27 July 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The Bill was introduced by Minister of State for DoPT (Department of Personnel and Training) Jitendra Singh, which falls under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions. This ministry handles matters related to public examinations and service rules.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the Bill. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Bill mandates trial completion within three months, not two months. Statement 3 is correct as appeals lie before a Division Bench of the High Court. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The Bill explicitly states that investigations into paper leak cases are to be completed within two months. The other options are close distractors - one month is too short, three months is the trial completion timeline, and four months is not mentioned.

Explanation

The Bill aims to amend the existing 2024 Act to introduce stricter measures like fast-track courts, enhanced punishments, and faster investigations to deter and punish paper leaks and other unfair means. While other options may be related, the core objective is legal strengthening.

Explanation

UNESCO, through its World Heritage Committee, designates sites of 'Outstanding Universal Value' as World Heritage Sites. The 48th session of the committee was held in Busan, South Korea where Sarnath was inscribed.

Explanation

All three statements are correct as per the article. The 48th session was held in Busan, South Korea. Sarnath is India's 45th WHS. Ancient Buddhist scriptures refer to Sarnath as Rishipattan.

Explanation

According to the UP Tourism Department, Sarnath was included in UNESCO's tentative list on July 3, 1998. It took 28 years to be officially designated as a World Heritage Site in 2026.

Explanation

The article states that the recognition would strengthen Uttar Pradesh's Buddhist Circuit on the international tourism and cultural heritage map. It is a cultural and tourism boost, not related to minerals, hosting sessions, or economic status.

Explanation

The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950, issued under Article 341, lists the Scheduled Castes for each state and includes Clause 3 which restricts SC status to persons professing Hindu, Sikh, or Buddhist religions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the SC dismissed the review petition on July 15, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: Sikhism is one of the religions approved under Clause 3 of the 1950 Order, so conversion to Sikhism does not lead to loss of SC status. Statement 3 is correct: the Court mentioned three conditions for reconversion (original caste, bona fide reconversion, acceptance by community).

Explanation

The article states that the Supreme Court delivered the significant decision on March 24, 2026. The review petition was dismissed on July 15, 2026, and the news was published on July 27, 2026.

Explanation

The judgment held that under Clause 3 of the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950, conversion to a religion other than Hindu, Sikh, or Buddhist (including Christianity) results in immediate and complete loss of SC status, and consequently all statutory benefits, protections, and reservations.

Explanation

The article states that the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) released the 198-page guidance note. CBDT is the nodal body for direct tax administration under the Ministry of Finance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the guidance note explicitly states there is no additional filing requirement for taxpayers. Statement 2 is correct as RCASPs must collect KYC and taxpayer information. Statement 3 is correct as the note aligns with OECD CARF.

Explanation

The article mentions that most members of the Global Forum favoured 2027 as the year of rollout, endorsed by India's G20 Presidency in 2023.

Explanation

The article states that CARF was developed to extend global tax transparency standards to crypto-asset activities, as existing frameworks like CRS could not capture crypto transactions effectively.

Explanation

The NTA is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Education (formerly MHRD). It conducts national entrance exams including NEET, JEE, and UGC NET.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: PM Modi announced the panel after the paper leak. Statement 2 is correct: Nilekani was the founding chairman of UIDAI. Statement 3 is incorrect: the panel includes former ISRO chairman S Somanath, not K Sivan.

Explanation

The bench posted the matter for further hearing on August 3, when it will take up other pending petitions concerning reforms in NTA.

Explanation

The Centre informed the Supreme Court that the committee will address technological challenges and data security concerns arising from the transition to a computer-based NEET format. While investigation and syllabus revision may be related, the core objective is data security.

Explanation

The article mentions Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan stepping down, and the Act is related to public examinations, which falls under the Ministry of Education. The bill was introduced by a Minister of State in the PMO, but the policy domain is Education.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The maximum jail term was 5 years in the 2024 Act, and the amendment increases it to 10 years. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: organized crime carries minimum 7 years and fine up to Rs 10 crore. Statement 3 is incorrect: The investigation deadline is two months, not three.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the fine has been hiked from Rs 10 lakh (in the 2024 Act) to Rs 50 lakh for individuals. The higher fine of Rs 10 crore is for organized crime, not individual offenders.

