7 August 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The article states that Section 44(3) of the DPDP Act amended Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act 2005, facilitating public authorities to blankly refuse information on the ground that the details sought were of a 'personal' nature.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The court said DPDP law is only concerned with data in digital form. Statement 2 is incorrect: RTI Act originally had conditions - exemption only if information had no relation to public activity or would cause unwarranted invasion of privacy, and public interest could override. Statement 3 is incorrect: The court said journalists cannot be considered a 'special category' with unreserved access.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'Section 44(3) of the DPDP Act has amended Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act' to facilitate blanket refusal of personal information. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that petitioners, represented by advocate Vrinda Grover, submitted that the provision 'has turned the fundamental right to privacy on its head' - the right meant to protect citizens from state incursion has been extended to protect the state and public functionaries from RTI disclosures.

Explanation

The article states that UCBs owe their origins to the 1904 Cooperative Credit Societies Act. This Act allowed the registration of cooperative credit societies, the first of which was registered in Kanjivaram in October 1904. The Banking Regulation Act governs banking functions but did not create UCBs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article explicitly says RBI stopped issuing fresh licenses from 2004 due to failures like MMCB and PMC Bank. Statement 2 is incorrect: the moratorium was lifted not because all problems were resolved, but because RBI now has a stronger regulatory framework (higher entry norms, four-tier structure) to ensure only well-governed entities enter. Statement 3 is correct: the new norms include minimum capital of ₹300 crore and CAR of 12%.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the RBI stipulates a capital adequacy ratio of at least 12% for new UCB licenses. Option A (10%) and D (9%) are common regulatory thresholds for other banks but not for UCBs under this framework. Option C (15%) is higher than the actual requirement.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the RBI's message is clear: the objective is not to arbitrarily increase the number of UCBs but to establish a smaller number of stronger and well-governed entities. This is evident from the high entry barriers (₹300 crore capital, 12% CAR, 3% net NPA) which will naturally limit the number of applicants.

Explanation

The article states that IN-SPACe issued the document titled 'Norms, Guidelines and Procedures for Implementation of Indian Space Policy-2023 in Respect of Authorisation for Undertaking Planned Re-entry of Space Objects'. ISRO is the space agency, DoS is the parent department, PRL is a research lab. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Vikram-1 is indeed the first privately developed orbital rocket and the mission is called 'Mission Aagaman'. Statement 2 is incorrect: only two satellites (SCOPE and Grahaa) were injected into Low Earth Orbit; the remaining four payloads remained on the upper stage for in-orbit experiments. Statement 3 is correct: the article explicitly says India is the third country to achieve this feat. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The Tracxn report states that total equity funding has reached $871 million across 241 rounds. $495 million is the amount raised by Bengaluru-based companies alone. $205 million is Hyderabad's share, and $80 million is Chennai's share. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that DoS issued a memorandum to curb the exodus of scientists and engineers working on critical missions of national importance, such as Gaganyaan. It asked directors not to accept voluntary retirement or resignation requests from Group 'A' scientific/technical personnel associated with these missions until their realisation. Options A, C, and D are not mentioned as objectives of the memorandum.

Explanation

The IT Rules are framed under the Information Technology Act, 2000, which is administered by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). This ministry is responsible for all matters related to cyber laws, digital governance, and regulation of intermediaries.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the deadline for sensitive content removal is now 2 hours (from 24 hours). Statement 2 is correct: the amendments were introduced on February 10, 2026, targeting deepfakes and AI-generated content. Statement 3 is incorrect: the grievance redressal timeline has been reduced from 72 hours to 36 hours, not increased.

Explanation

The amended rules specify that social media intermediaries must remove unlawful content within 3 hours of receiving valid, reasoned directions from the appropriate government or a court. Previously, this timeline was 36 hours. The 2-hour deadline applies specifically to sensitive content like nudity or impersonation.

