6 August 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The article states that Union Home Minister Amit Shah introduced the legislations in both Houses of Parliament. Therefore, the Ministry of Home Affairs was the nodal ministry for this action.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly states the special status under Article 370 was stripped. Statement 2 is correct as the state was bifurcated into the UTs of J&K and Ladakh. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article's analysis concludes that the Union government has NOT delivered on its promises of wide-ranging transformation.

Explanation

The article's lead paragraph states 'Seven years have passed since the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) introduced legislations in Parliament to implement its long-standing objective'. The article is published in August 2026, making it exactly 7 years since the August 2019 decision.

Explanation

The article's subtitle clearly states: 'Analysis of available data show that the Union government has not delivered on its promise of wide-ranging transformation in Jammu and Kashmir'. Options A, C, and D are all positive claims that contradict the article's critical assessment.

Explanation

Article 280 provides for the constitution of a Finance Commission every five years by the President. Article 275 deals with grants-in-aid, Article 282 with miscellaneous grants, and Article 293 with borrowing by States.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: FC-16 retained vertical devolution at 41%. Statement 2 is incorrect: FC-16 reduced the weight of income distance from 45% to 42.5%, not increased it. Statement 3 is correct: a 10% weight for contribution to GDP was newly introduced.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that RDGs accounted for about 20% of Finance Commission grants in 2024-25. The other options are close distractors often used by examiners.

Explanation

The authors argue that FC-16's shift toward efficiency and performance-based transfers, combined with the removal of RDGs and introduction of GDP weight, risks widening regional disparities. The Commission's approach prioritises fiscal discipline over fiscal justice, moving away from its equalising mandate.

Explanation

The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 is a civil law that covers women in live-in relationships. Section 498A IPC and Section 85 BNS are criminal law provisions, which the Supreme Court has now extended to live-in partners 'in the nature of marriage' through this judgment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the SC extended Section 498A IPC (now Section 85 BNS) to live-in relationships 'in the nature of marriage'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 already covers women in live-in relationships. Statement 3 is correct as the Court mandated safeguards from Arnesh Kumar vs Bihar to prevent misuse. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the recent NFHS found that over 22% of ever-married women have experienced physical, sexual, or emotional violence at the hands of their partners. The other options are close distractors but 22% is the correct figure mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The SC judgment emphasizes that domestic abuse derives its force from unequal power and coercion, and does not become less devastating because a relationship lacks formal solemnisation. This shifts the focus from marital status to the substance of the relationship, ensuring criminal law protection for vulnerable women in genuine live-in relationships.

Explanation

The MPC, constituted under Section 45ZB of the RBI Act, 1934, is responsible for setting the policy repo rate to maintain price stability while keeping growth in mind. The FSDC deals with financial stability, BFS with supervision, and the Central Board with overall governance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the MPC unanimously voted to hold the repo rate at 5.25%. Statement 2 is incorrect: 4.38% was the headline CPI inflation in June 2026, not core inflation. Core inflation (excluding precious metals) was around 2.3-2.5%. Statement 3 is correct as the RBI revised its GDP growth forecast to 6.7%.

Explanation

The RBI projected CPI inflation to peak at 5.9% in the October-December quarter (Q3) of 2026, then decline to 5.5% in Q4 and 5.3% in Q1 of the next financial year. 4.38% was the actual CPI in June 2026.

Explanation

The MPC noted that the rise in CPI inflation to 4.38% was driven largely by food and fuel prices, while core inflation (excluding precious metals) remained subdued at 2.3-2.5%, suggesting price pressures are not broad-based. This justified holding rates steady. Option A is wrong as pressures are not broad-based. Option C has no basis. Option D is factually incorrect as oil prices were around $85.19/barrel.

Explanation

Article 110 of the Constitution defines a Money Bill and lists the matters it can exclusively deal with, such as taxation, borrowing, and appropriation from the Consolidated Fund of India. Article 109 deals with the procedure for Ordinary Bills, Article 111 with the President's assent, and Article 117 with Financial Bills.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Money Bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. Statement 2 is incorrect: A Money Bill does not require Rajya Sabha's approval; it can only be delayed by 14 days. Statement 3 is correct: The Speaker's certification is final and cannot be questioned in any court. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The Bill seeks to increase the sanctioned strength from the current 34 to 38, including the Chief Justice of India. The previous increase to 34 was also done via a Money Bill in 2019. Options 36 and 40 are close but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

A Money Bill, under Article 110, does not require Rajya Sabha's approval. It can only be delayed by 14 days after which it is deemed passed. This is significant because the government currently lacks a majority in the Rajya Sabha. The other options are incorrect: Money Bills are not subject to High Court challenge on certification, do not require a special majority, and do not require a referendum.

Explanation

The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs. The article mentions the FCRA Amendment Bill, and the nodal ministry for FCRA is MHA, not Finance or RBI.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct per Article 109(1). Statement 2 is incorrect: Rajya Sabha cannot reject, only recommend amendments or delay by 14 days. Statement 3 is correct: Speaker decides if a bill is Money Bill. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'RBI's Monetary Policy Committee kept its key policy repo rate unchanged at 5.25 per cent'. The other options are distractors; 5.00% was not mentioned, 5.50% and 6.00% are higher rates not in line with the policy.

Explanation

The RBI Governor stated two purposes: 'one, it enhances the durability' (especially for lower notes with higher velocity) and 'second purpose is to expand our capacity as the needs of the economy increase'. While other options may be secondary benefits, the primary stated objectives are durability and capacity expansion.

