31 July 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The Supreme Court has held that the right to life under Article 21 includes the right to a healthy environment. This interpretation forms the constitutional basis for environmental jurisprudence in India, as referenced in the verdict linking a healthy environment to the right to life.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the SC struck down the 2021 OM. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Court only allowed a narrowly tailored amnesty scheme, not unconditional clearances. Statement 3 is correct: the Court insisted on proportionality and weighing costs. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Centre issued an Office Memorandum in 2021 to consolidate the regime of post-facto clearances. The 2017 notification provided a one-time window, but the OM was issued in 2021. The May 2025 verdict was the earlier absolute ban, not the OM.

Explanation

The verdict transformed open-ended administrative discretion into a narrowly circumscribed constitutional exception requiring proportionality. It did not impose an absolute ban (A) nor allow unconditional amnesty (B). It did not overturn Alembic Pharmaceuticals (D); rather, it built on that precedent by allowing a narrow exception.

Explanation

The directions are titled 'Reserve Bank of India (Commercial Banks- Interest Rate on Deposits) Second Amendment Directions, 2026', clearly indicating RBI as the issuing authority. SEBI regulates securities markets, IRDAI regulates insurance, and the Ministry of Finance is the administrative ministry, not the regulator for deposit rates.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: RBI mandates daily disclosure by 10 AM with a 10-minute grace period. Statement 2 is incorrect: The norms allow differential pricing based on LCR run-off rates, not a complete prohibition. Statement 3 is correct: The exception for LCR-linked pricing applies to rupee deposits of non-residents as well. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states the current run-off rate is 12.5%, which includes 2.5% for deposits raised through digital channels. 10.0% and 15.0% are close distractors, while 2.5% is only the digital channel component, not the total rate.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that daily disclosures create a transparent benchmark against which deposit pricing can be scrutinised by regulators, auditors and depositors. While there may be secondary benefits, the core objective is transparency and market discipline, as highlighted in the MSRDC case context.

Explanation

Additional Sessions Judge Praveen Singh of the Delhi Sessions Court delivered the life imprisonment sentence. The Supreme Court and High Court are higher appellate courts, not the trial court in this case.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the court sentenced them to life imprisonment, not the death penalty. Statement 2 is correct: Ankit Sharma was an IB staffer. Statement 3 is correct: Hussain was convicted of murder and rioting but acquitted of criminal conspiracy.

Explanation

According to the police, Ankit Sharma's body had 51 stab wounds. The other options are close distractors used to test precise recall of this horrific detail from the case.

Explanation

The court noted that the prosecution did not bring evidence of a 'violent disposition' and that the convicts could be 'disciplined and made to follow a rules-based order,' aligning with the 'rarest of rare' doctrine which requires the convict to be beyond reformation for the death penalty.

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) oversees India's diplomatic missions abroad and coordinates the safe return of citizens during crises. The Union Minister of State for External Affairs provided the data in Lok Sabha, confirming the MEA's role.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article – total 1,40,605. Statement 2 is correct – Qatar and Kuwait together account for over 92% (more than 90%). Statement 3 is incorrect – the digital platform is in 'final trials' but not yet launched. Hence only 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that 1,00,000 Indian nationals were assisted through Qatar after the partial reopening of the country's airspace. The other options are from other countries: 30,000 (Kuwait), 3,225 (Iraq), and 1,40,605 (total).

Explanation

The Minister stated that the solution provides a platform for stranded Indian nationals to register with basic and real-time information, along with geo-tagging locations, to seek assistance during crisis situations. This is a customised emergency response tool, not a general-purpose system.

Explanation

The Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937 mandates the application of Muslim personal law, which permits polygamy (up to four wives). The other options are not related to allowing polygamy; the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act deals with divorce, and the BNS punishes bigamy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the petition seeks a declaration that polygamy among Muslims is unconstitutional. Statement 2 is incorrect: the petition does not demand immediate criminalisation; it seeks a direction to take legislative steps to abolish the practice, leaving the process to the legislature. Statement 3 is correct: the petition seeks compulsory registration of Muslim marriages and divorces to prevent secret subsequent marriages. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The petition cited a survey across 7 states that found 79% of husbands did not even inform their first wives about a second marriage, and 88% did not seek consent. The correct answer is 79% for the 'not informed' category.

