28 July 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The article states that Odisha (then Orissa) enacted the Orissa Conduct of Examinations Act in 1988, making it the earliest among the states listed. Uttar Pradesh's 1998 Act and Andhra Pradesh's 1997 Act are later, while Rajasthan's law is from 2022.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Bill increases minimum imprisonment from 3 to 5 years. Statement 2 is correct: maximum fine for service providers goes from ₹1 crore to ₹5 crore. Statement 3 is incorrect: the appeal period is 30 days, not 60 days. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The Bill proposes to increase the minimum term of imprisonment for organised crime from 5 years to 7 years, extendable up to 10 years. Life imprisonment is not proposed for individuals under this Bill (though some states like Rajasthan have it).

Explanation

The Bill aims to strengthen deterrence and ensure integrity of public examinations by introducing fast-track investigation (2 months), trial within 3 months, and Special Fast Track Courts. Options A, C, and D are not mentioned in the article. The focus is on swift justice, not increasing exams or privatization.

Explanation

The article states that ICMR-NICPR evaluated the efficacy of SHetA2 in pre-clinical studies and validated its mechanism of action. The other options, though prominent cancer research institutes, are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because SHetA2 cannot prevent HPV infection; it only blocks the virus's cancer-causing proteins. Statement 2 is correct as per the mechanism described. Statement 3 is correct because the article mentions it is expected to be more affordable than biologics.

Explanation

The article specifically states that cervical cancer killed 36,319 women in India in 2024. 79,000 is the number of cases, not deaths. 85,000 and 50,000 are distractors not mentioned.

Explanation

The article states SHetA2 blocks the virus's cancer-causing proteins, preventing pre-cancerous and cancerous lesions. It does not prevent HPV infection (option B) nor replace vaccination (option A). It is specific to cervical cancer, not all virus-caused cancers (option D).

Explanation

The NTA operates under the Ministry of Education as an autonomous organisation. The Ministry of Education is responsible for policy formulation and oversight of national testing bodies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the committee recommended a Director General of Additional Secretary rank. Statement 2 is incorrect: the committee recommended elevating NTA to a statutory authority, not keeping it as a society. Statement 3 is correct: recruitment notifications for CTO, CFO, and GM-HR were released in May 2026.

Explanation

The article states that over 47 contractual staff have been relieved of duty. The other options are close distractors; 37 and 57 do not match the exact figure given.

Explanation

The committee's core mandate moves the agency away from excessive outsourcing toward an empowered self-reliant institutional model. The goal is to rebuild public confidence and meet the 2027 CBT mandate, not to reduce exams or privatise.

Explanation

The Bab al-Mandab Strait connects the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden and the Arabian Sea. It is a critical chokepoint for global energy supplies, as mentioned in the article. The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman, while the Strait of Malacca is in Southeast Asia.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states India depends on imports to meet over 88% of its oil requirement. Statement 2 is correct: Russian crude imports hit record highs of about 2.6 million bpd in June, accounting for over 50% of India's overall oil imports. Statement 3 is incorrect: the Novorossiysk terminal supplied about 28% (not 50%) of India's Russian crude imports in June.

Explanation

The article states that India's Russian crude imports increased sharply to record highs of about 2.6 million bpd in June 2026. Option A (1.1 million bpd) is the amount loaded at Novorossiysk, option C (3.0 million bpd) is a potential future level, and option D (4.5 million bpd) is Russia's total crude export figure.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that a sustained disruption to Russian Black Sea exports via Novorossiysk could have a greater impact on India's crude availability than disruptions to Saudi Red Sea exports, as Russia has become the dominant supplier. The terminal supplied 840,000 bpd to India in June, and any prolonged halt would tighten global supply.