Explanation

RBI regulates foreign currency and non-resident deposit schemes under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA). It sets interest rate ceilings and other terms for FCNR(B) and NRE deposits to manage capital flows.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'temporarily relaxed interest rate restrictions on fresh FCNR(B) and NRE deposits until September.' Statement 2 is incorrect: the individual limit was doubled from 5% to 10%, not from 10% to 20%. Statement 3 is correct: 'exempting foreign institutional investors from income tax on interest and capital gains from G-Secs, effective April 1.' Hence option C.

Explanation

The article states: 'This could attract up to $10 billion in additional inflows by enabling banks to mobilise foreign currency and rupee deposits from overseas investors.' The $20 billion figure refers to total dollar funding from deposits and ECBs combined.

Explanation

The article explains that the tax exemption removes a 'longstanding withholding tax that discouraged overseas participation while helping reduce borrowing costs.' This makes Indian sovereign debt more competitive globally, improves price discovery, and compresses term premia, thereby lowering the government's cost of borrowing.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions 'The Department of Science and Technology’s latest figures on India’s research profile record a milestone.' Therefore, the Department of Science and Technology (DST) is the nodal body for this data.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct based on the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article notes that part of the surge reflects better measurement (mandatory sustainability disclosures, tighter RBI norms) rather than entirely new money. Statement 3 is correct: India's R&D at 0.84% of GDP is lower than China (2.58%), US (3.45%), and South Korea (4.94%). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'India’s R&D stands at 0.84% of GDP, against 2.58% for China, 3.45% for the U.S. and 4.94% for South Korea.' Therefore, the correct answer is 0.84%. The other options are values for other countries.

Explanation

The article states: 'The Anusandhan National Research Foundation, with a ₹50,000-crore corpus largely to be raised from private sources, was created for precisely this purpose. Its promise now rests on delivery.' The preceding sentence clarifies that 'this purpose' refers to 'deepens India’s pool of specialised workers and its capacity for sophisticated manufacturing'. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

IGST is levied on inter-state supply of goods and services. It is collected by the Centre and then apportioned between Centre and states based on the destination principle. The other options are incorrect abbreviations commonly used in distractors.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: GST grossed ₹2.11 lakh crore with 15.4% growth. Statement 2 is correct: Import IGST grew 26.9% while domestic revenues grew only 4.5%. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions only 16 states/UTs have above-average growth. Hence all three are correct.

Explanation

The article states that domestic revenues rose by 4.5% year-on-year. 15.4% is overall GST growth, 26.9% is import IGST growth, and 7.18% is WPI manufacturing inflation for June.

Explanation

The article argues that the healthy headline growth masks a structural weakness: it is fuelled by imports (import IGST) and inflation (WPI), not by real domestic production or broad-based consumption. This undermines 'Make in India' and warrants a closer reading of GST metrics.

Explanation

The Supreme Court in Sukdeb Saha v. State of Andhra Pradesh (2025) recognised student mental health as part of the right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution. Article 14 is Right to Equality, Article 19 deals with freedoms, and Article 32 is the right to constitutional remedies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the SC directed institutions to adopt mental health policies. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court warned against individualising student suicides while ignoring institutional stressors. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions that the leak exposed over 20 lakh students to pressures identified in Sukdeb Saha.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the NEET paper leak and subsequent events exposed over 20 lakh students to the kinds of pressures identified in Sukdeb Saha and by the National Task Force. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the text.

Explanation

The article argues that the state's control over access to higher education and public employment carries a positive duty to create fair systems that minimise foreseeable institutional harm, moving beyond merely resolving individual controversies. Options A, C, and D are not supported by the article's argument.

Explanation

According to the article, Oman is mediating the negotiations between Iran and the US on the Strait of Hormuz shipping route. The article states 'Oman mediation steps up with a Gulf-backed plan' and describes the talks as 'Iran–Oman' with the US kept informed but not directly involved.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article says a 'preliminary understanding' has been reached, not a final agreement, and key issues remain unresolved. Statement 2 is correct: the US official is quoted saying any arrangements would preserve freedom of navigation without tolls. Statement 3 is correct: the article states 'India imports a significant share of its crude oil from Gulf producers, making any agreement...critical for fuel prices, shipping costs and energy security.'

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'The Strait of Hormuz handles nearly one-fifth of global oil shipments.' One-fifth is equivalent to 20%. The other options are close distractors, but 20% is the correct figure from the news.

Explanation

The article states that 'India imports a significant share of its crude oil from Gulf producers, making any agreement governing navigation through the waterway critical for fuel prices, shipping costs and energy security.' It also mentions India imports crude and LNG via Hormuz. Options A, C, and D are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The Bill amended Section 10A of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 to substitute the reference to specific electronic modes with a broader government notification power. This allows the government to permit banks and service providers to levy charges on UPI and other notified electronic payment modes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the exemption was extended till 2040-41, not 2030-31. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Bill was passed without a debate due to Opposition sloganeering.

Explanation

Section 269SU of the Income Tax Act requires every person carrying on business with turnover exceeding Rs 50 crore to provide facilities for accepting payments through prescribed electronic modes, including RuPay debit cards and BHIM-UPI QR codes.

