15 August 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The Samudra Manthan scheme is aimed at accelerating oil and gas exploration in deepwater and ultra-deepwater areas. The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas is the nodal ministry for all hydrocarbon exploration and production activities in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per PM Modi's speech. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Strait of Hormuz handled ~20 million barrels/day, which is about a quarter (25%) of global seaborne oil trade, not half. Statement 3 is correct: the government opened 99% of sedimentary basins for exploration.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that crude oil imports were valued at about $137 billion in 2024-25. The other options are close distractors: $84 billion is close to the Samudra Manthan outlay (₹84,084 crore), and $160 billion is a plausible round figure but not correct.

Explanation

The scheme is specifically aimed at strengthening energy security by exploring India's largely underexplored offshore reserves. It is not about exports, solar, or price reduction, but about reducing import dependence through domestic hydrocarbon exploration.

Explanation

A 13-judge bench of the Supreme Court held that Parliament cannot alter the basic structure or essential features of the Constitution through amendments under Article 368. This landmark judgment placed limits on the amending power.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Navtej Singh Johar (2018) struck down Section 377 IPC decriminalising consensual same-sex relations. Statement 2 is incorrect: Shayara Bano (2017) struck down instant triple talaq as unconstitutional, not upheld. Statement 3 is correct: Puttaswamy (2017) held the right to privacy is an intrinsic part of Article 21.

Explanation

The Shreya Singhal v Union of India judgment in 2015 declared Section 66A unconstitutional for violating the freedom of speech under Article 19(1)(a). It held that the section was not protected under 'reasonable restriction' under Article 19(2).

Explanation

The Supreme Court ruled that a paper trail is indispensable for free and fair elections and directed the Election Commission to implement the Voter-Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) system with Electronic Voting Machines in a phased rollout. This protects the voter's right to verify their vote.

Explanation

The Ministry of Defence is the nodal ministry for all defence-related matters, including production, procurement, and exports. The Defence Minister, Rajnath Singh, announced the production and export figures in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: exports rose from ₹686 crore to ₹38,424 crore. Statement 2 is also correct: the defence budget increased from ₹2.53 lakh crore to ₹7.85 lakh crore. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article mentions 145 defence exporters supplying to more than 80 countries, not 200 exporters and 100 countries.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the government is confident of achieving the ₹50,000 crore defence export target by 2029. The current export figure (2025-26) is ₹38,424 crore, making ₹50,000 crore the correct target.

Explanation

The article highlights procurement reforms, including doubling field commanders' financial powers and facilitating over ₹1.25 lakh crore through the revenue route, specifically 'to promote indigenisation'. The goal is to streamline and speed up domestic procurement, not to reduce the budget or increase imports.

Explanation

The judgment was delivered by the Karnataka High Court, with Justice M. Nagaprasanna presiding. The court dismissed the petition filed by Earth Recycler Pvt. Ltd and its representatives.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court explicitly stated that the act is not a mere regulatory infraction but a 'calculated assault on public health'. Statement 2 is correct as the court held that Sections 316(2) (cheating) and 318(4) (public mischief) of BNS are attracted. Statement 3 is correct as the court rejected the petitioners' contention that the FSS Act being a special law bars the application of BNS.

Explanation

The court specifically mentioned that Sections 316(2) (cheating) and 318(4) (public mischief) of the BNS are attracted to the case of relabeling and reselling expired food products. The other options are unrelated sections dealing with murder, attempt to murder, or sexual offenses.

Explanation

The court's observation that relabeling expired food is a 'calculated assault on public health' elevates the act from a mere regulatory violation to a criminal offense. This allows the application of the BNS (cheating and public mischief) in addition to the FSS Act, reinforcing that public health concerns can override procedural technicalities and that deceptive food practices carry criminal liability.