Explanation

The article states: 'states and Union Territories will be empowered to set up fast-track courts that can complete the trial within three months of filing of the chargesheet.' The investigation deadline is two months, set separately. The fast-track courts are specifically for speedy trial, not investigation or legal aid.

Explanation

The article states that PM Modi announced a national exam reform task force headed by Nandan Nilekani to recommend measures for improving transparency and security in the examination system.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions a minimum of five years' imprisonment. Statement 2 is correct: the fine can be up to ₹50 lakh. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article does not mention any consultation with state governments.

Explanation

RBI Governor Sanjay Malhotra stated that the central bank's special foreign exchange mobilisation drive has attracted $32 billion so far, strengthening India's foreign exchange reserves.

Explanation

The article states that the task force will recommend measures for improving transparency and security in the examination system. The other options are not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article mentions the resignation of the Union Education Minister, indicating that the public examination system falls under the Ministry of Education, which oversees exams like UPSC, SSC, and various state recruitment tests.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says the PM appointed the task force after the Jantar Mantar protest. Statement 2 is incorrect: the author explicitly warns that technology alone is not enough. Statement 3 is correct: the article notes that ministerial resignations are rare.

Explanation

The article states that 'a youth-led protest compelled the resignation of the Union Education Minister' at Jantar Mantar. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article concludes that the task before the republic is 'to become worthy once again of the faith of its young'. The author stresses that institutional integrity and moral courage are more important than technical fixes.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced the three concessional swap facilities on June 5, 2026, and Governor Sanjay Malhotra provided the update on inflows. SEBI regulates securities markets, not forex swaps. Ministry of Finance sets fiscal policy, but the swap is an RBI operation. SBI is a commercial bank, not the regulator.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says 'Indian banks and companies have so far pulled in $32 billion from the Reserve Bank of India's (RBI) ongoing drive'. Statement 2 is incorrect: the FCNR(B) scheme is for fresh 3-5-year deposits, not 1-2 years. Statement 3 is correct: the article notes that after net outflows of $1.8 billion over March-May, June saw $5.85 billion come in.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'between June 8 – when the swap facility became operational – and July 17, a total of $20.72 billion had been raised'. $17.41 billion is the amount from FCNR(B) deposits alone during that period. $32 billion is the total as of July 27. $85 billion is the projected total by SBI.

Explanation

The article discusses the swap drive in the context of the rupee's decline and the need to attract foreign inflows. The swap window reduces hedging costs, encouraging banks to bring in foreign currency, which adds to forex reserves and supports the rupee's exchange rate. Increasing bank profitability is a secondary effect, not the primary objective. Fiscal deficit and FDI are not directly targeted by this mechanism.

Explanation

The article states that the task force will be headed by Nandan Nilekani, former chairman of UIDAI. The other options are notable tech leaders but not associated with this announcement.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Nandan Nilekani is former UIDAI chairman. Statement 2 is correct: PM Modi said the system should be trusted, transparent, and tech-savvy. Statement 3 is incorrect: The announcement was made by PM Modi on July 26, not July 27, and not by the Ministry of Education.

Explanation

The article states: 'Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Sunday (July 26, 2026) announced the constitution of a high-powered task force.' July 25 is a Saturday, July 27 is Monday (the publication date), and July 24 is the date of the Kolkata protests.

Explanation

PM Modi said: 'We should ensure that our exam system can be trusted, transparent and tech-savvy.' The task force will focus on exam reforms, specifically leak-proof and technology-driven measures. Options A, C, and D are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Madurai Bench of the Madras High Court, comprising Justices C.V. Karthikeyan and R. Sakthivel, delivered the judgment. This is a static fact about the High Court's jurisdiction.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court struck down the G.O.s. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court had only permitted temporary employment subject to judicial review, not permanently. Statement 3 is correct as the judgment was by a Division Bench of Justices C.V. Karthikeyan and R. Sakthivel. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the stampede occurred in September 2025 during a TVK roadshow. The judgment was delivered in July 2026, so the incident predates the judgment. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article mentions that a batch of public interest litigation (PIL) petitions were filed challenging the government's decision. PIL is a legal tool allowing citizens to seek judicial intervention for public causes. The court allowed these petitions and struck down the orders.

