20 July 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

Trade negotiations, including free trade agreements, are handled by the Department of Commerce under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The Ministry of External Affairs deals with diplomatic relations, while Finance and Textiles have other portfolios.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states zero-duty access on 99% of India's exports. Statement 2 is incorrect; the ASEAN FTA led to a widening trade deficit (from $10B to $44B). Statement 3 is correct; MSMEs face compliance hurdles with UK standards.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the trade deficit with ASEAN widened from about $10 billion in 2017 to nearly $44 billion in 2023. The other options are distractors: $10B is the 2017 figure, $34B and $54B are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article states that MSMEs may find it difficult to comply with UK's stringent sanitary, phytosanitary, technical and sustainability standards, which could prove a bigger hurdle than tariffs. High tariffs are largely eliminated under the zero-duty access, so non-tariff barriers are the key challenge.

Explanation

The Bill seeks to amend the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971. This Act currently penalises disrespect to the National Flag, Constitution, and National Anthem. The amendment adds Vande Mataram to its ambit.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Bill was introduced in the Rajya Sabha, not Lok Sabha. Statement 2 is incorrect because the existing Act does not cover the National Song; that is why the amendment is needed. Statement 3 is correct as the Bill aims to punish any act causing obstruction in the singing of the National Song or insulting it.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Bill was listed for introduction on Monday, July 20, 2026, at the start of the Monsoon Session. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

John Brittas argued that the Bill relies on a single sentence from Rajendra Prasad's statement, which was not a formal resolution or constitutional provision. He contended that Parliament consciously omitted the National Song from the 1971 Act, reflecting a deliberate legislative policy. Therefore, the amendment represents a significant departure from the constitutional settlement.

Explanation

The article states that the International Energy Agency (IEA) coordinated the release of 426 million barrels from member countries' emergency oil stockpiles over a four-month period starting March 11. This action helped prevent a surge in global crude prices despite the largest oil shock in history.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the IEA release of 426 million barrels capped crude prices. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states the stocks are nearly thrice (three times) the required minimum, not twice. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly calls for an integrated policy on strategic reserves of all three 'Fs'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that crude prices 'eased to $70-80 by mid-June, when the war was seemingly over.' The $90-110 range was for April-May, and the other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article argues that in a world of rising climate and geopolitical risks, accumulating large reserves of all three 'Fs' (food, fuel, forex) is essential. While there is a cost to stockpiling, their utility is proved during supply shocks from weather, war, or balance of payments crises. The article does not advocate reducing or limiting reserves to oil alone.

Explanation

The bill proposes to amend the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971, which currently covers the national flag, Constitution, and national anthem. The amendment adds the national song to Section 3 of this Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the bill proposes up to 3 years imprisonment for intentional prevention or disturbance of singing Vande Mataram. Statement 2 is incorrect: the bill was to be introduced in the Rajya Sabha, not the Lok Sabha. Statement 3 is correct: the amendment substitutes existing Section 3 to include the national song.

Explanation

The bill states that whoever intentionally prevents the singing of the National Anthem or the National Song shall be punishable with imprisonment up to three years, or with fine, or with both. This is the same as the existing penalty for the national anthem under the 1971 Act.

Explanation

The bill's statement of objectives notes that there is currently no specific legal provision to prevent insults to the singing of Vande Mataram. The amendment brings it at par with the national anthem under the same penal provisions, ensuring equal respect and protection.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the data was released by the Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell (PPAC), a body under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. The other options are related entities but not mentioned as the data source.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: import volumes declined 4.5%. Statement 2 is incorrect: $67/barrel was the price in the corresponding quarter last year, while Q1 FY26 price was $113/barrel. Statement 3 is correct: import dependence was 89.1% as per PPAC data. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'every $1-per-barrel increase in oil prices bumps up the country's oil import bill by up to $2 billion on an annualised basis.' This is a direct data point from the article.

Explanation

The article discusses that energy imports are a major component of India's overall imports, and any meaningful increase has ramifications for the trade balance, current account, inflation, and exchange rate. Nomura's report specifically links higher oil prices to a widening of the current account deficit. The other options are opposite effects.

