5 August 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the RBI, established under the RBI Act, 1934, is responsible for setting the policy repo rate to achieve the inflation target. The RBI Board does not set rates; the Finance Commission deals with fiscal transfers, and SEBI regulates securities markets.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the repo rate was kept unchanged at 5.25%. Statement 2 is incorrect: the MPC continued with a neutral stance, not accommodative. Statement 3 is correct: the GDP growth projection for 2026-27 was raised by 10 bps to 6.7%.

Explanation

The RBI projected CPI inflation for 2026-27 at 5.0%, which is 10 bps lower than the earlier projection. Options 4.7% is for Q2, 5.5% for Q4, and 5.9% for Q3. The full-year figure is 5.0%.

Explanation

The MPC observed that the higher inflation is mostly on account of fuel and food, with little signs of generalisation. Core inflation remains moderate, indicating demand pressures are contained. This allowed the MPC to keep rates unchanged while maintaining a neutral stance to support growth.

Explanation

The article states that the countermeasures were announced by the Commerce Ministry of China. This is a key static fact about the nodal body responsible for trade policy in China.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: China strengthened export controls on drones. Statement 2 is incorrect because only 6 companies were blacklisted, not 10. Statement 3 is correct: national security investigations were launched on printers and copiers. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that China imposed sanctions on six US businesses, including Applied DNA Sciences and Stratum Reservoir. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article mentions that the US tariffs were imposed 'over forced labour and national security concerns' related to Xinjiang. This is a key point for understanding the geopolitical context.

Explanation

Jammu and Kashmir is a Union Territory, and its administration falls under the purview of the Ministry of Home Affairs. The LG is appointed by the President on the advice of the Union Home Ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the dates mentioned are accurate. Statement 2 is incorrect: the per capita income ratio fell from 79.9% to 76.6%. Statement 3 is correct: the Supreme Court advised restoration of statehood as soon as possible. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that graduate unemployment is as high as 23.9%. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article stresses that an elected government is the only way to provide accountability, as the Lt Governor is an appointee and not accountable to the people. The other options are not the central thesis.

Explanation

Article 5 of the North Atlantic Treaty (1949) establishes collective defence - an attack on one member is an attack on all. The UN's principle is collective security, not collective defence. EU is primarily economic/political, and Warsaw Pact was dissolved in 1991.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as NATO 1.0 relied on American military and nuclear power. Statement 2 is correct as NATO 2.0 saw declining European defence expenditure and dependence on the US. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article explicitly states 'This is less a story of American disengagement than one of strategic redistribution' - the US remains as strategic enabler and nuclear guarantor.

Explanation

The article states that after Russia's invasion in 2022, US troop strength rose to around 1,00,000. Since then, Washington withdrew around 5,000 troops from Germany and cancelled 4,000 to Poland, bringing the presence down to approximately 75,000-80,000 troops - close to pre-Ukraine war levels.

Explanation

The article states that a Europe capable of assuming greater responsibility would enable Washington to devote more attention to the Indo-Pacific, reinforcing regional balance. A more capable Europe could emerge as a partner for India in defence manufacturing, AI, cybersecurity, semiconductors, and space - complementing India's strategic autonomy.

Explanation

The article states that talent graduating to the highest level is 'already backed by the Target Olympic Podium Scheme'. TOPS provides direct support to elite athletes, while Khelo India focuses on grassroots development.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'allocation of ₹29,054 crore — an eight-fold increase'. Statement 2 is incorrect: the target is 'an average of two or three' centres per district, not five. Statement 3 is correct: 'overall outlay... stands at ₹36,441 crore for 2026-31'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'India needs to win approximately 30 to 40 medals, including gold in double digits, to be in the elite club.' Option A is too low, C and D are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article states: 'The primary goal of this ambitious grassroots programme is to tap talent early for the 2036 Olympics.' While other options are related (e.g., assistance to NSFs is part of the overall outlay), the core objective is talent identification for Olympic success.

Explanation

The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands was adopted in 1971 in Ramsar, Iran. India became a Contracting Party in 1982. The designation 'Ramsar site' is given under this treaty, not under any other convention.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article - the SC order required prior approval for mining within 10 km of Asan. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 2017 Rules removed the explicit list of prohibited activities that existed in the 2010 Rules. Statement 3 is correct - Glaw Lake became the 101st Ramsar site on August 3, 2026.

Explanation

The article states that on August 3, 2026, Glaw Lake in Arunachal Pradesh became India's 101st Ramsar site, taking the tally from 98 earlier in the year to 101. India has the maximum number of Ramsar sites among Asian countries.

Explanation

The SC order directs that no mining shall be carried out within 10 km of a wetland conservation reserve unless prior permission is obtained from the Standing Committee of NBWL or MoEFCC. It does not create a statutory buffer (A), does not ban all mining (C), and does not specifically mandate EIA (D).