Explanation

The petition seeks multiple remedies: a declaration that polygamy among Muslims is unconstitutional, a direction to apply Section 82 BNS (bigamy punishment) uniformly, and compulsory registration of Muslim marriages and divorces. It also seeks codification of Muslim Personal Law. Hence all the listed remedies are part of the petition.

Explanation

The article mentions the CWMA's order on water regulation. The CWMA was established to implement the final award of the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal and regulate water sharing between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the bill was passed without debate amid protests. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: SC sought Centre's response on a plea to ban polygamy among Muslims. Statement 3 is correct: Tahir Hussain and four others were sentenced to life imprisonment for murdering IB officer Ankit Sharma during the 2020 riots.

Explanation

The article states that the building wing collapse in Thane's Bhiwandi killed at least nine people, with rescue operations ongoing and 7-8 others still trapped.

Explanation

The article says the Supreme Court sought the Centre's response on a petition to declare polygamy among Muslims as unconstitutional and for legislative steps to abolish the practice for all citizens regardless of religion. This reflects the core objective of the plea.

Explanation

Article 338 establishes the National Commission for Scheduled Castes. Article 338A establishes the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, and Article 338B establishes the National Commission for Backward Classes. Article 340 deals with the appointment of a Commission to investigate the conditions of backward classes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Article 338(8) grants NCSC civil court powers for summons and documents. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Supreme Court held NCSC cannot issue binding orders. Statement 3 is correct as the Court cited that precedent.

Explanation

The article states 'The Supreme Court on Tuesday (July 28, 2026) has clarified...' July 31, 2026 is the publication date of the article, not the judgment date.

Explanation

The Court held that these commissions have only recommendatory and advisory roles, not adjudicatory. They cannot issue binding orders, thus preventing encroachment on judicial functions.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Bench was led by the Chief Justice of India, Surya Kant. This is a static fact about the composition of the Bench.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The SC quashed the 2021 OM. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Court allowed legalization through a statutory notification, not a constitutional amendment. Statement 3 is correct: The Jan Vishwas amendments stripped away imprisonment, leaving only monetary penalties. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states 'the Supreme Court of India’s July 29 order'. The other dates are distractors; no other date is mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that the Jan Vishwas amendments 'stripped away the threat of imprisonment for environmental lapses altogether, leaving only monetary penalties thus converting compliance into a 'cost of doing business' entry'. This is the core critique.

Explanation

The NCISM is the statutory regulator for Indian System of Medicine practitioners, established under the NCISM Act, 2020. It issued the circular dated July 29, 2026, clarifying that qualified ISM doctors cannot be labelled ‘quacks’.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the circular explicitly says qualified ISM doctors are legally recognised medical practitioners. Statement 2 is incorrect — the circular does NOT automatically permit them to practise allopathy; that depends on state laws. Statement 3 is correct as the circular was issued in response to reports of harassment and defamatory campaigns.

Explanation

The circular was dated July 29, 2026, as mentioned in the article. The other options are close distractors but incorrect.

Explanation

The circular was issued to clarify that registered Indian System of Medicine (ISM) practitioners are legally recognised and cannot be called ‘quacks’. It aims to stop harassment and defamatory campaigns. It does not grant allopathy rights or merge systems.

Explanation

The article states that the Prevention of Insults to National Honour (Amendment) Bill, 2026 amends the 1971 Act to criminalise insults to 'Vande Mataram'. The original Act covered the national flag, anthem, and Constitution.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Act was passed on December 23, 1971, after the Bangladesh War. Statement 2 is incorrect: the amendment makes insult to 'Vande Mataram' punishable by up to 3 years, it does not reduce punishment for the national anthem. Statement 3 is correct: the article states acquittals outpaced convictions each year.

Explanation

The article specifically states there were 1,102 arrests and 60 convictions under the 1971 Act between 2014 and 2024. Option B (48) is the average number of cases pending investigation, and option C (221) is the average pending trial. Option D (1,102) is the total arrests.

