8 August 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The article states that the U.S. Senate passed the bill by an 86-11 vote. The House of Representatives will consider it next. The Senate is one of the two chambers of Congress.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'It allows President Donald Trump to impose 100% tariffs on goods from countries that are the top five importers of Russian oil and gas.' Statement 2 is incorrect because the vote was 86-11, not unanimous. Statement 3 is correct: 'the bill would extend till 2031 the expiration date of the Iran Sanctions Act of 1996.' Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The bill... was approved by the Senate by an 86-11 vote.' The other options are close distractors that do not match the reported figure.

Explanation

The article states: 'The U.S. Senate voted overwhelmingly to approve a bill to punish Russia and key buyers of its petroleum products, such as China and India, claiming that such trade helps fuel the Ukraine war.' This is the core objective. Other options are not mentioned or are contrary to the bill's purpose.

Explanation

The Union Home Ministry issued the statement regarding the formal identification of 27 places in Arunachal Pradesh. While Survey of India is under the Department of Science and Technology, the policy decision was taken by the Home Ministry, which handles internal security and border management.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Long Ju was a flashpoint in 1959 when Chinese forces entered. Statement 2 is correct: Thag La is a pass where the 1962 battle began. Statement 3 is incorrect: Jairampur is in Changlang district, not Upper Subansiri. The article mentions Jairampur as an important logistics hub in Changlang district.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India formally identified 27 places in Arunachal Pradesh. The other options are close distractors; 25 and 30 are plausible but incorrect.

Explanation

The Home Ministry stated that the move aims to facilitate accurate recognition and counter Chinese efforts to create 'baseless narratives'. While tourism and infrastructure are secondary benefits, the core objective is territorial assertion against Chinese renaming attempts.

Explanation

As per the new MHA guidelines, all solar, wind, and hybrid renewable energy projects within 50 km of the international border, LoC, or LAC require security clearance from the MHA. The MoD provides NOC for projects between 1 km and 20 km, but the final approval rests with the MHA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the 1 km zone is a 'restricted area' with no project activity permitted. Statement 2 is incorrect: the guidelines say applicants should not engage engineers/staff from these countries without MHA permission, not a complete ban. Statement 3 is correct: developers must install anti-drone systems operated by CISF/State police at their own cost.

Explanation

The guidelines specify height limits based on proximity: structures between 1 km and 8 km cannot exceed 3 metres; between 8 km and 20 km, the cap is 5 metres; and between 20 km and 50 km, up to 15 metres. These restrictions do not apply to core infrastructure like wind turbines.

Explanation

The MHA explicitly states the guidelines were prompted by national security implications. Restrictions on foreign staff, height limits on structures, mandatory anti-drone systems, and the ban on projects within 1 km all aim to prevent espionage, surveillance, and sabotage. The guidelines also allow project roads to be used by armed forces during emergencies.

Explanation

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a statutory committee constituted under Section 45ZB of the RBI Act, 1934. It decides the policy repo rate to achieve the inflation target set by the government. The other options are not involved in rate-setting.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the repo rate was kept unchanged at 5.25% for the fourth consecutive meeting. Statement 2 is correct: Governor Malhotra said future policy decisions will be 'data dependent'. Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no mention of a CRR cut in the article; the RBI used dollar-rupee swaps and FCNR(B) deposits to manage liquidity.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the RBI kept the repo rate unchanged at 5.25% for the fourth consecutive meeting. The other options are common distractors: 5.00% is the reverse repo rate (not mentioned), 5.50% and 6.00% are higher rates from previous cycles.

Explanation

The article states the objective is twofold: maintain domestic liquidity and shore up foreign exchange reserves as the import bill swells. Absorbing hedging costs on FCNR(B) deposits directly encourages inflows, thereby increasing forex reserves. Options A and C are not direct objectives; liquidity management is a parallel goal, but the primary purpose for FCNR(B) is reserves accumulation.