Explanation

India assumed the BRICS chairmanship on January 1, 2026, and will host the 18th summit in New Delhi. The chair rotates annually; China will take over at the end of 2026.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: BRICS has 11 full members and Indonesia joined in 2025. Statement 2 is correct: the theme is as given. Statement 3 is incorrect: India will pass the chairmanship to China, not Russia.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the summit will be held on September 12 and 13, 2026 in New Delhi. The other options are distractors.

Explanation

The article mentions that sparks flew during the April meeting as delegates from the UAE and Iran sparred over the war. This highlights the geopolitical tensions within BRICS that India must manage as chair.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that India seeded ₹500 crore towards stockpiling initiatives through the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM). This mission focuses on securing domestic supply chains for critical minerals like lithium, cobalt, and rare earths.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article argues that stockpiling raw ores is not immediately useful; onshore processing capacity is needed. Statement 2 is correct: dynamic price bands use floor (buy) and ceiling (sell) prices. Statement 3 is correct: the article warns that if seven major economies built six-month reserves, it could consume 34% of annual cobalt supply, causing market shocks.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Economic modelling indicates that if seven major economies simultaneously built six-month reserves, the aggregate demand could consume up to 34% of the global annual cobalt supply and 10% of the lithium supply.' This highlights the risk of uncoordinated stockpiling.

Explanation

The article recommends multilateral stockpiling arrangements with trusted partners to 'pool storage costs, improve resilience, and reduce market distortions.' It also notes that such platforms must include access safeguards for all stakeholders during crises, but equal access is not guaranteed without negotiation.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Tribal Department is the nodal department for implementing the FRA. At the national level, this corresponds to the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, which oversees the recognition and vesting of forest rights.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the article explicitly says 'Nowhere does the FRA produce a requirement that other traditional forest dwellers have to have occupied the land for three generations before 2005.' Statement 2 is incorrect: the FRA defines 'bonafide livelihood needs' to include 'sale of surplus produce' and permits grazing on all forest lands. Statement 3 is correct: the article states that violating forest rights has been described as an atrocity under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act 1989 since 2016.

Explanation

The article states: 'The CEC also recorded 118 serving or retired government employees had encroached 15 ha.' Option A (99) refers to families of dam workers occupying 10.1 ha. Option C (237) refers to hectares involved in court cases in Kanniyakumari. Option D (4,595) is the total number of encroachers in Srivilliputhur-Megamalai TR.

Explanation

The article states: 'But the High Court declared these workers to be estate employees, not forest dwellers, and circumscribed them from the FRA's ambit.' Even though the estate was set up in 1929 and workers had lived there for generations, their legal status as employees excluded them from FRA protections.

Explanation

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the RBI, headed by the RBI Governor, decides the repo rate. It is a statutory committee under Section 45ZB of the RBI Act, 1934. The Ministry of Finance and other bodies do not set monetary policy rates.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as repo rate remained at 5.25%. Statement 2 is false – GDP growth projection was hiked to 6.7% from 6.6%. Statement 3 is correct – inflation forecast was reduced to 5% from 5.1%. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that retail inflation rose to 4.38% year-over-year in June, crossing the RBI's 4% target for the first time in 17 months. The other options are distractors: 4% is the target, 5% is the new inflation forecast, and 5.1% was the previous inflation forecast.

Explanation

The article explains that the MPC opted for status quo to balance the need to support economic growth while managing inflation, especially given volatile global conditions like the West Asia conflict and rising crude oil prices. Reducing fiscal deficit or controlling food prices directly are not functions of the repo rate.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of India and is responsible for monetary policy, including setting the repo rate. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) within the RBI decides the rate. The Ministry of Finance handles fiscal policy, SEBI regulates securities markets, and NITI Aayog is a policy think tank.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the RBI kept the repo rate unchanged at 5.25%. Statement 2 is incorrect: the stance was maintained as 'neutral', not changed to accommodative. Statement 3 is correct: Governor Sanjay Malhotra said India remains the fastest growing large economy. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The RBI kept the repo rate unchanged at 5.25%. The other options are close distractors: 5.00% was a previous lower level, 5.50% and 6.00% are higher rates possibly from earlier cycles.

Explanation

A neutral stance means the RBI has no predetermined bias towards tightening or loosening policy. This gives it the flexibility to adjust rates in either direction based on incoming data on growth and inflation. It does not commit to a specific future action like a rate cut or hike.

Explanation

The Supreme Court directed the National Judicial Academy, where Justice Aniruddha Bose serves as director, to form a committee of domain experts to frame practical training guidelines. This was in response to the CJI's observation that the 2023 handbook was 'too Harvard-oriented'.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the 2026 report explicitly replaces the 2023 handbook. Statement 2 is incorrect; the report recommends using the BSA to BAR questions about a survivor's sexual history, deeming it immaterial. Statement 3 is correct as the SC took cognisance of the Allahabad HC's March 2025 judgment.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the committee analysed 125 trial court verdicts to identify recurring moralistic and problematic phrases. This data point is a potential factual question for prelims.

