking judgement' that permits training under fair dealing, but explicitly noted that output-side liability (e.g., reproducing verbatim content) could still lead to infringement. Options A and D are extreme; option C is not required as the ruling does not mandate licensing for training.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'A performance audit by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of the Green India Mission' has found massive underachievement. The CAG is the constitutional authority for auditing government expenditures and programs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions GIM was one of the eight pillars of NAPCC, unveiled in 2008. Statement 2 is incorrect because the CAG audit found GIM achieved only 0.11 million hectares, not 1.4 million. Statement 3 is correct: the campaign was launched in 2024 and the government reports planting 140 crore saplings so far. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'The India State of Forest Report 2023 records a gain of 1,445 square kilometres in green cover but only 156 sq km of it is true forest.' The rest (1,289 sq km) is 'tree cover outside recorded forests.' This distinction is crucial for exam questions.

Explanation

The article highlights that GIM achieved almost nothing (less than 10% target) and has been effectively replaced by 'Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam' tree plantation drive. This raises concerns about genuine forest restoration vs. tree counting. Option A is not mentioned; option C is a partial example; option D is opposite as convergence never materialized.

Explanation

The scheme was announced by Tamil Nadu Health Minister K.G. Arunraj in the state assembly. It is a state-specific initiative, not a central government scheme. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the scheme covers senior citizens aged 70 and above (not 65) and has no income ceiling. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct as the Nalam 360 scheme targets those aged 30+ with 14 basic tests. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions 'a total estimated outlay of ₹2,997 crore' for the 115 announcements. The other options are close distractors. This figure is important for prelims data-based questions.

Explanation

The article states the new Act is intended to 'address contemporary and future health challenges'. The 1939 Act is outdated and cannot effectively regulate modern healthcare issues like digital health, NCDs, or medical tourism. Option B captures this core objective.

Explanation

The treaty was signed on January 28, 2013 in Dhaka and came into effect on October 23, 2013. This is a key static fact for prelims — dates of important bilateral treaties are frequently tested.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per Article 6. Statement 2 is correct as per Article 8. Statement 3 is incorrect — the treaty does NOT define 'political offence'; it only says murder, kidnapping, and manslaughter will NOT be considered political offences, leaving the definition of 'political offence' ambiguous.

Explanation

The UN report states the death toll was around 1,400. The interim government of Bangladesh had accused Hasina of being responsible for at least 800 deaths, but the UN figure is higher. This is a key data point for prelims.

Explanation

Article 6 allows refusal for political offences, and Article 8 allows rejection if the accusations lack 'good faith' or 'interest of justice'. Given the disputed ICT verdict and allegations of bias, India can legally refuse extradition on these grounds. The treaty does cover serious crimes, India has ratified it, and BIMSTEC MLAT does not override the bilateral treaty.

Explanation

The article mentions the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas confirming that state-run fuel networks adhere to stringent testing. Ethanol blending policy falls under this ministry, which oversees oil marketing companies and fuel standards.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the government notified on Feb 17, 2026, effective April 1, 2026. Statement 2 is false: legacy vehicles (pre-2023) are factory-calibrated for E5/E10 and not fully compatible; they face corrosion, phase separation, and mileage loss. Statement 3 is correct: the IIT Kanpur Engine Research Laboratory report asserted no notable damage and efficiency drops under 5%, though it faces skepticism.

Explanation

The article states: 'While official standards specify a maximum ceiling of 3 ppm, industry samples logged readings from 6 to 570 ppm in Rajasthan.' Thus the correct standard is 3 ppm. Other options are close distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explains that ethanol acts as a powerful polar solvent, scouring rust and varnish from steel tanks, which then clogs fuel filters, pump strainers, and injectors. This is the primary mechanism for failures. Other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The study was published in The Lancet Planetary Health, a journal focusing on planetary health and sustainability. The other options are also reputable journals but not the one mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; young adults do not face similar risk until 4°C warming (17% affected). Statement 3 is correct: at 3°C, Delhi and Indo-Gangetic Plain exceed 2,000 hours of intolerable heat per year.

Explanation

The article states that these four countries account for 73% of the world's older population. 63% and 83% are close distractors, while 93% is too high.

