9 August 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The article clearly states that Bengaluru-based Astrobase Space Technologies unveiled the EVEREST engine on August 7, 2026. The other options are other companies/nations that have developed FFSC engines but are not the developer of EVEREST.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: FFSC routes both fuel and oxidizer through separate pre-burners. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article mentions FFSC is significantly more complex to design and develop than conventional engines. Statement 3 is correct: EVEREST uses LOX-Methane propellant as stated in the article.

Explanation

The article repeatedly mentions that the EVEREST engine is an 800 kN Full-Flow Staged Combustion engine. Distractor options are typical thrust levels for other engines; 600 kN is lower, 1000 kN and 1200 kN are higher and not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that FFSC architecture enables high propulsion efficiency, supports precise throttle control, and ensures all propellants contribute to thrust, making it well-suited for reusable launch systems. Options A, C, and D are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The scheme is a rural employment guarantee programme, which falls under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Rural Development. The Ministry of Rural Development also earlier implemented the MGNREGA scheme, which was renamed as VB-G RAM-G.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states the scheme was rechristened as VB-G RAM-G. Statement 2 is incorrect: the new funding pattern is 60:40 Centre-State for general states, not 100% central funding. Statement 3 is correct: Tamil Nadu CM stated they will provide 150 days employment (25 days extra) at an additional cost of Rs 100 crore.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'For Himalayan and Northeastern states, the Centre-state split is 90:10.' This is different from the general states' ratio of 60:40. The other options are distractors; 70:30 and 80:20 are not applicable.

Explanation

The article argues that the scheme has transformed the rural economy, providing employment and wage security. It states: 'Nobody quite bothers about the Minimum Wages Act. But for this scheme, rural wages in states will collapse.' Thus, despite political opposition, states recognize the scheme's indispensability and allocate the share.

Explanation

The new criminal laws – Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam – fall under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Home Affairs, which oversees internal security and police administration in India. The Home Minister himself announced the implementation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita replaces IPC. Statement 2 is incorrect: the three pillars are Technology, Timeline, and Trust (not Transparency). Statement 3 is correct: Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam replaces the Indian Evidence Act. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that Puducherry Police became the 18th State/UT to be bestowed with the President's Police Colour. This means 17 other State/UT police forces had received this honour before Puducherry. Option B (17) is correct.

Explanation

The Home Minister explicitly stated that the new laws are based on the three pillars of technology, timeline, and trust, with the aim of providing speedy justice to citizens. This is the core objective, distinguishing it from mere administrative or financial changes.

Explanation

The article mentions BRBNMPL as the RBI's subsidiary that floated the global tender for polymer sheets. SPMCIL is a government corporation, not a RBI subsidiary.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per RBI Governor's statement. Statement 2 is correct – Australia was the first in 1988. Statement 3 is incorrect because the tender was global and expressly requires firewalling from China/Pakistan, implying foreign sourcing; no domestic production is mentioned.

Explanation

The article states 100 crore pieces each of Rs 10 and Rs 20 notes, totalling Rs 1,000 crore + Rs 2,000 crore = Rs 3,000 crore.

Explanation

The article quotes RBI Governor saying lower denomination notes have 'higher velocity' to change hands and are prone to wear and tear, hence polymer's durability benefits them most.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'Iran's Revolutionary Guards said on Sunday they would not reopen the Strait of Hormuz' and that they are maintaining the closure. This body is a major branch of Iran's armed forces.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says 'Iran has imposed an effective blockade of the strait since the United States and Israel attacked in late February'. Statement 2 is incorrect because Iran's conditions include compensation, end of aggression, lifting counterblockade, etc., not just sanctions. Statement 3 is correct: 'the June memorandum that set out a path for peace talks'.

Explanation

The article states: 'Iran has imposed an effective blockade of the strait since the United States and Israel attacked in late February'. The other options are dates of other events mentioned (April ceasefire, June memorandum, August publication).

Explanation

The article calls the strait 'vital to the world economy' and notes that transit has dropped significantly, with attacks on vessels. This directly threatens global oil supply, a key concern for energy security, especially for import-dependent countries.

