10 August 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The article clearly states that the signatories are Saudi Arabia, Türkiye, and Pakistan. Iran is not a signatory; it is mentioned as a potential threat and a country with which Pakistan shares a border.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the signing date as August 7, 2026. Statement 2 is correct because the joint statement echoes Article 5 of NATO. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article says that speculators claim it is a 'Muslim NATO', but the joint statement itself does not make that claim.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'the Saudi $83 billion defence budget' as one of the assets of the signatories. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states: 'Riyadh finds ties with India uncluttered by extraneous considerations. India is a geo-strategically safe bet for the turbulent Gulf.' It also mentions India is a major oil importer and trading partner, so the pact is unlikely to sway Saudi support to Pakistan's adventurism.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Ladakh, one of the country's two youngest Union Territories, is set to lead the way in demonstrating how caste will be enumerated for the first time in Independent India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the second phase starts August 17 in Ladakh. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article says 'open-ended column for caste enumeration', not closed-ended. Statement 3 is correct: the census will ask questions on 40 parameters. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article states: 'the second phase of the Census—the Population Enumeration (PE)—... is likely to ask questions on 40 parameters'. Therefore, the correct answer is 40.

Explanation

An open-ended column means no predefined categories; respondents can write their caste as they identify. This allows capture of sub-castes and jatis, unlike closed-ended questions that limit options. The article mentions 'open-ended column for caste enumeration'.

Explanation

Under Article 341, the President specifies the list of Scheduled Castes, and under Article 342, the list of Scheduled Tribes. Only Parliament can modify these lists. Article 340 deals with the appointment of a Backward Classes Commission.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the Centre's affidavit. Statement 2 is false: the Indra Sawhney judgment confined the creamy layer to OBCs. Statement 3 is correct: the 2024 judgment allowed sub-classification within SC/STs. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The Indra Sawhney case (1992) is the landmark judgment that upheld OBC reservation and introduced the creamy layer concept. The other options: 2005 is E V Chinnaiah, 2008 is Ashoka Kumar Thakur, and 1990 is a distractor.

Explanation

The Centre argued that SC/STs face historical discrimination based on untouchability, not economic conditions, and that any change to reservation policy requires a legislative mandate from Parliament. The petition was also challenged on grounds of maintainability under Article 32.

Explanation

The article mentions the 'RBI's Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)' which left the repo rate unchanged. The MPC is the statutory committee under the RBI Act that decides the policy repo rate to achieve the inflation target.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states RBI's legal target is 4% in a band of 2-6% for headline CPI. Statement 2 is incorrect: Core inflation excluding precious metals was 2.5%, not 3.9% (3.9% is overall core inflation). Statement 3 is correct: The article says RBI left the policy repo rate unchanged at 5.25%. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states 'headline CPI inflation in June rose to 4.38% from 3.93% in May'. 3.93% is the May figure, 5.25% is the repo rate, and 2.5% is core inflation excluding precious metals. Hence 4.38% is correct.

Explanation

The article explains that excluding food, fuel, and precious metals helps understand 'how consumption demand is behaving in the economy' because demand for these discretionary items reacts to price movements. Option D is partially true but the primary purpose is to gauge demand conditions, not just reduce volatility.

Explanation

The article states that the Pakistan-Saudi defence relationship began with the 1951 Treaty of Friendship, which provided the basis for subsequent military training, advisory support, and deployment of personnel.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the operative sentence mirrors NATO Article 5. Statement 2 is incorrect: the pact is not an expansion of NATO; it is a separate trilateral arrangement. Statement 3 is correct: the article explicitly calls it a hedge against Israel and Iran.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the US-Saudi civil nuclear agreement is a '30-year bilateral pact' allowing US firms to build and support civilian nuclear reactors in Saudi Arabia.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that given Israel's aggressive military stance and the US failure to protect Gulf states from Iranian strikes, the pact is a hedge against both Israel and Iran. Other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The Ministry of Law and Justice oversees the functioning of tribunals, including appointments and reforms. The Tribunals Reforms Bill is a legislative measure under its purview. Other ministries handle specific tribunals (e.g., Income Tax Appellate Tribunal under Finance), but overall administration falls under Law and Justice.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: Lok Sabha passed the bill without discussion amidst opposition sloganeering. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Rajya Sabha returned the Taxation and Other Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2026, not the Tribunals Reforms Bill. Statement 3 is correct as the bill aims to reform tribunals. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that Russia's share in India's oil imports rose to an all-time-high of 48% in June 2026. The other options are close distractors: 42% and 45% are lower figures, while 50% is a round number not mentioned. This data point is crucial for Prelims as it highlights energy dependence.