Explanation

The amended rules state that intermediaries failing to comply will lose the exemption available for third-party content under Section 79 of the Information Technology Act. This makes them liable for further legal action or prosecution under applicable laws. The other options, while possible under other provisions, are not the primary consequence mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank and primary regulator of the banking sector in India. It issued the new loan recovery rules governing commercial banks, including provisions for technology-based restrictions on financed mobile phones and laptops.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: full restrictions (including blocking outgoing calls) can be imposed only after 60 days of default. Statement 2 is incorrect: compensation is ₹250 per hour (not per day) for delayed restoration. Statement 3 is correct: recovery agents can contact borrowers only between 8 AM and 7 PM unless the borrower requests otherwise.

Explanation

The RBI mandates that once overdue amounts are paid, banks must restore functionality within one hour. If restoration is delayed due to the bank, compensation of ₹250 per hour becomes payable until access is restored, subject to a ceiling equal to the loan amount.

Explanation

The RBI framework explicitly aims to balance the legitimate right of banks to recover their dues with the fundamental rights of borrowers to dignity, privacy, and fair treatment. It introduces safeguards while permitting recovery actions, including technology-based restrictions under regulated conditions.

Explanation

The MSME Development Act, 2006 is under the administrative purview of the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. The Bill was moved by the MSME Minister Jitan Ram Manjhi, confirming this linkage.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Lok Sabha passed the Bill on August 7, 2026 without debate. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Bill does not reduce MSMEs' contribution; the 31% figure is current and unchanged. Statement 3 is correct: The Bill includes the provision for 50% interim payment. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that MSMEs contribute 41% to India's exports. Option A (31%) is the GDP contribution, option B (36%) is the manufacturing contribution, and option D (38%) is not mentioned. Hence the correct answer is 41%.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Bill seeks to address challenges faced by the MSME sector by improving the administrative structure and facilitating payment mechanisms, specifically tackling delayed payments. Option A is a data point, not the objective. Options C and D are incorrect. Hence B is correct.

Explanation

Article 15(4) specifically allows the state to make special provisions for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for SCs and STs. This is the constitutional basis for the Tamil Nadu GO in question.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the HC held that a convert to Islam cannot claim backward class status. Statement 2 is correct: the HC noted that Islam preaches equality and thus categorizing sects as backward is against Quranic teachings. Statement 3 is incorrect: the HC did not uphold Paragraph 3; it was the 1951 judgment in G. Michael vs S. Venkateswaran that upheld its validity. The HC in this case quashed the GO, but did not directly rule on Paragraph 3.

Explanation

The article states that the High Court judgment of June 25 had held that a person who embraces Islam cannot claim the status of backward class (Muslim). March 9, 2024 is the date of the GO, and August 7, 2026 is the date of the Supreme Court hearing.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the object of the GO was to ensure that persons belonging to socially and educationally backward communities are not deprived of reservation benefits solely on account of conversion to Islam, thereby creating a level playing field by preserving affirmative action benefits despite change of religion.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Prime Minister Shehbaz Sharif (Pakistan), Saudi Crown Prince Mohammed bin Salman, and Turkish President Erdogan signed the pact in Mecca. Hence, the three countries are Pakistan, Saudi Arabia, and Turkiye.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the signing took place at the Al-Safa Palace in Mecca. Statement 2 is correct as the joint statement says 'any armed attack... shall be regarded as an attack against them all.' Statement 3 is correct because the article says the pact was signed 'after the Makkah Al-Mukarramah Summit for Joint Defence'. Hence all three are correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states the date as 'Friday (August 7, 2026)'. Option A is the day before the summit, option C is the end of the Pakistan delegation's visit, and option D is the date of the earlier Pakistan-Saudi bilateral agreement.

Explanation

The article quotes the joint statement saying the agreement is 'intended to strengthen collective deterrence against any act of aggression'. The other options are not mentioned; the US-Iran mediation is a separate initiative (Islamabad MoU), and trade or energy coordination is not part of this defence pact.

Explanation

The Bar Council of India (BCI) is the apex statutory regulator of the legal profession and legal education in India, established under the Advocates Act, 1961. The UGC regulates higher education broadly, AICTE regulates technical education, and NAAC is an accreditation body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the circular. Statement 2 is incorrect because the August 2025 moratorium was withdrawn in March 2026. Statement 3 is correct as the Andhra Pradesh HC in All Saints Christian Education Society v. State of AP reaffirmed the continuing duty of universities.