Explanation

The RTE Act, enacted in 2009 and effective from 2010, guarantees free and compulsory education for children aged 6-14. It is a central Act that mandates neighbourhood schools and sets quality norms.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: UDISE+ data shows government schools declined from 11.07 lakh to 10.17 lakh. Statement 2 is correct: MP schools fell from 1.22 lakh to 99,411 in one year. Statement 3 is incorrect: private schools grew from 2.88 lakh to 3.31 lakh over the same decade.

Explanation

The article states that statewide, 11.38 lakh children fall under the 'Drop Box' category. 7.37 lakh refers to children with no school records, 1.23 lakh are already recorded as dropouts, and 1.55 lakh left due to displacement/migration.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'the burden falls disproportionately on girls who are the first to be withdrawn when the nearest school stops being nearby.' This reflects the gendered impact of school closures, as families prioritise boys' education when access becomes difficult.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the GR instructed the Directorate of Medical Education and Research (DMER) to close the online portal for SRS. DMER is the nodal agency for medical education and postings in Maharashtra.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states SRS was introduced in 1960. Statement 2 is incorrect because the bond was scrapped due to limited postings, not proportionate increase. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions that ongoing SRS must be completed and no refunds will be given for penalties already paid.

Explanation

The article states that 'the number of MBBS seats had increased from around 4,500 in 2006 to over 11,000 in 2025'. Option A is the 2006 figure, while options B and D are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the bond was scrapped citing 'limited vacancies in government departments for SRS postings' and the 'increasing number of medical colleges in the State leading to a rise in the number of graduates each year'. This supply-demand mismatch was the core reason.

Explanation

The K Radhakrishnan Committee, chaired by former ISRO Chairman Dr K Radhakrishnan, was constituted in 2024 and submitted its report with 101 recommendations to the Ministry of Education in October 2024. The Nilekani committee was formed later in 2026.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the report was submitted in October 2024 to the Ministry of Education. Statement 2 is correct: CPPT is a key recommendation to eliminate transport breaches. Statement 3 is incorrect: the report proposed creating 10 dedicated verticals, not reducing them.

Explanation

The report contained 101 recommendations with short-term, medium-term, and long-term perspectives. 23 refers to the number of formal sittings held, 240 to the number of exams conducted by NTA, and 37,000 to the responses received from the public.

Explanation

CPPT transmits encrypted question papers electronically to secure servers at exam centres and prints them locally just before the exam, thereby removing the risk of leaks during physical transport. It does not shift to fully online testing; candidates still write on paper.

Explanation

The article states that the Ministry of Heavy Industries (MHI) is the nodal ministry for the automobile sector. The question was answered by Minister of State for Petroleum and Natural Gas, but the compliance assessment falls under MHI.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India achieved 20% blending in 2025-26, five years ahead of schedule. Statement 2 is incorrect: only vehicles manufactured after April 2023 under BS6 Phase II are E20-compliant; older vehicles are not. Statement 3 is incorrect: the government said no decision has been taken on raising blending beyond 20%.

Explanation

The article mentions that E20 fuel can reduce fuel economy by 3-5% in older vehicles whose engines are not designed for this blend. The other options are distractors not supported by the news.

Explanation

The EBP Programme aims to blend ethanol with petrol to reduce dependence on imported crude oil and decrease vehicular emissions. The news highlights that E20 offers 30% lower carbon emissions and cleaner combustion, supporting these goals. Mileage reduction is a trade-off, not the objective.

Explanation

The article states that Union Minister of State for the Department of Personnel and Training Dr Jitendra Singh introduced the bill. Hence, the nodal ministry is DoPT, which falls under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Speaker allocated 6 hours, not 8. Statement 3 is correct as 91 amendment notices were submitted. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that 'members had submitted 91 amendment notices'. The other options are close distractors often used in exams.