Explanation

While the 2023 handbook focused on language and stereotypes, the 2026 report shifts focus to practical courtroom management, including controlling cross-examinations and treating witnesses as guests, to prevent re-traumatisation of survivors.

Explanation

The repo rate is set by the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India under the RBI Act, 1934. The Ministry of Finance does not directly set interest rates.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: repo rate unchanged at 5.25%. Statement 2 is incorrect: growth projection was lowered to 6.7%, not raised. Statement 3 is correct: CPI inflation projected at 5.0% for FY27. Hence option C.

Explanation

The RBI projected CPI inflation for 2026-27 at 5.0% with quarterly projections: Q2 at 4.7%, Q3 at 5.9%, Q4 at 5.5%. The annual average is 5.0%.

Explanation

Governor Malhotra cited uncertainties regarding monsoon, El Niño, geopolitics, and global trade policy. The RBI wants clarity on inflation path and composition before any policy action. Option A is opposite; option C not mentioned; option D not related.

Explanation

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the RBI, constituted under the RBI Act 1934, is the statutory body that decides the policy repo rate. The Finance Ministry nominates external members, but the decision is made by the MPC.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: repo rate kept at 5.25%. Statement 2 is incorrect: inflation projection was lowered to 5% from 5.1%. Statement 3 is correct: GDP growth forecast raised to 6.7%. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the US Fed kept the federal funds target range unchanged at 3.50-3.75% on July 29, 2026. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article highlights that the RBI chose caution because of volatile crude oil prices, geopolitical tensions in West Asia, and an uncertain global outlook. These factors cloud the inflation trajectory, making it prudent to hold rates rather than act prematurely.

Explanation

RBI regulates UCBs under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. NABARD supervises Rural Cooperative Banks (RCBs) but UCBs are directly under RBI's purview. SEBI regulates securities markets, and SIDBI focuses on small industries development.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – RBI announced resumption of UCB licensing on 'on tap' basis. Statement 2 is incorrect – the review of concentration risk management is for Rural Cooperative Banks (RCBs), not UCBs. Statement 3 is correct – CMA instructions were issued in 2008 for RCBs. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that as per RBI and NABARD, there are 1,457 urban cooperative banks. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article mentions that the review aims to 'address the prudential concerns arising from concentrated lending' by RCBs. Options A and C are not stated; option D relates to the separate interest rate rationalisation initiative, not the concentration risk review.

Explanation

The article mentions a senior official in the Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) commenting on the OFS. DIPAM is the nodal department for disinvestment under the Ministry of Finance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the government sold 6.5% stake. Statement 2 is incorrect: the OFS was oversubscribed 3.32 times by institutional investors, not retail. Statement 3 is correct: LIC is indeed a D-SII as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that with the LIC OFS expected to mop up around ₹31,000 crore, the government will move closer to its disinvestment receipts target of ₹80,000 crore in FY27. ₹21,201.13 crore is the amount collected so far, and ₹5,542.36 crore was from Coal India's OFS.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that the OFS brings the government closer to its FY27 disinvestment target of ₹80,000 crore, which is part of broader fiscal management. While reducing public sector presence is a secondary goal, the immediate objective is raising funds for the budget.

Explanation

The article is about Foreign Secretary Vikram Misri's visit to Sri Lanka, which falls under the purview of the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA). The MEA handles India's foreign relations and bilateral engagements with other countries.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the MEA statement. Statement 2 is incorrect because the total package is USD 450 million, not 350 million. Statement 3 is correct as India called for holding Provincial Council elections and implementing constitutional provisions (the 13th Amendment). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the USD 350 million LoCs are part of the USD 450 million reconstruction package. The other options are distractors: USD 250 million is the railway LoC, USD 100 million is the livestock LoC, and USD 350 million is the LoC amount signed during the visit.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India called for elections to 'meet the aspirations of the Tamil people' and to 'fully implement the Constitutional provisions of Sri Lanka'. This aligns with India's longstanding policy of supporting the political rights and devolution of powers to the Tamil minority.

Explanation

The article clearly states that Eisai procured marketing authorisation from CDSCO. CDSCO is India's central drug regulatory authority under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. DCGI is the head of CDSCO, but the body itself is CDSCO. ICMR is a research body, and NPPA deals with drug pricing.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article describes Leqembi as a humanised monoclonal antibody that selectively targets aggregated amyloid-beta. Statement 2 is incorrect: Leqembi is indicated for early Alzheimer's (Mild Cognitive Impairment and mild dementia), not moderate to severe. Statement 3 is correct: confirmation of amyloid pathology via CSF or serum biomarkers is required before therapy.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions: 'about 8.8 million Indians aged 60 years and above were living with dementia in 2023'. Option D (7.4 million) is a distractor: 7.4% is the prevalence rate, not the absolute number. 6.5 and 10.2 million are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly calls Leqembi India's first 'disease-modifying therapy (DMT)' and explains it works by removing existing amyloid-beta plaques, altering the disease course. Option A describes symptomatic treatments (e.g., donepezil). Option C is prevention, not indicated. Option D is incorrect because it targets amyloid-beta, not tau.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Bill was passed in the Lok Sabha on August 5, 2026, amid Opposition protests. There is no mention of Rajya Sabha or joint session.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the new Act repeals the 1891 Act. Statement 2 is incorrect: the bill was passed without debate due to protests. Statement 3 is correct: the Act includes digital and virtual records as admissible evidence. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the Bill was passed on Wednesday, August 5, 2026. The other options are distractors: July 20 is when the Monsoon Session began, and other dates are incorrect.