Explanation

The article states that the BCI has highlighted that 40-50% of faculty positions remain vacant in more than 60% of government law colleges, contributing to the decline in legal education quality.

Explanation

The BCI has stated that with around 2,000 Centres of Legal Education already operating, the priority should be improving existing institutions. The inspection-based framework replaces the blanket moratorium to focus on quality assurance through evidence-based checks.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the GOBARdhan scheme is to be implemented by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. This aligns with its focus on compressed biogas (CBG) as a substitute for CNG in the petroleum sector.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Appropriation Bill is a Money Bill under Article 110. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Rajya Sabha can only discuss and recommend amendments, not amend the bill itself. Statement 3 is correct: Article 114 requires an Appropriation Act for withdrawals. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions that a total of 1.77 lakh people died in road accidents in 2024, an increase of 2.31% from 2023 when 1.73 lakh fatalities were recorded. The other options are close distractors but only 1.77 lakh is correct.

Explanation

The article states that India imports about half its natural gas requirements, and boosting CBG production will help reduce imports and insulate the domestic market from supply shocks. The scheme aims to increase CBG production nearly 10-fold through blending obligations and capital support.

Explanation

Turkey is a member of NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organization), as explicitly mentioned in the article. The other options are incorrect: Warsaw Pact is defunct, SCO is primarily political/security (Turkey is a dialogue partner, not member), and CSTO is a Russia-led alliance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the pact was signed in Jeddah on Friday (August 7, 2026) by Erdogan, Sharif, and MBS. Statement 2 is correct: the article mentions that Saudi Arabia and Pakistan already have an agreement under which an attack on either is treated as an attack on both. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article explicitly says the governments have not disclosed the contents, and it remains unclear whether it includes mutual defence commitments or intelligence sharing.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that approximately 20% of global oil flows through the Strait of Hormuz. This strategic chokepoint's disruption due to the Iran conflict was a key trigger for the trilateral defence pact.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the agreement is likely to be closely watched in New Delhi, given Turkey's growing defence cooperation with Pakistan. This poses a direct security concern for India, as Turkey has been supplying defence equipment (drones, naval cooperation) to Pakistan. While oil disruptions are a global issue, the specific India-centric concern is the Turkey-Pakistan defence axis.

Explanation

The article states that the old Act was the Bankers' Books Evidence Act of 1891, a 135-year-old colonial-era law. The new Bill of 2026 replaces it.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Bill expands the definition to include digital and cloud records. Statement 2 is incorrect: Section 11 retains the same power from the old Act (Section 8), it is not new. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions that the branch head must certify that the network and devices are secure from cyber threats.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the order can be made by an officer 'not below the rank of a Superintendent of Police' (SP). This is the same provision as in the old Act.

Explanation

The article quotes Advocate Anshul Gupta stating that because records are now electronic, they can be obtained and shared easily on a phone, increasing the risk of data leaks and privacy concerns. This is the main concern about Section 11.

Explanation

The US Senate passed the bill with an 86-11 vote. The bill now moves to the House of Representatives for approval before going to the President for signature.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the tariffs are discretionary, not automatic — the President has authority to impose them. Statement 2 is correct as the bill extends the Iran Sanctions Act of 1996 to 2031. Statement 3 is incorrect because China is the largest buyer of Russian crude; India is the second-largest.

Explanation

The article states that Indian imports of Russian crude rose sharply through 2026, climbing 34% in June alone to record levels. The other options are distractors: 50% refers to existing US tariffs, 86% is the Senate vote margin, and 25% was the additional tariff imposed in August 2025.

Explanation

India's energy purchases from Russia are driven by national interest and energy security. The bill threatens to impose tariffs up to 100% on Indian exports, creating a strategic dilemma. Tariffs are not automatic, giving room for diplomacy, but the potential economic cost is high.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the white paper was approved by Japan's cabinet on Tuesday (August 4). The Cabinet is the executive decision-making body in Japan, headed by the Prime Minister.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the white paper portrays China as the 'greatest strategic challenge'. Statement 2 is incorrect: the white paper was approved by the Cabinet, not the Parliament. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions that Defence Minister Koizumi has appeared to set the stage for a review of the three non-nuclear principles.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Japan showcased a new anti-ship missile 'with a range of about 1,000 km'. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The white paper calls for addressing China's military actions 'through overall national strength and cooperation with allies and like-minded nations'. This, combined with the new missile test and the Defence Minister's hint at reviewing nuclear principles, shows a strategic shift toward building deterrence through alliances, not reducing them.

