24 July 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The Delhi High Court, presided by Justice Amit Bansal, gave the ruling. The article explicitly mentions 'Delhi High Court' as the court that heard the case filed by ANI Media Pvt Ltd against OpenAI.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the court gave a prima facie view that OpenAI's storage of ANI's works for training falls under Section 52(1)(a). Statement 2 is incorrect: the court refused to grant an interim injunction, holding that ANI failed to make a prima facie case. Statement 3 is correct: the court said outputs using RAG were not substantially similar to ANI inputs. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article quotes Justice Amit Bansal saying that OpenAI's act falls under Section 52(1)(a) of the Copyright Act (fair dealing). The other options are non-existent or incorrect sections within the same subsection.

Explanation

The ruling is the first observation by an Indian constitutional court on this issue. While it is a prima facie view and not a final judgment, it sets a precedent that AI training may qualify as fair dealing, which is a critical development for AI regulation and copyright law in India. The other options misrepresent the judgment (no permanent ban, no royalty mandate, no automatic copyright).

Explanation

The article mentions that the 2016 Karnataka PUC Chemistry paper leak accused were booked under the stringent Karnataka Control of Organised Crime Act (KCOCA). The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article says the fast-track courts were announced by PM Modi. Statement 2 is correct: The 2006 Railway Group-D case has seen 142 hearings and is still at the witness stage. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article states that a Delhi court criticised the CBI for filing a closure report despite evidence of a leak, but no conviction is mentioned. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the investigation found 45 major exam leaks between 2002 and 2025, each involving at least one lakh candidates. The other numbers are close distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that 'the biggest challenge is poor quality of investigation' and also highlights the 'relatively lenient treatment of paper leaks as ordinary offences with no stringent bail conditions' (weak legal provisions). While fast-track courts are a solution, they are not the challenge. Hence both B and C are correct.

Explanation

The IAEA Additional Protocol gives inspectors broader access to information and sites, including the ability to conduct inspections at short notice, to verify the peaceful use of nuclear materials. The article notes the Saudi-U.S. deal does not require Saudi Arabia to adopt this protocol.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Unlike the 2009 U.S.-UAE agreement, the Saudi deal does not require Saudi Arabia to forgo enrichment or reprocessing. Statement 2 is correct as the deal proposes a joint two-year study on enrichment viability. Statement 3 is correct as President Trump made the deal contingent on Saudi Arabia joining the Abraham Accords.

Explanation

The article states that on July 23, 2026, U.S. President Donald Trump said the deal is contingent upon Saudi Arabia joining the Abraham Accords. The deal itself was signed on July 22, 2026. September 2023 is mentioned in the context of Saudi-Israel normalization talks under the Biden administration.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that the deal lacks the 'gold standard' of previous U.S. nuclear agreements (like with the UAE) by not requiring Saudi Arabia to forgo enrichment or adopt the Additional Protocol. This creates a potential pathway for a Saudi nuclear fuel cycle, raising proliferation risks in a volatile region.

Explanation

The article states that 'The Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, has approved Bharat Audyogik Vikas Yojana Rasayan, or BHAVYA-Rasayan Scheme.' The Cabinet is a constitutional body under Article 74 of the Constitution. Thus, the scheme was approved by the Cabinet, not Parliament or any other body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article says 'The Centre would provide a grant of up to ₹1,000 crore per park.' Statement 2 is incorrect: The scheme runs for 5 years, not 6 years ('The scheme would run for a period of 5 years from the current fiscal to 2030-31'). Statement 3 is correct: 'Rs 3,000 crore would be towards... common infrastructure... remaining Rs 30 crore will be for the administrative expenditure.' Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Each such park will have a minimum contiguous area of 8 sq km (minimum 2,000 acres) of encumbrance-free land.' Therefore, the minimum area is 2,000 acres. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states the scheme is 'an initiative aimed at making India self-reliant in the sector' and 'would facilitate development of the sector by attracting domestic and foreign investments, enhancing domestic production capacity and generating employment.' Option B aligns with this. Options A, C, and D are not supported by the article; the scheme does not focus on taxation, IT, or shutting down plants.

Explanation

SEBI regulates portfolio management services under the SEBI (Portfolio Managers) Regulations, 2020. RBI regulates banking and monetary policy, IRDAI regulates insurance, and the Ministry of Finance is the overarching government department.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: SEBI proposed a MF-PMS category with a minimum investment of ₹25 lakh. Statement 2 is incorrect: the proposed net worth for MF-PMS is ₹2 crore, not ₹5 crore. Statement 3 is correct: the proposal allows up to 10% of AUM in investment-grade unlisted debt securities. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that SEBI mandates no PMS provider can accept less than ₹50 lakh per client. The proposed MF-PMS category would reduce this to ₹25 lakh, but the current requirement remains ₹50 lakh. The other options are distractors: ₹25 lakh is proposed, ₹1 crore is not mentioned, ₹5 crore is the net worth requirement.