Explanation

Civil Defence falls under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs. The article mentions a 'full review and restructuring of the Civil Defence infrastructure', which is a MHA function. The Ministry of Defence handles military aspects, not civil defence.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Saptadhara is a seven-point reform plan. Statement 2 is incorrect: 'dimagi Naxals' refer to ideological Maoists in corridors of power, not armed insurgents. Statement 3 is correct: PM Modi mentioned operationalising 7-8 semiconductor plants in the next year or two as part of the technology and innovation pillar.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'He added that his government had set a target of 100 GW of nuclear energy capacity by 2047 and five new reactors to be operational in the next six to seven years.' Options A, C, and D are distractors with different numbers or timelines.

Explanation

The article notes that the speech acknowledged 'anxieties among the GenZ over opportunities' which spilled over in protests leading to the resignation of the Education Minister. The free online coaching initiative is a direct response to these concerns. Options A, C, and D are not supported by the article.

Explanation

While AI skill training involves technology, the primary nodal ministry for skill training and entrepreneurship in India is the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE).

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the AI training was announced for 'the coming one year', not two years. Statement 2 is correct as the free online coaching is meant to ease the financial burden on students and their families. Statement 3 is correct as the speech outlined a seven-point 'Sapta Dhara' framework for 'Viksit Bharat'.

Explanation

PM Modi explicitly stated, 'In the coming one year, we will work to provide AI skill training to one crore youth', making 1 crore the correct target. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

PM Modi directly stated that 'coaching classes burden the poor and the middle class' and announced free online coaching to save 'thousands of crores of rupees' spent on coaching, thereby reducing the financial strain on families.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has notified the Foreign Assets of Small Taxpayers – Disclosure Scheme Rules, 2026.' CBDT is the apex body for direct taxes under the Ministry of Finance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the first category covers undisclosed foreign income or assets up to Rs 1 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect: the second category (assets up to Rs 5 crore acquired while non-resident) requires only a fee of Rs 1 lakh, not 30% tax and penalty. Statement 3 is correct: immunity from prosecution under the Black Money Act is provided for valid declarations.

Explanation

The article states: 'taxpayers need to pay 30% of fair market value of assets... as tax and 30% as additional income tax in lieu of penalty.' Thus total is 30% + 30% = 60% of the fair market value. The example confirms: Rs 60 lakh asset -> tax Rs 18 lakh (30%) + penalty Rs 18 lakh (30%) = Rs 36 lakh, which is 60% of Rs 60 lakh.

Explanation

The article quotes the Finance Minister: 'the government will introduce a one-time, 6-month foreign asset window to address practical issues of small taxpayers like students, young professionals, tech employees, relocated NRIs and others, for disclosing income or assets below a certain size.' The scheme provides immunity from penalty and prosecution, not punishment.

Explanation

The draft SHANTI rules were released by the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), which is the nodal department for nuclear energy in India. The DAE operates under the Prime Minister's Office and oversees nuclear power generation, research, and regulation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: foreign technology must have design certification from its origin country. Statement 2 is incorrect because the rules provide a single composite licence for building, owning, operating, AND decommissioning. Statement 3 is correct: in-principle approval can be revoked if obtained through misrepresentation or suppression of material facts.

Explanation

India has set a target of achieving 100 GW of nuclear power capacity by 2047. This ambitious goal requires significant private participation and technology imports, which the SHANTI Act and its draft rules aim to facilitate.

Explanation

The 'in-principle approval' is a statement of support that allows applicants to proceed with negotiations with reactor technology vendors and land acquisition before applying for a formal licence. It de-risks early-stage investments but does not constitute a final licence.

Explanation

The DDA is the statutory authority under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs responsible for preparation and implementation of the Master Plan for Delhi, including the Master Plan for Delhi-2047 mentioned in the news. The MCD handles local governance, NDMC manages New Delhi area, and DUSIB focuses on housing for slum dwellers.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states that landowners of at least 70% of contiguous land had to form a consortium. Statement 2 is incorrect: under land pooling, owners give 40% to DDA (not 60%) and retain 60%. Statement 3 is correct: TPS is introduced as a mandatory alternative to the existing voluntary land pooling scheme.