Explanation

The article explains that aging diminishes thermoregulation: older people sweat less, blood vessels respond more slowly, and the heart works harder in heat. Options A and B are factually incorrect; option D is not supported by the study.

Explanation

The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, and its amendments are under the purview of the Ministry of Mines, Government of India. This ministry oversees the regulation and development of the mining sector.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Bill seeks to restrict states from imposing levies on mineral rights. Statement 2 is incorrect because Karnataka criticized the Bill's passage without structured consultations. Statement 3 is correct as Karnataka enacted its own Bill after the Supreme Court's nine-judge bench judgment upholding states' rights.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions a landmark nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court that upheld states' rights to impose taxes on minerals. This is a key detail for prelims, as the size of the bench is often tested.

Explanation

Karnataka's core argument is that the Bill encroaches upon the constitutional fiscal domain of states, which was reaffirmed by the Supreme Court. The concern is about federal balance, not just environmental or revenue issues.

Explanation

The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG) oversees the production, blending, and retailing of petroleum products, including ethanol-blended petrol. The article mentions that the MoPNG issued a FAQs note and responded to Parliament on this matter, confirming its nodal role.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India achieved 20% ethanol blending last year (2025-26), five years ahead of the 2030 deadline. Statement 2 is incorrect: only vehicles sold after April 2023 (BS6 Phase 2) are E20-compliant; older vehicles are not. Statement 3 is correct: CEA V Anantha Nageswaran co-authored an article in The Indian Express calling for E10 to be available alongside E20. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'about 43 million tonnes of petrol was consumed in the country in 2025-26'. The other options are distractors; 35 million tonnes and 50 million tonnes are not mentioned, and 28 million tonnes is too low.

Explanation

The article explains that most retail outlets have single or dual underground tanks. Adding E10 alongside E20 would require replacing tanks with dual systems, separate dispensers, and managing duplicate supply chains from refineries to pumps to avoid cross-contamination. This is a massive infrastructure and operational challenge, not a simple production or cost issue.

Explanation

The NTA is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Education, as mentioned in the article where the Education Minister announced the overhaul.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions a 4-tier paper checking system. Statement 2 is incorrect: 600 experts were removed, not onboarded. Statement 3 is correct: the bill was cleared in the Monsoon Session.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'the government had terminated the services of 47 NTA officials as part of a major overhaul and punitive crackdown' in July 2026.

Explanation

The article states the Bill provides for 'tougher penalties, fast-track courts and time-bound trials for paper leak cases', directly addressing the issue of unfair means in examinations.

Explanation

The BNSS 2023, which replaced the CrPC, explicitly provides for in absentia trial under Section 356. The CrPC did not have a specific provision for in absentia trials, though courts could proceed under certain circumstances. Article 21 deals with right to life, and Section 124A is sedition.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the trial is being conducted under the BNSS 2023, not the CrPC. Statement 2 is correct: the proclamation was issued by the trial court in Mumbai. Statement 3 is correct: Ajmal Kasab was hanged in 2012. Hence option D is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions six accused: Hafiz Saeed, Zaki-Ur-Rehman Lakhvi, Sajid Mir, Abu Alqama, Asim alias Abu Qahafa, and Major Abdur Rehman Pasha. Options 4, 5, and 7 are distractors.

Explanation

The BNSS provision for in absentia trial is designed to avoid prolonged delays when accused are absconding. While other options may be secondary benefits, the core legal objective is to ensure timely justice by not allowing the accused's absence to stall the proceedings. The article also states 'to avoid delays'.

Explanation

The 187th Report of the Law Commission (2003) recommended replacing hanging with less painful methods. The other options are different reports on unrelated subjects.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the PIL was filed in 2017. Statement 2 is incorrect: the SC did not direct the Centre, but allowed it to review. Statement 3 is correct: the bench comprised Justices Vikram Nath and Sandeep Mehta. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states the plea was filed in 2017 by senior advocate Rishi Malhotra. The other options are close distractors from the same period.

Explanation

The SC made it clear that it cannot direct the legislature to adopt a specific mode, respecting the separation of powers. While it acknowledged the issue, it left the policy decision to the executive and legislature.