Explanation

The article states that the MF-PMS framework aims to 'effectively serve mass-affluent investors who seek professional portfolio management services for their mutual fund investments.' Option A is a broader proposal not specific to the MF-PMS category. Options C and D are contrary to the proposals, which lower entry barriers and aim to expand the industry.

Explanation

The Supreme Court of India, through a three-judge bench led by CJI Surya Kant, passed the interim order. High Courts and other bodies are not mentioned as issuers of this specific order.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the text: 'no posting, reposting, extraction, modification, dissemination, monetisation, recording or review of the live-streamed proceedings...without prior permission.' Statement 2 is incorrect because the order specifically mentions 'live-streamed proceedings of this court' (Supreme Court) and later asks High Courts to submit reports on adoption of guidelines, implying it does not automatically apply to them. Statement 3 is correct: the bench said 'This order shall have no bearing on news reporting.' Hence option C.

Explanation

The article states the bench was hearing a PIL by journalist Harshita Grover highlighting misuse of audiovisual recordings. Vikas Singh appeared for Grover as senior advocate. Tushar Mehta appeared as Solicitor General. Justice Viswanathan's bench was cited as an example of a hearing going viral.

Explanation

The PIL cited 'isolated courtroom exchanges, oral observations, and preliminary remarks are frequently extracted from lengthy hearings and circulated without context...exposing judges, advocates and litigants to unwarranted criticism, trolling, vilification, and reputational harm.' Options A, C, and D are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article lists UPSC, SSC, RRB, IBPS, and NTA as the bodies covered. Medical Council of India is not mentioned in the article and is not part of the Act's coverage.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: imprisonment up to 10 years. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Rs 10 crore fine is for organized crime, not individuals; individuals face up to Rs 10 lakh under Section 10. Statement 3 is correct as the Bill gives statutory backing to fast-track courts. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states a two-month time frame for investigation and three months for completion of trials, totalling five months. Options A and B are partial timelines, and D is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article mentions that fast-track courts will be set up to ensure cases are taken to conclusion within five months, directly aiming for speedy justice. Other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The notification was issued by the Department of Telecom (DoT), which is the nodal department under the Ministry of Communications responsible for telecom policy and regulation in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the DoT notification. Statement 2 is correct as the designated agency will not collect or require disclosure of information that may harm competitive position. Statement 3 is incorrect because the current notification does not allow authorised entities to apply for spectrum; this issue is still under TRAI consultation.

Explanation

The notification specifies a low barrier to entry with a ₹10 Lakhs entry fee and zero annual authorisation fees for Cloud-Hosted Telecommunication Network Providers.

Explanation

The move is aimed at ensuring that all telecommunication data remains within India's borders, strengthening data sovereignty and national security. While it may indirectly affect costs or investment, the core objective is security and regulatory control.

Explanation

The USTR announced the tariffs under Section 301 of the Trade Act of 1974, which allows the President to impose tariffs on countries found to engage in 'unjustifiable', 'unreasonable', or 'discriminatory' trade practices. This provision was also used against China during Trump's first term and withstood legal scrutiny.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India's amendment to its Foreign Trade Policy on June 14, 2026 led to the lower 10% slab. Statement 2 is incorrect: The 12.5% slab applies to countries without laws banning forced labour imports, not those with inadequate enforcement. Statement 3 is correct: The USTR launched an investigation into 16 countries accounting for about 70% of US imports for overproduction.

Explanation

The article states that according to the latest ILO estimates, about 27.6 million people worldwide were in forced labour on any given day in 2021. This data point is directly from the article and is a potential Prelims fact.

Explanation

The USTR stated the action aims to address 'both a human rights abuse and a trade-distorting practice, improving the welfare of workers everywhere'. While reducing the trade deficit may be a secondary effect, the core stated objective is to enforce forced labour bans and protect American workers from unfair competition.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the oversight body is the 'Assembly of States Parties (ASP)', composed of 125 nations, which is holding a special session to vote on the removal of the chief prosecutor.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the ASP is conducting the vote. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article states the Netherlands will vote for his removal. Statement 3 is correct: he was suspended by the British Bar Standards Board pending their investigation. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the court issued arrest warrants in 2024 for Israeli Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu and his former Defence Minister Yoav Gallant for crimes against humanity.