Explanation

The Supreme Court proposed special courts to exclusively hear CBI and NIA cases related to Manipur ethnic violence on a day-to-day basis, aiming for expeditious justice. While reducing the High Court's workload may be a secondary effect, the primary objective is speedy trial. The article does not mention compensation or case transfers.

Explanation

The Bill was introduced by Law Minister Arjun Ram Meghwal, who is from the Ministry of Law and Justice. This ministry handles legislative and judicial reforms.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Bill establishes a National Tribunals Commission. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Commission has a chairperson and four members (two judicial and two technical), not five members. Statement 3 is correct: the Bill was passed by voice vote amid Opposition protests.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Lok Sabha passed the Bill on Monday, August 10, 2026 (Monsoon Session of Parliament). The other dates are distractors; July 20 is the date of a student protest mentioned in the context.

Explanation

As per the article, the Bill aims to improve efficiency, ensure independence, transparency, and uniformity in the qualification and appointment of chairpersons and members of various tribunals. The Supreme Court had also directed the establishment of an independent commission for transparent selection procedures. Other options are not mentioned as primary objectives.

Explanation

The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG) is the nodal ministry for all matters related to petroleum and natural gas in India. In the article, MoPNG clarified India’s measures to pre-empt sanctions exposure.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Russia’s share hit 48% in June 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: total crude imports were 18.2 MMT, which was 13% lower than June 2025. Statement 3 is correct: the discount fell from $77.7/tonne in April to $10.6/tonne in June.

Explanation

The article states the discount declined from $77.7 per tonne in April 2026 to $10.6 per tonne in June 2026. The other options are distractors.

Explanation

A 100% tariff would effectively double the cost of Russian oil for India, increasing the import bill and widening the Current Account Deficit (CAD). While India could seek alternative sources, it would face higher global prices. Options A and C are too extreme, and D is not automatic.

Explanation

The article is written by the Minister of Commerce and Industry, and GeM operates under this ministry. It was launched by the Prime Minister in 2016 as a transformative digital initiative for public procurement.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: GeM replaced the opaque Directorate General of Supplies and Disposals. Statement 2 is incorrect: MSEs account for approximately 60% of orders by volume and over 45% of GMV, not over 60% of GMV. Statement 3 is correct: the IIT Delhi study (Jul-Aug 2026) confirmed the ₹86,571.69 crore benefit. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the cumulative GMV is about ₹20 lakh crore. The other options are distractors: ₹5 lakh crore is the annual GMV crossed in the last two financial years, while ₹10 and ₹15 lakh crore are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article repeatedly emphasises transparency, inclusivity, and efficiency as GeM's core objectives. It aims to eliminate corruption, promote fair competition, and empower small businesses, not to replace private platforms or boost exports.

Explanation

MDR is the fee a merchant pays its bank to accept a digital payment, as defined in the article. The other options describe different entities.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Bill repeals the prohibition on levying MDR. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Bill does not impose a rate; it empowers the government to decide later. Statement 3 is incorrect: the Bill has cleared only the Lok Sabha, not both Houses.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Banknotes in circulation continued to rise, reaching approximately Rs 42 lakh crore in 2026.' The other options are distractors.