Explanation

The article specifically states: 'the share of newly-launched homes priced below Rs 40 lakh fell from 62% in 2020 to just 11% last year' (referring to 2024). The close distractor 9% is not mentioned; 15% and 21% are incorrect. This data point underscores the collapse of affordable housing supply in Delhi.

Explanation

The article highlights that TPS makes participation mandatory once DDA notifies an area, unlike the earlier voluntary land pooling which suffered from disputes and lack of fixed timelines. This is intended to unlock land for housing (20 lakh homes) and combat unauthorised construction. Options A, C, and D are not stated or contradict the policy details.

Explanation

The States Department was created in July 1947 with Sardar Patel as head and V.P. Menon as secretary to handle the accession and integration of over 500 princely states.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Sir C.P. Aiyar declared independence and had secret UK ties for monazite. Statement 2 is incorrect: the prince dramatically drew a revolver before signing. Statement 3 is correct from the article. Hence option B.

Explanation

The article states that on February 20, 1948, a plebiscite was held and 91% of the voters chose to join India. This is a direct data point from the news.

Explanation

The article notes that Sir C.P. Aiyar changed his mind after surviving an assassination attempt on July 30, 1947. This personal security concern, rather than military or economic pressure, caused the shift.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'the FAO’s benchmark food price index hit an all-time high' in March 2022. FAO is the specialized agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger and improve nutrition and food security.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article says 'Russia and Ukraine together account for over a quarter of the world’s wheat exports'. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article says Greater Odesa port handles 'about 90 per cent' (not 80%) of Ukraine's agricultural produce exports. Statement 3 is correct: The article states that the resultant paralysis 'can spill over into a global food supply crisis similar to that in 2022'. Hence both 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly says 'More than 80 per cent of Russia’s grain exports move through ports on the Sea of Azov and the Black Sea'. The phrasing 'more than 80%' is a key data point, making option B the correct interpretation of the exact wording.

Explanation

The article states: 'The Modi government can be credited with reasonably insulating Indian consumers and farmers from the shortages in transport fuels, LPG, LNG and urea triggered by the West Asia war.' This supply-side management is highlighted as a model for dealing with potential Kerch Strait disruptions.

Explanation

Entry 50 of the State List (List II of the Seventh Schedule) gives states the power to levy taxes on mineral rights, subject to any limitations imposed by Parliament by law relating to mineral development. The recent amendment restricts this power by prohibiting state taxes on mineral-bearing lands and operations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the amendment specifically bars states from imposing tax/cess on mineral operations and lands. Statement 2 is incorrect because the amendment covers only major minerals (e.g., coal, iron ore, lithium) and not minor minerals, which remain under state control. Statement 3 is correct as the Act has a retrospective effect, nullifying prior levies not yet collected.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the CAG report stating that about 41.4% of a state's non-tax revenues came from mineral and petroleum related receipts combined. This data point highlights the fiscal dependence of resource-rich states on mining revenues.

Explanation

The amendment seeks to bring 'stability, certainty, and predictability' into the fiscal regime for minerals. The article states that the key aim is to avert instances of price arbitrage for the same mineral across states (e.g., Tamil Nadu's ₹160/tonne vs Jharkhand's ₹100/tonne on limestone) and ensure equitable pricing. This is critical for industries like cement and coal, preventing cost pass-through to consumers.