Explanation

The article argues the amendment is 'a law in search of a crime' because NCRB data shows very low incidence of such offences. It also notes the contradiction with the government's own decriminalisation agenda under the Jan Vishwas Act, and raises concerns about weaponisation of the criminal justice system against opponents.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Calcutta High Court ordered five dedicated fast-track courts. The order was issued by the Registrar of the Calcutta High Court on July 29, 2026.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the order placed three courts in Kolkata and two in Port Blair. Statement 2 is correct: the designated courts shall adjudicate cases under the 2024 Act. Statement 3 is incorrect: the deadline is 'preferably within three months' from charge-sheet, not six months.

Explanation

The Calcutta High Court order specified three fast-track courts in Kolkata (Bench-I, Special CBI Court No.2, and Additional Chief Judicial Magistrate, 1st Court) and two in Port Blair (Additional District & Sessions Judge and Chief Judicial Magistrate).

Explanation

The article states the courts are intended 'to expedite criminal proceedings and ensure time-bound adjudication'. The order mandates trial conclusion within three months from charge-sheet, reflecting the goal of swift justice in exam malpractice cases.

Explanation

The Ministry of Jal Shakti deals with water resources, including inter-state river water disputes. The Union Jal Shakti Minister chaired the meeting mentioned in the news. The other ministries are not directly responsible for river water disputes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Odisha filed a complaint on November 19, 2016 under Section 3 of the ISRWD Act. Statement 2 is correct: The Union Cabinet approved the constitution of MWDT on February 20, 2018, with a three-year deadline extendable by two years. Statement 3 is incorrect: The tribunal has held more than 50 hearings, not less than 30.

Explanation

The MWDT order dated April 20, 2026 granted one final opportunity to both states to reach a consensus, failing which the tribunal would proceed with adjudication. July 30, 2026 is the date of the high-level meeting; August 1, 2025 is when Chhattisgarh CM replied to Odisha's letter; September 17, 2016 is when the previous CMs met.

Explanation

The meeting aimed at an amicable settlement through negotiations, as both states are ruled by the same party (BJP). The official statement emphasized 'dialogue, technical cooperation and cooperative federalism' to establish a long-term framework. Options A, C, and D are not mentioned as objectives of this meeting.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the report was released by the World Bank. The World Bank Vice President for South Asia, Johannes Zutt, is also quoted in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions 'costing South Asia nearly the equivalent of 31 million full-time jobs every year'. Statement 2 is correct: 'by 2070, around 520 million people across South Asia could experience at least one month of dangerous heat each year'. Statement 3 is incorrect because the report urges treating heat as a 'core development challenge' not a seasonal emergency.

Explanation

The article states 'on track to reduce the region’s economy by nearly 7 percent by 2050'. The other options are close distractors; 5% and 6% are lower, 8% is higher than the reported figure.

Explanation

The report explicitly argues that 'heat should no longer be treated as a seasonal emergency but should become a core development priority that is integrated into urban planning, infrastructure investment, public policy, and private sector development'. Options A and C are partial or contrary, while D is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Kerala government created the 11-member SADGC headed by the Chief Secretary. Other states are expected to follow similar mechanisms but Kerala is the first mentioned.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article says the committee is headed by the Chief Secretary. Statement 2 is incorrect: AgriStack has three registries (farmers' registry, geo-referenced village maps, crop-sown registry), not four. Statement 3 is correct: The committee will act as the fiduciary custodian of all AgriStack data within the state, held in public trust.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Kerala government created an '11-member' State AgriStack Data Governance Committee. The other options are close distractors; 10, 12, and 13 are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that the SADGC will act as the 'fiduciary custodian of all AgriStack data within the State, held in public trust for farmers and farming communities.' Its role includes approving/denying data access and prescribing state-specific conditions. The other options are general agricultural activities not specifically tied to the committee's mandate.

Explanation

SEBI is the statutory regulator for India's securities market, established under the SEBI Act, 1992. It oversees stock exchanges like NSE and enforces compliance with market regulations. The RBI regulates banking and monetary policy, not stock exchanges directly.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the approval is 'in-principle' (not final), subject to payment of the settlement amount. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions allegations of governance lapses and failure to provide equitable access. Statement 3 is correct as NSE has filed draft offer documents and started roadshows for its IPO.