Explanation

The amendment substitutes the words in Section 10A from 'the electronic modes of payment prescribed under section 269SU' to 'one or more electronic modes of payment as the central government may, by notification, specify'. This empowers the government to permit levying of charges on UPI and other notified electronic payment modes, potentially ending the current zero-charge regime for UPI.

Explanation

The article states that the Technology Development Board (TDB), a statutory body under the Department of Science and Technology, has been selected as one of the two Second-Level Fund Managers (SLFMs) for the RDI Fund. BIRAC is the other SLFM but is a Section 8 company under DBT, not a statutory body under DST.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions collateral-free loans at about 2-4% interest for 15 years. Statement 2 is incorrect because the eligibility is TRL4 (validated under laboratory conditions), not TRL9. Statement 3 is correct: the fund is housed under ANRF, a statutory body under the Ministry of Science and Technology.

Explanation

The article states that out of 124 applications received, 51 were evaluated by the investment committee, and 22 were selected for funding, receiving a total of Rs 2,192 crore. The other numbers are distractors: 15 refers to the number of selected companies with investment ties to committee members, 51 is the number evaluated, and 124 is total applications.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the fund provides collateral-free, low-cost, long-term loans to private sector companies engaged in advanced research in deep-tech sectors. It is not a grant scheme, not for idea-stage startups (TRL4 is minimum), and does not replace existing agencies. The primary objective is to boost private sector R&D in priority deep-tech areas.

Explanation

The Khelo India Scheme and the Assistance to National Sports Federations Scheme (ANSF) are both under the purview of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. This ministry oversees all central sports development initiatives.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: general states have a 60:40 ratio (centre:state). Statement 2 is incorrect: Union Territories receive 100% central funding, not 90%. Statement 3 is correct: the new outlay of ₹29,054 crore is eight times the previous allocation. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The Union Cabinet approved ₹29,054 crore for the Khelo India Scheme. ₹7,387 crore was separately approved for the Assistance to National Sports Federations Scheme (ANSF). ₹36,441 crore is the sum of both schemes, but the question specifically asks for the Khelo India outlay.

Explanation

According to the Sports Ministry source, the demarcation was not there in the previous scheme and was done 'to make states a partner in the process and provide them ownership in the projects.' While fiscal burden sharing is a consequence, the core objective is partnership and ownership.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions a recent paper by the Centre for Social and Economic Progress (CSEP) that mapped India and China's climate engagement from the early 1990s until 2020.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article explicitly states that disaster mitigation and urban resilience could offer a low-risk pathway for rebuilding trust. Statement 2 is correct: the article mentions the visit in April 2026. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article says the water-sharing agreements ceased to function in 2022, not 2020.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'While India and China had agreements on shared water resources, they ceased to function in 2022.' This is a specific data point that could be tested in prelims.

Explanation

The article argues that collaboration in areas such as green technology and critical minerals remains challenging due to economic competition and geopolitical tensions. In contrast, disaster mitigation and urban resilience are relatively low-risk, non-contentious areas where both countries can benefit from shared learning.

Explanation

The article states that Law and Justice Minister Arjun Ram Meghwal introduced the Bill when the House reconvened at 2 pm. Kiren Rijiju and Nitin Gadkari are other ministers mentioned in the House, and C. P. Radhakrishnan was the Chairman presiding over Rajya Sabha proceedings.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the Bill increases the strength of apex court judges from 34 to 38, including the Chief Justice of India. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Money Bill was passed by Lok Sabha, not rejected. Statement 3 is correct as the Upper House cleared it with a voice vote and returned it to the Lower House.

Explanation

The Law Ministry data cited in the article states that out of 593 judges appointed during the period, 26 were from SCs, 14 from STs, 80 from OBCs and 37 from minorities. This is a classic Prelims data-point question with close distractors drawn from the same dataset.

Explanation

Congress MP Vivek Tankha questioned the government's 'hurry' to bring an ordinance just four days before the Supreme Court was to start its summer vacation, when Parliament was due to meet in July anyway. This was a key procedural objection to the Bill.

Explanation

The Tamil Nadu government constituted a high-level Revenue Augmentation Committee under the chairmanship of renowned economist Montek Singh Ahluwalia to mobilize nearly Rs 15,000 crore and improve the state's revenue position.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: debt-to-GSDP was 28% as of 2025-26. Statement 2 is incorrect: the target for 2027-28 is 26.57%, not 26.10%. Statement 3 is correct: the White Paper warned of an early-stage debt-interest spiral. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The Finance Minister promised that the debt-to-GSDP ratio will be brought down to 26.57% in 2027-28 and further to 26.10% in 2028-29. Option A is the target for 2027-28, not 2028-29.

Explanation

The budget highlighted that past governments borrowed excessively, leading to high debt levels. Rising interest payments consume a growing share of revenue, forcing further borrowing—creating a debt-interest spiral. This is the biggest fiscal challenge, as confirmed by the White Paper.

Explanation

The news explicitly states that the Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) has urged states to conduct the outreach camps under the Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan. MoTA is the nodal ministry for tribal welfare in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Abhiyan was launched in September 2025, not 2024. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions 38,509 Kendras have been established.

Explanation

The article clearly states that 38,509 Kendras have been established and a further 41,454 remain at the proposal stage. Option A is the number of established Kendras, while C and D are distractor figures.