Explanation

The Speaker stated that the bill is important to safeguard youth interests by providing provisions to effectively check crimes like paper leaks and stringent penal provisions to punish culprits. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that the expert committee was constituted by the Union environment ministry, which is the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). This ministry is responsible for environmental protection, forest conservation, and climate change policies in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the sixth draft notification of July 2024 declared 56,825.7 sq km as ESA. Statement 2 is incorrect: the expert committee is chaired by Sanjay Kumar, not K. Kasturirangan (Kasturirangan chaired the 2013 High-Level Working Group). Statement 3 is correct as the article states the Western Ghats is one of the world's eight 'hottest biodiversity hotspots'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the July 31, 2024 draft notification declared 56,825.7 sq km of the Western Ghats as ESA. The other options are close distractors; 54,825.7 and 58,825.7 are numerical variations, while 60,825.7 is a round figure not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article highlights that states have raised issues regarding the demarcation of ESAs, and the committee was constituted to examine these issues. The deadlock continues as states seek to reduce ESA areas to accommodate local livelihoods and development, reflecting the core conflict between conservation and state-level development priorities.

Explanation

The data was presented in a written reply to the Lok Sabha by the Minister of State for Finance, Pankaj Chaudhary. The Ministry of Finance is responsible for income tax statistics and the Income-tax Department.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The data shows 576 individuals in AY 2025-26, up 39% from AY 2024-25. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Minister stated there is no statutory definition of 'billionaire' under the Income-tax Act, 2025 or the erstwhile 1961 Act. Statement 3 is correct: The World Inequality Report 2026 states the top 10% capture about 58% of national income. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the number of rupee billionaires by income quadrupled from 142 in AY 2021-22 to 576 in AY 2025-26. Option B (576) is the AY 2025-26 figure, option C (500) is approximate but not exact, and option D (229) is the number of dollar billionaires from Forbes. Hence A is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the National Household Income Survey is meant to measure household income and also assess the impact of adoption of technology on wages. Option A is incorrect because HCES already measures consumption. Option C is unrelated (Forbes/Bloomberg data). Option D is not mentioned. Hence B is correct.

Explanation

The article states that RDSO approved the Kavach Version 4.0 specifications on July 16, 2024. RDSO is the research and development arm of Indian Railways under the Ministry of Railways, responsible for setting technical standards.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: field trials began in February 2016. Statement 2 is incorrect: Kavach was adopted as National ATP in July 2020, not 2024. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions Vande Bharat 4.0 is envisaged to incorporate Kavach 5.0. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Central Railway operates 1,820 services daily, including 120 AC EMU services. Western Railway operates 1,414 services, and the total suburban services are 3,234. The 266 refers to 15-car EMU services.

Explanation

The article states that Kavach 5.0 is expected to significantly reduce the gap between trains, allowing more frequent services while ensuring safe operations. This addresses the high-density needs of the Mumbai suburban network. Other options are not mentioned or are counter to the article's intent.

Explanation

The article states that Foreigners Tribunals are created under the Foreigners Act, 1946. While the Assam Accord sets the cut-off date, the tribunals themselves derive their authority from this 1946 Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the court doubted the credibility of the computer-generated 1951 NRC and did not accept it as proof. Statement 2 is correct: the court noted spelling discrepancies and shifting residences as reasons for rejection. Statement 3 is correct: the article cites the Supreme Court's judgment in Sirajul Hoque's case (2019) which held that minor discrepancies are not a major offence.

Explanation

The article quotes CM Himanta Biswa Sarma stating that 1,679 undocumented immigrants were repatriated to Bangladesh during that two-year period. The other options are distractors: 31,789 is the total over 40 years, 67 is the number sent under the 1950 Act in two years, and 193 is the number of declared foreigners referred to by the CM.

Explanation

Section 9 of the Foreigners Act, 1946 places the burden of proof on the individual who claims to be a citizen. If the state suspects a person is a foreigner, it is up to the person to produce evidence to prove their citizenship. This is a critical legal principle tested in the case.

Explanation

The article states that CBDT issued the 198-page guidance note on crypto-asset reporting obligations. While OECD developed the CARF framework, the Indian implementation is done by CBDT under the Income-tax Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: 'CBDT has come out with a 198-page guidance note'. Statement 2 is correct: 'reporting obligations under section 509 of the Income-tax Act, 2025'. Statement 3 is incorrect: CARF was developed by the OECD at the request of the G20, not independently by the G20.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the CBDT has come out with a '198-page guidance note on crypto-asset reporting obligations'. The other options are distractors.