Explanation

The article states that three types of SMRs—the 200 MWe BSMR-200, a 55 MWe SMR, and a 5 MWt high-temperature gas-cooled reactor—are being designed and developed by the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) for demonstration.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions 25 operational reactors totalling 8.7 GWe. Statement 2 is incorrect: the SHANTI Act was passed last year (i.e., 2025), not 2026. Statement 3 is correct: the indigenous FBR at Kalpakkam attained criticality in April 2026.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'India has announced the Nuclear Energy Mission to research, design, development, and deployment of SMRs with a total budgetary outlay of Rs 20,000 crore.' The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article highlights that SMRs are viewed as promising for faster deployment, industrial decarbonisation, and providing baseload power that gives grid operators flexibility to balance the intermittent nature of large-scale renewables. Options B, C, and D are factually incorrect as per the article.

Explanation

The article mentions PM Modi outlined 'Sapt Dhara' as a seven-point growth framework covering manufacturing, agriculture, technology, infrastructure, defence, green-blue economy and soft power. Samudra Manthan is an offshore exploration initiative, SHANTI Act relates to nuclear energy, and Viksit Bharat is the overall developed-India goal.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as PM said India is working towards 100 GW nuclear power by 2047. Statement 2 is false because PM said 99% of the coastline, earlier designated as No-Go Area, has been opened as Go-Ahead Area, not 50%. Statement 3 is correct as three semiconductor plants have been started and exports have begun.

Explanation

The article states that about 90% of India's LPG imports came through the Strait of Hormuz before the war began, along with 40% of oil imports and 50% of natural gas imports. The Strait of Hormuz is a strategic maritime chokepoint.

Explanation

PM Modi said importing may be cheaper or faster, but it does not build India's capabilities; global crises have led some countries to weaponise resources like petrol, fertilisers, medicines, chips and even territory. Hence India must strengthen its own capacities and protect its interests. FTA market access is actually an opportunity for MSMEs, not a concern.

Explanation

The article states that SATHEE was launched by the Education Ministry and IIT Kanpur in 2023. It provides free preparation and mentorship for JEE, NEET, CUET and SSC examinations.

Explanation

Statement 1 correctly lists Saptadhara's seven streams as mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is wrong because the article says only three of the 12 semiconductor projects have begun commercial production. Statement 3 is correct: PM Modi said India does not participate in nearly two-thirds of over 300 Olympic events. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article reports that a government survey found 37% of Class 11 and 12 students across India took private coaching, rising to 44.6% in urban areas. The urban and rural expenditure averages were ₹9,950 and ₹4,548 respectively.

Explanation

The article says the PM announced a nationwide talent hunt for children between ages five and 15 to identify young athletes across sporting disciplines. This comes as India looks to bid for the 2036 Olympics, but the talent hunt is not limited to 2036 or stated as a replacement for Khelo India.

Explanation

The contracts were signed by the Ministry of Defence, as confirmed by the article. The Defence Secretary signed the contracts in the presence of other officials, making MoD the nodal ministry for defence procurement.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: TASL is the L-1 vendor. Statement 2 is incorrect: NIBE is the L-2 vendor and will supply 30 systems and 300 munitions, not 54/540. Statement 3 is correct: the range is up to 100 km. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states the total contract value is ₹1,577 crore. ₹1,013.77 crore is the value of TASL's portion, and ₹563.36 crore is NIBE's portion. ₹2,141 crore is a distractor sum.

Explanation

The article mentions that the Army's precision-strike capability beyond 40-50 km largely depends on BrahMos missiles, and loiter munitions fill this gap with a more flexible and cost-effective option. While it may lead to additional regiments, the primary benefit is enhanced precision-strike capability.

Explanation

The DDA sent the Master Plan to the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) for clearance. MoHUA is the nodal ministry for urban development and housing policies at the national level.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – DDA proposed higher FAR for slum revamp. Statement 2 is incorrect – the distribution is 60:40, not 70:30. Statement 3 is correct – population target is 3.2 crore by 2047. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article states Delhi's population is currently about 2.4 crore and is projected to rise to 3.2 crore by 2047. Option A is current population, B and D are distractors.

Explanation

The mixed-use provisions aim to allow commercial activity on residential plots to create walkable neighbourhoods and boost local businesses, as per the plan. Option A is an indirect outcome, C and D are not supported by the article.