Explanation

The Bab el-Mandeb Strait separates Yemen from Djibouti and Eritrea, linking the Red Sea with the Gulf of Aden and Indian Ocean. It is the southern gateway to the Suez Canal and a vital chokepoint for oil and trade. The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman, while the Malacca Strait is between Southeast Asia.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Houthi blockade was announced on July 20, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Bab el-Mandeb is only about 30 km wide at its narrowest point, not 50 km. Statement 3 is correct: a diversion around the Cape of Good Hope adds 10-15 days to a voyage. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The U.S. EIA reported that approximately 9.3 million barrels of crude oil and petroleum products transited the Bab el-Mandeb daily in 2023. After Houthi attacks began, this dropped by more than half to around 4.1 million barrels per day in 2024. The other options are distractors.

Explanation

India imports more than 85% of its crude oil and a substantial share of its trade with Europe (pharmaceuticals, engineering goods) passes through the Red Sea corridor. Instability in the Bab el-Mandeb increases freight costs, delays shipments, and raises oil prices, directly impacting India's energy security and export competitiveness.

Explanation

The article states that as a signatory to the NPT, Saudi Arabia has every right to pursue a peaceful nuclear programme. The NPT's Article IV explicitly recognizes that right. The other treaties deal with testing, arms reduction, or prohibition of nuclear weapons, not civilian nuclear energy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the article explicitly says the deal does NOT require Saudi Arabia to adopt the IAEA Additional Protocol. Statement 2 is correct: Trump added the Abraham Accords condition after the deal was signed. Statement 3 is correct: the deal was announced amid a US-Iran war that began over Iran's nuclear programme.

Explanation

The article states: 'The July 22 deal suggested that Riyadh and Washington continued talks and remained keen on nuclear cooperation.' The other dates are distractors: July 28 is the publication date of the editorial, not the deal announcement.

Explanation

The article states that omitting the Additional Protocol 'has fuelled concerns that the kingdom could eventually acquire the technical capability to weaponise its nuclear programme.' The Additional Protocol allows short-notice inspections to detect undeclared activities. Without it, Saudi enrichment could proceed covertly.

Explanation

The Joint Rivers Commission (JRC) was established in 1972 between India and Bangladesh to discuss and resolve issues related to shared rivers. The article mentions it as the overarching institution for implementing the Ganga Treaty and other water agreements.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the 1996 treaty had a single-point agenda of water sharing at Farakka. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 50:50 pro-rata sharing applies when flows dip below a limit, not exceed. Statement 3 is incorrect as Bangladesh has often expressed dissatisfaction about not receiving its due share during dry seasons.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 30-year term of the 1996 Ganga Water Treaty is approaching its conclusion. The other options are distractors; 25 years is the term for some other bilateral treaties, but the Ganga Treaty is specifically 30 years.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that the next treaty will not be restricted to water sharing at Farakka. It will transcend territories to include climate change impacts, hydrological extremes, ecosystem resilience, and shared vulnerabilities, moving beyond bilateral allocations to regional-level responses.

Explanation

The article states that the anti-cheating law came into effect in June 2024, and the amendment Bill was introduced in 2026 to strengthen it. The original Act is therefore from 2024.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Section 10(1) proposes 5-10 years imprisonment and fine up to ₹50 lakh (up from 3-5 years and ₹10 lakh). Statement 2 is incorrect: The fine for service providers is increased to up to ₹5 crore, not reduced. Statement 3 is correct: High Court appeals must be heard by a Division Bench and resolved within three months as per the Bill.

Explanation

The Bill proposes for organized crime under Section 11(1) a minimum of 7 years imprisonment and a fine of up to ₹10 crore, increased from the earlier ₹1 crore. Options A and B are lower amounts, and D is the fine for general offences under the old law.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the primary purpose is to strengthen the existing anti-cheating law, curb exam malpractices, ensure time-bound investigations, provide speedy trials, and establish enhanced deterrence. Other options are not mentioned or are contrary to the Bill's objectives.

Explanation

The article states that US Assistant Secretary of State S. Paul Kapur made these remarks at a roundtable at the Hoover Institution. Condoleezza Rice and David C. Mulford participated but did not make the remarks.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions expanding defence and civil nuclear cooperation including trusted AI. Statement 2 is correct as the article lists Apache, Chinook, C-17, C-130J, P-8I, and M777 howitzers as acquisitions since 2002. Statement 3 is incorrect because the SHANTI law was enacted by India, not the US.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'Since 2002, India has acquired numerous US defence equipment, including Apache and Chinook helicopters, C-17 and C-130J transport aircraft, P-8I maritime patrol aircraft, and M777 howitzers.'