Explanation

The article states that the Bill aims to include digital and virtual records as admissible evidence, replacing the 1891 Act. Options A, C, and D are not mentioned in the article. The reform focuses on modernizing evidence law, not on penalties or privatization.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the proposed changes are to the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007. This Act governs payment systems in India under RBI oversight.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the bill allows MDR on UPI and RuPay. Statement 2 is incorrect: the subsidy is only for small merchants (up to Rs 2,000) and covers only 11% of industry costs, not all transactions. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: 4% of P2M UPI transactions exceeded Rs 2,000.

Explanation

The article states that in 2025-26, more than 24,000 crore UPI transactions worth Rs 314 lakh crore were made. The other options are cost figures or subsidy amounts mentioned elsewhere.

Explanation

The article explains that the industry incurs around Rs 20,000 crore annually in costs, and the MDR is intended to recover these costs from large merchants who benefit from the system. The government subsidy covers only 11% of the cost.

Explanation

The article states that HAL's Rotary Wing Research and Design Centre designed and developed the LUH. DRDO, BEL, and BDL are other defence PSUs but not involved in the LUH programme.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the LUH is designed to replace Cheetah and Chetak. Statement 2 is correct: the article mentions 60% indigenous content. Statement 3 is incorrect: the LUH uses a Safran Ardiden engine (French), not an indigenous DRDO engine.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that HAL manufactured three prototypes that together accumulated more than 1,300 hours of developmental flying across varied terrains and climatic conditions.

Explanation

The article concludes that the LUH is not merely a replacement but represents India's determination to build strategic aerospace capability through indigenous design, engineering, and manufacturing, while also ensuring operational sovereignty and lifecycle control.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the talks are 'U.S.-sponsored' and mediated by the United States. The U.S. State Department spokesman and the U.S. Ambassador to Lebanon (Michel Issa) are actively involved in the process.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions this is the seventh round of Washington-mediated talks. Statement 2 is incorrect: Hezbollah leader Naim Qassem opposed the talks and criticized the deal. Statement 3 is correct: the pilot zone process includes Israeli withdrawal, Lebanese army deployment, and residents inspecting their homes.

Explanation

The article states: 'Israel responded with heavy airstrikes and a ground invasion that Lebanon says have killed more than 4,300 people.' The most accurate option is 'more than 4,000'.

Explanation

The article explains that the pilot zone process is a test mechanism where Israeli forces withdraw, the Lebanese army deploys, and residents return. It is a step toward a full withdrawal and restoring Lebanese state authority, not a permanent ceasefire or UN-controlled zone. Hezbollah is not directly negotiating.

Explanation

Article 370 granted special autonomous status to Jammu and Kashmir. It was abrogated on August 5, 2019, along with the repeal of Article 35A.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: J&K was divided into J&K UT and Ladakh UT. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Supreme Court upheld the abrogation. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article states the UT arrangement was meant to be temporary, with statehood to be restored.

Explanation

The article mentions that the Assembly election in 2024, the first in 10 years, returned the National Conference to power.

Explanation

The article argues that continuing to withhold statehood demoralises those who participated in elections, estranges people in both Jammu and Kashmir, and turns the temporary provision into a breach of trust, thereby undermining the achievements of 2019.

Explanation

The article states that 'SIPCOT will establish new industrial parks in industrially backward districts based on district-specific industrial development plans.' SIPCOT is the State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu, responsible for industrial infrastructure development.

Explanation

All statements are directly mentioned in the article. Statement 1 is true as 'Arivagam' is announced. Statement 2 is true as Thoothukudi and Tirunelveli will be a Space Industrial Investment Zone. Statement 3 is true as MoUs worth ₹35,062 crore with 14,790 jobs are mentioned.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'A feasibility study for the project will be undertaken at an estimated cost of ₹5 crore.' The other amounts refer to different allocations: ₹3,200 crore for SIPCOT parks, ₹35,062 crore for MoUs, and ₹4,414 crore for the Industries department.