Explanation

The article specifically states that SEBI granted in-principle approval subject to the payment of ₹1,491.21 crore. The other options are close distractors — ₹1,000 crore is a round figure often used in media, ₹1,500 crore is a rounded-up figure, and ₹2,000 crore is an inflated estimate.

Explanation

The settlement resolves a long-running case involving governance lapses, removing a key regulatory overhang. This allows NSE to proceed with its mega IPO, for which it has already filed draft documents and started roadshows. The other options are incorrect as the settlement does not impose a ban, grant exemption from future rules, or mandate a merger.

Explanation

Section 2(h) of the RTI Act, 2005 defines 'public authority'. Section 2(f) defines 'information', Section 4(1) deals with proactive disclosure, and Section 8(1) lists exemptions from disclosure. The news article specifically mentions that NSEI's status was being challenged under Section 2(h).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the SC stayed the HC order. Statement 2 is correct as the division bench dismissed NSEI's appeal against the 2010 single judge decision. Statement 3 is incorrect because the SC only stayed (temporarily suspended) the order, not permanently quashed it; the matter is listed for hearing after four weeks.

Explanation

The article states that the division bench verdict was delivered on July 1, 2026. The original single judge decision was in April 2010. The Supreme Court stay was ordered on July 31, 2026. These dates are important for chronology. Option B is correct.

Explanation

The RTI Act allows citizens to seek information only from 'public authorities'. If NSEI is declared a public authority, it would be obligated to provide information to citizens upon request. The other options are not related to the RTI Act's provisions. Option B correctly captures the core implication of the legal status.

Explanation

The EPI is developed by the Yale Center for Environmental Law & Policy, Columbia University's Center for International Earth Science Information Network (CIESIN), and Yale Center for Geospatial Solutions, with support from the McCall MacBain Foundation. It is not a UNEP or WEF publication.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: CCPI is jointly published by Germanwatch, New Climate Institute, and CAN International. Statement 2 is incorrect: The top three positions in CCPI 2026 remain vacant as no country achieved a 'very high' rating; Denmark is ranked 4th. Statement 3 is correct: India fell from 10th to 23rd position.

Explanation

India's overall EPI 2026 score is 22.46, compared to the regional average of 31.81. Option A (18.34) is a distractor, option C (31.81) is the regional average, and option D (74.79) is Estonia's top score.

Explanation

The CRI measures the consequences of climate-related extreme weather events' effect on countries, ranking them by economic and human impacts (fatalities and total affected). It does not focus on GHG emissions (option A) or renewable energy targets (option C) – those are covered by CCPI. Option D is broad and not the specific purpose of CRI.

Explanation

The report was released by TransUnion CIBIL, India's leading credit bureau. The Reserve Bank of India is the regulator, but not the publisher of this specific report. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: the CAGR moderated from 14% (2017-2019) to 9% (2024-2026), not accelerated. Statement 3 is correct: NTC share fell from 32% to 13% over the period. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The report states that over-leveraged borrowers eased to 15% in FY26 after industry intervention. 5% was the FY17 figure, 18% was the FY24 peak, and 28% is the credit-active consumer share in March 2026.

Explanation

The report flags the threefold increase in over-leveraged borrowers and the slowdown in credit-active consumer CAGR as key concerns. The increase in women borrowers is a positive trend, and the geographic shift is towards north and central India, not western states. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Maharashtra Food and Drug Administration (FDA) issued the order. FSSAI is the national regulatory body, but the state FDA implemented the ban. The Ministry of Health and Education Board are not directly involved in this specific order.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the order applies to government, aided, and private schools. Statement 2 is incorrect: the ban covers chocolates, chips, sugary drinks, deep-fried snacks, and other HFSS foods. Statement 3 is correct: the FDA order encourages schools to provide fruits, vegetables, whole grains, pulses, and dairy products.