Explanation

The article directly links the US sanctions to the court's investigation into Israeli officials for the military's conduct in the conflict in Gaza. This is the reason explicitly mentioned for the Trump administration's sanctions.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Houthi attacks threaten the Bab el-Mandeb strait, a vital chokepoint for global oil trade south of the Red Sea. The Strait of Hormuz is another chokepoint but was already shut earlier.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Al Masirah TV reported attacks on Encelia and Layla. Statement 2 is incorrect: Saudi Press Agency confirmed only Encelia was hit, not Layla. Statement 3 is correct: The article says oil prices climbed above $100 a barrel on July 23.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'more than 50% of its crude oil imports transit through the Bab al-Manded'. The other options are either wrong or incomplete.

Explanation

The article mentions that the Houthis, at Iran's behest, could threaten shipping routes to give Iran leverage in negotiations with the U.S. The blockade is part of a broader Iranian strategy to expand the conflict and constrain oil supply lines.

Explanation

The Bill seeks to amend the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971, which originally covered insults to the National Flag, Constitution, and National Anthem. The amendment extends protection to the National Song Vande Mataram.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the maximum punishment is 5 years, not 7. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Bill was introduced in the Rajya Sabha, not the Lok Sabha.

Explanation

The article states that the Bill makes insults to the National Song punishable with imprisonment up to five years, or fine, or both. This is the same maximum punishment as for insulting the National Anthem under the existing Act.

Explanation

As per the article, CPI(M) MP John Brittas argued that the Constituent Assembly, after exhaustive deliberation, consciously refrained from placing the National Song and the National Anthem on the same constitutional footing. The Bill seeks to give them identical legal consequences, which the opposition sees as against the framers' intent.

Explanation

The news article specifically discusses the removal of Karim Khan, the prosecutor of the International Criminal Court (ICC). The ICJ deals with state disputes, not individual prosecutions, while the UNSC and PCA are different institutions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 82 voted for, 13 against, 11 abstained. Statement 2 is incorrect because the removal was due to sexual abuse allegations, not the warrants. Statement 3 is correct: the article states that those warrants remain unaffected by his removal. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

According to the article, 13 states voted against Khan's removal, 82 voted in favour, and 11 abstained. A total of 125 member states were eligible to vote. The other options are close distractors: 11 is the number of abstentions, 82 is the number in favour, and 125 is the total member states.

Explanation

The article states that with Khan removed, his two deputies have been overseeing the office, and member states must now choose a new prosecutor. The other options are not supported: investigations continue, the warrants remain unaffected, and US sanctions are not mentioned as being lifted.

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is the nodal ministry for conducting India's foreign relations and diplomacy. In the news, MEA officials briefed reporters on the visit, and MEA Secretary (West) Sibi George provided key details about the partnership.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the visit is after three decades. Statement 2 is correct as the MEA stated the future roadmap would centre on the '3 Ts' of trade, technology, and tourism, with a focus on doubling trade. Statement 3 is incorrect because Romania was invited to adopt India's Unified Payments Interface (UPI), not the Aadhaar system. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that President Murmu's visit to Romania is 'a visit by an Indian President after three decades.' The other options are close distractors but do not match the specific timeframe mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article mentions that at a time when the Russia-Ukraine conflict has intensified with attacks on cargo ships in the Black Sea, India is seeking to build ties with Romania, which offers New Delhi 'a trusted European Union gateway and partner towards maritime security.' The defence cooperation is part of this broader strategic objective.

Explanation

The article states that USTR Jamieson Greer tapped Section 301 of the Trade Act of 1974 to impose the latest duties. Section 301 deals with unfair trade practices by foreign governments.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because rates vary: lower 10% for countries with forced labour prohibition, higher 12.5% for others. Statement 3 is correct: goods under USMCA are exempt.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that trading partners like China and Japan are in the higher rate group receiving 12.5% tariffs. India is also covered in this group, as it lacks a forced labour prohibition.

Explanation

The article explains that economies with a forced labour prohibition (Canada, EU, UK) receive the lower 10% rate, while others (China, Japan, India) receive the higher 12.5% rate. This is the key differentiator mentioned.

Explanation

NTA is the autonomous body under the Ministry of Education that conducts NEET and other entrance exams. CBSE previously conducted NEET but it was transferred to NTA in 2019.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the committee was formed in 2024 under K Radhakrishnan. Statement 2 is incorrect: the IAF transport was a temporary ad hoc measure by the government, not a committee recommendation. Statement 3 is correct: the court referred to the committee's recommendations on the governing board.