Explanation

The MTP Act, 1971 is the primary legislation regulating abortion in India, specifying conditions, gestational limits, and consent requirements for minors and adults.

Explanation

Statement 1 is false because a minor cannot give independent consent under MTP Act; guardian consent is required. Statement 2 is true as per Section 19 of POCSO Act. Statement 3 is false because the HC ruled that oral assertion is not sufficient; documentary proof is needed.

Explanation

The article clearly states the girl was 16 years old. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The MTP Act requires the written consent of the guardian for a minor, and the POCSO Act mandates reporting of any sexual offence involving a minor. The HC emphasized both obligations.

Explanation

The National Water Development Agency (NWDA) is an autonomous society under the Ministry of Jal Shakti mandated to carry out surveys, studies, and prepare DPRs for the National River Linking Project (NRLP). The article mentions that NWDA has prepared a DPR for the Godavari-Pennar-Palar-Vellar link.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the CM urged the PM to grant 'National Project' status. Statement 2 is incorrect because the NWDA has prepared a DPR for the Godavari-Pennar-Palar-Vellar link as the first phase, not the Godavari-Cauvery-Gundar link. Statement 3 is correct as the CM suggested creating an SPV with Centre and state participation.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the NWDA has prepared a DPR for the Godavari-Pennar-Palar-Vellar link as the first phase. The CM is requesting priority for the Godavari-Cauvery-Gundar alignment instead.

Explanation

The article states the CM highlighted that the project is 'a crucial long-term opportunity to augment Tamil Nadu's surface water resources' and is 'vital for addressing the growing drinking water and irrigation demands of the people of Tamil Nadu, particularly the southern districts.'

Explanation

The Drugs Rules, 1945 are framed under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940. The article explicitly mentions both the Act and the Rules, making this the correct answer.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the amendment introduces debarment from new applications. Statement 2 is incorrect because the existing penalty was rejection of application or cancellation of licence, not a fine. Statement 3 is correct as the release mentions show-cause notice and appellate mechanism. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the release was issued on Thursday, August 6, 2026. The other options are close distractors; August 7 is the publication date of the news article, not the notification date.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the new provisions are aimed at deterring repeated violations and strengthening accountability. The amendment goes beyond mere rejection/cancellation by adding a debarment penalty.

Explanation

The article states that the Cabinet approved the Punjab Regulation of Fee of Un-aided Educational Institutions (Amendment) Bill, 2026, which amends the Punjab Regulation of Fee of Unaided Educational Institutions Act, 2016. The other options are not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 5 years general, 3 years for hazardous. Statement 2 is correct: the Bill repeals the 2016 Act. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article says remuneration 'shall not be lower than the minimum rate of wages', not lower. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Cabinet gave nod to set up three new digital open universities: Cloud University at Bohan, MS Digital University at Fatehpur, and Physicswallah Digital University at Nandpur Kesho. Hence 3 is correct.

Explanation

The article states the Bill aims to 'maintain green cover for ensuring ecological balance, prevent pollution, provide an institutional mechanism to compensate for the environmental loss caused by the felling of trees and conserve the soil'. Option A is incorrect because it does not prohibit all tree felling, but provides compensation. Options C and D are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article mentions 'releasing around 39,049 cusecs of water into canals'. Cusec (cubic foot per second) is a common unit in irrigation engineering.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: '16,000 kilometers of watercourses' were restored. Statement 2 is incorrect: the rise was 'in several blocks across the State', not all blocks. Statement 3 is correct: '510 schemes have been implemented, including 192 pond-based recharge schemes'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'A total of 510 schemes have been implemented, including 192 pond-based recharge schemes'. Option B (246) is the number of canal-based schemes, and option C (510) is the total.