Explanation

The article states that American nuclear power companies are keen on exploring the civil nuclear sector in India after New Delhi eased liability laws by enacting the SHANTI law. This addresses a long-standing barrier to private sector investment in India's nuclear energy.

Explanation

UNHCR stands for United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees. The article explicitly refers to UNHCR's role in resettlement and protection. UNRWA deals only with Palestinian refugees, IOM deals with migration, and ICRC deals with armed conflict humanitarian law.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as non-refoulement is the core principle. Statement 2 is incorrect; the convention defines a refugee based on persecution, not economic hardship or disasters. Statement 3 is correct – the article says 'nearly 150 countries are parties'.

Explanation

The article states: 'the International Committee of the Red Cross counts more than 130 armed conflicts around the globe.' This is a specific data point likely to be tested in prelims.

Explanation

The article explicitly says: 'Respect for it though has come under strain as some countries have denied entry to asylum seekers.' It gives the example of U.S. policy of sending asylum seekers to third countries.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the data was released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). IIP is a flagship statistical product under MoSPI's purview.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the article says manufacturing 'makes up three-fourth of the entire IIP'. Statement 2 is correct as IIP growth rose to 7.3% from May's 5%. Statement 3 is incorrect – Aditi Nayar is Chief Economist at ICRA, not India Ratings & Research (Megha Arora is from India Ratings).

Explanation

The article states that 'production of capital goods (up 14.2%) rose the most despite the absence of a favourable base.' The other options are different sectoral growth rates: 7.5% is construction goods, 9.3% is intermediate goods, and 7.8% is manufacturing growth.

Explanation

Vikrant Chaturvedi of Brickwork Ratings warned that 'sub-par rains threatens rural consumption' while also posing upside risks to inflation. The article also mentions oil price volatility from Middle East tensions, but the direct mention of sub-par rains as a threat to rural consumption is the key risk highlighted.

Explanation

Ranjith Kumar Jayaseelan won a medal in the men's seated discus throw event at the 2006 Commonwealth Games. Sharmila Dhankar's gold in 2026 ended India's 20-year wait for a para-athletics medal at the Games.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Sharmila Dhankar won India's first para-athletics gold at the CWG. Statement 2 is incorrect: Valluri Ajaya Babu won silver, not gold. Statement 3 is correct: Tejas Shirse was the first Indian to qualify for the men's 110m hurdles final at the CWG.

Explanation

Sharmila Dhankar won the gold medal with a season-best effort of 9.81m. The other options are plausible distractors: 9.18m is a common misordering of digits, 10.02m is above the winning distance, and 9.50m is a round number often used as a distractor.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Sharmila's gold ended India's 20-year wait for a para-athletics medal at the Games. The last medal was won by Ranjith Kumar Jayaseelan in 2006. Option A is incorrect because India had previously won para-athletics medals. Option C is too broad and not stated. Option D is not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the statement was issued by the State's Home Department. The Home Department is responsible for internal security and law and order in a state. The other departments have different mandates (Police - enforcement, Education - schooling, Law - legal affairs).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha. Statement 3 is correct as Speaker Om Birla brokered the truce between treasury and opposition benches. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The Bihar Home Department statement specified that 'no adverse legal action shall be taken against any individual participating in the protests before 6 p.m. on 26.07.2026'. The other dates are distractors; 27.07.2026 is when the statement was issued, not the cutoff.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Bill provides for 'harsher penalties and time-bound investigations into examination paper leaks'. It does not mention compensation, replacing bodies, or devolving power. This is a targeted legislative response to deter and swiftly address paper leak incidents.