Explanation

The article explicitly cites the World Obesity Atlas 2026 estimate of around 41 million Indian children aged 5-19 years being overweight or obese. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states the ban directly targets the three biggest dietary contributors to childhood obesity – excess fat, salt, and sugar. While healthier options are encouraged, the core objective is to reduce obesity by removing the main source of unhealthy foods during school hours. Options A, C, and D are either secondary or incorrect.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) found Meta's explanation inadequate and summoned the global team. The other ministries are not involved in this specific action.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: MeitY found the explanation inadequate. Statement 2 is correct: sources said the team will appear before a parliamentary panel. Statement 3 is incorrect: additional oversight was implemented only for the Prime Minister and select prominent accounts, not all users.

Explanation

The article states that Meta attributed the incident to a technical glitch and apologized. The government found this explanation inadequate.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the government will question Meta on 'algorithmic bias' and 'role in public order'. While data privacy is related, the immediate focus is on public order implications of algorithmic decisions.

Explanation

The CCI is a statutory body under the Competition Act, 2002, and its administrative oversight lies with the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. The Ministry of Finance handles economic policy, while Law and Justice deals with legal affairs. Commerce and Industry covers trade policy, not corporate regulation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The SC upheld the NCLAT order. Statement 2 is incorrect: The CCI differed from the DG's findings, not agreed. Statement 3 is correct: The procedural lapse was that CCI did not give Grasim a chance to be heard after differing from the DG. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the CCI imposed a penalty of ₹301.6 crore on Grasim Industries in March 2020. The other options are incorrect – ₹301.6 lakh is too small, ₹316 crore is a different number, and there is no mention of any reduction. This is a direct factual recall question from the news.

Explanation

The core issue was that the CCI did not give Grasim an opportunity to present its arguments after differing from the DG's findings. This violates the principle of audi alteram partem (right to be heard), which is a fundamental aspect of natural justice. The Supreme Court upheld this principle. The other options are not directly relevant to the procedural flaw highlighted in the case.

Explanation

The talks were co-chaired by Foreign Secretary Vikram Misri, who represents the Ministry of External Affairs. The article states 'Foreign Secretary Vikram Misri' co-chaired the talks, confirming MEA's role.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article mentions India's support of ₹10,000 crore for Bhutan's 13th FYP. Statement 2 is incorrect: The LoC was signed between the Export-Import Bank of India and Bhutan's Ministry of Finance, not RBI. Statement 3 is correct: 45 electric vehicles were handed over to the Royal Government of Bhutan.

Explanation

The article states that with the approval of 12 new PTA projects (₹332 crore), a total of 82 PTA projects have been approved under the 13th FYP, amounting to ₹6,860 crore. Option A is only the new projects, C is the total support, D is the LoC amount.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the LoC agreement was exchanged 'to support development initiatives in the country.' While green mobility and infrastructure are part of broader development, the primary objective is general development support. The AIIMS MoU is separate.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Muthanga agitation and similar movements helped shape the discourse leading to the enactment of the Forest Rights Act, 2006. The other acts are mentioned in the article but not as a direct outcome of the agitation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the court acquitted all 42 accused in the primary case. Statement 2 is incorrect: Geethanandan was convicted under Sections 307 and 120B, not 302. Statement 3 is correct: Ashokan died during trial, leading to abatement of proceedings.

Explanation

The article states that four persons—Geethanandan, Anilkumar, Binu, and K. Rameshan—were found guilty. 15 died during the trial, 42 were acquitted, and the total original accused was 57.

Explanation

The article mentions the seven-point agreement included a promise to distribute between one and five acres of land to all landless tribal families. The failure to implement this led to the occupation of Muthanga.

Explanation

The Ministry of Civil Aviation formulates policies and oversees the development, regulation, and operation of civil aviation, including airports. The Ministry of Defence handles military airbases like INS Dega.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states it is the first international airport after bifurcation. Statement 2 is incorrect because nearly 500 acres are earmarked for future expansion. Statement 3 is correct as the runway has CAT I ILS.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the project cost is 'more than ₹4,700 crore'. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explains that INS Dega is hemmed in by defence land and urban development, with no scope for extending the runway or building larger terminals. A new greenfield airport was essential for growth.

Explanation

As per the news article, the SC-NBWL made the recommendation during its meeting on July 9, 2026. The WII presented the status report, but the recommendation itself came from the SC-NBWL.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly calls it the 'smallest and rarest species of wild pig'. Statement 2 is incorrect: IDWH is a centrally sponsored scheme, not a central sector scheme. Statement 3 is correct: WII presented during the July 9 meeting. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states the decision was made during the SC-NBWL's meeting held on July 9. The publication date is July 31, but the meeting date is July 9.