Explanation

The article states that the mandate is 'to ensure rainwater is effectively channelled back into the earth rather than running off wastefully'. This directly supports groundwater recharge, not drinking water supply or flood control.

Explanation

As per the news article, the Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal ministry for all matters related to the Forest Rights Act, 2006. The Ministry of Environment handles forest conservation, while Jal Shakti leads the Ken-Betwa project. The FRA specifically vests implementation with the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions a 221-km canal including a 2-km tunnel. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Centre passed on issues to the State government, citing the State as the implementing agency. Statement 3 is correct: the protest was first held in April and relaunched in July 2026. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the project involves displacement of over 7,000 families. The other options are plausible distractors: 5,000 is too low, 10,000 and 12,000 are higher than the actual figure. This is a direct data point for prelims.

Explanation

The article notes that the Ministry of Tribal Affairs stated that the State government is responsible for implementing the forest rights law and the compensation/rehabilitation process under the RFCTLARR Act. The Centre's role is limited to monitoring and nodal guidance. Options A, C, and D are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The CBI is the premier investigating agency for serious crimes, and the article explicitly states that the CBI filed the charge sheet in this case. The NTA is the exam conducting body, not the investigation agency.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: charge sheet was filed on July 28, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: the experts memorised questions and wrote on chits; they did not use printed copies. Statement 3 is correct: the CBI used records from the access control app of the society where the chemistry expert lived.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the CBI charge sheet is against 13 arrested accused persons. All are currently in judicial custody.

Explanation

According to the charge sheet, Kulkarni used rough sheets during work to note down 135 chemistry questions in brief, then took the chits out concealed. He also memorised easier questions and wrote them down at his hotel. This method exploited the lack of frisking.

Explanation

SCORES (SEBI Complaints Redress System) is a digital platform managed by SEBI to handle investor complaints against market intermediaries. The article explicitly mentions SEBI as the regulator behind SCORES.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: complaints dropped from 68,132 to 61,788 (a 9% decline). Statement 2 is incorrect: the escalation rate increased from 16.2% to 17.2%. Statement 3 is correct: SCORES 2.0 introduces auto-escalation after 21 days if unresolved.

Explanation

The article states that FPI ownership dropped to a 17-year low of 15.8% in FY26. Option D (19.69%) is the FPI outflow amount in billion dollars, not ownership percentage.

Explanation

Experts cited increased regulatory scrutiny and lower F&O volumes as key reasons. SEBI’s measures (minimum lot size, rationalised weekly expiries, upfront options premium collection) reduced derivatives volumes, leading to fewer disputes. The toll-free helpline calls actually fell, indicating shift to digital, not increased capacity.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that SEBI is planning to revamp the SLB scheme and launch the Setu portal. SEBI is the capital markets regulator in India, responsible for overseeing securities markets.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The SLB scheme allows investors to lend shares for a fee. Statement 2 is correct: It enables short selling and improves liquidity. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Setu portal is for SEBI-regulated intermediaries to register and comply, not for investor complaints.

Explanation

The article clearly states that SEBI will launch a pilot project on tokenisation of corporate bonds using distributed ledger technology, which is a form of blockchain.

Explanation

SEBI Chairman Tuhin Kanta Pandey explicitly stated that the SLB scheme needs revamping to improve price discovery and facilitate interlinkage between cash and derivatives segments. This is the core objective of the revamp.

Explanation

The article states that the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) told the Parliament about the land requirement reduction. DAE is the nodal ministry for nuclear energy in India, responsible for policy and oversight.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the DAE's statement. Statement 2 is incorrect: the proposed reduction for 700 MWe reactors is to 700 metres, not 500 metres. Statement 3 is correct: BARC is developing SMR-55 (55 MWe). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The DAE stated that land usage could be reduced up to about 90 hectares, subject to radiological impact assessment. The current requirement is 330 hectares, so the reduction is about two-thirds.

Explanation

The article mentions that the government opened the nuclear sector to private participation and that the proposals aim to reduce barriers for setting up reactors. Smaller land and exclusion zones lower project costs and make sites more viable, thereby attracting private players and speeding up capacity addition.