Explanation

As per the article, the Ministry of Defence is actively evaluating the role of Defence Attachés and has mandated language proficiency evaluation. Defence Attachés are military officers, and their appointments come under the Ministry of Defence, though they operate under the diplomatic framework of the Ministry of External Affairs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the senior MoD official's statement. Statement 2 is correct as exports rose from ₹686 crore to ₹38,424 crore. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article states that over 120 Defence Attachés from over 70 countries are currently posted in India, not that India has over 120 DAs posted abroad.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'the Government has set a target of ₹50,000 crore in defence exports by 2029.' Option A (₹38,424 crore) is the actual export figure for 2025-26, not the target. Options C and D are plausible distractors but are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the move is part of 'a renewed push to leverage military missions abroad to promote defence cooperation, exports and indigenous defence products.' Language proficiency helps DAs engage more effectively with host countries, directly supporting the ₹50,000 crore export target. It is not about reducing numbers, UN compliance, or replacing civilian diplomats.

Explanation

The Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India (RG&CCI) is the statutory authority under the Ministry of Home Affairs that conducts the Census. The article explicitly states that RG&CCI notified the set of 40 questions for Population Enumeration.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Census has two phases – HLO and Population Enumeration. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article mentions that HLO is yet to be concluded in West Bengal, Assam, Manipur, Tripura, and Tamil Nadu. Statement 3 is correct: RG&CCI notified 40 questions for Population Enumeration. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the 40 questions include 13 new data fields that were not part of the Census 2011 questionnaire. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article describes HLO as the first phase that collects data on housing conditions. Population Enumeration (second phase) records demographic details like caste. Updating NPR is a separate exercise. Thus, the primary purpose of HLO is housing-related data collection.

Explanation

The article clearly states that SCTIMST is the institute behind the Chitra Core and Chitra TiN stents. SCTIMST is an autonomous institute under the Department of Science and Technology, Government of India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Chitra Core is a polymer-coated Everolimus drug-eluting stent. Statement 2 is incorrect: the stent has 30-40% less metal, not 50%. Statement 3 is correct: the technology was transferred to Invasive Technologies Pvt Ltd under a formal MoU in 2024.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that the Chitra Core stent has 30-40% less metal content than normal stents in the market. This is a key data point for prelims.

Explanation

The article states that the TiN coating prevents direct metal contact with blood and tissue, minimizing the risk of restenosis and late-stage thrombosis. This addresses the problem of nickel ion release from normal metallic stents.

Explanation

The article states that the analysis of cash with the public is based on data from the Reserve Bank of India. NPCI provides UPI transaction data, not cash in circulation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: cash growth fell from 17% (2020-21) to 4% (2023-24) and then rose, so it did not continuously increase. Statement 3 is correct: Pronab Sen said this could show undercounting of inflation.

Explanation

The article states cash with the public was 'nearly 13% higher' in 2026-27 compared to the same period of the previous year. 17% was the growth in 2020-21, 12% in 2025-26, and 6.5% in 2024-25.

Explanation

The article mentions the opposition's argument that merchants who pay MDR will pass the cost to customers, making digital payments relatively less attractive and potentially pushing people back to cash. This was also a concern echoed by some experts.

Explanation

The article specifically states that the Telangana government, under CM Revanth Reddy, is developing Bharat Future City as the country's first net-zero smart city.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct per the CM's announcement. Statement 2 is incorrect because the per capita income is 91% higher than the national average, not lower. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions MoUs worth ₹5.75 lakh crore signed at the Telangana Rising Global Summit-2025.

Explanation

The article states that investments worth ₹1.29 lakh crore were secured through TG-iPASS, creating potential for more than 78,000 jobs. ₹1.70 lakh crore is the agriculture spend, and ₹5.75 lakh crore is from MoUs at the summit.