Explanation

The article states the high-powered committee was constituted in 2024 under former ISRO chairman K Radhakrishnan. The other options are distractors based on the timeline of events.

Explanation

The court emphasized moving away from ad hoc solutions and ensuring permanent institutional reforms in the examination system. Options A, C, and D are not stated in the article.

Explanation

The article mentions Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan in the context of the Act and student protests. The Act deals with public examinations, which fall under the purview of the Ministry of Education.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Section 9 of the Act says every offence is cognizable, non-bailable, and non-compoundable. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Act explicitly excludes candidates from its purview; they are governed by the administrative rules of the exam authority. Statement 3 is correct: Section 10 allows a fine of up to Rs 1 crore and a bar of four years for service providers.

Explanation

Section 11 of the Act defines organized crime and prescribes a punishment of five to ten years imprisonment along with a fine of not less than Rs 1 crore. The other options are distractors: 3-5 years is for individual offences under Section 10, not organized crime.

Explanation

The article states that the Act was designed to deter organized malpractice and protect the integrity of public examinations. It does not aim to increase exams, compensate candidates, or privatize exams. The Statement of Objects and Reasons also emphasizes the need for a comprehensive law to address organized exam fraud.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 'Parliamentary Standing Committee on Finance, in its report on the Securities Market Code (SMC), has called for a comprehensive examination and an appropriate regulatory framework for Virtual Digital Assets.' The other options are standing committees on different subjects.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the committee did not recommend an immediate ban; it recommended an interim SRO mechanism. Statement 2 is correct as the article says 'the government may consider introducing an interim regulatory mechanism through recognised Self-Regulatory Organisations (SROs)'. Statement 3 is correct because the committee warned that the exclusion 'would result in regulatory uncertainty, exposing investors to heightened risks'.

Explanation

The article states: 'According to blockchain data and analytics company Chainalysis, nearly 12 crore Indians are participating in the VDA ecosystem.' The other options are distractors not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the committee identified an 'existing regulatory vacuum' and warned that the exclusion of VDAs from the Securities Market Code 'would result in regulatory uncertainty, exposing investors to heightened risks of fraud, market manipulation, misrepresentation and inadequate grievance redressal'. While taxation and global alignment are mentioned, the primary driver is investor protection and closing the regulatory gap.

Explanation

The article repeatedly refers to the USTR as the authority conducting the investigation and imposing the tariffs under Section 301. The Trade Representative is the key agency for trade negotiations and enforcement.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states the US imposed 10% on India, down from the 12.5% proposed. Statement 2 is incorrect: India was not granted a TRQ; only Bangladesh, Cambodia, Indonesia, and Malaysia received textile TRQs. Statement 3 is correct: for EU and Taiwan, Section 301 tariff is zero if the product's MFN tariff is 10% or higher.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Vietnam, China, Russia, Brazil, and others fall under the least favourable category with 12.5% tariffs. India is at 10%, making the 12.5% rate a key data point.

Explanation

The article highlights that Bangladesh, Cambodia, Indonesia, and Malaysia received textile TRQs allowing duty-free access, while India did not. This gives these countries a competitive advantage over Indian textile exports to the US. Pharmaceuticals and aircraft parts are exempted from tariffs.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Kerala High Court division bench of Chief Justice Soumen Sen and Justice Syam Kumar V M passed the order. The other courts are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court upheld the requirement, not struck it down. Statement 2 is correct as the court suggested PAN Card as an alternative. Statement 3 is incorrect because the IRCTC affidavit stated that no Aadhaar number is stored. Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the notification dated June 10, 2025, issued by the Ministry of Railways, was challenged. The other dates are from the article (July 22 order, April 1 affidavit, etc.) but are not the notification date.

Explanation

The article states that IRCTC submitted the policy was meant to ensure only genuine individual users could access the Tatkal booking system and to prevent bulk booking by touts, syndicates, and automated software. The other options are not mentioned as primary objectives.

Explanation

The article states that tariffs are being brought under Section 301 of the Trade Act of 1974, which lets the president act against countries seen as using unfair trade practices.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per article: tariffs on 60 partners covering 99% of US imports. Statement 2 is correct: India's rate was cut from 12.5% to 10% due to tightened forced labour rules. Statement 3 is false: Brazil called the move unfair and considered retaliation; Chile said its labour protections were strong and the US measure did not match its standards.

Explanation

The article cites the ILO estimate: around 27.6 million people were in forced labour worldwide on any given day in 2021.