Explanation

The article states that CARF was conceived to address the gap in global tax transparency by providing for the standardised and automatic exchange of tax-relevant information on transactions in crypto-assets between jurisdictions. Options A, C, and D are not mentioned as objectives.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Nandan Nilekani was the founding chairman of UIDAI from 2009 to 2014. The other options are other members of the task force with different backgrounds.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because Anita Karwal served as Education Secretary from 2020 until her retirement in 2022, not after retirement. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions that under S Somanath's leadership, India achieved the successful landing of Chandrayaan-3 on the Moon's South Pole.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the task force is a six-member high-powered committee. The other options are plausible distractors.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the task force is to look into next-generation reforms for the country’s education sector, with a focus on examination reforms. Option A is too broad (NEP 2020 already exists), C is related to V Kamakoti's work, and D is related to Tapan Deka's expertise.

Explanation

The WHO developed the AWaRe classification to guide antibiotic use and combat antimicrobial resistance. The article explicitly references this classification.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: actual use is 18.3 DDD. Statement 2 is incorrect: 'access' antibiotics are underused at 4.5 DDD, well below the needed level. Statement 3 is correct: optimal use is 9.9-14.7 DDD. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The study reports India's actual antibiotic use at 18.3 DDD per 1,000 people per day, which exceeds the optimal range of 9.9-14.7 DDD. The other options are distractors: 9.9 and 14.7 are the lower and upper bounds of the optimal range, while 6.0 is the recommended level for 'watch' antibiotics.

Explanation

The article states that the plan 'seeks to curb inappropriate usage across human healthcare, animal husbandry and agriculture' through antimicrobial stewardship. While it may include stricter OTC sales regulation, the broader objective is comprehensive curbing of misuse across all sectors.

Explanation

The article states that India’s drug regulator approved Qdenga. The DCGI is the head of the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO), which is the national regulatory body for pharmaceuticals and medical devices in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Qdenga is designed to protect against DENV-1 to DENV-4. Statement 2 is incorrect: Qdenga is manufactured by Takeda, a Japanese pharmaceutical company, not Bharat Biotech. Statement 3 is correct: phase-3 trial data shows that in dengue-naive children, Qdenga may not adequately protect against DENV-3 and could lead to antibody-dependent enhancement. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Qdenga may be administered to young children as well as adults aged 4-60 years, irrespective of prior dengue infection history. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article highlights that in dengue-naive children, Qdenga could simulate a primary infection and lead to protection against DENV-1 and DENV-2 but not against DENV-3, potentially resulting in antibody-dependent enhancement where a subsequent wild DENV-3 infection becomes more severe. This is the critical safety caveat.

Explanation

The article states that an RTI application was filed with the Ministry of Home Affairs, which confirmed that the sections were never notified. This is a static linkage: the Ministry of Home Affairs handles criminal law-related notifications.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India uses PDF gazettes. Statement 2 is incorrect: The US uses a variant of Akoma Ntoso called USLM, not the standard directly. Statement 3 is correct: The UK's legislation.gov.uk uses CLML, a modified version of Akoma Ntoso. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article lists the sections that were never notified: 16, 25, 28(a), 28(b), 38, 42(a), 42(b), 42(f)(iii), 42(f)(iv), and 44(a). Among the options, only Section 16 appears in the list.

Explanation

The article repeatedly emphasizes that the current system makes it difficult for citizens, lawyers, and courts to access and track laws. Open standards like Akoma Ntoso are designed to capture the structure and meaning of legal documents, enabling easy search, versioning, and accessibility. This directly supports the rule of law and democratic participation.

Explanation

The article states that 'local firms running on inference aggregators like Neysa and even the IT Ministry’s Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-in) make use of these models'. CERT-in is the nodal agency for cybersecurity under MeitY.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: China bridged the gap with abundant electricity and less advanced chips. Statement 2 is incorrect: India skipped the Shanghai conference due to geopolitical baggage. Statement 3 is correct: the article notes open-source models are expensive and Alibaba has started working on captive models.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'Kimi K3, which is a 2.8 trillion parameter model'. The other options are distractors; 1.8T and 3.8T are not mentioned, and 0.8T is too low.