Explanation

The CM explicitly said the government is developing Bharat Future City as the country's first net-zero smart city and a global hub for AI, data centres, advanced manufacturing, research, innovation and emerging technologies. The other options are separate initiatives mentioned in the same speech.

Explanation

As per the news, Cabinet Secretary T V Somanathan will chair the coordination committee for Reform Utsav. The Cabinet Secretary is the senior-most civil servant and coordinates across ministries. Other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states launch on Oct 2. Statement 2 is incorrect: 'Vimarsh' is the second level for deliberation; the first level 'Jan Manthan' is for receiving suggestions. Statement 3 is correct: capturing citizen voice and converting to reforms is the end goal. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the launch is expected on October 2 (Gandhi Jayanti). August 15 is Independence Day, Jan 26 is Republic Day, and Dec 31 is unrelated. This is a direct factual recall.

Explanation

The article states the two key objectives are to institutionalise reforms through citizen participation and build a responsive reform pipeline. Option A is a trigger event, not the objective. Option C is incorrect as the minister resigned, not replaced via this campaign. Option D contradicts the article which mentions AI usage for sorting suggestions.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the report was authored by the Office of Trade and Manufacturing Policy (OTMP), an advisory body within the White House. It notes that the OTMP is not established through a statute but its advisory role suggests continued surveillance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India is in Tier 1 and risk is 'embedded' in legitimate trade. Statement 2 is incorrect: the estimated transhipped value was $67 billion, not $28 billion; $28 billion was lost tariff revenue. Statement 3 is correct: the report calls the Pune-Gujarat-Chennai corridor 'ugly sisters'. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article quotes the Department of Commerce's Office of Trade and Economic Analysis (OTEA) estimate: 'approximately $67 billion in U.S.-bound goods were transhipped from China through the top hubs—Mexico, India, and Vietnam—in 2025'. The $28 billion figure refers to lost tariff revenue, not transhipped value.

Explanation

Trade lawyers quoted in the article state that India's Tier 1 categorisation 'suggests that imports of certain transhipment-prone goods from India may already be facing greater scrutiny' and that the US may seek commitments in the upcoming trade deal. Immediate tariffs are not promised, but increased scrutiny is likely.

Explanation

Antrix Corporation is the commercial arm of ISRO, responsible for marketing space products and services. The other options are research centers. Antrix is explicitly mentioned in the article as ISRO's commercial arm.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Ninth Circuit upheld the award. Statement 2 is incorrect: the US Supreme Court ruled that the appeals court erred in requiring business presence (minimum contacts) when an immunity exception applies. Statement 3 is correct: the Delhi High Court set aside the award, and the Supreme Court of India affirmed this on October 6, 2023, rejecting Devas' pleas.

Explanation

The ICC awarded $565.2 million to Devas Multimedia on September 14, 2015. $101 million was awarded to Deutsche Telekom by the PCA, and $111 million to Mauritius investors by UNCITRAL. $1.2 billion is the approximate current value with interest.

Explanation

The Ninth Circuit applied the FSIA arbitration exception, which withdraws sovereign immunity when a foreign state has agreed to arbitration. The court held that because Antrix agreed to ICC arbitration and the award is governed by the New York Convention, US courts have jurisdiction. The minimum contacts argument was rejected by the US Supreme Court, and forum non conveniens was not addressed.

Explanation

The article mentions that Chief Minister Suvendu Adhikari unveiled a new creche initiative called 'PALNA' to provide safe day-care facilities, nutrition, and early cognitive development for children of working women.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the annual scholarship is doubled from Rs 1,000 to Rs 2,000 from the next academic session. Statement 2 is incorrect; the one-time grant of Rs 25,000 has been kept intact, not increased. Statement 3 is correct as helpline number 181 was made operational on Friday.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that nearly 9.48 lakh of the total 10.77 lakh eligible schoolgirls received Rs 1,000 each. The other options are distractors: 10.77 lakh is the total eligible, 1.29 lakh is the number of girls who received Rs 25,000, and Rs 418 crore is the total disbursement amount.