Explanation

The article says the tariffs target countries Washington says have not done enough to stop goods made with forced labour from entering their supply chains. Rights groups support the move as a tool against forced labour, though some caution about enforcement.

Explanation

The RBI announced the framework for rupee trade settlement in July 2022. This framework allows invoicing, payment, and settlement of exports/imports in Indian rupees, reducing dependence on foreign currency.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: RBI data shows imports worth ₹1.38 lakh crore settled in rupees during March-May 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: The final waiver expired on June 17, 2026, and there has been no renewal since then. Statement 3 is correct: Commerce ministry data shows Russian crude oil imports of $17.13 billion in March-May 2026, up 30% YoY. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that imports worth ₹1.38 lakh crore paid in rupees accounted for 7.1% of India's merchandise imports in March-May 2026. The 2.4% refers to the previous three months (Dec-Feb 2025-26), while 3.56% and 1.82% are export shares for earlier periods.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that paying for imports in rupees can reduce the outflow of foreign currency and help stabilize the exchange rate, which has been under pressure due to foreign capital outflows and geopolitical developments. The other options are not supported: it does not directly increase reserves (option A), it reduces the deficit pressure (option C opposite), and the export boost is only a secondary effect (option D).

Explanation

The Supreme Court Bench directed that no audio-video recordings of its proceedings can be posted on social media without prior permission from the Secretary General of the Supreme Court. For High Courts, the permission is to be obtained from the Registrar General of the jurisdictional High Court. This distinction is crucial for exam questions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Bench explicitly directed that there shall be no extraction, modification, dissemination, posting, reposting, or uploading of audio-video recordings without prior permission. Statement 2 is incorrect because the order applies to both the Supreme Court (permission from Secretary General) and High Courts (permission from Registrar General). Statement 3 is correct as the Bench also issued notice to the Centre and others on the plea.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Supreme Court passed this order on Friday, July 24, 2026. The other options are close distractors; 2025 is a different year, and the other dates are either one day before or after the correct date.

Explanation

The order was passed in response to a plea highlighting the misuse of videos of court proceedings on social media. Senior advocate Vikas Singh specifically highlighted this misuse, and the Solicitor General agreed on the need for regulation. The aim is to prevent the distortion and out-of-context use of such recordings, not to end live-streaming or impose a blanket ban.

Explanation

The Ministry of Commerce and Industry, through its Department of Commerce, is the nodal ministry for all trade negotiations including FTAs. It handles matters related to foreign trade, WTO, and bilateral trade agreements.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the second round was held in New Delhi, not Tel Aviv. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions coverage of trade in goods/services, rules of origin, IPR, etc. Statement 3 is correct as the bilateral trade figure of $3.93 billion for 2025-26 is explicitly mentioned.

Explanation

The article states that 'Total merchandise trade between the two countries stood at $3.93 billion in 2025-26'. Options A, B, and D are close distractors designed to test precise recall of the figure.

Explanation

The article states that both sides are committed to working towards 'a balanced, comprehensive and mutually beneficial FTA which will further expand trade and economic ties'. While defense cooperation is a separate aspect of India-Israel relations, the FTA's core objective is economic.

Explanation

As per the article, the Kerala State Legal Services Authority (KeLSA) filed the writ petition expressing severe concern over ragging incidents. KeLSA is a statutory body under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, tasked with providing free legal aid and can file PILs on public interest matters.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the committee was constituted by the Home Department. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states the failure to frame rules under the 27-year-old Act severely weakened law enforcement. Statement 3 is correct as the Sidharthan Student Distress App is part of the proposed legislation.

Explanation

Achuthsankar S. Nair, the vice-chairperson of the Kerala State Higher Education Council, is the chairperson of the committee. Minhaj Alam is the convenor. B. Ashok and Sharmila Mary Joseph are members as Principal Secretaries of Higher Education and Health departments respectively.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the app is for 'emergency digital reporting' as part of strengthening anti-ragging measures. It is not for courses, replacing the Act, or collecting feedback, but a technological tool to enable quick reporting and response to ragging incidents.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Registration Department is migrating to STAR 3.0 and launching the Presence-less Registration system. This department oversees property registration in the state.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the system enables online registration without visiting a Sub-Registrar office. Statement 2 is incorrect because the first phase is limited to flat/plot promoters, bankers, and financial institutions, not all individual buyers. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions Aadhaar-based fingerprint or iris authentication via UIDAI.