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz is located between Iran and Oman, connecting the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman. It is a vital chokepoint for oil tankers, with about 20% of global oil passing through it before the US-Iran war.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the pact was signed by Saudi Arabia, Pakistan, and Turkiye in Mecca. Statement 2 is correct: it stipulates that an armed attack on any of the three is regarded as an attack on all. Statement 3 is incorrect because Turkiye said the agreement was not aimed at any specific country and was purely defensive.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'about one out of every five barrels of oil consumed worldwide transited the strait', which equals 20%. The other options are plausible distractors but incorrect.

Explanation

The article highlights that disruption in oil shipments caused energy prices to surge and fueled inflation. The US official stated that once the deal is announced to restore commercial shipping without impediments, the US will lift the blockade of Iranian ports. The core objective is economic stability, not military or geopolitical dominance.

Explanation

As per the news, MMRDA has been designated as the New Town Development Authority (NTDA) for the Third Mumbai project under the MRTP Act 1966. CIDCO is involved in Navi Mumbai development but not as NTDA for this project. NITI Aayog is a policy think tank, not a development authority.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: MMRDA aims to complete the planning exercise in 30 weeks. Statement 2 is incorrect: Mapletree is an investor providing capital; Surbana Jurong is the consultancy preparing the master plan. Statement 3 is correct: The project covers 124 villages across Panvel, Uran and Pen talukas of Raigad district.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Mapletree will invest capital with the expectation of bringing more than $1.1 billion in FDI into the Raigad-Pen Growth Centre. The other options are distractors; $1.5 trillion is the projected economy size of MMR as per NITI Aayog.

Explanation

The article quotes MMRDA stating that the Vision Document will define Mumbai 3.0's economic positioning with the objective of developing the new town as a globally competitive, sustainable and economically vibrant urban centre. While other options are related benefits, this is the stated primary objective.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the US Senate voted 86-11 in favor of the bill. The House of Representatives will consider it next, but the Senate is the body that passed it initially.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the original 500% tariff was diluted to a maximum of 100% on only the top five buyers. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the presidential waiver provision. Statement 3 is incorrect; India is the second-largest buyer, not the largest (China is the largest).

Explanation

The article states that India's Russian oil imports rose to 2.7 million barrels per day (bpd) in June-July 2026, accounting for well over half of New Delhi's total oil imports.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that India depends on imports for over 88% of its crude oil needs, and Russian oil is crucial for energy security, especially with the West Asia crisis disrupting traditional Gulf supplies. A waiver would help India avoid supply disruptions and price spikes.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions NUCFDC as the umbrella body for the sector. RBI is the regulator, NABARD focuses on agriculture and rural development, and SIDBI is for small industries. NUCFDC is the correct entity.

Explanation

The article states that RBI has liberalised branch opening, allowed on-tap licensing, and raised gold loan limits. All three measures are explicitly mentioned as part of RBI's proactive support for UCBs.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that UCBs have over ₹6 lakh crore of deposits. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article highlights that UCBs serve small borrowers, and Minister Shah noted that small borrowers are the safest segment. The measures like on-tap licensing and relaxed norms aim to expand credit access, thereby enhancing financial inclusion. While other options may be secondary, the core objective is financial inclusion as emphasised in the article.

Explanation

The article specifically discusses CBSE's move towards competency-based assessment, including issuing competency frameworks and experiential learning guidelines. NCERT develops curriculum but CBSE implements assessments for its affiliated schools.

Explanation

Statement 1 is false; the article explicitly says they are not the same. Statement 2 is true; CBSE has issued frameworks and guidelines. Statement 3 is false; the article states most teachers have not received such training, calling it a 'structural gap'.

Explanation

The article repeatedly emphasizes that while CBSE has changed assessment, schools lack a shared implementation framework and sustained support to translate policy into daily classroom practice. Circulars and webinars alone are insufficient.

Explanation

The article contrasts a school in Chennai that can arrange structured inquiry with a manufacturing facility versus a school in Ramanathapuram that cannot. This shows that without support, the gap in implementation will widen, benefiting only well-resourced schools.

