4 August 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The National Critical Mineral Mission falls under the Ministry of Mines, which oversees mineral exploration, mining, and processing policies. KABIL (Khanij Bidesh India Limited) also operates under this ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: China's average market share is about 70% in 19 of 20 strategic minerals. Statement 2 is incorrect: India has identified 30 critical minerals, not 20. Statement 3 is correct: the EU Act sets a 65% single-country cap. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states the average market share of the top three refining countries rose to 86% in 2024, from around 82% in 2020. Option A (82%) is the 2020 figure, option C (90%) is an exaggeration, and option D (70%) is China's share, not the top three.

Explanation

The National Critical Mineral Mission targets 1,200 exploration projects, production of 15 critical minerals, and acquisition of 50 overseas mining assets to reduce import dependence. While price reduction and exports may be indirect benefits, the core objective is supply chain security as highlighted in the article.

Explanation

The Bill amends the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969, specifically Section 13(3). The 1969 Act is the central legislation governing the registration of births and deaths in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Bill requires a judicial magistrate's order for delays over two years. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 2023 amendment made birth certificates 'near-conclusive' proof, not 'sole and conclusive'. Statement 3 is correct: the Bill's passage lacked debate as the Opposition was protesting a police crackdown on CJP protests.

Explanation

The Bill amends Section 13(3) to specify that for delays exceeding two years, a judicial magistrate must verify the event and pass an order. For delays up to two years, an executive magistrate's order suffices.

Explanation

The article argues that by raising the level of assurance required (judicial scrutiny), the government may be treating wrongful exclusion of legitimate citizens as an acceptable price to minimize wrongful inclusion. This is especially concerning for people in remote areas or undocumented migrants who may have valid reasons for delayed registration.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'Mythos' was developed by the US firm Anthropic. OpenAI is the maker of GPT models, DeepMind is owned by Google, and Palantir is a data analytics company also mentioned in the article as a leading AI firm.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions AI-powered malware can adapt and evolve. Statement 2 is incorrect — the article states that malicious autonomous agents are undermining the legacy of 'Zero Trust' protocols. Statement 3 is correct as the World Economic Forum's warning is cited in the article.

Explanation

The article states that 'Mythos' demonstrates an 'uncanny ability to detect Zero day vulnerabilities across major operating systems'. The other options are mentioned elsewhere in the article but are not the capability of Mythos specifically.

Explanation

The article emphasises that AI and cyber convergence creates exponential danger, undermines Zero Trust protocols, and allows rogue groups to demonstrate nation-state-level capabilities. While economic impacts are mentioned, the core concern is about security, military power shifts, and the inadequacy of current rules.

Explanation

The news refers to a draft bill proposing tax amendments to the Income Tax Act. Such amendments are brought by the Ministry of Finance, which oversees direct and indirect taxes in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the tax exemption is extended until March 31, 2041 (not 2047). Statement 2 is correct as per the article: tax exemption for storing parts in customs-bonded areas is until 2041. Statement 3 is correct: the bill allows data centers to be leased rather than owned by Indian partners to avail tax benefits.

Explanation

The article states India is set to make 26% of the world's iPhones in 2026, up from 6% four years ago. Options 6% is the past figure, while 14% and 33% are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that storing components in customs-bonded areas (considered outside India's customs border) helps mitigate supply chain disruptions from trade uncertainties. Such facilities are attractive only for exports because goods sold domestically attract import taxes. The objective is not about retail stores or increasing import duty revenue.

Explanation

The MoEFCC is the nodal ministry for environmental regulations in India, including the EIA notifications under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The 1994, 2006, and Draft 2020 EIA notifications were all issued by this ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct — the SC struck down the 2021 OM. Statement 2 is incorrect — this was the position in Vanashakti (May 2025), but the July 2026 judgment departed from it, allowing a limited amnesty scheme. Statement 3 is correct — the court permitted a 'narrowly tailored amnesty scheme' under statutory notification in exceptional public interest. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

India notified its first EIA norms in 1994 under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The 1994 notification set the legal framework for prior environmental clearance. It was later replaced by the 2006 notification, which is currently in force. The Draft 2020 notification seeks to replace the 2006 norms.