Explanation

The article clearly states, “The new system will be rolled out on August 17, 2026.” The other options are close distractors: July 24 is the publication date, August 15 is Independence Day, and September 1 is a common fiscal quarter start.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the move aims to eliminate corruption and the role of intermediaries, improve transparency, reduce transport costs, and reduce overcrowding, especially on auspicious days. Revenue generation and price standardization are not mentioned as objectives.

Explanation

Article 19(1)(b) guarantees the right to assemble peacefully and without arms. Article 19(1)(a) deals with freedom of speech, 19(1)(c) with associations, and 19(1)(d) with movement.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the right to protest is a form of expression under Article 19(1)(a). Statement 2 is incorrect because restrictions must be 'reasonable' and based on grounds like public order, not absolute. Statement 3 is correct as per Article 19(3).

Explanation

The article states that the protest occurred on July 20, 2026. July 24 is the date of publication of the article.

Explanation

The core issue is whether the police's use of force (lathi charge, tear gas) and other measures (metro closure, mobile network loss) were reasonable and proportionate to the threat. The right to protest is not absolute and can be restricted, but the restrictions must pass the test of proportionality.

Explanation

The government order specifically invoked Section 79(3)(b) of the IT Act, 2000, read with Rule 3(1)(d) of the IT Rules, 2021. Section 69A is the usual blocking provision but was not used here. Section 66A (struck down by SC) and Section 43A (data protection) are unrelated.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the order was issued under Section 79(3)(b), not Section 69A. Statement 2 is correct: BitChat uses a decentralised Bluetooth mesh network, no internet or servers. Statement 3 is correct: IFF criticised the order on the grounds that anticipated misuse is not a lawful basis to prohibit a tool.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The order, Notice No. 11072601011432, was issued at 11.16 p.m. on July 23, 2026.' Options A, C, and D are distractors based on other timestamps in the article (publication time, update time).

Explanation

The Internet Freedom Foundation (IFF) specifically argued that 'Anticipated misuse of a communications tool is not a lawful basis to prohibit the tool.' The article highlights that the order relies on the application's potential for misuse rather than identifying any unlawful content hosted in the repositories.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'NITI Aayog estimates that 90-95 per cent of India’s demand until 2035 will be met by imports.' NITI Aayog is the government's policy think tank, not a regulatory body like RBI or SEBI.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions India's GDP in 1991 as $270 billion. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says India's GDP in 2026 is $4 trillion, not $5 trillion. Statement 3 is correct: the article lists Commerce (manufacturing), Critical Minerals/Rare Earths, Computer Chips, and Computer Software/AI as the four Cs. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'The current $16 trillion GDP gap will become $24 trillion in 2050.' This is based on India growing at 6% and China at 3% from their current bases of $4 trillion and $20 trillion respectively.

Explanation

The article explicitly asks: 'Are we content with a “hide-and-bide” strategy with both superpowers where we stay out of their way and concentrate on reforms?' The 'Manhattan Project' is proposed for the economy, not geopolitics. 'G-2 accommodation' refers to US-China relations, not India's strategy. Hence, the correct strategic option mentioned is 'hide-and-bide'.

Explanation

Chandipura virus (CHPV) belongs to the Rhabdoviridae family, which also includes the lyssavirus that causes rabies. This is a key static GK fact often tested in exams to differentiate it from other vector-borne viruses like dengue (Flaviviridae).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: CHPV is transmitted by Phlebotomine sandflies and Aedes aegypti. Statement 2 is incorrect: there is no specific antiviral therapy or vaccine available for CHPV; only symptomatic management is possible. Statement 3 is correct: the infection can progress rapidly, leading to death within 24-48 hours of hospitalization. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that Gujarat, during the 2004 outbreak, saw a case fatality rate (CFR) of around 78%. In comparison, Andhra Pradesh in 2003 had a CFR of around 55%. This data point is critical for Prelims questions on disease severity.

Explanation

The article explains that kutcha houses and the use of cowdung paint or cakes attract sandflies. Monsoon season increases sandfly multiplication, leading to higher transmission. This socio-economic and environmental linkage is a typical Mains angle for health and development questions.

Explanation

Indian Railways is operated under the Ministry of Railways, headed by the Railway Minister (currently Ashwini Vaishnaw). This ministry oversees policy, investments, and electrification projects.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct (99.6% BG electrification). Statement 2 is correct (Switzerland 100%, India 99.6%). Statement 3 is incorrect – China's electrification is 82%, lower than India's 99.6%. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states the total average monthly electricity consumption of Indian Railways is 2,957.5 million units (MU). Option B is the expenditure figure (₹2,102.6 Cr), option C is South Central Railway's consumption, and option D uses incorrect unit (crore units).