Explanation

The article states the camps are for 'doorstep delivery of the Centre's tribal welfare schemes' and are described as 'public grievance and entitlement camps'. The goal is to resolve local issues and ensure scheme benefits reach the intended beneficiaries.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the CAG (Comptroller and Auditor General) conducted the audit of land management in tribal areas and flagged the failures. The CAG is a constitutional body under Article 148.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the audit covered 66 cases between 2017-18 and 2021-22. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says companies failed to pay the mandatory 100% solatium. Statement 3 is correct: district authorities failed to ensure fair market value despite the Coal India R&R Policy 2012.

Explanation

The article states: 'against the assessed market value of ₹17.79 crore, ECL and BCCL paid only ₹2.55 crore'. Options A (₹2.55 crore) is the amount paid, B (₹15.25 crore) is the shortfall, and D (₹17.80 crore) is the unpaid solatium.

Explanation

The LARR Act 2013 mandates fair compensation (market value + solatium + additional compensation) and rehabilitation for affected families, especially tribals. The CAG report criticizes the failure to pay solatium and additional compensation, directly pointing to the Act's objective.

Explanation

The article states that the Payment and Settlement Systems Act of 2007 instructs banks 'not to impose a charge for using electronic modes of payment' if conducted using methods listed in Section 269SU of the Income Tax Act, 1961. This combination has kept UPI free from MDR charges.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Bill modifies the Payment and Settlement Systems Act to allow the government to notify transactions that can attract MDR. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Bill does not immediately impose MDR; it only enables the government to do so, and proposed MDR is only for large merchants and high-value transactions. Statement 3 is correct: the Bill was introduced on August 4, 2026 as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the government paid ₹1,389 crore as subsidy in 2021-22, which grew to ₹3,631 crore by 2023-24. Option B (₹2,000 crore) is the budgeted amount for 2026-27, and option A is the 2021-22 figure.

Explanation

The article states that 'The main concern among users is that UPI will no longer be free.' While the government proposes to charge only large merchants, users fear that merchants will pass on the cost to customers, making UPI indirectly chargeable. The other options are not mentioned as primary user concerns.

Explanation

The Bar Council of India, established under the Advocates Act, 1961, is the statutory body regulating legal education and the legal profession. The circular was issued by BCI on August 4, 2026, as per the article. UGC regulates higher education generally, but legal education specifically falls under BCI.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the circular was issued on August 4, 2026, with a six-week deadline for compliance report. Statement 2 is incorrect: the circular explicitly bans weekend, evening, shift-based, and compressed schedules to compensate for inadequate infrastructure – it does not allow them. Statement 3 is correct: the direction follows the July 29, 2026 judgment of the Andhra Pradesh High Court in the mentioned case.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the BCI has asked universities to complete the inspection exercise and submit a consolidated compliance report within six weeks. The other options are distractors; 4 weeks, 8 weeks, and 3 months are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article quotes the BCI circular stating that the object is to ensure that every law degree recognised for enrolment as an advocate is earned through real teaching, qualified full-time faculty, adequate infrastructure, and meaningful practical training. The ban on shift-based programmes is to prevent dilution of the regular character of legal education. Options A, C, and D are not the stated objectives.

Explanation

The IUCN Red List is the most comprehensive global inventory of species' conservation status. The Asiatic lion is listed as 'Endangered' on this list, having been upgraded from 'Critically Endangered'.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the only free-ranging population survives in and around Gir. Statement 2 is incorrect; the 2018 CDV outbreak killed over 20 lions, not over 100. Statement 3 is correct as the 2025 estimation identified nine satellite populations including Satellite IV.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that six decades of conservation have increased the population from about 100-150 to over 1,000. Options A and B are lower than the reported figure, while option D is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article identifies Babarkot as a designated lion movement corridor in the Gir Management Plan. Mining could disrupt this corridor, disconnecting the coastal subpopulation (Satellite IV) from the larger forest-linked source population, leading to habitat fragmentation and increased human-lion conflict.

Explanation

The article states that the Cabinet approved transfer of land to the Ministry of Education, Government of India, for setting up a Kendriya Vidyalaya. Kendriya Vidyalayas are under the purview of the Ministry of Education (formerly HRD).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: PwC was appointed as Transaction Advisor. Statement 2 is incorrect: only 4 colleges are operational, while 12 are under construction. Statement 3 is correct: ₹8.27 crore was sanctioned for the purpose.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that ₹6.12 crore was sanctioned for the successful organization of the 'Har Ghar Tiranga' campaign in 2026. The other amounts are for different purposes: ₹8.27 Cr for PwC, ₹102.22 Cr for Jamalpur water supply, and ₹177.72 Cr for Munger water supply.

Explanation

The article states that the new courts were created for 'expeditious disposal of pending cases under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989'. While other options may be secondary benefits, the primary objective is to clear backlog.

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz is located between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman, carrying about 20-30% of global oil supply. Bab-el-Mandeb connects the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Houthis are a Yemen-based rebel group. Statement 2 is incorrect: They are backed by Iran, not Saudi Arabia. Statement 3 is correct: They claimed a missile attack on a Saudi oil tanker as per the article. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that only two vessels transited the Strait of Hormuz on Wednesday, August 5, 2026, down from eight a day earlier. Normal traffic is 130-140 ships. Options 8, 20, and 130 are distractors.

Explanation

The straits are critical chokepoints for global oil trade. Disruption would reduce oil supply, raise prices, and affect countries dependent on Gulf oil. Options B, C, and D are unrelated or opposite effects.