Explanation

The article states that 'Arivagam' will be established 'for artificial intelligence and deep-tech development' with facilities like an AI university, semiconductor lab, and innovation incubators. This clearly indicates the objective is to advance AI and deep-tech sectors.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the Strait of Hormuz as the critical energy chokepoint that Iran and Oman are working to reopen. The other straits are also important but are not the subject of this news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'The emerging agreement calls for ships to enter the Persian Gulf through an Iranian-controlled route and exit through a route controlled by Oman.' Statement 2 is incorrect because the article says the deal is contingent on the US lifting its blockade, implying it has not yet been lifted. Statement 3 is correct as Qatar said efforts are in 'very progressive stages'. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions a memorial service held in Beirut for victims of a 2020 port explosion, directly stating the year as 2020. This is a factual detail that could be asked in prelims.

Explanation

The article states that 'Iran and Oman are inching toward a deal to reopen the disputed Strait of Hormuz and potentially help bring an end to the war.' This is the core objective. The other options are either not mentioned or are secondary aspects.

Explanation

The article states that the three drugs were classified as 'carcinogenic to humans' (Group 1) by the IARC, which is the WHO's specialized cancer research agency. IARC evaluates substances for carcinogenicity and publishes classifications.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions all three drugs feature on the WHO Model List of Essential Medicines. Statement 2 is incorrect: hydrochlorothiazide is used for hypertension, not fungal infections; voriconazole is for fungal infections. Statement 3 is incorrect: experts urge patients not to stop treatment because the benefits outweigh the risks.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions three drugs: hydrochlorothiazide, voriconazole, and tacrolimus. The other options are distractors; the number is clearly stated in the headline and body.

Explanation

The article quotes experts urging patients not to stop treatment, emphasizing that the benefits of controlling these serious conditions far exceed the small increased risk of cancer. The absolute risk is low, and untreated conditions pose greater health dangers.

Explanation

FSSAI is the statutory body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, for regulating and supervising food safety in India. BIS handles product standards, ASCI is for advertising, and NPPA is for pharmaceutical pricing.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as FSSAI accused liquor makers of adding flavour compounds to recreate a drink's natural taste. Statement 2 is incorrect because FSSAI clarified that this is not a blanket ban on flavourings; additions like coffee or vanilla remain allowed where legally permitted. Statement 3 is correct as FSSAI also acted against misleading 'aged' claims on labels.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that FSSAI initiated enforcement action on August 2, 2026. The other dates are close distractors, but the correct date is explicitly stated in the article.

Explanation

The orders target violations related to artificial flavour compounds and misleading 'aged' claims, which are issues of food safety and consumer protection. The action is not about taxation, promoting artificial flavourings, or banning alcohol entirely, but about ensuring compliance with labelling and quality standards.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that all three examinations were conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA). CBSE, UGC, and ICMR are not mentioned in this context.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as the Act is mentioned in the article. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article states that the NEET-2026 investigation remains in progress with a chargesheet already filed.

Explanation

The article states: 'UGC-NET 2024 was canceled and held again, while NEET 2026 was also re-conducted.' NEET-2024 was not canceled but had irregularities.

Explanation

The article states that the PEIF should prescribe standardised end-to-end SOPs covering the entire examination lifecycle, with emphasis on conflict-of-interest management, expert selection, cybersecurity, and institutional accountability.

Explanation

The order was passed by a Bench of the Supreme Court headed by Chief Justice Surya Kant on July 31, 2026. The Supreme Court is the apex judicial body in India and has the authority to regulate reporting of its proceedings.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the July 31 order explicitly states that reporting by recognized news outlets is allowed. Statement 2 is correct: the July 24 order required prior permission from the Secretary General or Registrars General for extraction of audio-video recordings. Statement 3 is correct: activists Anjali Bhardwaj and Amrita Johri argued that the ban reversed the principle of open justice.

Explanation

The article specifies that a Bench headed by Chief Justice of India Surya Kant passed the July 31 order. The other options are former or present judges but not the one mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The activists criticized the July 24 order as a reversal of the 'principle of open justice' upheld by the Supreme Court in previous judgments. They argued that open access to justice ensures judicial accountability and guards against arbitrariness.

Explanation

The news explicitly states that the Social Justice Department has been allocated ₹3,937 crore in the Revised Budget 2026-27. This department oversees the implementation of schemes for Adi Dravidar and tribal communities in Tamil Nadu.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: Mannin Magal Thittam will help Adi Dravidar and tribal women agricultural labourers become landowners. Statement 2 is correct: the scholarship provides up to ₹36 lakh per student to 362 students at ₹131 crore. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Vetri Entrepreneur Scheme has an allocation of ₹75 crore, not ₹165 crore. The ₹165 crore is for the Annal Ambedkar Business Champions Scheme.