Explanation

The high-level committee was headed by Additional Chief Secretary B Venugopal Reddy. The committee was constituted after the controversy over minority status certificates in February 2026. Other options are incorrect: Rajesh Aggarwal is the Chief Secretary who received the report, Madhavi Khode Chaware heads the implementation committee, and Sunetra Pawar ordered an inquiry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the committee recommended supervision by a senior IAS officer. Statement 2 is incorrect: the committee recommended multi-department vetting, not a single department panel. Statement 3 is correct: periodic post-grant review was proposed. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that certificates for 19 of the 20 trusts were uploaded between January 29 and February 4, 2026. Option A is the period when hearings and approvals were completed, not the upload. Option B is the bulk upload attributed to technical issues. Option D is a narrower incorrect range.

Explanation

The new SOP, based on the Reddy committee recommendations, aims to address the lacunae in the existing system by introducing IAS oversight, multi-department vetting, and periodic reviews. This is intended to prevent irregularities and ensure that benefits reach the intended beneficiaries. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The news article mentions that the Delhi High Court, through Justice Purushaindra Kumar Kaurav, issued the order on August 5, 2026, refusing to quash criminal proceedings against the doctor.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court held that the MTP Act does not regard a minor as capable of independently consenting; guardian consent is required. Statement 2 is correct as per the court's observation that Form I must contain reasons, such as rape. Statement 3 is incorrect because the court rejected the doctor's argument and proceeded with the trial.

Explanation

The article states that the survivor was 16 years old, but her age was wrongly recorded as 20 years in the medical centre. The court noted that the doctor did not obtain age proof.

Explanation

The court held that the MTP Act mandates guardian consent for minors and Form I must be completed with reasons. The doctor's failure to do so meant she must face trial for violations of the MTP Act and POCSO Act.

Explanation

The state budget is presented by the Finance Minister on behalf of the state Finance Department. The article confirms that Finance Minister N. Marie Wilson presented the budget in the state assembly, making the Tamil Nadu Finance Department the nodal body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: outstanding debt is ₹10.98 lakh crore in RBE 2026-27. Statement 2 is incorrect: the FRBM limit for states is usually around 25-30% of GSDP, so 27.01% is within the limit, not above. Statement 3 is correct: borrowing of ₹1,73,445 crore and repayment of ₹51,971 crore are mentioned. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the outstanding debt is estimated at ₹10.98 lakh crore in the Revised Budget Estimates for 2026-27. Options A, C, and D are close distractors that could trap candidates who misread the figure.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions 'provision of an eight-gram (one-sovereign) gold coin and a silk saree as 'Annan Seer' to eligible brides'. This is a direct benefit scheme aimed at supporting brides, likely from economically weaker sections.

Explanation

The article mentions that the Nand Baba Dugdh Mission is the dream project of the respected Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh, making it a state-specific initiative.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: 4,951 primary milk cooperative societies formed. Statement 2 is incorrect: UP contributed 16% (not 38.8%) of India's milk production. Statement 3 is correct: the conclave was held across all 75 districts on August 5, 2026.

Explanation

The article states: '17,994 individuals are directly benefitted from the initiative'. The total employment generated is 2.25 lakh, but direct beneficiaries are a subset.

Explanation

The article title and content emphasize 'boosting livelihood, employment opportunities'. The initiatives are aimed at rural development through cooperative formation, not export or price reduction.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Maharashtra government, through the Home Department, issued a gazette notification banning 114 radical literature items. The state's Anti-Terrorism Squad (ATS) played a key role in the investigation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: ATS investigations and cyber surveillance reports are mentioned in the gazette. Statement 2 is correct: 'Voice of Khurasan' is explicitly listed as a banned magazine linked to Islamic State. Statement 3 is incorrect: The ban was under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) 2023, not the UAPA.

Explanation

The gazette notification issued on August 6, 2026, specifically states that the government has instructed to 'forfeit 114 items of radical literature, including magazines and books'. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The gazette notification states that the literature poses a threat to public order and internal security as it glorifies violent extremism, provides ideological indoctrination, and becomes a way of recruitment. The ban is a preventive measure to protect sovereignty and integrity of India.