Explanation

The Precautionary Principle requires environmental assessment before project commencement to prevent irreversible harm. By striking down retrospective clearances, the SC upheld this principle, ensuring that environmental consequences are assessed before, not after, development begins. While all principles are relevant, the core of this judgment is the precautionary approach.

Explanation

The article states that Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman introduced the Bill in Lok Sabha. Hence, it is under the Ministry of Finance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Bill proposes a 10-year extension of the tax exemption up to 2040-41. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Bill slashes but retains some conditions specifically to prevent misuse and roundtripping of money. Statement 3 is correct as the Bill restores the dividend exemption for REIT/InvIT investors with a modest charge at the operating company level.

Explanation

The article states 'The Bill proposes to extend this exemption by another ten years — up to 2040-41.' The original exemption was for 5 years, and the extension adds 10 more years.

Explanation

The article explains that the Bill slashes conditions so that fund managers can relocate to India 'without the foreign fund being treated as doing business in India', which would otherwise make the entire foreign fund taxable here. This aims to bring high-value activity and jobs to India.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the I4C is under the Ministry of Home Affairs. The I4C status report was submitted to the Supreme Court, and the court directed actions involving the Centre, States, RBI, and telecom authorities.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because only 19 States have functional e-Zero FIR mechanisms, not all 36. Statement 3 is correct as the MoU was executed on May 11, 2026. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that complaints reduced to 16,377 during the period ending June 30, 2026. Option A is the 2024 figure, B is the 2025 figure, and D is the number of cases where restoration was completed. Hence C is correct.

Explanation

The SC order specifically mandates mechanisms for grievance redressal, zero FIRs, and time-bound refunds. While prosecution is part of the process, the core objective is victim-centric: restoring losses and addressing complaints quickly. Options C and D are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The Supreme Court directed the Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife or the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change to determine this fact. The NGT deals with environmental disputes, but the fact-finding on the geographic extent of a reserve is assigned to this specific expert body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court clarified that the 10 km buffer extends to ALL wetland conservation reserves, not just Asan. Statement 2 is correct as the court rejected HP's argument for exemption. Statement 3 is correct as the court explicitly applied the Asan directions to other reserves for parity. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that on February 14, 2024, the apex court passed an interim order banning mining within 10 km of the Asan wetland. August 4, 2026 is the date of the current clarification. February 14, 2014 is a distractor date. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The court's decision to extend the buffer to all wetland reserves without waiting for individual assessments reflects the Precautionary Principle, which states that in the face of potential environmental harm, lack of full scientific certainty should not be used as a reason to postpone cost-effective measures. The court emphasized the importance of the Ramsar site and the need for uniform protection, especially in the Himalayan terrain.

Explanation

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the RBI, as per the RBI Act 1934, is responsible for setting the policy repo rate to achieve inflation targeting. The article mentions the MPC meeting on August 5.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states higher crude oil prices raise domestic inflation and worsen trade deficit. Statement 2 is correct: The RBI targets retail inflation at 4% with a 2-6% tolerance band. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article says the Fed, ECB, BoJ, and BoE all maintained status quo (not raised rates) in their last meetings.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The RBI too is charged with the responsibility of maintaining stable prices... by targeting the retail inflation rate at 4%' and mentions the 'RBI comfort zone of 2% to 6%'.

Explanation

The article explains that the RBI goes beyond GDP growth and looks at high-frequency indicators to see if growth is broad-based. For example, a slowdown in airline traffic and rail freight indicates uneven growth, which influences the decision to avoid rate hikes that could hurt weak sectors.

Explanation

As per the news, NOTTO, the national regulator under the Directorate General of Health Services, launched the portal. CDAC collaborated in its development but NOTTO is the implementing body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the protection applies only to live-in relationships that qualify as 'relationships in the nature of marriage' with the intent to marry being established. Statement 2 is correct as the bench gave a purposive interpretation. Statement 3 is correct as the court directed strict application of Arnesh Kumar guidelines.