Explanation

The article clearly states that under the Special Components Plan for Adi Dravidars, an allocation of ₹25,225 crore has been made. ₹2,079 crore is the Tribal Sub-Plan allocation, ₹3,937 crore is for the Social Justice Department, and ₹300 crore is for the Iyothee Thass Habitation Development Scheme.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Mannin Magal Thittam will be implemented to help Adi Dravidar and tribal women agricultural labourers become landowners. The scheme also includes training in modern agricultural technologies. Options A, C, and D refer to other schemes mentioned in the budget - Iyothee Thass Habitation Scheme, Annal Ambedkar Scholarship, and Vetri Entrepreneur Scheme respectively.

Explanation

The article states that the scheme falls under the Animal Husbandry, Dairying, Fisheries and Fishermen Welfare Department, which was allocated ₹4,880 crore. This department oversees livestock and fisheries-related welfare schemes in the state.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the subsidy is 100% (not 50%) and the beneficiaries include destitute widows, deserted women, transgender persons, and persons with disabilities (not only widows and deserted women). Statement 3 is correct as the 'Kaalnadaigal Kaappom' livestock insurance scheme was allocated ₹31 crore.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'The Animal Husbandry, Dairying, Fisheries and Fishermen Welfare Department has been allocated ₹4,880 crore.' The other options are plausible distractors based on typical budget allocations.

Explanation

The article mentions that 'Kaalnadaigal Kaappom' scheme aims 'to provide financial protection against the loss of livestock due to unforeseen mortality, disease or disaster at a cost of ₹31 crore.' This is a risk mitigation measure for livestock owners, not a general veterinary or subsidy scheme.

Explanation

The article mentions that the Odisha Hydro Power Corporation (OHPC) has already taken precautions and lowered generation levels. It is the nodal state-owned corporation for hydropower in Odisha.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states Odisha's installed hydropower capacity is 2,099.5 MW. Statement 2 is incorrect because the suspension is conditional on water levels, not permanent. Statement 3 is correct as the letter instructs engineers to stop generation without waiting for clearance if thresholds are breached. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'Odisha has an installed hydropower capacity of 2,099.5 MW.' The other options are close distractors; 1,099.5 MW is half, and 3,099.5 MW is an inflated figure.

Explanation

The article clearly states the decision is to 'prioritise drinking water and irrigation needs.' The Chief Minister observed that reserving water for these critical needs is absolute and paramount. The other options are not mentioned or are secondary.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that an interim agreement to reopen the Strait of Hormuz is being backed by Oman. Qatar is also mediating but the specific backing for the deal is from Oman.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions 'Around 20% of global oil and LNG shipments pass through the Strait.' Statement 2 is correct as the article says 'The waterway connects the Persian Gulf with the Arabian Sea.' Statement 3 is incorrect because the article states 'a significant share' of India's crude oil imports from Gulf producers travel through this route, not all of its crude oil.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'Around 20% of global oil and LNG shipments pass through the Strait, making it one of the world's most important energy chokepoints.' The other options are common distractors for other straits.

Explanation

The article highlights that any reopening of the Strait of Hormuz would be closely watched by India because it imports a significant share of its crude oil from Gulf producers through this strategic waterway. Disruption could raise global crude prices and increase fuel costs for India.

Explanation

The article states that Chief Minister D K Shivakumar directed the Home Department to examine and propose more effective measures. The Home Department is the state-level body overseeing police administration in Karnataka.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the proposal names five commissionerates: Central, North, South, East, and West. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Chief Commissioner of Police post is equivalent to a DGP, not an IGP. Statement 3 is correct as the East division requires 2,734 posts, the highest among all divisions.

Explanation

The article specifies that the overall financial outlay for the restructuring is approximately ₹764.87 crore, comprising ₹368.71 crore in recurring annual expenditure and ₹396.16 crore in one-time costs. Option A (₹396.16 crore) is the one-time cost, and option C (₹368.71 crore) is the recurring cost, making them distractors.

Explanation

The article argues that police jurisdiction should be realigned with GBA's five corporations to ensure better coordination between civic and law-enforcement authorities. This is the core rationale for the restructuring, not reducing police stations (A) or increasing magisterial powers (C). Option D is incorrect as the proposal creates five commissioners, not one.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the retirement age of Supreme Court judges is 65, while High Court judges superannuate at 62. District judges are at 60, with the States being asked to consider 61 years. This is a basic constitutional fact often asked in prelims.

Explanation

Statement 1 is directly from the article: the Bench observed that financial burden concerns are 'misconceived'. Statement 2 is wrong because the Court directed States/UTs to take a decision and only if they agree can officers continue up to 61; it did not fix the age for all. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the 2002 judgment declining the Shetty Commission's 62-year recommendation.

Explanation

The Supreme Court directed that the issue shall be revisited on an urgent basis and an independent and pragmatic decision shall be taken within two weeks. This deadline applies to all State governments and UTs.

Explanation

The Bench said there is no reason to doubt that continuation of experienced judicial officers would entail a lesser financial liability than the State would incur upon their retirement and filling resulting vacancies. Therefore, financial burden is not a valid ground to oppose the enhancement.