Explanation

The article states that the ANRF, a statutory body under the Ministry of Science and Technology, is the custodian of the RDI Fund. CSIR, DST, and ISRO are other research bodies but not the custodian of this specific fund.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the agreement creates a trilateral mutual-defence framework. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article explicitly says the agreement does NOT spell out automatic military obligations, unlike NATO Article 5. Statement 3 is correct: among the three, only Pakistan possesses nuclear weapons and is a Muslim-majority country.

Explanation

The article states that over 62% of the Rs 2,192 crore soft loans (15 out of 22 companies) went to firms linked to selection panel members. The other options are plausible distractors but not the correct figure.

Explanation

The amendments aim to include delivery service providers like Swiggy, Zomato, Zepto under the bike-taxi rules. Key provisions include EV-only fleet and a 2% fare contribution to a driver welfare fund for pension, insurance, and education. While revenue and electrification are components, the core objective is regulation and welfare.

Explanation

The article specifically discusses the Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY), launched in 2000 under the Atal Bihari Vajpayee government, which provides special foodgrain rations (35 kg per household) to the poorest of the poor. The proposed NFSA amendment aims to replace this with a per-capita system of 7 kg per person. PMGKAY is a separate scheme that provided free additional grains during COVID-19.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the amendment replaces 35 kg household ration with 7 kg per person (cap 35 kg). Statement 2 is incorrect: households with 5 or more members see no change, as the cap equals their current entitlement. Statement 3 is correct: the article calculates potential savings of around 2 million tonnes of foodgrain per year.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 53% of AAY households have fewer than five members, as per the nationwide Household Consumer Expenditure Survey 2023-24. These are the households that will lose 20-80% of their current entitlements under the proposed amendment. The other options are distractors: 74% refers to the percentage of illiterate women among the 1 million AAY women living alone.

Explanation

The article states the government justifies the amendment 'in the name of equity — reducing variation in per-capita entitlements within the Antyodaya category.' The authors counter this by analogizing it to 'reducing the salaries of peons to reduce wage disparities between peons and chowkidars.' They argue the real motive is cost-saving, but the projected saving of ~2 million tonnes is small compared to the government's excess grain stocks.

Explanation

The Forest Survey of India (FSI) operates under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). The article mentions the Environment Ministry as the nodal body for forest fire management.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the report: 17% landmass, 57% fires. Statement 2 is false: India relies on foreign polar-orbiting satellites (AQUA, Suomi-NPP), not its own geostationary satellite. Statement 3 is correct: the panel called for at least two NDRF regional response centres.

Explanation

The article states that only 12.5% of alerts corresponded to verified fires in Uttarakhand, leading to concerns about 'alert fatigue' among staff.

Explanation

The committee noted that current polar-orbiting satellites observe India only 8 times a day, leaving a 'critical observational gap in the diurnal fire monitoring cycle'. A geostationary satellite would provide continuous coverage.

Explanation

The article states that ANRF, a statutory body under the Ministry of Science and Technology, is the custodian of the RDI Fund. TDB and BIRAC are implementing entities for loan disbursal, but the fund itself is under ANRF.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the second cohort had one company with member stake, not zero. Statement 3 is incorrect because the government said there are no immediate plans for a review.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that over 62% of the Rs 2,192-crore soft loans sanctioned in the first round went to companies with member ties. The other options are plausible distractors.

Explanation

The super-majority rule requires at least two-thirds approval (e.g., 8 out of 11 members) for a company to be selected, which ensures that even if a few members have doubts, the company cannot be approved without broad consensus. Options A, C, and D are other safeguards but not the purpose of super-majority.

Explanation

The Indra Sawhney judgment (1992) established the creamy layer for OBCs. Davinder Singh dealt with sub-categorisation of SC/STs. M. Nagaraj dealt with reservation in promotions. The Mandal Commission recommended OBC reservation but was not a judgment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the news - the Centre has opposed creamy layer for SC/STs. Statement 2 is correct - the Davinder Singh judgment allowed sub-categorisation. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Centre argues that creamy layer is not applicable to SC/STs; there is no existing law applying it.