Explanation

The US FDA is the federal agency responsible for protecting public health by ensuring the safety, efficacy, and security of drugs, biological products, and vaccines. The article explicitly states that the U.S. Food and Drug Administration approved Moderna's flu vaccine.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the vaccine is approved only for adults aged 50 and older. Statement 2 is correct: mFlusiva uses mRNA technology. Statement 3 is incorrect: the 26.6% higher efficacy was compared to a licensed standard-dose flu vaccine, not Sanofi's high-dose vaccine. The separate data showing stronger antibody responses than Sanofi's high-dose vaccine was from a different analysis.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the late-stage trial showed the shot was 26.6% more effective than a licensed standard-dose flu vaccine. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article notes that mRNA technology could potentially allow faster updates to match circulating influenza strains, unlike conventional egg-based vaccines that require lengthy production processes. This is a key advantage for responding to rapidly mutating flu viruses.

Explanation

According to the article, the Mahe Class eight-vessel contract was signed between the Ministry of Defence (MoD) and Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL) on April 30, 2019. The other eight vessels (Arnala Class) are being built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE).

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because INS Mahe, not INS Malvan, was the first Mahe Class vessel commissioned (on November 24, 2025). INS Malvan is the second vessel (commissioned July 22, 2026). Statement 2 is correct as AM/NS India supplied 100% of the specialised steel from its Hazira plant. Statement 3 is correct as the article states these warships are part of 16 vessels being built to replace the Abhay Class Corvettes.

Explanation

According to the Indian Navy details provided in the article, the Mahe Class ASW SWC ships are 78 metres long with a displacement of approximately 900 tons and a maximum speed of 25 knots.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 16 ASW vessels (including the Mahe Class) are being built to replace the Abhay Class Corvettes. Their design as 'Shallow Watercraft' indicates their primary role is anti-submarine warfare in coastal/littoral waters, not deep-sea operations. Options C and D are incorrect as these vessels are not aircraft carriers or amphibious assault ships.

Explanation

The Election Commission of India (ECI) has the power to recognize political parties and adjudicate disputes regarding splits within a political party under the Election Symbols Order. The Speaker deals with disqualification under the 10th Schedule (anti-defection law) for splits in the legislature party.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the judgment established that the political party's control prevails over the legislature party. Statement 2 is incorrect because the judgment held that legislative majority is NOT the relevant factor; the political party's internal decisions matter. Statement 3 is correct as it was a 5-judge Constitution Bench judgment.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the '2023 SC Constitution bench decision in Subhash Desai vs Governor of Maharashtra' which held that a legislative party cannot act independent of the political party. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The SC's remark points to the absence of a statutory definition of 'majority' within a political party. This gap affects how the ECI and courts determine which faction is the 'real' party when internal splits occur. It does not directly change the Speaker's powers or automatically resolve the case.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that the Delhi chapter of NAREDCO wrote to CM Rekha Gupta. NAREDCO is the nodal real estate industry body under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. The other options are also prominent industry bodies but were not involved in this specific request.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the plan makes curbs mandatory from Nov 1 to Feb 28 irrespective of AQI. Statement 2 is correct: between Dec 10 and Jan 20, only essential public utility govt projects are allowed. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article does not state that the plan is based on the TERI study; the study is only cited by NAREDCO to argue against the ban.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that construction contributes 8.4% of Delhi's PM2.5 emissions and 21% of PM10 emissions according to the TERI study. Option B (21%) is the PM10 contribution, which is a common distractor. Options C and D are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

NAREDCO's letter specifically questioned the rationale behind a blanket suspension, maintaining that no source-wise scientific assessment had been made public to justify such a ban. While other options (like worker impact and cost increase) are valid concerns, the primary argument in the letter was the lack of scientific justification for a blanket ban.

Explanation

The Railway Board, as the apex body under the Ministry of Railways, issued the letter dated August 3, 2026, to all General Managers. It is responsible for policy and administration of Indian Railways.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the Railway Board's directive. Statement 2 is incorrect because the safety budget increased from ₹1,17,693 crore in FY 2025-26 to ₹1,20,389 crore in FY 2026-27. Statement 3 is correct based on the Railway Minister's Lok Sabha reply on July 29, 2026.

Explanation

The minister stated that 31 consequential train accidents were reported in FY 2024-25. 16 were reported in FY 2025-26, 55 in FY 2019-20, and only 2 in FY 2026-27.

Explanation

The Railway Board stated that a dedicated location would enable committee members to work in coordination, focus on investigation, examine evidence expeditiously, and finalize the report in continuous sittings. This directly addresses the delay caused by officers being disturbed by routine office work.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Wild Buffalo Recovery Project is a long-term conservation initiative by the Wildlife Trust of India (WTI) and the Chhattisgarh Forest Department. WTI spearheaded the development of the five-year Action Plan for the species.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India is home to more than 90% of the global wild water buffalo population. Statement 2 is incorrect: The wild buffalo is listed as 'Endangered', not 'Critically Endangered', on the IUCN Red List. Statement 3 is correct: It enjoys the highest protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

Explanation

The article mentions that a 2005 report from the Wildlife Trust of India (WTI) showed there were 39-47 wild buffaloes across Udanti Sitanadi Tiger Reserve, Indravati Tiger Reserve, and Pamed in Bijapur district. This has since declined to an estimated 12-16 individuals.

Explanation

The Action Plan, developed by WTI and the Chhattisgarh Forest Department, has three basic objectives: (i) ensuring zero unnatural deaths of remaining individuals, (ii) habitat improvement, and (iii) population augmentation by restocking (especially females) from related populations or conservation breeding. Cloning (option A) was attempted earlier but abandoned.