Explanation

The committee, chaired by BJP MP Nishikant Dubey, is the nodal parliamentary body overseeing communications and IT matters. It has the mandate to examine the IT Act and related policies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the committee demanded an apology from Mark Zuckerberg. Statement 2 is incorrect: safe harbour is conditional, not blanket immunity. Statement 3 is correct: the letter also named Google India for cyber frauds of ₹48 lakh.

Explanation

The article mentions that complainants in Hyderabad lost over ₹48 lakh due to cyber frauds from apps downloaded from Google Play. Other options are plausible distractors.

Explanation

The committee's demand is based on the erroneous blocking of the PM's video, which violated the conditions of safe harbour. The goal is to enforce accountability and ensure that intermediaries do not arbitrarily remove government content, not to ban or penalize Meta financially.

Explanation

The Finance Minister announced the establishment of TNSHIC with an initial equity infusion of ₹10 crore. This SPV will oversee the implementation of the TN-SUDAR initiative for student hostels. TIDCO is an existing Tamil Nadu industrial development corporation, while TNHB and TNUHDB are housing-related agencies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the law college is to be set up in Madurai, not Chennai. Statement 2 is correct: TN-SUDAR aims to construct 200 integrated hostels with 1 lakh beds. Statement 3 is correct: the Vetri Laptop Scheme has an allocation of ₹2,000 crore.

Explanation

The TN-SUDAR project has an estimated capital outlay of ₹3,200 crore. The ₹2,000 crore is the allocation for the Vetri Laptop Scheme. ₹640 crore is the 20% State Capital Construction Grant for TN-SUDAR. ₹8,393 crore is the total allocation for the Higher Education Department.

Explanation

The Finance Minister argued that repeated NEET leaks have affected higher education prospects, and urged restoration of the Class XII marks-based system. This reflects Tamil Nadu's long-standing position that NEET disadvantages rural and economically weaker students who may not have access to expensive coaching, thereby undermining social equity in medical admissions.

Explanation

The article states that the Arctic Council was established when the governments of Canada, the Kingdom of Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, the Russian Federation, Sweden, and the United States signed the Ottawa Declaration. Canada is thus one of the eight Arctic States. India is an observer country, while China and Singapore are also observers mentioned in the quadrilateral suggestion.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article says observer countries 'do not have decision making powers.' Statement 2 is correct — India got observer status in 2013. Statement 3 is correct as the Council's Strategic Plan 2021-2030 uses exactly that phrase.

Explanation

According to the article, India's first scientific expedition to the Arctic was launched in 2007, and the research station Himadri was established in the Norwegian archipelago of Svalbard in 2008. India got observer status in 2013 and released its Arctic Policy in 2022.

Explanation

The article states that melting ice creates economic prospects including new maritime trade routes and access to natural resources like critical minerals, oil and natural gas. The Madrid Protocol actually protects Antarctica, not the Arctic. The Northern Sea Route connects the Pacific with the Atlantic, and the Chennai-Vladivostok route cuts travel time between India and Europe by about two weeks.

Explanation

BRBNMPL is a wholly-owned subsidiary of RBI responsible for printing banknotes. While RBI is the monetary authority, the actual printing is done by BRBNMPL. SPMCIL prints coins and other security documents.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions polymer notes have 2-4 times the life of paper currency. Statement 2 is incorrect because the planned denominations are ₹10 and ₹20, not ₹50. Statement 3 is correct as the first attempt for ₹10 notes failed due to 'certain technical infirmities'.

Explanation

The article states 100 crore pieces of ₹10 and 100 crore pieces of ₹20 will be introduced, totalling ₹3,000 crore (100 crore × ₹10 = ₹1,000 crore + 100 crore × ₹20 = ₹2,000 crore).

Explanation

The RBI Governor explicitly stated that polymer notes enhance durability, which is relevant for lower denomination notes with higher velocity (frequent exchange). While cost reduction and security are secondary benefits, the primary stated purpose is durability and expanding capacity.

Explanation

The article mentions the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) as the nodal body for air quality management in Delhi-NCR. CAQM was established under the CAQM Act, 2021, and is responsible for implementing and enforcing the winter pollution plan.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the notification was issued on July 1, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: the plan allows exemptions for essential public infrastructure projects and permits finishing work, plumbing, and electrical installations inside sites. Statement 3 is correct: the stringent window (Dec 10-Jan 20) allows only government projects deemed indispensable for public utility or emergencies.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The government’s winter pollution framework was notified on July 1'. July 28 is the date of the industry meeting, August 5 is the publication date of the article, and November 1 is the start date of the curbs.

Explanation

The article highlights that the industry warned about daily wage labourers returning to hometowns and not coming back, causing supply chain stress and cash flow problems for ancillary industries. The other options are not the primary concern; dust-control norms are already in place, and the industry is not opposing essential projects.