Explanation

The article mentions a seven-judge Bench of the Supreme Court headed by then CJI D.Y. Chandrachud delivered the Davinder Singh judgment. Five-judge benches are common, but this was a larger bench of seven.

Explanation

The creamy layer removes wealthy individuals from reservation benefits, while sub-categorisation divides the reserved category into subgroups to ensure benefits reach the most backward. The article distinguishes these two mechanisms.

Explanation

The article states that the report was drafted by an expert committee headed by former Supreme Court judge and Director of the National Judicial Academy (NJA) in Bhopal, Justice Aniruddha Bose. The other options are notable judges but not the committee head.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the new report replaces the 2023 handbook. Statement 2 is incorrect: the report recommends replacing 'prosecutrix' with 'victim', 'survivor', or 'complainant'. Statement 3 is correct: the SC's February 10, 2026 judgment setting aside the Allahabad HC ruling prompted the new guidelines.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the committee examined 125 trial court judgments from across the country with the assistance of State Judicial Academies. The other numbers are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Explanation

The report aims to make judges more sensitive in writing judgments and conducting proceedings, using survivor-centric language and trauma-informed practices. While conviction rates may be a secondary effect, the core objective is judicial sensitivity, not procedural overhaul or lawyer training.

Explanation

The Maharashtra FDA is the state-level regulator that conducted the inspection and took action against InduCare Pharma. CDSCO is the central authority, while the other options handle pharmacopoeia and pricing, not enforcement of manufacturing licenses.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the FDA 'permanently cancelled' the license, not temporarily. Statement 2 is correct as the article confirms 6 NSQ medicines with fungal growth, insects, and larvae. Statement 3 is correct as the company was issued a show-cause notice, given a hearing, and a joint inspection was conducted.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'six medicines failed quality tests' and were found to be NSQ with severe defects including fungal growth and foreign impurities.

Explanation

The article states the campaign (May 25 to July 31, 2026) focused on 'food safety, drug quality, and consumer protection'. This aligns with the FDA's core regulatory mandate, not trade promotion or cost reduction.

Explanation

The Census of India is conducted under the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, which falls under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). The MHA official is quoted in the article confirming the decision.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the 2011 SECC used an open-ended question. Statement 2 is incorrect: enumerators will NOT classify; they record verbatim. Statement 3 is correct: the government withheld the raw data due to poor quality. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article states that the 2011 SECC generated 46.7 lakh distinct caste names. 4,147 was the number recorded in the 1931 census. The other options are distractors not mentioned.

Explanation

The article quotes an MHA official saying 'Census is not a verification exercise' and that a drop-down menu would create 'state participation in unreliable data.' The open-ended format allows self-reporting without state determination of caste identity.

Explanation

The CAG is the constitutional auditor under Article 148. It audits all government receipts and expenditure, including state-level schemes like Delhi's power subsidy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: expenditure rose from ₹2,405.59 Cr to ₹3,161 Cr, an increase of about 31.4%. Statement 2 is incorrect: the report flagged several irregularities like same IP addresses and common PAN. Statement 3 is correct: 50,000+ zero-consumption consumers received ₹17.81 Cr. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The report specifically mentioned that 7,181 tenders worth ₹3,217.44 crore had bidders using the same IP addresses. The other options are from other findings: ₹530.25 crore (common PAN tenders), ₹2.52 crore (tenders all same email ID), and ₹17.81 crore (subsidies to zero-consumption consumers).

Explanation

The CAG report stated that the policy 'did not target the deserving and disadvantaged section' and recommended a review for more transparency. Option A is incorrect because the 400-unit limit itself was questioned for lacking basis. Option C and D are not consistent with the report's recommendations.