Explanation

Railway electrification replaces diesel traction with electric traction, which is cheaper, more energy-efficient, and reduces carbon emissions. While revenue and employment are secondary considerations, the core objective is operational and environmental efficiency, as highlighted in the article's context of global transformation.

Explanation

The USTR is the agency responsible for investigating and imposing trade remedies under Section 301 of the US Trade Act of 1974. The US Department of Commerce handles anti-dumping and countervailing duties, while the Federal Reserve deals with monetary policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India faces 10% while China, Vietnam, and others face 12.5%. Statement 2 is incorrect: the TRQs have an initial duration of 3 years, not 5 years. Statement 3 is correct: the tariff follows a Section 301 investigation into forced labour. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that exports of textile and apparel products from India to the US are usually close to $11 billion. The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The TRQs allow Bangladesh, Cambodia, Indonesia, and Malaysia to export textiles duty-free to the US, potentially replacing Indian exports. This is the core concern raised by CITI Chairman Ashwin Chandran in the article.

Explanation

The article states: 'DMFT sought to correct this imbalance by ensuring that a portion of mining revenues was reinvested in the welfare of those living in mining-affected areas.' This is the core objective of the trust.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: 'Jharkhand is one of the world’s most resource-rich regions. It possesses nearly 40 per cent of India’s mineral wealth.' Statement 2 is correct: Odisha's mining revenue was ₹46,000 crore vs Jharkhand's ₹22,000 crore, so more than double. Statement 3 is incorrect: The production increase (120 to 180 million tonnes) refers to Odisha, not Jharkhand. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Since 2019-20, India has auctioned 434 mineral blocks. Odisha auctioned 45, Chhattisgarh 41, while Jharkhand auctioned only three.'

Explanation

The article emphasizes that the gap 'cannot be explained by geology. It reflects policy choices and administrative efficiency.' It points to delayed auctions, failure to renew leases, and lack of transparency as the core reasons.

Explanation

The article states that the government invoked the Essential Commodities Act to stretch the gap between domestic refills and prevent hoarding. This Act empowers central regulation of essential commodities during supply crises.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article (60% imports, 90% via Hormuz). Statement 2 is incorrect: the government extended the gap from 21 to 25 days, not reduced it. Statement 3 is false: CMIE data showed diets cratered, not improved.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the government raised the price of a cylinder by ₹60 within days. Options ₹40, ₹50, and ₹70 are close distractors not mentioned in the text.

Explanation

The article contrasts the 'rooted' (those with village land) who can survive by retreating to farms, against the 'rootless' (second-generation migrants without land) who have no fallback. The crisis exposes the thin floor under urban migrants who rely solely on the market.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Section 17 of the DPDP Act 2023 exempts several obligations when data is processed for preventing, detecting, investigating or prosecuting an offence. This is a key static fact linked to the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions Ikshana has eight fixed cameras providing 360-degree view. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Delhi Police RTI reply revealed an 80% accuracy threshold, not 90%. Statement 3 is correct because Aishe Ghosh's plea is being heard in the Delhi High Court. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Delhi Police considered a match to be 'positive' if the system showed an accuracy rate of 80%. This is a direct data point from the news.

Explanation

The article describes how students covered their faces and feared footage could reach families or employers, which is a classic chilling effect. While inaccuracy is mentioned, the primary concern is the intimidation and deterrence caused by constant monitoring.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the U.S. Trade Representative launched investigations under Section 301 of the Trade Act, 1974. Sections 201, 232, and 337 are different provisions used for other trade remedies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the temporary tariff was 10% for 150 days ending July 24, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: India's tariff rate remains at 10%, not 12.5%. Statement 3 is correct: two investigations were launched in March 2026 under Section 301.

Explanation

The article states that the temporary 150-day tariff imposed in February 2026 expired on July 24, 2026. The other dates are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly says the investigation was on 'whether the U.S.’ trade partners were doing enough to prevent the import of goods made using forced labour.' While trade deficit and protectionism may be broader concerns, the stated objective is to address forced labour.

Explanation

The Supreme Court-appointed monitoring committee is headed by former Maharashtra DGP Dattatray Padsalgikar. The other options are not mentioned in the article as committee heads.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the SC proposed special courts. Statement 2 is incorrect because the deadline is one week, not two weeks. Statement 3 is correct as the SC asked the Manipur High Court to look into 30 missing persons cases. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The Supreme Court specifically asked the Manipur High Court to look into cases pertaining to 30 persons who went missing after the ethnic violence. The other numbers are distractors: 200 is the death toll, while 20 and 50 are not mentioned.