Explanation

The article emphasizes pass-through risk: large merchants may pass the cost to consumers. It warns that if fees extend to low-value transactions (Rs 10-20), a retreat to cash becomes likely. Other concerns like foreign networks and trade talks are secondary.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the bill aims to overhaul the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940. The other options are not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says the same bill was circulated in 2022 and 2023. Statement 2 is false: the industry is fiercely opposing the bill. Statement 3 is correct: the bill criminalizes misleading information with imprisonment of two years and misbranding. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the industry sent 'more than 30 suggestions' and none were accepted. The closest and most precise option is 30, as it is the minimum number mentioned.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Association of Indian Medical Device Industry asked for a separate medical devices act aligned with global best practices and a new committee with engineering experts, clinicians, and industry representatives. The other options are not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The Minister of Law and Justice, Arjun Ram Meghwal, introduced the bill. The ministry oversees legislation related to tribunals and judicial reforms.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the bill was passed by voice vote. Statement 2 is incorrect: the commission selects chairpersons and members of tribunals, not Supreme Court judges. Statement 3 is correct: the bill replaces the 2021 Act which was partially struck down by the SC.

Explanation

The article states the bill was passed on Monday, August 10, 2026. The other dates are close distractors.

Explanation

As per the Law Minister, the purpose of tribunals is not to become an alternative to courts but to strengthen the justice system as a specialized, efficient and effective complementary institution. The commission aims to ensure transparent selection to achieve this goal.

Explanation

The Union Health Ministry filed the counter-affidavit in the Supreme Court defending the constitutional validity of the 2012 Rules. This ministry oversees the Clinical Establishments Act and related healthcare regulations at the central level.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Rules prescribe a 'range of prices', not uniform prices. Statement 2 is correct as the 2012 Rules were framed under the Clinical Establishments Act, 2010. Statement 3 is correct as the government argued that the restriction is reasonable under Article 19(6) in the interest of public health.

Explanation

The government affidavit stated that 19 states and Union Territories have adopted the Act. These include Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Rajasthan, Mizoram, Uttar Pradesh, Assam, Haryana, Telangana, Puducherry, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Chandigarh, Lakshadweep, Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.

Explanation

The government explicitly stated the Rules were framed to 'achieve' the mandate of Article 47, which deals with the duty of the State to improve public health. While other factors like affordability and sustainability are considered, the core objective is fulfilling this constitutional DPSP.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the delegation is led by R&AW chief Parag Jain, making R&AW the agency involved. IB is domestic intelligence, NIA investigates terrorism, and CBI handles criminal cases.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Bangladesh PMO stated that the extradition of Sheikh Hasina was discussed. Statement 2 is false: the R&AW visit was for security talks, not cultural exchange. Statement 3 is correct: the article says Trivedi's meeting with Rahman was his first after assuming charge as High Commissioner.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'Forced to flee the country on August 5, 2024' in the wake of violent protests. The other options are distractors: August 10, 2026 is the date of the meeting, and 2025 is incorrect.

Explanation

The article mentions the delegation is 'for security talks' and meeting with DGFI, which is the premier intelligence agency of Bangladesh. The other options are not supported by the text; the extradition issue was handled by the diplomatic channel, not the R&AW delegation.

Explanation

The Dirac Medal was instituted in 1985 by the Abdus Salam International Centre for Theoretical Physics (ICTP) in Italy. It is named after Paul Dirac, a central figure in quantum theory. The Boltzmann Medal, which Dhar also won, is awarded by IUPAP.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Dhar was the first Indian to receive the Boltzmann Medal in 2022. Statement 2 is incorrect: his work is in complex systems/statistical physics, not particle physics. Statement 3 is correct: he was a teaching assistant to Richard Feynman during his PhD at Caltech.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that with the two honours, Deepak Dhar joins a small group of only ten scientists to have secured both the Dirac Medal and the Boltzmann Medal. Many of them have gone on to win the Nobel Prize in Physics.

Explanation

The Dirac Medal citation states that Dhar's work has helped explain how 'simple interactions can lead to complex and sometimes unpredictable behaviour in large systems'. His models are applied to earthquakes, traffic jams, and financial market fluctuations.

Explanation

The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJE) is the nodal ministry for the free coaching scheme for Scheduled Castes and Other Backward Classes. The parliamentary committee on Social Justice and Empowerment oversees this ministry's work, as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the panel is chaired by BJP MP P C Mohan from Karnataka. Statement 2 is incorrect because the government accepted only 14 out of 25 recommendations (56%), not all. Statement 3 is correct as the panel reiterated its recommendation to revise the income ceiling. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that only seven States/Union Territories have established special police stations under the Prevention of Atrocities Act, even after more than three decades of its enactment. Options A, C, and D are close distractors.