Explanation

The article states that the war widened as the Houthis and Saudi Arabia attacked each other, and the Yemen-based militant group enforced a partial blockade of the Bab el-Mandeb. Hence, the correct answer is the Houthis.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the 60-day window expired on Monday, with the article dated August 18, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect because Iran has effectively blockaded the Strait of Hormuz since late February. Statement 3 is correct as Washington rescinded sanction waivers on Iranian oil and threatened an 'indefinite' naval blockade.

Explanation

The article explicitly says Iran has effectively blockaded the Strait of Hormuz since the Israel-US attack in late February. The other periods relate to later phases of the 60-day framework and accompanying strikes.

Explanation

The article says diplomacy alone will not do the trick and recommends reducing imported-oil dependence, building larger strategic petroleum reserves, and aggressively investing in alternative energy sources. Therefore, relying only on diplomacy is not the recommended approach.

Explanation

The article mentions Chhatarpur, Madhya Pradesh, and the Daudhan dam construction in Bundelkhand region of MP. Ken-Betwa is a project between Ken river (MP) and Betwa river (UP), but the displacement is occurring in MP.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Daudhan dam is across the Ken river. Statement 2 is correct: the article specifies compensation of Rs 12.5 lakh to those 18+ in Feb 2024. Statement 3 is false: villagers are resisting and rejecting the compensation.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Rs 5 lakh per acre of acquired land'. Rs 12.5 lakh is the per-adult compensation. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The villagers in the article ask: 'Who will we call kaka in the new place? How will we speak our language?' This indicates that the core issue is cultural erosion, not just monetary compensation. They demand land, forest, and water for their community.

Explanation

The Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Finance, while the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the regulator for payment systems.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the President gave assent on August 17, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect because the exemption is for Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs), not domestic investors. Statement 3 is correct as both Acts received assent on the same day. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the bills were passed by Parliament on August 10, 2026. The other options are distractors: August 17 is the assent date, June 5 is the ordinance date, and August 18 is the publication date of the news.

Explanation

The Act provides income tax exemption to FPIs on interest income and capital gains from G-Sec investments, replacing the June 5 ordinance. This is aimed at attracting foreign capital inflows and deepening the G-Sec market. While it replaces an ordinance, the core objective is the exemption to boost investment.

Explanation

According to the article, the PM CARES Fund is chaired by the Prime Minister. It is a public charitable trust established in March 2020 with the PM as its chairperson.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – the article states the fund spent ₹87.85 lakh, which is 0.1% of its income. Statement 2 is incorrect – the article explicitly says the fund 'remains outside... audit by the Comptroller and Auditor General'. Statement 3 is correct – the closing balance at the end of 2024-25 was ₹8,452.06 crore. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions that the fund received a total income (including net donations, interest on deposits, and refunds) of ₹1,279.9 crore in 2024-25. Option A is the donation amount only, Option C is the closing balance, and Option D is the amount refunded by implementing agencies. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

Activists like Anjali Bhardwaj of NCPRI have highlighted the lack of transparency – the fund is not under RTI, not audited by CAG, and does not disclose sources of funds or details of refunds. While low spending is also a concern, the core critique is about accountability and secrecy. Hence option C best captures the primary reason.

Explanation

The article states that the Railway Board formed a special committee with the CUMTA convenor as the coordinating officer. CUMTA (Chennai Unified Metropolitan Transport Authority) is the nodal agency for integrated urban transport in Chennai.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The proposal was sent by the Tamil Nadu government to the Chairman of Railway Board on January 27, 2011. Statement 2 is incorrect: The transition period is 2 years, not 90 days (90 days is for initial handover of assets and general operations, excluding core train operations). Statement 3 is correct: The draft MoU was signed between Southern Railway and the Tamil Nadu government in May 2026.

Explanation

The article mentions that the merger involves handover of 21 railway stations, out of which 19 are operational. Two stations (Beach and Fort) have interface with the Chennai division of Indian Railways. The extended portion from Velachery to St. Thomas Mount includes Puzhithivakkam and Adambakkam stations.