Explanation

The article states that ISI operates under the administrative jurisdiction of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). This is a key static GK fact about the nodal ministry for ISI.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the Governing Council is replaced by an 11-member Board of Governors. Statement 2 is incorrect because the bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha. Statement 3 is correct as the bill is intended to repeal the 1959 Act. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the existing 33-member Governing Council is proposed to be replaced by an 11-member Board of Governors. The correct current size is 33 members.

Explanation

According to the article, government officials stated that the new bill is needed to bring about changes including an increase in the number of students, autonomy for Delhi and Bengaluru centres, greater accountability, and expansion of teaching programmes. Therefore, all the mentioned objectives are correct.

Explanation

The Strategic Forces Command (SFC) is the unified command established in 2003 to manage and control India's nuclear arsenal. The Agni-4 test was conducted under its aegis.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Agni-4 is a medium-range ballistic missile, not an ICBM. Statement 2 is correct: the test was at Chandipur. Statement 3 is incorrect: the test was conducted under the Strategic Forces Command, not DRDO (DRDO develops the missile but operational control is with SFC).

Explanation

The article explicitly states the test was carried out from the Integrated Test Range, Chandipur in Odisha. Wheeler Island is used for Agni-5 tests, and Balasore is a nearby town but not the test range. Pokhran is for nuclear tests, not missile launches.

Explanation

The Agni-4 is a nuclear-capable medium-range ballistic missile. Successful testing validates operational readiness, thereby strengthening India's nuclear deterrence posture. The test is part of maintaining a credible minimum deterrent, as per India's nuclear doctrine.

Explanation

As per the news article, Pankaj Kumar Pandey, Principal Secretary, Department of e-Governance, Karnataka, spoke at the stakeholder workshop, indicating the department's lead role in implementing CDCS.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because CDCS is a new model built on the existing DCS framework, not a complete replacement. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions integration of satellite imagery, SAR, drones, GIS, AI, and ML. Statement 3 is correct as the pilot is in 5 hoblis covering all geographical divisions.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Karnataka has been implementing the Digital Crop Survey (DCS) since 2018 using a GIS-based mobile app to collect authenticated plot-level crop data.

Explanation

The article states that the CDCS model was developed 'to further enhance accuracy, reliability, and scientific validation of this survey data' by integrating cutting-edge technologies. The goal is evidence-based governance and effective policymaking, not cost reduction or direct farmer benefits.

Explanation

The FCRA is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs. The Act regulates the acceptance and utilisation of foreign contributions by individuals and organisations in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Section 16B applied the new framework retrospectively. Statement 2 is correct: the government has assured to remove the retrospective clause. Statement 3 is incorrect: the Bill is likely to be taken up in the Lok Sabha, not Rajya Sabha, on August 12.

Explanation

According to the article, Home Minister Amit Shah indicated that the Bill is likely to be taken up in the Lok Sabha on August 12. The other dates are distractors: August 6 is the publication date, August 15 is Independence Day, and August 20 is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article states that the assurance is part of BJP’s outreach to minority groups, especially Christians, as the party seeks to expand its footprint in states like Kerala. Dropping the retrospective clause aims to allay fears that the law would target religious institutions.

Explanation

The RBI is the primary regulator of NBFCs in India under the RBI Act, 1934. It introduced the Scale Based Regulation (SBR) framework in 2021 to classify NBFCs into Base, Middle, Upper, and Top layers based on their size and risk profile. SEBI regulates securities markets, IRDAI regulates insurance, and the Ministry of Finance oversees fiscal policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The RBI has classified Tata Sons as NBFC-UL. Statement 2 is incorrect: If the de-registration application is approved, Tata Sons would NOT be required to list on stock exchanges (it would avoid the IPO requirement). Statement 3 is correct: The RBI replaced the previous scoring methodology with a simple asset threshold of Rs 1 lakh crore for NBFC-UL classification.

Explanation

The RBI revised the NBFC-UL criteria in 2025-26 and replaced the previous scoring methodology with a simple asset threshold. Under the new rules, any NBFC with assets of Rs 1 lakh crore or more will be classified as NBFC-UL. This is a key data point for prelims.

Explanation

The SBR framework classifies NBFCs into four layers (Base, Middle, Upper, and Top) based on their size, activity, and systemic importance. The objective is to apply proportionate regulation, with larger and more interconnected NBFCs facing stricter norms (e.g., higher capital adequacy, mandatory listing) to ensure financial stability and protect depositors. This is a key concept for understanding the rationale behind the news.

Explanation

The University Grants Commission (UGC) is the statutory body under the UGC Act, 1956 that maintains standards of higher education and publishes the list of fake universities. The article mentions UGC's role in identifying fake universities and issuing notices.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Anti-Malpractice Cell was established on May 30, 1996. Statement 2 is incorrect: UGC has clarified that such franchise arrangements are not permissible and degrees offered through them are not recognized. Statement 3 is correct: The commission has requested state governments to take appropriate action and lodge FIRs.

Explanation

The article title states 'UGC identifies 32 fake universities'. The list includes institutions from states such as Delhi, Haryana, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, and others.

Explanation

The article states that UGC has advised students to verify the recognition or entitlement status of programmes on the UGC's Distance Education Bureau (DEB) website before enrolling. This is to avoid falling victim to fake universities or unrecognized programs.