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, India was among the original 14 signatories of the 1920 Svalbard Treaty, which grants visa-free access and commercial rights in Svalbard. The other options are unrelated to Svalbard's special status.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India is one of only two developing countries with a permanent Arctic station (Himadri). Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says Arctic funding (₹17.53 Cr) is less than one-tenth of Antarctica expenditure. Statement 3 is correct: the committee recommended a Polar Ambassador. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India spent just Rs 17.53 crore on Arctic activities in 2024-25. Option A (₹175.3 crore) is a distractor close to the Antarctica expenditure figure (not given exactly but implied to be ~10 times more). Options C and D are arbitrary.

Explanation

The article highlights that Arctic affairs are handled by four different territorial and functional divisions within MEA, making coherent engagement difficult. A Polar Ambassador would coordinate inter-ministerial efforts and help articulate a consistent narrative. Options A, C, and D are not mentioned or are distortions.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions the Maharashtra Private Forests (Acquisition) Act, 1975 as the law under which the state was claiming automatic vesting of private lands. The Indian Forest Act, 1927 is a central law under which proceedings under Section 35 may be initiated, but the state's claim was under the 1975 state Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct — the HC held that vesting is not automatic and must follow procedure. Statement 2 is correct — the court relied on both SC rulings (Godrej & Boyce 2014 and Rohan Vijay Nahar 2025). Statement 3 is incorrect — the petitions were from Raigad, Pune, Thane and other parts of Maharashtra, not just Pune district.

Explanation

The article clearly mentions 'a large batch of 184 petitions filed by landholders challenging the State's action of treating their lands as private forests.' The other options are distractors; 84 and 284 are close but incorrect numbers.

Explanation

The HC held that vesting is NOT automatic and the state must follow the prescribed procedure (notice, objections, committee). This gives landholders a legal basis to challenge notifications where the procedure was bypassed, thereby protecting their property rights. Options A, C, and D are contrary to the actual ruling.

Explanation

The article mentions that an official from the Ministry of Rural Development responded about the scheme's implementation. The ministry oversees all rural employment guarantee programmes, including MGNREGS and now VB-G RAM G.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: VB-G RAM G provides 125 days wage employment (up from 100 under NREGS). Statement 2 is incorrect: the scheme began on July 1, 2026, not 2025. Statement 3 is correct: the Ministry reported 63% women participation, exceeding the statutory one-third requirement.

Explanation

The article states that the VB-G RAM G dashboard shows 7.67 crore person-days in July 2026. The Ministry later said 'around 9 crore', but the question specifically asks for the dashboard figure. 15.33 crore was the MGNREGS figure for July 2025, and 21.56 crore is the average over the previous four years.

Explanation

The article mentions that sources said one reason could be a pause in the scheme during the kharif sowing season. The transition from MGNREGS to VB-G RAM G also involved administrative changes. Budget allocation was actually increased (₹95,692 crore), so A is wrong. Demand is not lacking; the scheme is demand-driven. Erratic monsoon increases need for work, not reduces it.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions the Union Minister for Culture and Tourism Gajendra Singh Shekhawat and the Union Ministry of Culture issuing statements. The Ministry of Culture is the nodal ministry for cultural cooperation, heritage, and related initiatives in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the meeting was in Bhopal and adopted the Bhopal Declaration. Statement 2 is incorrect because the declaration also focuses on AI transparency, creator rights, traditional knowledge, museums, and libraries, not solely on cultural property. Statement 3 is correct as the Ministry of Culture announced the pilot initiative.

Explanation

The article states that the Ministerial Meeting witnessed participation from 14 countries, including India, comprising 10 BRICS member countries and four partner countries.

Explanation

The article mentions the initiative is 'envisaged to facilitate cultural exchanges, strengthen professional networks and create greater opportunities for artists and creative practitioners across BRICS.'

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the TVK-led government constituted a committee headed by veteran economist Montek Singh Ahluwalia to suggest means of revenue augmentation for the state.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect – free electricity extension to 200 units applies only to residential connections that consume up to 500 units bimonthly, not all consumers. Statement 2 is correct – the waiver was expanded to ₹75,000 irrespective of landholding size. Statement 3 is correct – the allocation for pension was reduced by at least ₹11,000 crore.

Explanation

The article mentions that the government is taking steps to raise resources additionally to the tune of ₹15,000 crore this year through various measures, including the committee under Montek Singh Ahluwalia.