Explanation

The article clearly states that a three-judge bench of the Supreme Court presided over by Chief Justice Surya Kant monitored the case. The Supreme Court is the apex judicial body with the power to issue guidelines and monitor investigations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the hospitals volunteered to pay Rs 12 lakh (Rs 10 lakh from one and Rs 2 lakh from the other). Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says the FIR was registered after a delay of 30 hours and only invoked murder, not rape. Statement 3 is correct: the bench comprised CJI Surya Kant, Justices Joymalya Bagchi and V Mohana.

Explanation

The article mentions that one hospital would pay Rs 10 lakh and the other Rs 2 lakh, totaling Rs 12 lakh. This is a key data point for prelims where options may include individual amounts as distractors.

Explanation

The article states the court was inclined to issue guidelines to ensure timely medical care and proper handling of such cases. While compensation and punishment are related, the core objective is systemic reform to prevent future deaths due to denial of emergency treatment.

Explanation

The scheme was announced by Santosh Kumar Sarangi, Secretary of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), indicating that MNRE is the nodal ministry for solar manufacturing policies including polysilicon incentives.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India relies completely on imports for polysilicon. Statement 2 is incorrect: the PLI scheme covers both upstream (polysilicon, ingot, wafer) and downstream (cell, module) segments. Statement 3 is correct: the RE-RTC tariff discovered was Rs 5.25 per unit as mentioned by the MNRE Secretary.

Explanation

The article states that India's domestic solar cell manufacturing capacity is currently around 32 GW, and is expected to more than triple to 100 GW within a year. 213 GW is the module manufacturing capacity, and 80 GW is the projected ingot/wafer capacity.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the scheme aims to 'deepen India's solar manufacturing value chain and reduce import dependence.' While polysilicon can also be used in semiconductors, the primary driver is solar self-reliance. Lowering tariffs is a broader benefit, not the direct objective.

Explanation

The Economic Affairs Secretary heads the Department of Economic Affairs in the Union Ministry of Finance, which handles economic policy, external finance and investment treaty matters. The article quotes Secretary Anuradha Thakur on the Model BIT review.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the article says the 2015 Model BIT demands a five-year domestic remedies period before international arbitration. Statement 2 is incorrect as $34 billion is Indian overseas direct investment, while net FDI in 2025-26 was only $7 billion. Statement 3 is correct because Thakur mentioned a negative-list model and keeping important red-flag clauses aside.

Explanation

The article states net FDI inflows recovered slightly to $7 billion in 2025-26, after slumping to less than $1 billion in 2024-25. $44 billion was the net FDI in 2020-21, $28 billion was Indian ODI in 2024-25, and $95 billion was gross FDI in 2025-26.

Explanation

Thakur said with ODI flowing out, Indian investors and companies will also need protection, making it an entirely new dimension. The five-year remedies clause is under review but is not the new dimension; easing enforcement action was not suggested; the negative-list approach is a negotiation format, not the new dimension.

Explanation

The article states that the latest data on corporate investments was released by the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE). Bank of Baroda economists analyzed the data, but the source is CMIE.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because 86% came from domestic private sector, not public sector. Statement 3 is correct as consumer goods share was 0.7% (less than 1%). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 56% of all proposed investments are directed to the ITES sector. 99% refers to the share of ITES investment that goes to data centres and AI (within ITES). 26% is the share of conventional electricity, and 86% is the share of domestic private sector.

Explanation

The article argues that continued weakness in consumer demand not only drags down growth by itself but also weakens the other major contributor to GDP growth: investments by companies. This dual effect depresses overall GDP growth.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Tamil Nadu's first Agriculture Budget was presented under Chief Minister C Joseph Vijay. This is a direct static fact from the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: total outlay is ₹58,374.09 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect: the five-year target is 131 lakh MT, while 125 lakh MT is the target for 2026-27 only. Statement 3 is correct: Soil Fertility Mission outlay is ₹600 crore. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states 'The document places the total outlay for agriculture and allied sectors at Rs 58,374.09 crore'. The other options are plausible distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article repeatedly emphasises that the budget aims to reduce uncertainty and enlarge the farmer's ability to make independent choices about work, income and the future, rather than merely surviving another season. It focuses on risk management through insurance, irrigation, soil health, mechanisation, and market intelligence.