Explanation

The panel's core concern is the delay in scholarship disbursal which forces funds to be released in the next academic year. The objective is to ensure that students from SC/ST and OBC backgrounds receive their scholarships on time, thereby supporting their education without disruption. Options A and C are not mentioned, while D is a separate recommendation.

Explanation

The EMRS scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs through its autonomous body, the National Education Society for Tribal Students (NESTS). The Ministry of Education handles general school education, while the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment looks after welfare of SC/OBC/disabled persons.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as EMRS is a centrally sponsored scheme managed by NESTS under Ministry of Tribal Affairs. Statement 2 is incorrect because only 428 of 728 schools have been completed, with 249 under construction and 51 at pre-construction stage. Statement 3 is correct as the parliamentary panel suggested an independent monitoring agency.

Explanation

The report stated that 118 schools continued to function from government and rented buildings. 51 is the number of schools at pre-construction stage, 249 are under construction, and 428 have been completed. The question specifically asks about schools in rented/government buildings.

Explanation

The EMRS scheme aims to provide quality residential education to ST students, especially in remote areas, from Class VI to XII. While vocational training may be a component, the core objective is mainstream education. Mid-day meals and college establishment are covered under other schemes.

Explanation

The article refers to 'Agriculture Ministry’s data' which is the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. This ministry is responsible for collecting and publishing data on crop sowing, production, and agricultural statistics.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: June had zero LPS and was the sixth driest June since 1901. Statement 2 is incorrect: El Niño does not always lead to below-normal rainfall; July 2026 saw above-normal rains despite a strengthening El Niño. Statement 3 is correct: the article states that the FAO index rise is largely vegetable oils-driven, with the vegetable oils index at 195.7 points.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'all-India rainfall in July was 2.4% above the LPA.' The other options are distractors: 38% below LPA was June's deficit, and the other values are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article states that vegetable oil prices are firming up due to 'diversion from food towards biofuel production' when international petroleum prices harden. While heatwaves and conflicts are mentioned as contributing to the overall food price index, the vegetable oils index rise is specifically attributed to biofuel diversion.

Explanation

The IMD, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, is the nodal agency for weather forecasting, including the monsoon. The article mentions the IMD predicting below-normal rainfall for the second half of the season.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: June deficiency was 38%, and cumulative deficiency dropped to 11.5% by August. Statement 2 is correct: July saw 4 LPS, exceeding the normal of 3. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article states El Niño became a moderate-to-strong event in July, not weak-to-moderate. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the cumulative rainfall deficiency had reduced to 11.5% by the date of publication. 22.8% was the deficiency till July 15, 38% was the June deficiency, and 2.4% is the July surplus.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that El Niño's impact is known to come with a lag, and with the event expected to become 'very strong' and persist through the next quarter, the effects could be felt in the upcoming rabi or winter-spring crop. Options A and D are not supported by the text; option C is opposite as El Niño typically suppresses LPS.

Explanation

The article states the fund's first round was chosen by a 12-member panel — 11 from private equity and technology, and one non-voting government representative. This composition is key to understanding the conflict of interest concerns.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the first round approved ₹2,192 crore to 22 firms. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says 'only one of 13 companies had a panel-member link', not two. Statement 3 is correct: the fund targets deep-tech sectors including AI, space and quantum technology.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'In its first round, the fund approved Rs 2,192 crore in soft loans to 22 private firms.' The other options are close distractors with different amounts or wrong units.

Explanation

The article highlights that 15 of 22 selected firms have investment ties to 7 panel members, raising concerns about a level playing field despite disclosure and recusal. The core argument is that structural safeguards are needed, not just good faith.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions UNESCO's AI competency frameworks that reinforce human-centred thinking, ethics, AI foundations and pedagogy. This is a static fact linked to the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says 62% of students believe responsible AI use is essential for career success, not 80% (80% see AI as important for their future). Statement 3 is correct as the article emphasizes shifting from output-based to process-based evaluation. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that 3% of over 200 million student papers had 80% or more AI-generated text. 11% is the figure for at least 20% AI text, not 80%. The other options are distractors.