Explanation

The Finance Minister stated that the fiscal position is 'in the red' and the treasury box is 'overburdened with debt and sub-optimal income with leaking holes', requiring at least two years for fiscal prudence. Restoring OPS would have further strained finances, hence the allocation for pension was reduced by ₹11,000 crore.

Explanation

The article states that the app was developed by the Uttar Pradesh Jal Nigam (Rural) and the State Water and Sanitation Mission. This is a state-level initiative, not a central ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the app is bilingual (Hindi and English). Statement 2 is incorrect: the app provides data at three strata: state, district, and village level. Statement 3 is correct: the app was launched in May 2026.

Explanation

The article mentions that within days of its launch, more than 1.2 lakh people downloaded the application. The target is 5 million downloads, but the actual initial figure is 1.2 lakh.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that the app aims to bridge the gap between citizens and administration by providing real-time information on water supply schemes, reducing information asymmetry, and strengthening accountability. The other options are not mentioned as primary objectives.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that talks are between Iran, Oman, and the US. Oman has been serving as the mediator. Other Gulf states were not mentioned in this context.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article lists lifting sanctions and paying war reparations among Iran's demands. Statement 2 is incorrect; JD Vance said the situation is 'not over' and no formal agreement has been announced. Statement 3 is correct; the article quotes Abbas Araghchi saying they were 'very close to an agreement.'

Explanation

The article explicitly lists seven demands: lifting naval blockade, ending sanctions, paying war reparations, withdrawing US troops, stopping attacks on allies, releasing frozen assets, and ending threats. Hence the correct answer is 7.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the closure of the strait triggered a 'global energy shock, pushing up fuel prices and fuelling worldwide inflation fears.' Options A, C, and D are not cited as the primary impact in the article.

Explanation

Turkey is a member of NATO, as mentioned in the article. Pakistan and Saudi Arabia are not NATO members. This static fact is directly linked to the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the agreement was signed on August 7, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article says no other details have been publicly released, making it non-public. Statement 3 is correct: the article notes the last such invocation was in 1939 when the UK declared war on Germany after Hitler's invasion of Poland.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Saudi Arabia fired about 2,400 Patriot PAC-3 interceptors in 44 days, depleting an estimated 86% of its pre-war stockpile. The other options are distractors.

Explanation

The article states that while the pact applies to Iran by default, the principal adversary is Israel, especially for Turkey which sees Israel as a larger security risk than Iran. The article mentions Israeli leaders calling Turkey 'the new Iran' and Erdogan's criticism of Israeli strikes.

Explanation

The NWDA, established in 1982, is the nodal agency under the Ministry of Jal Shakti for planning and implementing river interlinking projects. The article mentions NWDA's plan for Godavari-Pennar-Palar-Vellar link.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct - the NWDA plan ends before Cauvery. Statement 3 is incorrect because the demanded link would benefit only southern districts, not all of Tamil Nadu.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions '1,100 TMC of water of Godavari basin that is draining wastefully into the sea'. The other options are plausible distractors.

Explanation

The article states that the project would benefit the Gundar basin irrigation systems and provide water for drinking and cattle in drought-prone southern districts like Pudukottai, Ramanathapuram, etc. Other options are not mentioned as primary objectives.

Explanation

The Enforcement Directorate (ED) filed the complaints under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA). The CBI registered the initial FIRs in the RCom case, but the ED conducted the money laundering probe.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the ED probe into RInfra was based on an FIR by the EOW of Mumbai police. Statement 2 is incorrect: the proceeds of crime in the RCom case are ₹40,185.55 crore, not ₹187 crore. Statement 3 is correct: NHAI toll project funds were siphoned via sham subcontracting.

Explanation

The ED quantified the proceeds of crime in the RCom case at ₹40,185.55 crore, being the total outstanding amount defaulted to consortium banks, financial institutions, and bondholders. The ₹187 crore figure relates to the NHAI toll project siphoning in the RInfra case.

Explanation

The PMLA, 2002 aims to prevent money laundering, provide for confiscation of property derived from or involved in money laundering, and deal with related matters. The ED enforces this act. Other options relate to FEMA, SEBI, and Income Tax Act respectively.