Explanation

The IDWH scheme provides financial assistance to states to protect certain species or wildlife areas through its recovery programme. The recommendation aims to unlock funding for grassland habitat restoration and conservation of the pygmy hog, as highlighted in the article.

Explanation

Article 32 is the constitutional remedy for enforcing Fundamental Rights, famously called the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. Article 226 provides similar power to High Courts.

Explanation

Statement 1 is directly from the news. Statement 2 is incorrect; the directive relates to writ jurisdiction (Article 32/142) for humanitarian relief, not appellate jurisdiction (Article 132-136). Statement 3 is correct as MEA handles the welfare of Indian citizens abroad.

Explanation

The article was published on July 31, 2026, confirming the SC directive was issued in 2026. The Russia-Ukraine war began in 2022.

Explanation

The SC's directive aims to ensure the State fulfills its duty towards its citizens, a facet of the Right to Life (Article 21) and the Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32), compelling executive action for humanitarian assistance.

Explanation

As per Article 201 of the Constitution, when a state bill is reserved by the Governor for the President's consideration, the President may give assent, withhold assent, or direct reconsideration. In this news, President Murmu gave assent to the Maharashtra Freedom of Religion Act, 2026.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the law mandates a 60-day prior notice to the district magistrate. Statement 2 is incorrect: the burden of proof is on the person conducting the conversion, not the person who converted. Statement 3 is correct: repeat offenders face up to 10 years imprisonment. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the law prescribes imprisonment of up to seven years for violations, rising to 10 years for repeat offenders. The other options are distractors: 7 years is for first offence, 5 and 14 years are not mentioned.

Explanation

According to the article, CM Fadnavis defended the legislation stating it was intended to curb forced or fraudulent religious conversions and was not aimed at voluntary conversions or interfaith marriages. Options A, C, and D misrepresent the stated objective.

Explanation

As per the article, the data was tabled by Minister of Road Transport and Highways Nitin Gadkari, indicating that this ministry oversees toll collection and highway policies, including FASTag and MLFF systems.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Rs 70,278 crore was the record collection in FY26. Statement 2 is incorrect: the annual pass offers 200 crossings OR one year validity, whichever is EARLIER (not later). Statement 3 is correct: MLFF is live on Choryasi (Gujarat), Mundaka (Delhi), Gharaunda (Haryana), Manoharpura and Daulatpura (Rajasthan). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: Rs 55,882 crore in FY24, Rs 61,408 crore in FY25, and Rs 70,278 crore in FY26. Option A is FY24, C is FY23, D is FY26. So the correct FY25 figure is Rs 61,408 crore.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that MLFF allows highway users to not stop at the toll gate, aiming for seamless movement, reduced waiting time, and easing congestion. It does not replace FASTag (it builds on it) and is not limited to commercial vehicles or designed to increase revenue directly.

Explanation

The article states that KKNP consists of pressurised water reactors of VVER design, established in technical collaboration with Russia. VVER is a Russian PWR type.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Units 3&4 cost rose 72.9%. Statement 2 is incorrect: Units 5&6 cost rose 39.9%, not 72.9%. Statement 3 is correct: overall cost increased by 55% from ₹89,470 cr to ₹1,38,330 cr. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the cost of the four units increased from the original sanctioned cost of ₹89,470 crore to ₹1,38,330 crore. Option A is the original cost, while C and D are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article notes that cost escalation could make electricity generated by nuclear plants more expensive, posing a challenge to India's ambitious nuclear expansion plans in a price-sensitive electricity market. It also mentions the stalled Jaitapur project due to high tariff as a precedent.

Explanation

The IIP is released monthly by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, as mentioned in the article. The other ministries are not directly involved in this data release.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states the spike was the highest in 23 months. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says consumer non-durables growth was tepid (weak). Statement 3 is correct: the article attributes high growth in capital and infrastructure goods to higher government infrastructure spending.