Explanation

The Delhi High Court held that OpenAI's use of ANI's works was prima facie protected under the fair dealing provision of the Indian Copyright Act, 1957, which is Section 52. This section lists acts that do not constitute infringement, including use for research or private study.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court ruled that using copyrighted works for AI training for research purposes is fair dealing. Statement 2 is incorrect because it was a single judge (Justice Amit Bansal), not a Division Bench. Statement 3 is correct as the court invoked the doctrine of 'updating construction' to interpret 'research' and 'teacher' in Section 52 to cover AI systems.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the judgment was delivered on July 24, 2026. July 28, 2026 is the date the article was published (not the judgment). December 2025 is the date of the DPIIT Working Paper.

Explanation

The court reasoned that the development and wide availability of AI serves public interest, and copyright law must be interpreted with that in view. The judgment specifically says that if AI teachers replace humans, protection should not disappear – that would be 'regressive' and limit societal progress. Public interest is used to allow AI training under fair dealing.

Explanation

AIIMS are under the administrative control of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, as confirmed by the article where the Minister of State in that ministry responded in Parliament.

Explanation

Statement 1: Correct – 34.6% vacancy (2,181/6,304). Statement 2: Incorrect – non-faculty vacancy is 25.6%, which is lower than 34.6%. Statement 3: Correct – AIIMS Delhi has 436 vacant faculty posts. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'against the sanctioned non-faculty posts of 59,225, as many as 15,159, or over 25 per cent, are lying vacant.' 63,048 is not a number mentioned; 15,159 is the number of vacancies; 13,913 is the sanctioned non-faculty strength of AIIMS Delhi alone.

Explanation

The Ministry stated that the Standing Selection Committee has been constituted 'for the selection of faculty' to accelerate filling of sanctioned positions. This is a direct administrative measure to address vacancies, not for promotions, performance evaluations, or budgeting.

Explanation

According to the article, the recommendations were submitted to the Transport Department as part of the consultation process for framing the Telangana Motor Vehicles Aggregator Rules, 2026. The Transport Department is the nodal agency for regulating motor vehicles and aggregators in the state.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states drivers should receive at least 60% of the fare after applicable costs. Statement 2 is incorrect: the proposed minimum health insurance cover is ₹5 lakh, not ₹10 lakh (₹10 lakh is for term insurance). Statement 3 is correct: the recommendations seek a transparent ceiling on aggregator commissions. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the draft proposes a term insurance of ₹10 lakh for every onboarded driver. The other options are distractors: ₹5 lakh is the proposed health insurance cover, while ₹7 lakh and ₹15 lakh are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The core demand of the gig worker unions is to incorporate stronger safeguards for drivers, including social security measures (health insurance, accident insurance, pension), transparency in fare algorithms, protection from arbitrary account deactivations, and a cap on platform commissions. The objective is worker welfare, not increasing aggregators, reducing customer fares, or promoting EVs.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that CWMA is the apex body that monitors implementation of Cauvery water release. CWRC is the technical committee that assists the CWMA. The CWDT was the original tribunal, but its role is now subsumed by the CWMA/Supreme Court framework.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the CWRC order. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's description of CWMA. Statement 3 is incorrect because the KRS reservoir storage was at 34% of capacity, not 54%. The cumulative storage of all four reservoirs was at 54%.

Explanation

The article states: 'the cumulative storage in all the four reservoirs of Karnataka’s Cauvery basin accounted for only 54% of their full capacity.' 34% is the storage at KRS alone, 62.31 tmcft is the absolute storage value, not a percentage.

Explanation

The article quotes Karnataka's Water Resources Minister saying that the current storage in the four reservoirs is sufficient only to take care of drinking water requirements. The state argued it is not in a position to release water beyond essential domestic needs. Option A is not mentioned; the order is within the framework. Option C is partially true but the primary stated reason is drinking water shortage. Option D is mentioned but not cited as the reason for concern.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the ICC was established under its foundational treaty, the Rome Statute. The Geneva Convention deals with war conduct, the UN Charter establishes the UN, and the Vienna Convention governs treaty law.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Chad submitted a letter to the UN. Statement 2 is incorrect because the withdrawal process takes at least a year (Article 127). Statement 3 is correct: the US Bureau of African Affairs welcomed the decision in a post on X.