Explanation

The Amrit Bharat Station Scheme (ABSS) is a flagship scheme of Indian Railways, which falls under the Ministry of Railways. The scheme aims to redevelop railway stations across India with improved passenger amenities and modern infrastructure.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Seemanchal region includes Purnia, Katihar, Araria, and Kishanganj. Statement 2 is incorrect: Katihar Junction handles 172 passenger trains and 25 goods trains daily (not the other way around). Statement 3 is correct: Katihar Junction has been identified for redevelopment under ABSS.

Explanation

The news explicitly states that Indian Railways has taken up 764 km of new line projects to improve connectivity in Bihar's Seemanchal region. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The news highlights that the projects aim to improve rail connectivity between Bihar's Seemanchal region, West Bengal, and the North-Eastern states. This strategic connectivity will boost passenger services, freight movement, and economic growth in the region.

Explanation

The FIR in the case was registered under Sections 66 and 66(B) of the Information Technology Act, 2000, which is the primary legislation for cybercrimes in India. The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 deals with data protection but not criminal investigations directly.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the FIR was registered against 'unknown persons' in a 'mechanical' manner despite detailed evidence. Statement 2 is correct as the bench comprised CJI Surya Kant, Justices Joymalya Bagchi and V Mohana. Statement 3 is correct as the petition mentioned theft of medical records, insurance details, and Aadhaar-linked data.

Explanation

According to the article, the company discovered the cyber intrusion in February 2025. The FIR was subsequently registered only in August 2025, after a six-month delay.

Explanation

The company moved the Supreme Court seeking a CBI inquiry because it alleged that the local police investigation was inadequate and mechanical. The SC issued notices to the Centre, CBI, and Punjab government in response to this plea.

Explanation

The Forest Rights Act, 2006, under Section 3(1)(d), explicitly recognises community rights for grazing, including settled and transhumant grazing, and traditional seasonal resource access of nomadic/pastoralist communities.

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct as per Section 3(1)(d) of the FRA. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Act recognises community rights, not individual transferable ownership rights. Grazing rights are community-based and not alienable.

Explanation

The article states that 97.85 million hectares, or 29.77% of the country's geographical area, are affected by land degradation and desertification. This data is from the India Desertification and Land Degradation Atlas.

Explanation

The article explains that pastoral families move seasonally across districts; education, health, and nutrition services are organised around fixed addresses. This 'fixed-address problem' interrupts services when beneficiaries move beyond the jurisdiction through which schemes are delivered.

Explanation

UGC is a statutory body under the Ministry of Education (formerly HRD Ministry). The article mentions former Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan, confirming the ministry's role.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the new rules replaced the 2012 ones and included penalties for non-compliance. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says there was 'absence of any provision for penalties for false complaints.' Statement 3 is correct: the SC stayed the rules in late January after three petitions. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the UGC notified the regulations on January 13, 2026. The other options are plausible distractors but only January 13 is correct.

Explanation

The article notes that critics highlighted 'the absence of any provision for penalties for false complaints of discrimination' as a major flaw, fearing it could lead to harassment of general category students. Option C is wrong because the rules covered backward classes and EWS as well. Option A and D are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly says: 'Estimates by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices and NITI Aayog suggest that sugarcane typically requires 1,500–2,500 mm of water over its growing season.' The other options are not cited in the article for this estimate.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article notes blending rose from about 1.5% in 2013–14 to nearly 20% in 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect because E20 fuel contains about 6–7% less energy than pure petrol; while ethanol has a higher octane rating, its energy density is lower (21 MJ/L vs 32 MJ/L). Statement 3 is correctly stated in the article about life-cycle GHG reductions. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'Water-footprint studies estimate that producing one litre of sugarcane ethanol may embody approximately 2,000–3,500 litres of water, depending on local climatic conditions and irrigation practices.' Option A refers to the sugarcane water requirement over the growing season, making it a possible distractor.

Explanation

The article argues that heavily subsidised electricity and urea hide environmental costs. It recommends supporting farmers directly through income transfers while allowing electricity, irrigation water and fertiliser prices to better reflect their economic and environmental costs, so production shifts to regions and feedstocks with the highest net energy gains and lowest emissions.

Explanation

The petitioner relied on Rule 43 of the CCS (Leave) Rules, 1972, which entitles female government servants to 180 days maternity leave. The DoPT notification of 2024 extended this benefit to commissioning mothers. The other options are either not applicable or not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The court specifically held that even without adoption of the DoPT notification, the earlier division bench judgment was binding and entitled commissioning mothers to leave. Statement 2 is correct: The judgment relied on Sushma Devi vs State of HP (2021). Statement 3 is correct: The court noted that HP had introduced Rule 43-B for adoption leave in 2022.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the DoPT notification dated June 18, 2024. The other dates are related to the state's communications or the birth of the doctor's children. August 22, 2023 and July 31, 2025 are the dates of the departmental communications denying leave.

Explanation

The court explicitly stated that 'A mother is a mother, be it by giving birth to a child naturally or being a commissioning mother'. It rejected the state's argument that non-adoption of central rules justified denial. The principle of equality and child welfare drove the decision.