Explanation

The previous year UPSC Prelims question (2012) cited in the article states that the Indices of Eight Core Industries have a combined weight of 37.90% in the overall IIP. This data point is directly taken from the article's 'Previous year UPSC Prelims Question' section.

Explanation

The article states the portal aims to make the system more transparent, efficient, and equitable by creating a unified waiting list, real-time tracking, nationwide matching of swap donors, and recording outcomes. It is not primarily about cost reduction, medical tourism, or financial incentives.

Explanation

The article states that under Section 193 of BNSS, police may file a closure report if investigation does not disclose sufficient material. Section 360 deals with withdrawal from prosecution, and Section 528 with High Court's inherent powers. Section 173 belongs to the old CrPC.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article explicitly states there is no legal provision for a government to cancel or revoke an FIR using an executive order. Statement 2 is correct as per Section 360 BNSS. Statement 3 is correct as per the Sheonandan Paswan case.

Explanation

The article mentions that in Palaniswamy Veeraraja (2026), the SC held that obtaining magistrate's approval for further investigation has evolved into a requirement. The other cases are from different years and involve different issues.

Explanation

The SC's clarification ensures that students booked during protests for minor offences won't be considered as having 'criminal antecedents', thereby protecting their employment and educational prospects. This is a significant interpretation of the term.

Explanation

The CAPFs (BSF, CRPF, CISF, ITBP, SSB) are under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), not the Ministry of Defence. This is a common confusion point in exams.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Section 3 of the Act provides that posts of Special DG and DG shall be filled by deputation only. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Act effectively negates the 2025 SC judgment which had directed a progressive reduction of deputation posts. Statement 3 is correct: The plea contends the Act violates Articles 14, 16, and 21.

Explanation

Section 3 of the Act mandates a minimum of 67% of ADG posts to be filled by deputation. For IG rank, it is 50%, and for SDG/DG ranks, it is 100% (deputation only). These specific percentages are important for prelims fact-based questions.

Explanation

The petitioners argue that Parliament, through the Act, has attempted to negate the Supreme Court's 2025 judgment using legislative means, which violates the basic structure doctrine and separation of powers. The Act's 'notwithstanding' clause overrides court orders, which is the crux of the challenge.

Explanation

The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956 is the specific legislation that determines the maximum number of judges in the Supreme Court. Article 124 of the Constitution provides for the establishment of the Supreme Court but the number of judges is fixed by Parliament through this Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The sanctioned strength is increased from 34 to 38 (including CJI). Statement 2 is incorrect: The Bill was passed by the Lok Sabha on August 3, 2026, not the Rajya Sabha. Statement 3 is correct: The last increase was in 2019 when strength was raised from 31 to 34. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The sanctioned strength before the 2026 amendment was 34 judges (including CJI). The 2026 amendment increased it to 38. Option A (31) was the strength before the 2019 amendment. Option C (38) is the new strength. Option D (33) is the number of puisne judges before the amendment.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the government cited the growing backlog of cases in the Supreme Court as the reason for the increase. While other options may be related to broader judicial reforms, the immediate cause mentioned is the pendency of cases.

Explanation

DIPAM, under the Ministry of Finance, handles all disinvestment and strategic sale of Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs). The news explicitly mentions DIPAM Secretary Arunish Chawla as the official announcing the OFS details.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the government is selling up to 6.5% (2.5% base + 4% green shoe). Statement 3 is correct: the expected proceeds are ₹31,000 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect because the offer opens for retail investors on August 5, 2026, not August 4. Non-retail investors can bid on August 4.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the government currently holds a 96.5% stake in LIC. After selling 6.5%, the holding will reduce to 90%. The 93.5% is a distractor, and the IPO in 2022 sold 3.5%.