Explanation

The article quotes consumer activist T. Sadagopan saying the merger would help in operational efficiency of train services. While it puts an end to direct services to Arakkonam and Gummiddipoondi, the core purpose is to integrate MRTS with the Chennai Metro network for better coordination and commuter experience.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 87-year-old Tamil Nadu Public Health Act, 1939 will be replaced with a modern, comprehensive Act. The other options are unrelated to this specific announcement.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the scheme covers senior citizens aged 70 and above, not 60. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions 'no ceiling on income'. Statement 3 is correct as organ transplants are listed among covered treatments. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the Minister made 115 announcements at a total estimated outlay of ₹2,997 crore. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article states that under Nalam 360, everyone aged 30 and above will receive 14 basic tests annually, free of cost, across 1,257 government health facilities. This is a preventive health initiative, not a treatment or replacement scheme.

Explanation

Section 354(5) of the CrPC specifies that when a person is sentenced to death, the sentence shall be executed by hanging by the neck until death. Section 302 of IPC defines the punishment for murder, but not the method. Article 21 guarantees the right to life but does not prescribe execution methods.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: PM CARES Fund was established in March 2020 as a public charitable trust. Statement 2 is incorrect: PM CARES Fund is NOT audited by CAG as it is a trust, not a government fund. Statement 3 is correct: The audited statements show that only 0.1% of the ₹480 crore donations was spent in 2024-25.

Explanation

The news explicitly states that the PM CARES Fund saw a 592% jump in donations in 2024-25 to nearly ₹480 crore. The other options are close distractors: 492% and 692% are incorrect percentages, while 500% is a round figure often used as a distractor.

Explanation

The Supreme Court dismissed the plea but explicitly stated that its verdict would not preclude the Centre from undertaking a comprehensive review of the existing method through an expert body. This shows a deferential approach to the executive on policy matters. Option A is incorrect as the court did not declare hanging as the most humane. Option D is incorrect as the death penalty itself was not challenged.

Explanation

Article 317(1) of the Constitution provides that the Chairman or a member of a State Public Service Commission shall be removed from office by the President on the ground of misbehaviour only after the Supreme Court, on a reference being made to it by the President, has reported that he ought to be removed. This is the exact provision invoked in the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court held that the Governor acted without the aid and advice of the State Cabinet. Statement 2 is correct as the court set aside the suspension and ordered reinstatement. Statement 3 is correct because the court directed Sahukar not to participate in any decision-making processes related to selection of his daughters. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Justice Suraj Govindaraj passed the order on August 18, 2026. The other dates are close distractors not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The High Court held that the suspension was bad in law because the Governor had acted independently without the aid and advice of the State Cabinet. The court did not rule on the Governor's power per se but on the procedural requirement of Cabinet advice. Options A, C, and D are not the reasons given in the court's ruling.

Explanation

The ISFR 2023 states that Madhya Pradesh has the largest bamboo-bearing area (20,421 km²), followed by Arunachal Pradesh (18,424 km²), Maharashtra (13,572 km²), and Odisha (12,328 km²). This fact is directly from the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states bamboo is a grass in the Poaceae family. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article says China is the largest producer and exporter of bamboo products, not India. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions three types of bamboo rhizomes – sympodial, monopodial, and amphipodial. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India has the world's largest area under bamboo cultivation, covering 13.96 million hectares. 30.1 million hectares is the global total (GFRA 2025), 21.2 million hectares is Asia's share, and 8.05 million hectares is the increase in global bamboo area between 1990 and 2025. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the restructured NBM focuses on holistic development by adopting an area-based strategy, strengthening the entire value chain starting from setting up new nurseries, improving planting material, increasing cultivation area, and expanding marketing of bamboo products. The other options are not mentioned as the primary objective.

Explanation

The FSS Act, 2006, along with its Advertising and Claims Regulations, 2018, is used to regulate food products including pan masala. Maharashtra's prohibition of gutkha/pan masala containing tobacco/nicotine is under Section 30(2)(a) of this Act. COTPA also regulates tobacco but not specifically pan masala. The Consumer Protection Act covers misleading ads generally but the primary enforcement for food products is FSS Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Artemis Accords are 13 principles for peaceful space cooperation. Statement 2 is incorrect: they are not legally binding and do not form a military alliance. Statement 3 is correct: India joined in 2023 as the 27th signatory. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The amicus curiae report submitted by Senior Advocate Vijay Hansaria states that 4,192 cases against sitting and former MPs and MLAs are pending trial across the country. This includes 519 cases pending for more than a decade. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The Bill seeks to restrict states from imposing specified levies on mineral rights and mineral-bearing land, following the Supreme Court's 2024 ruling that upheld states' power to tax mineral rights. The Centre argues that unchecked state levies could raise the cost of key minerals, feeding into inflation and infrastructure costs. The Bill also extinguishes unpaid dues (~₹2 lakh crore) from such levies before it comes into force.