Explanation

The SC proposed special courts for 'day-to-day trials' to expedite the large number of pending cases. While workload reduction may be a side benefit, the core objective is speedy justice. Compensation and investigation of authorities are not the primary focus of this proposal.

Explanation

India explicitly supported a Code of Conduct (CoC) that is 'fully compliant with UNCLOS 1982'. UNCLOS is the primary international law governing the use of the world's oceans and seas, including navigation rights and maritime boundaries.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the summit was held in Manila. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 7th EAS conference on maritime security cooperation will be held in Kochi, not Lothal (Lothal will host the Maritime Heritage Festival). Statement 3 is correct as Jaishankar reiterated India's support for a two-state solution for lasting peace.

Explanation

The article states that India placed the Indus Waters Treaty in 'abeyance' since the April 20, 2025 terror attack in Pahalgam. This is a key data point for Prelims, as it marks a significant shift in India-Pakistan water relations.

Explanation

India's vision for the Indo-Pacific is based on principles of inclusivity, ASEAN centrality, and rule-based order. The call for safe waterways and a Code of Conduct compliant with UNCLOS 1982 aims to ensure freedom of navigation and stable maritime trade routes, not military dominance or exclusion.

Explanation

The article states that the Ministry of Minority Affairs informed the Lok Sabha about Waqf property approvals on the UMEED portal. The minister is Kiren Rijiju.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'under Section 301 of the Trade Act'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the tariffs apply to 60 countries including India, but not only India and China. Statement 3 is correct: 'range from 10% to 12.5% and impact major economies like China, India and the European Union.' Hence both 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'more than 6.17 lakh Waqf properties have been successfully validated and approved on the UMEED Central Portal-2025'. Option A (7,99,978) is the number of properties initiated for upload, not approved. Option D is close but incorrect.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the portal is 'part of the government’s ongoing initiative to digitise and streamline Waqf property records'. The other options are not mentioned or are contrary to the stated purpose.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the ICI (and WPI) are currently under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The article recommends moving it to the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) for better coordination, but that change has not yet been made.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the ICI now has 9 sectors, with iron ore added. Statement 2 is incorrect: the weight of electricity increased from <20% to >30%. Statement 3 is correct: the article explicitly states the high growth numbers for iron ore and electricity were due to a base effect since both sectors had contracted in June last year.

Explanation

The article states that the ICI recorded a five-month-high growth of 5% in June 2026. The other options are distractors: 9.8% is the growth of the electricity sector, 43.9% is the growth of iron ore, and 3.8% is the new weight of natural gas in the index.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the increased weight of electricity (to >30%) 'reflects the rising share of renewables in electricity generation, even as demand for electricity itself surges.' The other options are incorrect: coal-based generation is not highlighted, and the weight change is not simply due to other sectors decreasing or the inclusion of iron ore.

Explanation

The NEET exam is conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA) under the Ministry of Education. Student welfare policies, including mental health initiatives in schools, also fall under this ministry. The Ministry of Health deals with medical services, not the exam system.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states 'student suicides jumped 80% in ten years'. Statement 2 is correct: 'over 2,000 die by suicide every year due to exam failures'. Statement 3 is correct: 'Over 1.23 lakh students died by suicide between 2014 and 2024'. Hence all three statements are correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'over 2,000 die by suicide every year due to exam failures'. The other options are close distractors but not supported by the data in the article.

Explanation

The article mentions that protests led by Cockroach Janata Party and student groups demanded Union Minister Dharmendra Pradhan's resignation. The protests were triggered by NEET paper leaks and subsequent student suicides. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the draft policy is being prepared by the Women and Child Development Department of Odisha. This is a static linkage question testing knowledge of the nodal department responsible for women and child welfare in the state.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article says Odisha has recorded the highest number of human trafficking victims annually in India since 2021. Statement 2 is correct: The draft policy proposes to invoke PMLA to trace and forfeit financial assets of trafficking networks. Statement 3 is false: The article mentions a 61% charge-sheeting rate in 2023, not 100% conviction, and notes near-zero conviction rates in certain years.

Explanation

The article provides NCRB statistics: 2024: 1039 victims. The other options are from previous years: 1475 (2021), 1120 (2022), 1305 (2023).

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Nutan Sakala is a unified policy framework built on four pillars: prevention, protection, prosecution, and partnership. While other options are components of the policy, the overall objective is the comprehensive framework. Option A is a part of the prosecution pillar, C is a legal tool, and D is already existing (36 AHTUs already present).