Explanation

The news emphasizes that the proceeds (₹31,000 crore) will be added to the disinvestment kitty, which is crucial for the government to meet its fiscal deficit targets and finance capital expenditure. While increasing public float is a secondary benefit, the core objective is raising funds for the exchequer.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the use of '100%' claims contravenes the FSS (Advertising & Claims) Regulations, 2018. The other options are related but not the specific regulation mentioned in the news. The FSS Act, 2006 is the parent Act, but the violation is under the specific regulations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly says such claims are not permissible for compound foods under the FSS (Advertising & Claims) Regulations, 2018. Statement 3 is correct as the article lists honey, cow ghee, and edible oils among the affected products. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that FSSAI directed Dabur to submit an ATR within 15 days. The other options are common deadlines but not correct in this context. 7 days is too short, 30 and 45 days are longer than specified.

Explanation

The article states that the regulations prohibit claims that are 'ambiguous, unverifiable and likely to mislead consumers'. Option B directly captures this objective. The Jaivik Bharat logo is a separate certification, and e-commerce regulation is not the primary focus of these regulations.

Explanation

The article states the order was issued by the Maharashtra Food Safety Commissioner, Tukaram Mundhe. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is the central authority, but this specific order was at the state level by the Commissioner.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the order covers all government, aided, and private schools including state, CBSE, and ICSE boards. Statement 2 is incorrect because the ban on HFSS items extends to a 50-metre radius beyond school premises. Statement 3 is correct as the School Education Department is the guarantor for govt/aided schools.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that food safety officers will inspect each school at least twice a year. They also collect food samples at least once a year. The other options are distractors.

Explanation

The order explicitly links regular consumption of HFSS items to childhood obesity, micronutrient deficiencies, anaemia, and reduced concentration. The initiative aims to ensure safe and balanced food for children, aligning with NIN dietary guidelines. Other options contradict the order's intent.

Explanation

The BSF is a central armed police force under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). Unlike the Army (Ministry of Defence), the BSF reports to the MHA for border security duties during peacetime.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the transfer includes land for three new Border Outposts (not five) in Malda, Nadia, and Cooch Behar (not only Malda). Statement 3 is correct as the HC order was in WPA (P) 45 of 2025. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The Calcutta High Court, in its January 2026 order in WPA (P) 45 of 2025, directed the State government to hand over the acquired land to the BSF by March 31, 2026. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the decision 'removes a major State-level bottleneck in a long-delayed border infrastructure project affected by land acquisition disputes'. The land had remained pending despite repeated administrative and judicial intervention.

Explanation

The article states that the new Bill will replace the approximately 67-year-old predecessor enacted in 1959, which is the Indian Statistical Institute Act, 1959. The other acts were used for registration but not the governing act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: ISI was founded on December 17, 1931 by P.C. Mahalanobis. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Bill has only been tabled (introduced) in Parliament, not passed. Statement 3 is false because faculty members are protesting against the Bill, not supporting it.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the Institute was registered on April 28, 1932 as a non-profit distributing learned society under the Societies Registration Act of 1860.

Explanation

The article states that several provisions of the Bill have become contentious, with faculty members and MPs protesting. The core issue is the perceived threat to the institute's autonomy due to increased government control, as highlighted by the opposition.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Ministry of Education and the University Grants Commission issued Letters of Approval to foreign universities. UGC is the nodal body for maintaining standards in higher education and approving foreign campuses.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says 5 UGC-approved institutions exist. Statement 2 is incorrect: GER is 30%, not 50% (50% is the target for 2035). Statement 3 is correct: Indian students abroad declined from 9.08 lakh (2023) to 6 lakh (2025). Hence option C.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Gross Enrolment Ratio has risen to 30 as per AISHE 2023-24. The other options are distractors; 50% is the NEP target for 2035.

Explanation

The article repeatedly stresses that internationalisation should not be limited to a few foreign campuses but must reach every student. It states 'the true measure of this reform' is whether all students have access to high global standards. Options A and C are narrow; D is a separate target under NEP.