Explanation

The article mentions that capital and intermediate goods have consistently outperformed consumer goods, with trend growth rates of 9.6% and 5.9% respectively. 9.6% is the capital goods growth rate.

Explanation

The article quotes Madan Sabnavis stating that weakness in consumer demand is due to higher prices bogging down both rural and urban India. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'data from the Commerce Ministry showed that merchandise exports grew 15.5% in June'. The Commerce Ministry is officially the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: IIP growth was 7.3% and a 23-month high. Statement 2 is incorrect: consumer durables growth remained above 7%, not 8%. Statement 3 is correct: mining snapped a four-month streak of contraction and grew in June.

Explanation

The article states 'merchandise exports grew 15.5% in June'. 7.3% is the IIP growth, while 25% and 20% are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that the deficient monsoon will hit rural demand and the West Asia crisis causes oil price volatility, both threatening the sustainability of growth. The low base effect is a statistical factor, not a risk; capital goods investment is a positive factor; and the heatwave is a temporary boost.

Explanation

The NIA is a central counter-terrorism agency under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). The MHA oversees internal security, including the NIA, CBI, and other law enforcement agencies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the station is in New Town, Kolkata. Statement 2 is incorrect because this is the 17th NIA police station, not the 16th. Statement 3 is correct as the proposal was pending under the TMC government and cleared by the new BJP cabinet.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that this will be the 17th police station of the NIA across the country. The other 16 stations are in cities like New Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, etc.

Explanation

Earlier, NIA investigations in West Bengal could begin only after receiving a copy of the FIR from Delhi. With the new police station, the NIA can register FIRs locally in Kolkata, speeding up the investigation process. The other options are not the primary advantage mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that the Delhi government prepared smart property cards for 30 rural villages under the Centre's SVAMITVA scheme using drone surveys. This pilot was the basis for the new Bill.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article explicitly says the Bill will NOT be tabled in the Monsoon Session and a special session will be convened later. Statement 2 is correct as the Bill aims to create a consolidated digital record. Statement 3 is correct as the pilot covered 30 rural villages.

Explanation

The article clearly mentions that in the first phase, the Delhi government prepared smart property cards for 30 rural villages under the SVAMITVA scheme.

Explanation

The article states that the absence of a systematic land records system has caused difficulties and disputes. The new system aims to eliminate ambiguity, improve transparency, and significantly reduce land-related disputes. While property tax revenue may be a secondary benefit, the primary objective is transparency and dispute reduction.

Explanation

The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) is the nodal ministry for all matters related to renewable energy in India, including policy formulation, project development, and coordination with other ministries. The SPDA wrote to MNRE seeking relief for affected projects.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: T-GNA projects do NOT have firm evacuation rights; they can schedule power only if spare capacity is available. Long-term GNA projects get priority. Statement 2 is correct: RE sources have 'must-run' status but can be curtailed for grid security or technical reasons. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions curtailment as high as 90-95% in Rajasthan.

Explanation

The article states that during April-June 2026, grid operators curtailed 8,133 GWh of electricity generated by solar power sources. 6,900 GWh was the total for the full FY26 year, not just the first quarter. The other options are distractors.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that high curtailment (up to 90-95%) leads to severe revenue loss, making it impossible for developers to service their debt. This could turn projects into non-performing assets (NPAs) for banks, which have deployed ₹5.08 lakh crore in the sector.

Explanation

The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) released the guidelines titled 'Authorisation for Undertaking Planned Re-entry of Space Objects' on July 30, 2026. ISRO is the space agency, while IN-SPACe is the regulatory body for private space activities.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the guidelines specify a 1-in-10,000 risk threshold. Statement 2 is incorrect: the guidelines pertain only to planned re-entries, not uncontrolled re-entries. Statement 3 is correct: operators must have third-party liability insurance and indemnify the government. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The guidelines explicitly state that the risk must be lower than 1 in 10,000 (0.01%). This is an international standard originally from IADC guidelines and codified by NASA in its safety manual NASA-STD 8719.14.

Explanation

The guidelines establish a safety threshold, require survivability analysis, mandate insurance, and coordinate with aviation/maritime authorities. They aim to balance innovation with safety and legal responsibility, especially for missions like Gaganyaan and reusable launch vehicles.