Explanation

The article states that Chad is the fourth African country since 2025 to begin withdrawing, following Niger, Mali, and Burkina Faso. Option 5 is a distractor; no fifth country is mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly states Chad accused the ICC of 'ineffectiveness and bias against African countries'. While US pressure may be a factor, it is not cited as the primary reason. Financial burden and jurisdiction over non-signatories are not mentioned.

Explanation

The study was conducted by the ICMR's Virus Research and Diagnostic Laboratory (VRDL) network. ICMR is the apex body in India for the formulation, coordination, and promotion of biomedical research. It operates under the Department of Health Research, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: DENV-2 accounted for over half of all infections. Statement 2 is incorrect: All four serotypes were found in 8 States/UTs, not 15. 15 States/UTs reported three serotypes. Statement 3 is correct: The study found that concurrent infections were associated with severe manifestations including low platelet counts and bleeding complications.

Explanation

The study found that around 7% of patients were infected with two or more dengue serotypes concurrently. This concurrent infection rate is a key finding as it was linked to more severe disease outcomes. The other options are plausible distractors.

Explanation

Hyperendemicity means multiple serotypes circulate simultaneously. Since vaccine effectiveness varies by serotype and dominant serotypes can shift, continuous surveillance is critical to guide vaccine deployment and predict outbreak intensity. Vector control remains essential and the disease becomes more severe, not less.

Explanation

The article mentions that the IIP data is released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). This is a standard static fact for economy-related exams.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says IIP growth was the fastest since July 2024. Statement 2 is incorrect: manufacturing grew 7.8%, not 10.6% (electricity grew 10.6%). Statement 3 is correct: capital goods grew 14.2%. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the electricity and gas supply sector grew at a 25-month high of 10.6% in June 2026. 9.9% was the growth in May 2026, 14.2% is capital goods, and 7.8% is manufacturing.

Explanation

The article quotes analysts cautioning that a below-normal monsoon threatens rural consumption and poses upward inflation pressure, which could derail industrial growth. The other options are either positive factors or not mentioned as risks.

Explanation

The National Medical Commission (NMC) is the apex regulator for medical education in India, established under the NMC Act, 2019. It replaced the Medical Council of India. The news specifically states that the NMC released the guidelines.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the centres increased from 16 to 61. Statement 2 is incorrect: the guidelines do not mention that the assessment boards should have a doctor with disability, as recommended by the court. Statement 3 is correct: the DGHS will set up an appellate mechanism.

Explanation

The article states that the number of assessment centres has been increased from 16 to 61. 16 was the old number. 32 and 100 are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that any aspirant wishing to challenge the findings of the board can go to the appellate authority, which will pass a reasoned and speaking order. This ensures procedural fairness and accountability in the assessment process.

Explanation

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 added Part IX to the Constitution, giving constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions. The 74th Amendment similarly deals with Urban Local Bodies. West Bengal had its own Panchayat Act in 1973, before this amendment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Bill transfers cheque-signing and financial disbursement rights from gram pradhans to bureaucrats. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Bill actually curtails powers of elected representatives, going against the spirit of the 73rd Amendment which aims at democratic decentralization. Statement 3 is correct: the Bill amends Section 6 of the WB Panchayat Act, 1973.

Explanation

The article clearly states that almost 90% of the elected representatives at the three-tier panchayats in West Bengal are Trinamool Congress representatives. This political context is key to understanding the motivation behind the amendment.

Explanation

The 73rd Amendment envisions panchayats as institutions of self-government. By transferring financial powers from elected pradhans to appointed bureaucrats, the Bill reduces the autonomy and accountability of elected representatives to local voters, thereby weakening the constitutional vision of grassroots democracy.

Explanation

The Entity List is a trade blacklist maintained by the US Department of Commerce's Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS). It restricts access to US-origin goods and technology for entities deemed a national security risk. The article mentions the Commerce Department's Entity List in the context of potential sanctions against Chinese AI firms.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: US officials alleged Moonshot distilled Anthropic's Claude Fable 5 to develop Kimi K3. Statement 2 is incorrect: China rejected the allegations and accused the US of 'AI hegemonism', threatening countermeasures. Statement 3 is correct: Treasury Secretary Scott Bessent warned of sanctions and Entity List placement. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that Anthropic identified more than 3.4 million interactions with its Claude models linked to Moonshot AI. The other options are plausible distractors but only 3.4 million matches the exact figure mentioned.