Explanation

The study was conducted by researchers from BIT Mesra, IITM Pune, and Ashoka University. IISc Bangalore is not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states the western Himalaya is warming faster in every season. Statement 2 is correct: spring snow loss could be three times larger under high emissions. Statement 3 is incorrect: the study was published in the Journal of Earth System Science, not Nature Climate Change.

Explanation

The article specifies that under high emissions, winters by 2081-2100 would be 7.18°C warmer in the western Himalaya. 5.82°C is for the eastern sector, 6.41°C is for central spring, and 6.91°C is for western spring.

Explanation

The study emphasizes that less snow on the ground means a darker surface absorbs more heat, melting more snow. This reduces the snow reservoir that feeds rivers like the Indus, Ganges, and Brahmaputra, threatening water security for 1.5 billion people.

Explanation

The article states that the PM CARES Fund was registered as a public charitable trust under the Registration Act, 1908, on March 27, 2020. The Indian Trusts Act applies to private trusts, while the Registration Act covers public trusts in certain states.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the PM is the ex-officio chairman. Statement 2 is correct: ₹87.84 lakh out of ₹87.85 lakh total spending was on the PM CARES for Children Scheme. Statement 3 is incorrect: the closing balance actually increased from ₹7,173.03 crore in 2023-24 to ₹8,452.06 crore in 2024-25. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the total spending in FY 2024-25 fell to a five-year low of ₹87.85 lakh. The other options are distractors: ₹15.59 crore was the spending in 2023-24, and ₹479.96 crore was the total contributions in 2024-25.

Explanation

With contributions of ₹479.96 crore and interest income of ₹475.14 crore, but spending of only ₹87.85 lakh, the article highlights a massive underutilization. This raises questions about whether the fund is effectively fulfilling its emergency relief mandate, as the closing balance has reached an all-time high.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the sixth PIL was notified by the Department of Defence Production (DDP). The DDP is the nodal department under the Ministry of Defence for coordinating defence production and indigenisation efforts.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 405 items with ₹3,070 crore. Statement 2 is false because 16 items are from the Indian Coast Guard, not all from DPSUs. Statement 3 is correct: previous lists had 5,012 items, of which 3,200 have been indigenised.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the sixth PIL comprises 405 items. Option A (389) is the number of DPSU items, option C (5,012) is the total from previous lists, and option D (3,200) is the number already indigenised.

Explanation

The article mentions that the list is a step towards self-reliance in defence manufacturing and reducing import dependence. Options A and B are not the primary objective; option D is unrelated to defence indigenisation.

Explanation

The BRICS joint statement explicitly invoked the CBDR-RC principle, which is enshrined in Article 3 of the UNFCCC. It recognizes that developed countries bear greater historical responsibility for greenhouse gas emissions and have more capacity to act, forming the basis for differentiated climate commitments.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: CBAM started with a reporting-only phase on October 1, 2023. Statement 2 is incorrect: CBAM applies only to specific carbon-intensive goods (steel, iron, fertilisers, aluminium, cement), not all imports. Statement 3 is correct: full implementation began January 1, 2026, with mandatory certificate purchases.

Explanation

According to the article, the NCQG reached at COP30 in Belem, Brazil, targets tripling adaptation finance to developing countries by 2035. This is a critical data point for Prelims, as COP30 was held in Brazil, and the NCQG succeeded the earlier $100 billion per year climate finance goal.

Explanation

BRICS ministers labeled CBAM as 'unilateral, punitive, discriminatory and protectionist.' Developing countries argue it unfairly penalizes their exports since they lack the financial and technological capacity to decarbonize as quickly as developed nations. The mechanism is seen as undermining the CBDR-RC principle and climate adaptation efforts.