Explanation

The article states that RBI's notification placed Tata Sons in the Upper Layer NBFC list. RBI is the regulator for all NBFCs under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, and has issued the Scale-Based Regulation framework. SEBI regulates listed securities, but the classification itself is done by RBI.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: RBI included Tata Sons in the NBFC-UL list, which requires listing. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article says the deregistration application is 'still under examination' and not rejected. Statement 3 is correct because the article mentions trustees Venu Srinivasan and Vijay Singh favoring listing for transparency and capital access, while others oppose it.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Under the revised framework, NBFCs with assets of Rs 1 lakh crore or more are classified as NBFC-ULs.' This threshold is part of RBI's Scale-Based Regulation framework. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article mentions that Upper Layer NBFCs are required to list 'to improve transparency and market discipline.' Listing subjects the company to SEBI regulations and enhances disclosure and governance, as also argued by proxy advisory firm InGovern. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The Indian delegation in WMCC talks is led by the Joint Secretary (East Asia) from the Ministry of External Affairs, as seen in the article. The MEA handles diplomatic and border negotiation mechanisms, not the Defence or Home ministries.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states talks were held under the WMCC framework. Statement 2 is incorrect — the Indian delegation was led by Sujit Ghosh, Joint Secretary (East Asia) in MEA, not the Defence Secretary. Statement 3 is correct as the MEA said India reiterated the need for early expert-level mechanism on trans-border rivers.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the Chinese side was headed by Hou Yanqi, Director General of the Boundary and Oceanic Affairs Department at China's foreign ministry. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

India's demand for sharing technical details of upstream projects directly relates to water security concerns. China's dams and diversions on trans-border rivers like the Brahmaputra can affect downstream flow, agriculture, and ecology in India. This is a key strategic issue in bilateral relations.

Explanation

S. Mahendra Dev is the Chairman of the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (PM-EAC). The other options are related bodies but not the institution he chairs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Centre is only 'considering' or 'discussing' a legislation, not passed it. Statement 2 is correct: the Maharashtra Act received support across party lines. Statement 3 is correct: C. Chandramouli urged enumerators to capture women's unpaid work.

Explanation

The UN designated 2026 as the International Year of the Woman Farmer, as mentioned in the article. This aligns with the Maharashtra Act and the proposed national legislation.

Explanation

Professor Dev highlighted that shifting to income-centric agriculture can be achieved through crop diversification, better post-harvest marketing, food processing, and institutional support. The core aim is improving farmer incomes, not just production.

Explanation

Article 145(3) of the Constitution of India provides that no fewer than five judges of the Supreme Court shall decide any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution. Article 143 deals with the President's power to seek the Supreme Court's opinion, Article 131 covers original jurisdiction, and Article 32 is the right to constitutional remedies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the sanctioned strength of 38 judges includes the Chief Justice of India, not excludes him. Statement 2 is correct: an Ordinance had already increased the strength from May 16, 2026, and the Bill replaces that Ordinance. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions the Bill is a Money Bill.

Explanation

The article states that as on January 1, 2026, 92,101 cases were pending at the Supreme Court. Option A (65,615) is the number disposed of during 2025, Option B (75,410) is the number of fresh matters instituted during 2025, and Option D is unrelated.

Explanation

The article highlights that the core justification for increasing judge strength is to allow the CJI to form Constitution Benches (minimum 5 judges) for required periods on a regular basis, while still having enough judges available for the smaller 2-3 judge benches that handle the daily caseload. Option A is not mentioned; Option C (separate Constitutional Division) has been proposed by the Law Commission but not implemented by this Bill; Option D is not part of the Bill.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Kurdish question can be traced back to the Treaty of Lausanne (1923), when the newly founded Turkish Republic adopted a centralized nation-state model that marginalized ethnic minorities, including Kurds.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the draft law is titled 'Strengthening National Solidarity and Social Integration'. Statement 2 is incorrect: the bill was submitted by President Erdoğan's ruling AK Party with its allies, not the main opposition. Statement 3 is correct: the bill offers protection from prosecution to several former militants and ends prison sentences for others.

Explanation

The article states: 'The conflict has claimed over 40,000 lives since 1984.' This includes Turkish military and security personnel, PKK fighters, and thousands of civilians.

Explanation

The article cites Kadir Yildirim, who attributes the renewed urgency to electoral politics: President Erdoğan's AKP and its coalition partner MHP seek Kurdish political backing from the pro-Kurdish DEM Party to secure parliamentary support for constitutional amendments or other electoral pathways for another presidential term.