Explanation

The US Treasury Secretary stated that 'industrial-scale distillation attacks that cross the line into IP theft' would result in sanctions and Entity List designations. The Entity List restricts access to US semiconductors, software, and cloud services, as previously used against Huawei. The goal is to protect US intellectual property and national security, not to promote open-source development or relocation.

Explanation

The article states that the National Medical Commission (NMC) issued the circular to all medical colleges. NMC is the apex medical education regulator, replacing the Medical Council of India in 2020.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'The Enabling Unit shall function as the single point of contact for students with benchmark disabilities.' Statement 2 is incorrect because the article mentions the verdict in 2024, not 2025. Statement 3 is correct: 'The Unit will also coordinate with the Disability Assessment Board.' Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'the top court verdicts in Om Rathod vs Director General of Health Service in 2024'. The other options are distractors; 2026 is the year of the Anmol vs Union of India verdict.

Explanation

The article states that the Enabling Unit will 'facilitate access to reasonable accommodation, academic and clinical support measures, and barrier-free access within the institution.' Options A, C, and D are not mentioned as functions of the Enabling Unit.

Explanation

The article states that MKSS, a grassroots organization in rural Rajasthan, held public hearings exposing corruption, which led to the enactment of the RTI Act in 2005.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: pressure groups influence policy, not seek office. Statement 2 is incorrect: associational groups are formal and organized, not based on kinship; non-associational groups are based on kinship. Statement 3 is correct: RTI Act was enacted in 2005.

Explanation

The article mentions that the centre blinked first and all three laws were repealed in November 2021.

Explanation

The article warns of populist hastiness: when numbers swell, groups may go beyond acceptable terms and undermine the political process, raising concerns for public order and rule of law.

Explanation

The Bill explicitly seeks to amend the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971. The Act currently protects the National Flag, Constitution, and National Anthem.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Bill amends Section 3 to include Vande Mataram. Statement 2 is incorrect because the National Flag already has protection under the Act; the Bill does not extend it further. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Bill was introduced in the Rajya Sabha, not Lok Sabha.

Explanation

The article states: 'The Rajya Sabha on July 24, 2026, introduced the Prevention of Insults to National Honour (Amendment) Bill, 2026'. July 28 is the date of publication of the article.

Explanation

The Bill seeks to amend the 1971 Act to include Vande Mataram under the same protection as the National Anthem. It does not create a new song, remove protection, or increase punishment for the Flag.

Explanation

The article mentions the resignation of Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan, indicating that the education reforms fall under the purview of the Ministry of Education. This ministry oversees school and higher education, including bodies like the NTA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct — the article clearly states the task force is chaired by Nandan Nilekani, who led Aadhaar and India's digital public infrastructure. Statement 2 is incorrect — the article argues the task force should not be framed as a supra-NTA and must have a broader mandate. Statement 3 is correct — the article mentions the prevarication that followed the K Radhakrishnan committee report and warns against it.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions 'the K Radhakrishnan committee report in 2024' which was formed after the NEET failure that year. The other options are close distractors — 2023 is before the event, 2025 and 2026 are after the report.

Explanation

The article explicitly warns the government against 'framing the task force as a supra National Testing Agency (NTA)' and urges it to treat the work as the starting point for broader reform, including AI disruption and skilling. This is the core analytical concern.

Explanation

The draft notification for CAFE III norms was issued by the Power Ministry, as per the article. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under this ministry administers the norms. Options A, C, and D are related to environment, industry, and oil sectors respectively, but not directly responsible for CAFE regulations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: CAFE norms set sales-weighted average fuel efficiency targets for manufacturers' entire passenger vehicle fleets, not individual models. Statement 2 is correct: the draft includes a Carbon Neutrality Factor for ethanol-compatible vehicles. Statement 3 is correct: the draft allows companies to buy credits directly from BEE at administratively fixed prices if deficits remain after trading.