Explanation

The article states that the High Court of Karnataka directed search engines and judicial record-keepers to mask the woman's name. This is a specific fact from the news and tests static knowledge of judicial bodies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions acquittal under the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court directed multiple entities including registrars, police, Google, and Indian Kanoon. Statement 3 is correct as the article states she is an Iranian national with refugee status in Sweden.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the petitioner was acquitted in 2019 by the trial court. The other options are distractors: 2013-14 is the prosecution period, and 2026 is the publication year of the news.

Explanation

The court emphasized the 'right to be forgotten' in the digital age, stating that continued visibility of an obsolete accusation inflicts grave civil consequences. The direction aims to allow the internet to 'forget' the individual's association with the crime, enabling a life free from stigma.

Explanation

The Debt-to-GSDP ratio is a measure of a state's indebtedness relative to its economic output. A higher ratio indicates greater debt burden. In the article, Tamil Nadu's ratio rose from 17.9% (2014-15) to 27.5% (2024-25).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the revenue deficit share increased from 23.6% to 55.8%. Statement 2 is incorrect: the CAGR of liabilities was 16.2%, not 8.7% (that is SOTR growth). Statement 3 is correct: interest payments exceeded capital outlay since 2017-18. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The article states that outstanding liabilities grew from ₹1.92 lakh crore in 2014-15 to ₹8.57 lakh crore in 2024-25, at a CAGR of 16.2%. Option A is the 2014-15 figure, while B and D are distractors.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that the revenue deficit now accounts for 55.8% of fiscal deficit, and interest payments surpass capital outlay, leaving little room for growth-oriented expenditure. The government's welfare promises require more spending, but the high debt burden constrains fiscal space. Options A, C, and D are not discussed as primary challenges.

Explanation

IARC is the specialized cancer research agency of WHO that evaluates carcinogenic agents through its Monographs program. The classification was published in Volume 137 of the IARC Monographs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – both drugs increase skin sensitivity to UV radiation leading to DNA damage (phototoxicity). Statement 2 is correct – tacrolimus is linked to non-Hodgkin lymphoma with sufficient evidence. Statement 3 is incorrect – IARC Monographs identify hazard, not real-world risk at prescribed doses.

Explanation

The article states that the assessment was published as Volume 137 of the IARC Monographs. The initial conclusions were first released in The Lancet Oncology in November 2024.

Explanation

Experts stress that patients should not stop or alter medication without medical advice because these drugs treat serious conditions. The priority is informed prescribing and monitoring – sunscreen, limiting UV exposure, and periodic skin checks – not discontinuation.

Explanation

The National Medical Commission (NMC) is the current statutory body responsible for regulating medical education in India. It releases the annual seat matrix for undergraduate and postgraduate medical courses, replacing the earlier Medical Council of India (MCI).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states seats increased from 51,348 (2014-15) to 1,36,939 (2026-27). Statement 2 is incorrect: private colleges hold 54% share, not government. Statement 3 is correct: 79% (7,800) of the 9,911 new seats were in private colleges. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that India now has 1,36,939 MBBS seats across 823 medical colleges for the 2026-27 academic year. The other options are previous years' figures: 1,23,700 (2025-26), 1,18,190 (2024-25), and 1,08,848 (2023-24).