Explanation

The article explicitly argues that the shift must be from output-based assessment to process-based evaluation, where assignments show drafts, reasoning, source choices, and viva-based evaluations become common. Banning AI is not advocated; instead, guided use and disclosure are promoted.

Explanation

The High Court explicitly relied on Articles 14 (equality before law) and 16 (equality of opportunity in public employment) to strike down the fraudulent appointment. Article 19 deals with fundamental freedoms, and Article 15 prohibits discrimination on specific grounds. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court emphasized that public office is a public trust. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court explicitly stated that an interim order does not create an independent or indefeasible right and is subject to the final outcome. Statement 3 is correct as the court applied the doctrine of restitution to recover benefits. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The single judge imposed costs of Rs 2.16 lakh, which the division bench upheld. The other options are close distractors: Rs 2.16 crore is 100 times larger, Rs 21.6 lakh is ten times, and Rs 2,160 is too small. The exact figure is Rs 2.16 lakh.

Explanation

The court applied the doctrine of restitution, which requires a party to restore benefits obtained under an interim order once the final judgment declares the appointment unlawful. Natural justice deals with fair hearing, proportionality with balanced punishment, and res judicata with finality of judgments. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The Supreme Court Collegium, headed by the Chief Justice of India and comprising the four senior-most judges, recommends appointments and transfers of judges to the High Courts and Supreme Court. The government then processes these recommendations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the 2024 Act provides 10% reservation to Marathas under SEBC. Statement 2 is correct: the Indra Sawhney judgment (1992) set a 50% ceiling but allowed exceptions for far-flung areas. Statement 3 is correct: Justice S B Shukre (retired) headed the MSBCC that conducted the larger survey.

Explanation

The article states the Maratha community constitutes nearly one-third of the state’s population. This demographic significance drives the political sensitivity of the reservation demand.

Explanation

Petitioners argue the law is unconstitutional for exceeding the 50% limit set by the Indra Sawhney judgment, which can only be exceeded through a constitutional amendment. The State counters that a larger survey justifies the quota.

Explanation

The article mentions the Technology Development Board (TDB) as the body overseeing the deep-tech fund. TDB is a statutory body under the Department of Science and Technology that provides financial assistance for technology commercialisation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the money is disbursed over five years through several fund managers, not a single round. Statement 2 is correct as the article states the first cohort was appraised on a first-come, first-served basis. Statement 3 is correct as the government's exposure is capped at 50% of project cost.

Explanation

The article states that '62 per cent of the first round had gone to firms in which panel members held an interest.' This is a key data point for prelims.

Explanation

The article explains that the fund was created to find and support deep-tech ventures in India, with the committee backing companies whose science had already been proven. It aims to seed technologies and help India compete globally.

Explanation

The news refers to the Official Spokesperson of the Ministry of External Affairs, Randhir Jaiswal, who issued a statement on the matter. The MEA handles all diplomatic communications and foreign relations for India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the meeting occurred on August 10, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect because the press conference was held at the Foreign Correspondents Club in New Delhi, not in Dhaka. Statement 3 is correct as the treaty, signed in 1996, expires on December 31, 2026. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that Sheikh Hasina addressed a virtual press conference on August 5, 2026, at the Foreign Correspondents Club in New Delhi. August 10 is the date of the High Commissioner's meeting, August 7 is when MEA responded, and February 12 is the date of the Bangladesh election.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that PM Rahman's visit to India for the BRICS summit in September will allow the two sides to renew conversations on vital matters, with the Ganga Waters Treaty expiring in December 2026 being a key issue needing urgent expert-level discussions.