Explanation

The article states that the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) granted market authorisation to Takeda's QDENGA. The WHO recommended the vaccine but did not grant approval for India; the DCGI is the nodal authority under CDSCO for vaccine approval in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article describes QDENGA as a live-attenuated tetravalent vaccine for all four serotypes. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article explicitly says it can be administered irrespective of previous infection and does NOT require pre-vaccination screening. Statement 3 is correct: it is a two-dose regimen with doses three months apart.

Explanation

The article specifies that at 18 months, the vaccine demonstrated 90.4% efficacy against dengue-related hospitalisation. The other options are distractors: 80.2% is the efficacy against virologically confirmed dengue at 12 months, and 84.1% is the efficacy against hospitalisation at 4.5 years follow-up.

Explanation

The article highlights that QDENGA can be administered regardless of prior infection and without pre-vaccination screening. This simplifies logistics and reduces costs, making it more feasible for large-scale public health programs, especially in resource-limited settings. Options A and C are not supported; D is contrary to the vaccine's broad efficacy.

Explanation

The petitioners argued that the APAAR scheme violates the fundamental right to privacy under Article 21 of the Constitution. The Supreme Court has held that the right to privacy is an integral part of Article 21.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the SC assured it would pass an order requiring CBSE to comply with the Orissa HC judgment pan-India. Statement 2 is incorrect: the judgment was delivered on December 12, 2025, not 2026. Statement 3 is correct: the petitioners cited the DPDP Act, 2023 as one of the legal grounds.

Explanation

The article mentions that the de facto mandate was formally mandated by CBSE for students in Classes 9 to 12 to appear in Board examinations from 2026 onwards. This corresponds to the academic year 2026-27.

Explanation

Petitioners alleged that the APAAR scheme is not a neutral recordkeeping utility but an infrastructure of pervasive state monitoring of children's educational trajectories, raising concerns of surveillance, profiling, and function creep. They argued it violates the right to privacy under Article 21 and the DPDP Act, 2023.

Explanation

The article states that the Union Ministry of Home Affairs issued the guidelines regarding the singing and playing of the national song. The MHA is the nodal ministry for matters related to national symbols and internal security.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct - the Bill aims to place 'Vande Mataram' on a par with 'Jana Gana Mana'. Statement 2 is incorrect - the Bill targets intentional prevention of singing or causing disturbance, not respectful silence. The Bijoe Emmanuel case protects the right to stand respectfully without singing. Statement 3 is correct - the Bill amends the 1971 Act.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Section 3 of the Act makes intentionally preventing the singing of the national anthem a criminal offence punishable with imprisonment of up to three years, a fine, or both. The Bill proposes to extend this same provision to the national song.

Explanation

The Supreme Court in Bijoe Emmanuel held that proper respect is shown by standing up when the national anthem is sung, and it is not disrespect to not join in singing. The Court emphasized that there is no legal provision obliging anyone to sing. This distinction between active disruption (criminal) and respectful silence (protected) is crucial for interpreting the new Bill.

Explanation

The article states that the DCGI approved the vaccine. DCGI is the head of CDSCO, the national regulatory authority for drugs and vaccines in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article calls it the first dengue vaccine approved in India. Statement 2 is incorrect because the vaccine does not require pre-vaccination testing. Statement 3 is correct as it protects against DENV-1 to 4. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions that at 18 months, the study demonstrated 90.4% efficacy against dengue-related hospitalization. 80.2% is the efficacy against virologically confirmed dengue at 12 months, and 84.1% is the efficacy against hospitalization at 4.5 years.

Explanation

The article highlights that India carries a substantial dengue burden (nearly one-third of global cases) with rising incidence. The vaccine offers a new preventive tool alongside vector control. Option A is wrong because vector control remains important; option C is wrong because the age group is 4-60; option D is speculative as pricing is not announced.

Explanation

The Chenab is one of the five rivers of the Indus system. The article mentions 'Indus basin' in the context of India's legitimate rights. The Indus Waters Treaty allocates the Chenab to Pakistan as a western river.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says India put the IWT 'in abeyance' a year after the Pahalgam attack (2025). Statement 2 is incorrect: the treaty is in abeyance, not permanently terminated; the government seeks renegotiation, not termination. Statement 3 is correct: sources said Kiru and Pakal projects are expected to be completed by the end of this year (2026). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article lists five projects: Sawalkote (1,856 MW), Pakal Dul (1,000 MW), Ratle (850 MW), Kiru (624 MW), and Kwar (540 MW). Dulhasti is a different project on the Chenab but not mentioned in the news. Hence it is the correct answer.