Explanation

The article quotes former IMA president Ravi S. Wankhedkar stating that while the number of MBBS seats has expanded, 'the affordability of medical education has now emerged as a pressing concern.' Government colleges charge significantly lower fees (₹5,000-₹1 lakh/year) compared to private colleges, making access unequal.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions 'World Gold Council (WGC) data' multiple times as the source for gold demand statistics, including the 282 tonnes H1 2026 figure and the record ETF demand of 20 tonnes in Q1 2026.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: total gold demand rose 2% YoY to 282 tonnes, driven by investment demand as ETFs hit a record high. Statement 2 is incorrect: jewellery demand declined 17.1% to 141.2 tonnes, not increased; it accounts for 30% of total demand, not 70% (investment demand is 70%). Statement 3 is correct: gold loan portfolios reached ~₹5.4 lakh crore by June 2026 with ~94% YoY growth. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Q1 was a record for Indian gold ETFs, with net demand of 20 tonnes, driven by strong investor participation amid elevated gold prices and subdued domestic financial markets.' The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states: 'the banking regulator also replaced the uniform 75% loan-to-value cap with a tiered structure that significantly benefits small borrowers.' Additionally, the RBI mandated full repayment of principal and interest before repledging the asset, but the key structural change is the tiered LTV cap. Options A, C, and D are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that under Section 338 of the US Tariff Act of 1930, Trump announced 50% tariffs on some Canadian imports. Section 301 relates to unfair trade practices, Section 232 to national security, and Section 201 to import injury. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the US is India’s second-largest trading partner with $150 billion trade in 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect because India enjoys a trade surplus, not a deficit, with the US. Statement 3 is correct: Trump announced 100% tariff on India’s pharma exports from 2028 and 200% from 2029. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The US is India’s second-largest trading partner, with bilateral trade of about $150 billion in 2025.' The other options are close distractors. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article advises that 'Trade policy must now focus on diversifying commodity trade away from the US' and mentions that China has done so successfully. It also highlights focusing on agreements with the UK, EU, and other countries. The other options are either not recommended or contrary to the analysis. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

NOTTO is a national-level organization under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India, as mentioned in the article context. It coordinates organ and tissue transplantation activities across the country.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: 20,138 transplants were conducted in 2025, the highest so far. Statement 2 is correct: 3,526 transplants used organs from deceased donors. Statement 3 is incorrect: 68% of living donors were women, but 78% of recipients were men, not women. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'When it came to kidneys, women made up 71% of donors.' 68% is the overall living donor figure, 78% is the male recipient percentage, and 60% is not mentioned. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states the portal is a 'one-stop digital solution' for transparent functioning and allocation, allowing patients, hospitals, state authorities, and coordination networks to interact. It does not mention awareness campaigns, financial assistance, or pricing regulation.

Explanation

The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) is the nodal ministry for IT policy, digital governance, and regulation of intermediaries under the IT Act. IT Secretary S Krishnan, who is representing the government in the Meta meeting, is a senior official of this ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the meeting follows the blocking of PM Modi's post. Statement 2 is correct: Joel Kaplan is expected to attend. Statement 3 is incorrect: the government termed Meta's explanation 'inadequate' and 'not reasonable', not accepted it.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the PM Modi's Facebook post was made on July 23, 2026, and was briefly restricted before being restored. The other dates are distractors: August 4 is the publication date of the article, and August 5-6 are the meeting dates.

Explanation

The article states that by summoning global leadership, the Centre intends to 'directly press Meta's international management on platform accountability'. This shows the government's strategic shift towards holding the highest level of tech companies accountable for compliance with Indian laws.

Explanation

The Enforcement Directorate (ED) is under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. It is responsible for enforcing the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), FEMA, and other economic laws.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: ED registered 1,080 cases in FY 2025-26, a four-year high. Statement 2 is incorrect: the conviction rate is 0.93% (43 out of 4,622 cases), not 4.3%. Statement 3 is correct: IT Dept filed 611 cases in FY 2024-25 vs 432 in FY 2025-26.

Explanation

The data shows that 104 accused persons were convicted in the 43 cases that ended in conviction under PMLA over the five-year period. 43 is the number of cases convicted, not accused persons. 233 is the number of IT Dept convictions, and 854 is IT Dept acquittals.

Explanation

A low conviction rate despite high case registration suggests that while enforcement action is high, cases may lack sufficient evidence or face delays in the judicial system. The other options are extreme or incorrect: ED is filing many cases, money laundering is a serious crime, and the PMLA has strong provisions but implementation challenges remain.

Explanation

The draft notification was released by MoRTH, which is the nodal ministry for automotive safety standards and road transport regulations in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the draft. Statement 2 is incorrect because DoT exempted this spectrum from licensing on June 10, 2026. Statement 3 is correct as AIS-230 covers cybersecurity and communication security requirements.

Explanation

The article specifically states that the 5.875 GHz to 5.925 GHz frequency band has been designated for ITS and exempted from licensing by DoT on June 10, 2026.