Explanation

The AISHE is an annual survey conducted and published by the Ministry of Education (formerly HRD Ministry). It collects comprehensive data on higher education institutions across India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: GER increased to 30.0%. Statement 2 is incorrect: GPI of 1.08 means women outnumber men (GPI >1 indicates female dominance). Statement 3 is correct: 44% of STEM enrolment are women as per the report. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The report states that private institutions enrol over 71% of all college students. Option A (17.1%) is the percentage of government institutions, option B (70%) is the share of unaided colleges among private colleges, and option D (83%) is the total share of private colleges (including aided and unaided).

Explanation

The report notes that while science and engineering account for 44% of PhD enrolment, social sciences account for only 11%, creating an imbalance in research capacity needed for addressing societal challenges like inequality, governance, and climate change. This asymmetry is a key equity and quality concern.

Explanation

The agreement explicitly states its collective defence clause is consistent with the right of individual and collective self-defence under Article 51 of the UN Charter. Article 42 deals with enforcement action, Article 2(4) prohibits threat of force, and Article 33 deals with pacific settlement of disputes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the agreement was signed on August 7, 2026. Statement 2 is correct: the collective defence clause is as described. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article notes that defence analysts caution against viewing the agreement as the equivalent of NATO, and it is not intended to replace NATO.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the agreement was signed on Friday (August 7, 2026). August 9, 2026, is the publication date. September 2025 is when Pakistan and Saudi Arabia signed a separate mutual defence agreement.

Explanation

Pakistan's Foreign Minister Ishaq Dar and Turkish Foreign Minister Hakan Fidan both stated the agreement is not directed against any country and is purely defensive. It also remains open to other nations in the region. The article emphasizes it does not abrogate existing agreements and is not NATO.

Explanation

The Supreme Court Collegium, headed by the Chief Justice of India, is the body responsible for recommending appointments and transfers of judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts. This is based on the doctrine of judicial primacy established by the 'Three Judges Cases'.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The CJI heads the Collegium. Statement 2 is incorrect: The formal approval for judicial appointments is given by the President of India, not the Prime Minister. Statement 3 is correct: The Collegium does recommend transfers of High Court judges.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Collegium recommended the elevation of four judges as Chief Justices. The other numbers (2, 3, 5) are close distractors, with 2 being the number of judges recommended for transfer.

Explanation

The Collegium system was established to uphold the primacy of the judiciary in appointments, thereby preserving its independence from the executive branch. While it may also help in expediting appointments, the core purpose is to safeguard judicial independence.

Explanation

CRIS is the autonomous IT arm of the Ministry of Railways responsible for developing PRS, UTS, NTES, and other railway digital platforms. IRCTC handles online ticket booking and catering, but does not develop the core PRS system.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: PRS was introduced in 1986. Statement 2 is incorrect: the new system targets 1.5 lakh bookings per minute, while 32,000 was the capacity of the old system. Statement 3 is correct: ARP was reduced from 120 to 60 days to better align with passenger patterns.

Explanation

The new PRS is designed to handle over 1.5 lakh ticket bookings per minute, a significant increase from the existing system's capacity of around 32,000 bookings per minute. Option D (40 lakh) refers to enquiries per minute.

Explanation

Aadhaar-authenticated Tatkal was introduced to prevent automated bots and unauthorised agents from cornering tickets. Along with OTP-based verification, this reform aims to make the booking process more equitable for genuine passengers.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the US Department of Homeland Security is proposing the rule change. USCIS administers the H-1B program but is part of DHS. OMB reviews the proposal, and DOL handles labor certifications.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the 60-day grace period was introduced in January 2017. Statement 2 is incorrect: the proposal covers not just H-1B but also E-1, E-2, E-3, H-1B1, L-1, O-1, and TN classifications. Statement 3 is correct: without the grace period, a worker must leave or find another lawful status immediately.

Explanation

The article states that Indians received 71% of all approved H-1B petitions in 2024. The other options are plausible distractors but not supported by the data provided.

Explanation

The article explicitly says the move is part of the Trump administration's effort to tighten the H-1B program, which the government says is being misused to replace American workers. Revenue generation or targeting Indians specifically are not stated objectives.