Explanation

The NRC is a citizenship-related exercise under the Citizenship Act, 1955, which falls under the purview of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). The Registrar General of India (RGI) under MHA coordinates the process. The other options are not directly responsible for citizenship-related registration.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the final NRC list was published in August 2019. Statement 2 is correct: over 3.11 crore names were included. Statement 3 is incorrect: as per the article, the appeal process for excluded persons has NOT yet commenced, leaving 19 lakh excluded individuals in limbo. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions 'an expenditure of more than ₹1,600 crore' incurred on the NRC exercise. The other options are close distractors. ₹1,200 crore, ₹1,800 crore, and ₹2,000 crore are not mentioned. This type of data point is important for prelims factual questions.

Explanation

The petitions, filed by Jamiat Ulema-i-Hind and others, primarily seek the issuance of National Identity Cards to persons included in the NRC under Section 14A of the Citizenship Act and initiation of the appeal process for those excluded. While re-verification was sought by an ex-NRC coordinator, it was not the main objective of the petitioners. Compensation was not demanded.

Explanation

The Supreme Court requested the Chief Justice of the Gauhati High Court to consider constituting special courts. This is because the CBI cases were transferred from Manipur to Gauhati for trial. Gauhati High Court has jurisdiction over the state of Assam, where the cases are now being tried.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The SC proposed special courts for CBI and NIA cases. Statement 2 is incorrect: Out of 31 CBI cases, final reports were filed in 27 (22 charge sheets + 5 closure reports), not 27 charge sheets. Statement 3 is correct: NIA investigated 30 cases, with charge sheets in 15. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that out of 904 witnesses in the CBI cases, 891 were yet to be examined. This massive backlog (98.5% unexamined) was the key reason for the SC's proposal for special courts. 904 is the total number of witnesses, 13 would be the number examined, and 22 is the number of charge sheets.

Explanation

The SC specifically noted that the request for special courts was prompted by the sheer number of witnesses (891 yet to be examined) waiting to testify. The aim is to ensure day-to-day trial and speedy justice, not to transfer cases (already done) or investigate agencies. Option B captures the core objective of judicial efficiency.

Explanation

The Survey of India is the national mapping agency, but the formal identification and standardization of place names on official maps for international and diplomatic purposes falls under the purview of the Ministry of External Affairs, which handles matters related to territorial integrity and boundary disputes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India formally identified 27 places on August 7, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: China released the 112 names in 6 batches, not a single batch. Statement 3 is correct: China's Foreign Ministry spokesperson confirmed on April 14 that China does not recognize Arunachal Pradesh. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Since 2017, China’s Ministry of Civil Affairs has released six batches of standardised names for locations, with a total of 112 names announced as of April 2026.' The other options are incorrect distractors.

Explanation

As quoted in the article, Chinese scholar Guo Xuetang stated that India's move is 'an attempt to strengthen its claim of control over the area and create additional leverage in future boundary negotiations.' This is a diplomatic and administrative assertion of sovereignty, not a tourism or investment initiative.

Explanation

Customs duty is a type of indirect tax administered by the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance. The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) under the Ministry of Finance oversees its collection. The article mentions the Minister of State for Finance informed Parliament, confirming the Ministry of Finance's role.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: basic customs duty was hiked from 5% to 10%. Statement 2 is correct: AIDC was increased from 1% to 5%. Statement 3 is incorrect: the total effective duty is 15% (10% basic + 5% AIDC), not 20%. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the government collected Rs 10,463 crore from the import of gold, silver, and platinum between May 13 and August 2. Option A (Rs 10,040 crore) is only from gold, not the total. Options C and D are close distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the duty hike came amid unprecedented pressure on the rupee and an appeal by PM Modi to reduce gold purchases to preserve foreign exchange. While revenue generation is a secondary benefit, the primary objective was to reduce imports and protect forex reserves during the West Asia crisis.

Explanation

The article mentions UCIL as the state-owned corporation that currently mines uranium domestically. DAE oversees the sector, but UCIL is the mining entity.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: natural uranium has 0.72% U-235. Statement 2 is correct: enrichment increases U-235 concentration. Statement 3 is incorrect: India's PHWRs use natural uranium, not enriched uranium.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that in 2024, Kazakhstan produced the largest share of uranium from mines, accounting for 39% of the world supply. Canada (24%) and Namibia (12%) are close distractors.