Explanation

The article states that unlike cameras and radar, V2V communication can share information beyond a driver's line of sight, enabling warnings about hazards that are not directly visible, such as sudden braking around a curve.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Oman is mediating the talks. Iran's discussions are only with Oman, not directly with the United States, as per Iranian Foreign Ministry spokesperson Esmail Baghaei.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Iranian officials said the proposal includes a 'service fee' shared equally between Iran and Oman. Statement 2 is incorrect: the US disputes any fee or Iranian control, insisting on freedom of navigation. Statement 3 is correct: Iran's conditions include lifting the US naval blockade and returning to the Islamabad MoU framework.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'around one-fifth of global oil and natural gas shipments passed before the conflict disrupted maritime traffic,' which translates to approximately 20%. The other options are plausible distractors.

Explanation

The article highlights that India imports a large share of its crude and LNG via Hormuz, so disruption can lift pump prices, freight and insurance rates, and feed into inflation. This makes the strait's governance directly relevant to India's economic stability and energy security.

Explanation

The article states that the School Education Department has submitted the ‘Super 100’ scheme to the Finance Department for approval. The proposal was reviewed by CM Devendra Fadnavis and School Education Minister Dada Bhuse.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions selecting 100 high-performing students from rural government schools for free coaching. Statement 2 is correct – it is modelled on Super 30 (Anand Kumar, 2002). Statement 3 is incorrect because the scheme is funded through DPDC funds (state-level), not by the central government.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Each centre is expected to cost around Rs 1.15 crore and will be funded through the District Planning and Development Council (DPDC) funds.'

Explanation

The core objective, as stated in the article, is to bridge the gap between government school education and expensive private coaching by providing residential coaching, accommodation, and academic support to underprivileged rural students for JEE and NEET entrance exams.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the incident is being investigated by the aviation safety regulator DGCA. DGCA is the statutory body under the Ministry of Civil Aviation responsible for safety oversight in Indian civil aviation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because CAT occurs outside clouds (clear air) and is difficult to detect with radar. Statement 2 is correct: CAT occurs above 15,000 feet and is associated with wind shear near jet streams. Statement 3 is correct as per the University of Reading study mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article specifically states: 'Over the North Atlantic, severe-or-greater CAT duration rose over 55 per cent in the four-decade period.' This is a key data point from the 2023 University of Reading and UK Met Office study.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that 'keeping the seatbelt fastened at all times — and not just when the seatbelt sign comes on — is the simplest yet the most effective measure that drastically reduces the possibility of turbulence-related injuries.' Most serious injuries occur when passengers are dislodged from their seats.

Explanation

The article states that NEET-UG is conducted on behalf of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, which acts as the Test Indenting Agency. The Ministry of Education oversees NTA but is not the indenting agency for NEET-UG.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: NEET-UG is the only major NTA exam still in pen-and-paper mode. Statement 2 is correct: the Task Force is under Nandan Nilekani. Statement 3 is incorrect because the two-stage format is under consideration, not finalised. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions that 'seven of its eight major examinations' have been migrated to CBT, including JEE (Main), CUET (UG), CUET (PG), UGC-NET, and CSIR-NET. Only NEET-UG remains in pen-and-paper mode.

Explanation

The article is set in the context of petitions on NTA reforms 'to prevent question paper leaks'. A two-stage computer-based test with multi-session scheduling is a structural reform to enhance exam security. Other options are not the primary objective mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) and its Standing Committee are established under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. The SC-NBWL evaluates projects in wildlife habitats and makes recommendations for clearance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the corridor connects Panna and Ranipur reserves. Statement 2 is false – the DFO expressed reservations and warned of corridor blockage. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions three 30-metre-wide wildlife overpasses as a condition. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the project is 'the 1,800 MW Panari pumped storage hydropower project'. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The DFO specifically highlighted that the project is in an area of continuous wildlife movement, is likely to block the corridor, and that no alternative dispersal pathway exists. The other options, while possible issues, are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that Pratyush Kumar, co-founder and CEO of Indian AI unicorn Sarvam AI, made this claim at the Express Adda event. The other options are major Indian tech companies but not mentioned in this context.