Explanation

The article states that according to the IEA Global EV Outlook 2026, China sold more than 13 million electric cars in 2025, accounting for almost 55% of new passenger vehicle sales. The other options represent figures for the EU (27%), US (10%), and India (4%) respectively.

Explanation

The article argues that mechanisms like super credits, credit trading, Carbon Neutrality Factor, and multi-year compliance blocks together substantially reduce the effective stringency of the regulations, allowing manufacturers to meet compliance without genuine technology upgrades. Option A is not discussed; C is opposite to the concern; D is not the primary concern.

Explanation

Employment elasticity measures the responsiveness of employment to changes in economic output (GDP). A higher elasticity means more jobs are generated for each percentage point of GDP growth. The article highlights India's low employment elasticity since the 1990s liberal reforms.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court ruled that companies must adopt social responsibilities and protect worker rights, not prioritize shareholder returns. Statement 3 is correct; the State Council issued an 'employment-first' strategy for 2026-2030.

Explanation

The article states the unemployment rate for migrant workers rose to 5.7% in March 2026, which was the highest in nearly three years for China. Option C (16.3%) is the youth unemployment rate for April 2026, and option D is the number of robots.

Explanation

The article argues that while 'ease of doing business' is necessary, it must become subordinate to the 'ease of living and earning' for citizens. This includes new policies that put workers' rights ahead of capitalists' rights, require employers to take more responsibility for training, and restrain them from laying off workers.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions 'Section 301 forced labour tariffs' as the legal basis for the new US tariffs. Section 301 allows the US President to impose trade restrictions on countries engaging in unfair trade practices. The other options are different US trade remedy provisions not relevant to this news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says 'India has not been accused of using forced labour, yet faces tariffs because others have been.' Statement 2 is incorrect: India reduced the tariff by issuing a notification banning imports of goods made using forced labour, not by signing a trade deal. Statement 3 is correct: the article lists EU, Taiwan, Japan, South Korea, and Switzerland as having trade deals with the US and receiving lower tariffs.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the temporary 10% tariff 'would expire in 150 days' and that those tariffs have now expired. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the text.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'uncertainty persists since the other Section 301 investigation, on excess capacity, is yet to play out and could result in further tariffs. It is highly unlikely that India will accept a trade deal until those tariffs become clear.' The article also warns that US tariff landscape can change even after a deal, reinforcing caution.

Explanation

The article specifically states that scientists from the ICMR-National Institute of Nutrition (ICMR-NIN) have proposed the dual-axis regulatory framework. FSSAI is the food regulator but not the proposer, WHO is a global body, and the Ministry of Health is the administrative ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article describes the framework as combining processing degree and nutrient content. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly says India lacks a formal regulatory definition of UPFs. Statement 3 is correct as the framework builds on the Dietary Guidelines for Indians 2024.

Explanation

The article repeatedly uses the term 'dual-axis' regulatory framework to describe the proposed approach that combines processing degree and nutrient content. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that the framework aims to address diet-related health concerns, specifically rising obesity and NCDs. While the framework may have secondary effects, its primary objective is to combat these health issues through better regulation and consumer awareness.

Explanation

The article states that Brazil requested consultations with the US under the WTO's dispute settlement system. The WTO is the primary body for resolving international trade disputes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Brazil requested WTO consultations. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 25% tariff applies only to some Brazilian goods, not all. Statement 3 is correct: last year's tariffs were later struck down by the US Supreme Court. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions 'up to 12.5% tariffs on goods from dozens of nations, including Brazil, linked to allegations of lax enforcement of forced labour bans.' The 25% is a separate tariff on some Brazilian goods for unfair trade practices.

Explanation

Brazil stated that the measures are 'unjustified and inconsistent' with US obligations under GATT 1994 and DSU, indicating the goal is to prove the tariffs violate WTO agreements. Consultations are the first step in the dispute settlement process.