Explanation

The article explains that India has limited uranium but abundant thorium. The three-stage program is designed to eventually use thorium-based reactors (AHWR) to achieve self-sufficiency in nuclear fuel.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions the US Strategic Petroleum Reserve (SPR) and cites data from the US Department of Energy. The SPR is a US government emergency fuel storage facility.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Iran seeks an end to US sanctions and military threats. Statement 2 is incorrect: Trump rejected Iran's compensation demand and instead demanded compensation from Iran. Statement 3 is correct: The article states the USS Cole attack was blamed on al-Qaeda, not Iran.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'Brent crude settled 4.99 per cent higher at $87.72 a barrel.' Option A ($82.13) is the WTI price, which is a common distractor.

Explanation

The article states that the Strait of Hormuz is a critical chokepoint for global oil shipments. Any disruption reduces supply, pushing up prices. For import-dependent countries like India, this leads to higher import bills and potential domestic inflation, making it a key economic concern.

Explanation

The NTA is an autonomous organization established in 2017 under the Ministry of Education (formerly Ministry of Human Resource Development) to conduct entrance examinations for higher education institutions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: chargesheet filed on July 28, 2026, naming 13 accused. Statement 2 is incorrect: the original exam was held on May 3, 2026, not May 12 (which was the cancellation date). Statement 3 is correct: three experts used memorization or paper chits to steal questions.

Explanation

The article states that the chargesheet lists as many as 360 witnesses. Options 130 and 260 are plausible distractors, while 630 is a reversal of digits.

Explanation

The CBI found that experts were not frisked while exiting the confidential section, allowing them to carry out questions via memorization or paper chits. While other options are related, the core lapse was the absence of exit frisking, as highlighted in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Bill replaces a British-era law, which is the Bankers' Books Evidence Act, 1891. The other options are other important acts but not the one being replaced.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: Rajya Sabha passed it on August 10, 2026. Statement 2 is false because the Bill permits records in physical or electronic form. Statement 3 is correct: Clause 4 allows extension to other regulated financial entities. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions that the Bill was already passed by Lok Sabha on August 5, 2026. The Rajya Sabha passed it on August 10, 2026. The other dates are distractors.

Explanation

The article states the Bill seeks to provide for law relating to evidence with respect to bankers' books and to align it with contemporary digital banking practices. The other options are not mentioned or are contrary to the Bill's purpose.

Explanation

The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) is the nodal ministry for all matters related to renewable energy, including solar power. The Ministry of Power handles electricity generation and distribution, while the Ministry of Environment deals with climate change and environmental regulations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions mainstreaming in transport, agriculture, and buildings. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article specifies that the next phase focuses on MSMEs (Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises), not large industries. Statement 3 is correct as the article states solar tariffs reduced by more than 85%.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India's solar PV revolution reduced solar tariffs by more than 85% over the past decade. The other options are close distractors—75% is too low, while 90% and 95% are exaggerated.

Explanation

The article clearly states that electrifying industrial heat across MSMEs will strengthen manufacturing competitiveness, energy security, and decarbonisation. While reducing coal imports and complying with climate treaties are related benefits, the primary objective is a multi-pronged strengthening of manufacturing.

Explanation

The joint defence agreement was signed by Pakistan, Saudi Arabia, and Türkiye. Iran is not a party to this pact and has been involved in conflicts with some signatories, including missile and drone attacks on Saudi Arabia.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the agreement was signed in Mecca and includes the collective defence clause. Statement 2 is incorrect: the pact was signed amid ongoing wars (Iran, Israel), not after stability was restored. Statement 3 is correct: Türkiye's drone production is highlighted as a key asset.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the agreement was signed on August 7 in Mecca. September 2025 refers to the earlier bilateral Pakistan-Saudi defence pact, while August 10 is the article's publication date.

Explanation

The article states that the biggest liability of the agreement is that it was signed amid ongoing wars (Iran, Israel). Existing conflicts mean the promise of collective defence is 'largely symbolic from the very outset' and deterrence is 'currently non-existent'.