Explanation

Article 114 of the Constitution deals with Appropriation Bills—it requires that no money be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India unless authorised by a law passed by Parliament. Article 110 defines Money Bills, Article 266 establishes the Consolidated Fund, and Article 112 relates to the Annual Financial Statement (Budget).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the bill regularises excess expenditure of ₹54,067.44 crore for FY 2022-23. Statement 2 is incorrect: the ₹53,871 crore is for debt repayment, not Railways; the Railway Ministry court order component is ₹196.44 crore. Statement 3 is correct: the PAC's 39th report from April 2026 laid the foundation for this regularisation.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the total excess expenditure is ₹54,067.44 crore. This includes two components: ₹53,871 crore for debt repayment and ₹196.44 crore for the Railway Ministry court order. Options A and D are close but incorrect numbers; option C is only one component.

Explanation

The bill's purpose is to regularise expenditure that exceeded the amounts originally granted by Parliament for FY 2022-23. It is not about new taxes (option A), nor the annual budget (option C), nor the audit itself (option D). The news specifically says it seeks 'authorisation... to meet amounts spent in excess of the amounts granted'.

Explanation

The article mentions that two reports by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) will be tabled. CAG is a constitutional authority under Article 148 that audits government accounts.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article confirms the repeal of the 2007 Act. Statement 2 is incorrect because the new policy proposes deemed approval within 7 working days, not 30. Statement 3 is correct as the new B&B policy is part of a broader ease of doing business initiative.

Explanation

The article specifically states that the fire at a B&B facility in Malviya Nagar killed 23 people, including several foreigners. This incident was the immediate trigger for the repeal of the 2007 Act.

Explanation

The new policy introduces a self-certification and self-renewal framework with deemed approval within 7 days, aiming to make it easier to operate B&Bs. This is part of a broader effort to boost tourism and ease of doing business in Delhi.

Explanation

The article states that AISI is a research organisation within the UK's Department for Science, Innovation and Technology. This department is responsible for evaluating frontier AI safety.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article where agents created fake identities. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article says 'The versions of the models AISI tested aren't available to the general public.' Statement 3 is correct as AISI is indeed under the Department for Science, Innovation and Technology. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states 'more than 141,000 cybersecurity evaluation runs had identified three instances'. The correct option is '141,000+' to reflect the exact phrasing. The other options are close distractors but not precise.

Explanation

The article describes AISI as a research organisation that 'evaluates the safety and capabilities of frontier AI models'. This is its core function mentioned in the context of the testing incidents.

Explanation

The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) is the nodal ministry for planning, development, and maintenance of National Highways in India. The project mentioned in the news, the Guwahati-Tezpur Corridor of NH-15, falls under MoRTH's jurisdiction.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 135.87 km, BOT toll mode. Statement 2 is incorrect because the ELF is for the Indian Air Force (IAF), not civilian aircraft. Statement 3 is correct: the corridor will connect 8 PM Gati Shakti economic nodes, 3 tourist nodes, and 7 logistic nodes. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the project was approved for ₹8,970.20 crore. Option A (₹8,970 crore) is a rounded figure but not the exact amount. Options C and D are incorrect as they differ from the precise figure.

Explanation

The article mentions that the project would decongest the existing NH-27 on the south side of the Brahmaputra and provide a much-needed alternative route. While it will boost tourism and trade, the primary objective is decongestion and improved connectivity, which is why option A is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment filed the counter affidavit in response to a petition. This ministry handles policies related to SC/ST/OBC welfare and reservation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the creamy layer principle applies only to OBCs, not SC/ST. Statement 2 is correct as per the Ashoka Kumar Thakur case mentioned in the article. Statement 3 is correct as the government's affidavit explicitly states that reservation is based on historical and social criteria.

Explanation

The article explicitly cites the 2005 decision in E V Chinnaiah v State of Andhra Pradesh, where a five-judge bench held that Parliament alone can take legislative steps under Article 341 to exclude creamy layer from SCs.

Explanation

The government's affidavit states that 'the identification of SCs, STs, and SEBCs/OBCs is based on historical and social criteria like caste, tribe, and social backwardness, not solely on economic status.' Therefore, introducing income-based preferences requires a holistic review and empirical study.

Explanation

The article states that the radar will be manned and operated by technical and meteorological personnel of the IMD. IMD is the nodal agency for weather radar operations in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: X-band covers 100 km as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: S-band covers 400 km, not 250 km. Statement 3 is correct: C-band covers 250 km. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that 298 people were killed in the July 2024 landslides. The 2026 landslides killed 7 people. The other options are distractors.

Explanation

The article states that X-band radars are meant for high-resolution monitoring of local climate events such as cloudbursts, flash floods and thunderstorms. Cyclone monitoring is done by S-band radars, and the new radar is not replacing existing ones.

Explanation

FSSAI is the statutory body under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, responsible for food safety regulation and enforcement in India. The FDA is a US agency, WHO is international, and BIS deals with product standards, not specifically food safety enforcement.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Analogue paneer is made from vegetable oils, not milk fat, and has less protein. Statement 2 is correct: Maharashtra's order mentions life imprisonment and minimum fine of ₹10 lakh. Statement 3 is correct: Iodine test is used to identify synthetic paneer (blue/black indicates artificial preparation).

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Chhattisgarh's ban on the sale of analogue paneer came into effect on August 1, 2026. August 6 is the date of the article's publication, and April 29 is the date of the FSSAI notice.

Explanation

The article states that the ban was in recognition of public health safety and affected by unfair trade practices of restaurants, hotels, and cloud kitchens passing off synthetic paneer as real paneer. The other options are not mentioned as reasons.