Explanation

The article mentions that Delhi Police filed an affidavit in the Supreme Court, which is hearing petitions alleging excessive police force and mass surveillance at the protest site.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the affidavit states the system captures faces of those with prior criminal records. Statement 2 is incorrect because the police denied collecting biometrics or using Aadhaar details; they only used existing police records. Statement 3 is correct as the affidavit mentions 47 history-sheeters were identified.

Explanation

The article states that 2,402 persons were identified through the Crime Kundli database, while 471 were identified through dossier records, totaling 2,873 individuals.

Explanation

The affidavit states the system only captures faces of those with serious criminal records and is used as a first step to identify such persons for field verification and preventive measures to maintain public order.

Explanation

The Delhi Development Authority (DDA) is the nodal agency responsible for preparing the Delhi Master Plan and the Walk Plans. MCD and NDMC are local bodies but not the planning authority. DTC handles public transport.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: 42% of trips are non-motorized. Statement 2 is incorrect: the average walking distance is 1.6 km/day, not 3.6 km (3.6 km is the average cycling distance). Statement 3 is correct: 24 priority areas have been identified. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

Pedestrians account for 35% of total trips. 42% is the share of all non-motorized trips (including cycling and cycle-rickshaws). 24% is public transport share, and 7% is cycle-rickshaw share. So the correct answer is 35%.

Explanation

The Master Plan emphasizes 'Right to Walk' and aims to create safe, shaded, and universally accessible pathways. Pedestrian-only zones are designed to prioritize pedestrians, improve safety, and encourage non-motorized transport. While increased commercial activity may be a secondary benefit, the core objective is promoting walking and sustainability.

Explanation

The 73rd Amendment (1992) deals with Panchayats, and the 74th Amendment (1992) deals with Municipalities. Both mandate reservation of seats for SCs, STs, and women. States may provide reservation for OBCs as per their laws.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: BC reservation in rural local bodies increased from 20% to 34%. Statement 2 is incorrect: urban BC reservation is 33.33%, not 34%. Statement 3 is correct: CM announced direct elections for mayors and municipal chairpersons.

Explanation

The CM explicitly stated that BCs constitute 50.54% of the state's population, justifying the increased reservation. The other options are distractors.

Explanation

The CM emphasized that the decision is about 'correcting injustice' and giving political voice, dignity, and participation to the BC community. While fulfilling an election promise (option C) is true, the primary objective stated is social justice and political empowerment.

Explanation

Article 148 of the Indian Constitution provides for the appointment of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. The CAG audits all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and state governments.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: 512 stations (8.66% of 5,900+ non-suburban stations) were selected. Statement 2 is incorrect: E. coli was found at Coimbatore, Palakkad Junction, Hyderabad, CST Mumbai, Bhiwandi Road, Kalyan, Lonavala and Madhupur - NOT at New Delhi or Howrah. Statement 3 is correct: The audit covered 2019-20 to 2023-24.

Explanation

The CAG found that only 54 out of 512 inspected stations (11%) had all Minimum Essential Amenities. 8.66% is the percentage of total stations selected for audit, not the percentage with amenities.

Explanation

Railway Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw directed corrective measures including a new 'tank to tap' water filtration system at around 20,000 locations including water coolers. Water quality will be monitored at board level with periodic publication of reports.

Explanation

The order was passed by a bench of Chief Justice M S Sonak and Justice Rajesh Shankar of the Jharkhand High Court while hearing a suo motu PIL arising from the 2022 mob attack at Latehar Civil Court.

Explanation

All statements are directly from the article: (1) more than 500 people armed with lathis and sickles gathered; (2) they demanded self-rule with no role for courts or governments; (3) the then Principal and District Sessions Judge was locked and confined inside a room to safeguard his life. Hence all three are correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the incident occurred on October 10, 2022. Options C and D are dates related to the High Court's order (August 17 and 18, 2026), not the attack itself.

Explanation

The court observed that an independent judiciary presupposes an environment where judicial officers can discharge their functions without fear, intimidation, or threats to personal safety. The security measures were directed to uphold judicial independence, which is a basic feature of the Constitution.