Explanation

The article states these projects are 'critical for India's clean energy transition, grid stability and regional development'. It also mentions enabling 'fuller utilisation of its legitimate rights under the Indus basin'. Option A is not mentioned; Option C is contrary to the legitimate use; Option D is not referenced. Hence B is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that Trump signed proclamations invoking Section 338 of the 1930 Trade Act, a rarely used provision based on trade discrimination claims. The other options are common US trade remedy laws but were not used in this instance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because energy, potash, fish, and critical minerals are exempted from the 50% tariff. Statement 2 is correct as Section 338 is based on trade discrimination, not emergency powers. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions Canada’s existing 25% counter-tariffs on US steel, aluminum, and vehicles.

Explanation

The article headline and text clearly state a 50% tariff on most Canadian goods. The other percentages appear as existing tariffs on different products (e.g., 35% on softwood lumber, 25% on non-US car parts, and Canada’s 25% counter-tariffs).

Explanation

The article states that Canada’s supply management system caps foreign imports and slaps tariffs exceeding 300% on anything above that limit, which the US considers an unfair trade practice. Option A is opposite, C is false, D is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article states that snakebite was declared a notifiable disease under the Kerala Public Health Act. The Epidemic Diseases Act is a central law, while the Kerala Public Health Act is a state-specific legislation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: L1 centres for basic stabilisation, reachable within 30 minutes. Statement 2 is correct: a 24-hour State helpline for clinical guidance, facilitation of referrals, and species identification. Statement 3 is incorrect because snakebite was declared notifiable under the Kerala Public Health Act, not the National Health Mission.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'An estimated 8,000 snakebite incidents are reported every year in the State.' The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article clearly states the target: 'zero snakebite deaths and disabilities by 2030'. While other options are related (e.g., snake rescues, ASV availability, training), they are means to achieve the primary objective, not the objective itself.

Explanation

The article states that the Mylatti BESS project is being implemented by SECI (Solar Energy Corporation of India), a CPSU under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. NHPC is the implementing agency for the Mulleria substation project.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because JSW Energy is the developer for the Mylatti project, not the Mulleria project; Opera Energy is the developer for Mulleria. Statement 3 is correct as both projects are scheduled for completion by October 15-16, 2026.

Explanation

The article mentions that the Mylatti BESS has a daily storage capacity of 5 lakh units of electricity. Option A (60,000 units) is the daily storage capacity of the Mulleria project. Options C and D refer to the energy and power capacity respectively, not the daily storage in units.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the BESS will store surplus solar power generated during the daytime and supply it during evenings when there is peak demand, helping stabilize voltage, prevent power shortages, and reduce dependence on costly external power purchases.

Explanation

As per the article, UPI is authorised under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007. The RBI and NPCI operate under this act for payment system regulation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article (24,161.69 crore transactions in FY25-26). Statement 2 is incorrect: the first country was Bhutan in July 2021, not Singapore. Statement 3 is correct: NIPL is a wholly owned subsidiary of NPCI set up in April 2020.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that in FY 2025-26, UPI processed transactions worth ₹314.23 lakh crore. The other options are values from previous years: ₹260.56 (FY25), ₹199.95 (FY24), ₹84.16 (FY22).

Explanation

The article states that NIPL works with foreign institutions to expand NPCI's payment platforms, including UPI and RuPay, to international markets, enabling cross-border payments and helping partner countries build similar infrastructure.

Explanation

The article specifically cites UNIDO statistics for 2025, showing China's 27.4% and India's 3% share of global manufacturing value addition. The World Bank data is used for overall MVA figures ($4.82 trillion vs $532.92 billion), but the global share data comes from UNIDO.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India is the second-largest mobile phone manufacturer, and the article notes that much of its electronics success remains assembly-led. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article states that China's industrial internet applications cover all 41 major industrial sectors, not India's. Statement 3 is correct: the exact figures mentioned are Rs 1.9 lakh crore in 2014-15 and Rs 11.3 lakh crore in 2024-25.

Explanation

The article clearly states that India's manufacturing value-added in 2025 was USD 532.92 billion, against China's USD 4.82 trillion. Option D ($4.82 trillion) is China's figure, making it a common distractor.

Explanation

The article explicitly defines shallow manufacturing as importing most components and assembling final products, while deep manufacturing involves building domestic suppliers, skills, machines, and technology. The real choice for India is between these two models, not between replicating China or not.