Explanation

The article explains that China compensates for GPU restrictions by using abundant electricity and larger quantities of less advanced chips. Open-sourcing models allows global developers to adopt them, creating a competitive ecosystem that challenges US dominance. Trust-building and FDI are secondary; the core is technical workaround.

Explanation

UDISE+ (Unified District Information System for Education Plus) is an annual report released by the Ministry of Education, tracking key schooling indicators across India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: NER at secondary is 50.8%. Statement 2 is incorrect: the dropout rate decreased (from 7.8% to 0.3%), while the repetition rate increased from 1.3% to 2.2%. Statement 3 is correct: drinking water, electricity, and toilets are almost universally available.

Explanation

The report states that NER at the higher secondary level (classes 11-12) is 39%, down from 50.8% at the secondary level (classes 9-10).

Explanation

The report notes that NER at elementary and primary levels has been declining since 2022-23. This trend could be due to demographic changes (e.g., declining child population) or access issues such as school closures or economic barriers. It does not indicate improved retention (A) or NEP success (C) as the decline is negative. Private school data is not provided (D).

Explanation

The International Maritime Organisation (IMO) is a UN specialised agency that sets global standards for maritime safety and security. It can take up attacks on merchant ships with member states, as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states five Indian seafarers have been killed since April 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: Russia's attacks are aimed at crippling Ukraine's economy and enforcing a blockade, not protecting exports. Statement 3 is correct: Ukraine drones hit 21 Russian oil tankers in the Sea of Azov on July 25.

Explanation

The article specifies that Ukraine shipped 117 million tonnes of grain through a safe corridor in the past three years. The total cargo shipped was 197 million tonnes, which includes non-grain items.

Explanation

The article states that Russia's attacks aim to 'cripple the Ukrainian economy, hit imports and enforce a maritime blockade.' While Indian seafarers have been collateral damage, targeting them is not the primary objective.

Explanation

The ADSI report is published annually by the NCRB, which comes under the Ministry of Home Affairs. The article explicitly mentions the NCRB's ADSI report as the source for suicide data.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: NEET is a medical entrance exam conducted by NTA. Statement 2 is correct: the article states 'Over 20 lakh students appeared for NEET in the first week of May.' Statement 3 is incorrect: the article says the qualification rate is less than 57%, not above 60%.

Explanation

The article states that student suicides increased from 8,068 in 2014 to 14,488 in 2024. 25,000 is the number of suicides due to exam failure over the decade, and 1,23,000 is the total student suicides from 2014 to 2024.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that despite the protest demands being met, larger issues like proliferation of coaching centres, increased expenditure for families, and high stress levels remain unaddressed. This is the core systemic problem, not just the leak.

Explanation

The article states the man was convicted under Section 6 of the POCSO Act, which deals with aggravated penetrative sexual assault. The POCSO Act is a special law for child sexual offences.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the HC dismissed the appeal and upheld the 20-year sentence. Statement 2 is false: the HC strongly criticized the continued use of the two-finger test. Statement 3 is correct: the SC in Lillu v Haryana (2013) had outlawed the test.

Explanation

The article mentions that the trial court sentenced the accused to 20 years' rigorous imprisonment along with a fine of Rs 10,000. The Gauhati HC upheld this sentence.

Explanation

The court observed that delay in reporting sexual offences, particularly when the accused is a family member or guardian, is common and has been repeatedly recognized by the Supreme Court. Therefore, the delay alone did not undermine the survivor's credibility.

Explanation

The Ministry of Cooperation was created in 2021 to focus on the development of the cooperative sector, including urban cooperative banks. The article specifically mentions the Cooperation Ministry Secretary pushing RBI for licensing.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: UCBs are regulated by RBI under the Banking Regulation Act. Statement 2 is incorrect: only about 1,100 out of 1,450 UCBs are in those three states; the rest are elsewhere. Statement 3 is correct: the article states RBI stopped issuing licences in 2004.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'Of the 1,450 UCBs in the country, almost 1,100 are in three states'. Option A (1,100) is the number in those three states, not the total.

Explanation

The article quotes Secretary Bhutani saying they need UCBs in every town and DCCBs in every district, highlighting the regional gap. The pilot project in Gujarat also aimed to channel more resources into cooperative banks for local credit. Options A, B, and D are not mentioned or are contrary to the article's intent.