Explanation

Paragraph 10 of the July 24 order states that prior permission of the Secretary General of the Supreme Court or the Registrar Generals of the jurisdictional High Courts is required for any extraction, dissemination, or monetization of recordings.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per paragraph 11 of the July 24 order, clarified on July 31. Statement 2 is false because the July 31 clarification explicitly states that audio or video clips shall not be used in reportage. Statement 3 is correct as paragraph 10 prohibits such activities without permission.

Explanation

The article states that the clarification came on July 31 from a bench of Chief Justice Surya Kant and Justices Joymalya Bagchi and V Mohana. The July 24 order was the interim order, and the article was published on August 5, 2026.

Explanation

The article notes that the court was hearing a plea against 'selective clipping, editing, decontextualised circulation, and commercial exploitation on social media and digital platforms' of judicial proceedings. The order aims to prevent misuse while allowing reporting.

Explanation

The article specifically refers to a report published by the World Bank on August 4, 2026. The World Bank's chief economist Indermit Gill commented on the findings. The other options are unrelated international organizations that often release economic reports but are not the source here.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the report advises developing countries to focus on small language models (SLMs), not LLMs, to avoid excessive dependence on the US or China. Statement 3 is correct: the report warns that AI could close off a promising route to middle-class employment in developing economies that rely on outsourcing.

Explanation

The report states that the share of jobs expected to benefit from meaningful, AI-driven productivity gains is 16.2% in developing economies and 18.7% in high-income countries. The other options are distractors: 4.5% is the exposure figure for low-income countries, 14.2% is the exposure for rich countries, and 18.7% is the productivity gain for high-income countries.

Explanation

The report recommends buying 'models, cloud services, and other AI tools from many countries—and make sure they can work together and be swapped out without requiring the entire system to be rebuilt.' This avoids over-dependence on any single nation while keeping costs manageable. Option A is incorrect because the report advises against spending vast resources on LLMs. Option C is not mentioned, and Option D contradicts the report's call to seize AI opportunities.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions Himachal Pradesh Chief Minister Sukhvinder Singh Sukhu announcing the scheme. The other options are neighboring states, but only Himachal Pradesh is named in the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article clearly states coverage of up to ₹10 lakh. Statement 2 is incorrect because the scheme targets 'economically weaker families' and 'poor families', not all residents. Statement 3 is correct as the CM mentioned leading multi-speciality and tertiary care hospitals would be empanelled. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'Nearly 10 lakh families belonging to various sections of society would be brought under the ambit of the new policy.' The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article states the scheme aims to 'ensure quality healthcare access for economically weaker families' and 'develop world-class healthcare facilities within Himachal Pradesh so that people do not have to travel outside the state for advanced medical treatment.' Options A, C, and D are not mentioned or are contrary to the news.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of India and has the sole authority to issue and manage the country's currency, including the new polymer notes. The Ministry of Finance oversees fiscal policy but does not directly issue currency.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Governor mentioned polymer notes last 3-4 times longer than paper. Statement 2 is incorrect because the RBI is still in the pilot stage and plans to issue them from the next fiscal year, not already for all denominations. Statement 3 is correct as the article states about 60 countries have polymer notes in circulation.

Explanation

The Governor explicitly stated that the life of polymer notes is 'much more, three to four times' that of paper substrate. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The Governor highlighted two purposes: first, enhancing durability and life of lower denomination notes (which have higher velocity), and second, expanding RBI's capacity to meet the needs of the growing economy. While other options may be related, these are the stated primary objectives.

Explanation

CBDC (Digital Rupee) is issued and backed directly by the Reserve Bank of India, as confirmed by RBI Deputy Governor Rohit Jain in the article. SEBI regulates securities markets, NPCI manages retail payments like UPI, and the Ministry of Finance handles fiscal policy.

Explanation

All three statements are directly mentioned in the article. Retail CBDC is for daily public use, ULI is for faster loan processing, and wholesale CBDC is for inter-bank settlements and state government payments. No statement contains a trap; all are factually correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'as many as 12 states have already digitised their land records and others are doing it.' The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article defines ULI as a public infrastructure introduced by RBI to help borrowers get loans faster and easily, while banks can check borrower data like land records and tax papers before sanctioning loans. Option A describes UPI's function, not ULI. Options C and D are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Kerala Disaster Resilience Programme was announced by the Congress-led UDF government of Kerala in its Revised Budget 2026-27, presented by Chief Minister V.D. Satheesan.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the programme was announced in the Revised Budget 2026-27. Statement 2 is incorrect; the allocation is ₹15 crore, not ₹50 crore. Statement 3 is correct as AI-driven dam management and desiltation are part of the programme.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Chief Minister V.D. Satheesan earmarked ₹15 crore for the Kerala Disaster Resilience Programme in the Revised Budget.

Explanation

The article quotes CM Satheesan saying the programme will 'serve as a model for the entire country'. The focus is on scientific disaster preparedness and prevention, not tourism, revenue, or dam construction.