Explanation

The article states that PALNA is designed to provide safe day-care facilities, nutrition, and early cognitive development for children of working women. This aims to help working mothers and boost female workforce participation, as explicitly mentioned in the news.

Explanation

As per the article, 'President Droupadi Murmu on Friday approved 78 gallantry awards'. The President is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces and formally approves all gallantry awards based on recommendations from the Ministry of Defence.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions 78 awards including 9 Kirti Chakras. Statement 2 is incorrect because only 1 of the 19 Shaurya Chakras was posthumous. Statement 3 is correct: 'five Bars to the Sena Medals (Gallantry)' were awarded. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states '78 gallantry awards, including 13 awarded posthumously'. This includes 7 posthumous Kirti Chakras and 1 posthumous Shaurya Chakra among others. Options 9 and 19 are distractors from specific award counts.

Explanation

The article mentions Lt Col Manoj Francis established an intelligence network to dismantle an insurgent group in Manipur. Option A refers to Major Rathee's operation in Kishtwar, C refers to Lt Cdr Shivam Kumar, D refers to Major Aditya Pratap Singh's patrol. This question tests direct reading comprehension.

Explanation

The Green India Mission was launched by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in 2014. It is one of the eight missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: GIM was launched in 2014 as part of NAPCC. Statement 2 is incorrect: The target for improving forest cover quality was 1.4 million hectares, not 5 million hectares (the 5 million hectares figure is the overall mission target for forest and tree cover increase). Statement 3 is correct: The audit covered 16 states and UTs from 2015-16 to 2024-25.

Explanation

The CAG report states that against a target of 1.4 million hectares for forest cover increase, only 0.03409 million hectares was achieved, resulting in a 97.57% shortfall. The 91.87% figure is the shortfall for forest cover quality improvement.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the GIM was launched with the aim of protecting, restoring, and enhancing the country's forest cover. Its objectives include improving ecosystem services such as biodiversity, water, and carbon sequestration, as well as increasing forest-based livelihood. While it supports India's NDC targets, the primary objective is forest cover and ecosystem improvement.

Explanation

The article identifies NITI Aayog as the body that has come out with reform recommendations for professional services. ICAI, NFRA, and NCAHP are regulatory/professional bodies discussed in the report, not the proposer of the reform package.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states services accounted for 55% of GDP in FY24. Statement 2 is incorrect — NExT is recommended for healthcare and allied healthcare, not engineering. Statement 3 is correct because the report explicitly clarifies that recommendations are reference points for further discussion, not prescriptive measures.

Explanation

The NITI Aayog report mentions that India was the seventh-largest exporter of services globally, accounting for 4.3% of global services exports in that year. The other options are plausible distractors but not supported by the report.

Explanation

The report focuses on regulatory gaps such as licensing, business structures, interstate mobility, and mutual recognition, and links them to higher-value services exports. It does not propose restricting foreign professionals, bringing services under government control, or reducing exports.

Explanation

The article clearly states that SEBI proposed the relaxations in KYC norms for individual Persons Resident Outside India (PROI), which includes NRIs, OCIs, and foreign nationals. RBI is responsible for banking regulation, not securities markets.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: SEBI proposed that PROI clients from FATF-compliant countries can complete KYC digitally without physical presence. Statement 2 is incorrect: SEBI proposed making email ID collection mandatory, not optional. Statement 3 is correct: KYC record portability across intermediaries is a key proposal.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that 'individual PROI clients from countries compliant with the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) would no longer need to be physically present in India to complete KYC.' This is a specific condition, not related to UNSC membership or investment treaties.

Explanation

SEBI stated that KYC record portability would 'reduce the need to repeatedly submit the same information to different entities.' This directly targets easing the onboarding process, not increasing fees or imposing restrictions.