Explanation

The Index of Core Industries (ICI) is released by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, as mentioned in the article. The ministry oversees the compilation and revision of this key economic indicator.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The base year was changed from 2011-12 to 2022-23. Statement 2 is correct: Iron ore was added with a weight of 4.9%. Statement 3 is incorrect: The new series actually downgraded the 2024-25 growth from 6.9% to 4.3%, not upgraded.

Explanation

The article states that iron ore output was 43.9% higher compared to June 2025, though this was partly due to a low base effect. Option A (4.9%) is the weight of iron ore in the index, option B (19%) is its estimated May growth, and option D (5%) is the overall ICI growth.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that iron ore was added 'due to its extensive industry use and significant contribution to industrial development'. The other options are not supported by the article; iron ore's weight is only 4.9%, its growth in June was high but not always above 20%, and it did not replace any sector.

Explanation

The 52nd Constitutional Amendment (1985) added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, establishing the anti-defection law. The 91st Amendment (2003) later tightened it.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 91st Amendment abolished the exemption for a bloc of one-third members, not reduced it. Statement 3 is correct as per the amendment. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The Supreme Court has repeatedly observed that disqualification petitions should ordinarily be decided within three months. The article mentions that some Rajya Sabha Chairmen have echoed this expectation.

Explanation

The article proposes that any elected representative who resigns from the party on whose ticket they were elected should automatically vacate their seat, and must seek a fresh mandate. This would shift the authority from party managers to the electorate.

Explanation

The article states that APAAR ID was launched by the Ministry of Education under the National Education Policy (NEP). The other ministries are not involved in this scheme.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: SC said it will direct CBSE to implement the Orissa HC order pan-India. Statement 2 is incorrect: the scheme is non-statutory and though on paper voluntary, Aadhaar is needed to create APAAR, making it practically mandatory. Statement 3 is correct: Senior Advocate Indira Jaising argued the consent form violates the Data Protection Act, 2023.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'Every student is assigned a unique, lifelong 12-digit identification number under APAAR'. The other numbers are distractors.

Explanation

Petitioners argued that the scheme is non-statutory and collects personal data without a law, violating the right to privacy as per Puttaswamy judgment. They also highlighted the need for proportionality and informed consent.

Explanation

Article 19(1)(b) specifically guarantees the right to assemble peaceably and without arms. Article 19(1)(a) deals with freedom of speech and expression, Article 19(1)(c) with forming associations, and Article 19(1)(d) with moving freely throughout India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Himat Lal Shah case distinguished between reasonable regulation and arbitrary exclusion. Statement 2 is incorrect: Section 163 BNSS replaced Section 144 CrPC, but the law is not identical; it is a new provision with updated language. Statement 3 is correct: The Shaheen Bagh judgment reaffirmed that protests must be in designated areas without blocking public roads. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the general practice to regulate protests in India involves imposing prohibitory orders under Section 163 of the BNSS, which is the successor to Section 144 of the CrPC. The other options are incorrect as they are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Section 163 BNSS is used to issue orders in urgent cases of nuisance or apprehended danger to prevent obstruction, annoyance, or injury. Its purpose is to regulate the time, place, and manner of protests to balance the right to protest with public order, not to ban protests entirely. The article emphasizes that regulation must not become prohibition.

Explanation

Section 163 BNSS empowers an Executive Magistrate to issue written orders for immediate prevention of obstruction, annoyance, or danger to public order. This is a key distinction from judicial functions, and examiners often test this specific point.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the study found only 81 out of ~5,400 orders (1.5%) targeted unlawful assemblies. Statement 2 is incorrect: the provision lapses within two months once the threat has passed, though orders are often reissued. Statement 3 is correct: the Supreme Court in Babulal Parate (1961) held the power is conditioned by circumstances and not unlimited. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The study found that 43% of orders required businesses (courier services, cyber cafes, secondhand goods dealers) to maintain customer or employee records. The other options are distractors: 1.5% was for assembly bans, 25.6% for CCTV installation, and 81 is the absolute number of assembly-related orders.