Explanation

The article confirms that the summit was held in February in Delhi (statement 1), that over $400 billion in AI capex was announced (statement 2), and that voice AI is expected to be the first billion-dollar revenue category (statement 3). Therefore, all statements are correct.

Explanation

Rajan Anandan stated that voice AI will be the 'first billion dollar revenue category' and the overall market is projected at around $10 billion. The other options are distractors, with $400 billion being the AI capex announced at the summit.

Explanation

Anandan emphasized that with 12 million Indians entering the workforce annually, India must create 100 million jobs in the next eight years, and this requires upskilling and an innovation ecosystem. While IT services hiring slowdown is mentioned, the overarching challenge is job creation at scale.

Explanation

The article states that the Bill was introduced by MoS Home Nityanand Rai, which directly links the Bill to the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the Rajya Sabha passed the Bill by a voice vote. Statement 2 is incorrect because only registrations delayed beyond two years require a Judicial Magistrate's order; delays up to two years remain under executive magistrate orders. Statement 3 is correct as the Bill amends the 1969 Act.

Explanation

The article specifically states that the Bill mandates an order from a Judicial Magistrate (First Class) for birth and death registrations made over two years after the event.

Explanation

MoS Home Nityanand Rai stated that late registration beyond two years was being misused, including 'ghosts' continuing to be voters and babies born elsewhere being registered by some states.

Explanation

The article states that the invitation was extended to Bangladesh PM in his capacity as the current chair of BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India is hosting the 18th BRICS summit in New Delhi. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article mentions the summit will deliberate on 'pressing global challenges' including the West Asia crisis, not just trade. Statement 3 is correct: Xi Jinping and Putin are among the top leaders expected to attend.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that BRICS members represent around 49.5% of the global population. The other figures are distractors: ~40% is the global GDP share, and ~26% is the global trade share.

Explanation

By inviting the BIMSTEC chair (Bangladesh), India bridges its regional multilateral platform (BIMSTEC) with the global BRICS grouping. This showcases India's role as a connector between regional and global forums, aligning with its 'Neighbourhood First' and 'Act East' foreign policy objectives.

Explanation

The judgment was delivered by the Karnataka High Court, specifically by Justice M Nagaprasanna. The Supreme Court was not involved in this case, and the other high courts are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the court quashed the case, holding a five-year consensual live-in relationship does not establish the offence. Statement 2 is correct: Section 69 BNS criminalises sexual intercourse obtained through deceitful means or false promise of marriage. Statement 3 is incorrect: the court quashed the proceedings, not allowed them to continue.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the parties lived together in a live-in relationship for about five years. The court noted that a five-year consensual relationship cannot be based solely on a promise of marriage.

Explanation

The court reasoned that a five-year consensual relationship cannot be sustained solely on a promise of marriage, and thus the essential ingredient of 'deceitful means' under Section 69 BNS was absent. The court emphasized that allowing such a case would abuse the legal process.

Explanation

The Justice Liberhan Commission was a one-man Commission of Inquiry appointed under the Commissions of Inquiry Act, 1952, which empowers the government to appoint commissions to investigate matters of public importance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Commission concluded the demolition was 'neither spontaneous nor unplanned' but a well-planned conspiracy. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions around 100 witnesses were examined. Statement 3 is correct as the Commission alleged involvement of senior RSS and BJP leaders.

Explanation

The Justice Liberhan Commission submitted its report on June 30, 2009. 1992 was the year of the demolition and the appointment of the commission. 2020 was the year the special CBI court acquitted all accused.

Explanation

A commission of inquiry operates on the civil standard of 'preponderance of probabilities', meaning it is more likely than not that an event occurred. A criminal court requires proof 'beyond reasonable doubt', a much higher threshold. Therefore, a commission can find a conspiracy even if a criminal court acquits due to insufficient evidence for conviction.