Explanation

The Supreme Court set aside a blanket ban on protests along Jantar Mantar Road, noting that authorities had turned a permission-based restriction into an outright ban by never actually granting permission. The Court directed the framing of a regulated permission mechanism instead. This highlights the judicial concern over the misuse of preventive powers to impose blanket restrictions.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Union Minister of State for Petroleum and Natural Gas, Suresh Gopi, replied in Rajya Sabha regarding LPG cylinder prices and subsidies. This ministry oversees oil and gas sectors including LPG.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India imports ~60% LPG, and ~90% of imports passed through Strait of Hormuz. Statement 2 is incorrect: The compensation amounts are swapped – FY 2022-23 was ₹22,000 crore and FY 2025-26 is ₹30,000 crore. Statement 3 is correct: The retail price for non-PMUY is ₹942 per cylinder in July 2026.

Explanation

The article states that the total subsidy on LPG for FY 2022-23 was ₹28,965 crore (highest in the five-year period). ₹22,000 crore is the compensation paid to OMCs in that year, not the total subsidy. ₹30,000 crore is the compensation approved for FY 2025-26. ₹23,559 crore is the subsidy up to Dec 2025 for FY 2025-26.

Explanation

The article mentions that the government took measures like rapid increase in LPG production, prioritization of household usage, diversification of import sources, and dynamic stock management to address the sharp drop in imported supplies due to the Strait of Hormuz closure. The focus was on maintaining supply stability for domestic consumers.

Explanation

As per the IRDAI Master Circular, amounts unclaimed for over 10 years are transferred to the Senior Citizens' Welfare Fund, which is managed by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the data released in Lok Sabha. Statement 2 is correct as per the EPFO rules. Statement 3 is incorrect because the government has stated that there is no proposal to utilise these funds for any other purposes.

Explanation

The Union Minister stated that the total amount lying in inoperative EPF accounts under para 72(6) of EPF Scheme, 1952 (now para 55 of EPF Scheme, 2026) as on 31.03.2026 is ₹9,330.56 crore. The other options refer to LIC amounts.

Explanation

The EPFO pilot, approved by the Central Board of Trustees, aims to auto-initiate claim settlement for Aadhaar-verified inoperative accounts with balances of ₹1,000 or less, crediting directly to bank accounts without requiring fresh claims or documentation.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Skyroot Aerospace was founded in 2018 by two former ISRO engineers. This is a static linkage question testing knowledge of the background of India's first private orbital launch company.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Vikram-1 is a four-stage launcher providing a 'cab service' for satellites. Statement 2 is correct: the article says target price is below PSLV and above SSLV (projected). Statement 3 is incorrect: India is the third country (after US and China) to host private enterprise that has demonstrated orbital launch capability, not the first.

Explanation

The article mentions the government's ambition to grow the national space economy to $44 billion by 2033 from around $8 billion. Options A and C are distractors: $8 billion is the current size, and $100 billion is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India lacks a Space Activities Act, leaving liability to be governed by policy, contracts, existing law, and international commitments, which creates long-term regulatory uncertainty. The other options are either addressed by reforms (FDI is allowed) or are not the primary cause of regulatory uncertainty.

Explanation

SEBI is the statutory regulator for securities markets in India, including derivatives like Futures and Options. The article directly refers to SEBI reports on F&O, confirming its oversight role.

Explanation

Statement 1 correctly defines F&O contracts as derivatives. Statement 2 is false: institutions use F&O for hedging, not speculation. Statement 3 is directly from the article: SEBI research shows 97% of institutional profits come from algorithmic trading. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'SEBI's research reveals that 97% of institutional profits and 96% of proprietary trading profits in the Indian F&O market are generated by algorithmic trading.' The other options are distractors: 86.3% is the male proportion of retail investors, 75% earn below ₹5 lakh, and 96% is proprietary trading profits.

Explanation

The article highlights that retail traders suffer losses leading to debt and multiple suicide cases. It contrasts their experience with institutional profits from algorithmic trading. Option A is incorrect as profits are for institutions. Option B contradicts the article which says retail participants are there to speculate. Option D is false as 72% are from tier-2/3 cities and 75% earn less than ₹5 lakh.

Explanation

The article states that on September 28, 2021, SEBI approved the framework for Gold Exchange and SEBI (Vault Managers) Regulations, 2021. SEBI is the regulator for securities markets in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: vaults are regulated by SEBI, not RBI. Statement 2 is incorrect: BSE launched EGRs first on October 24, 2022, and NSE launched in May 2026. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions purity standards of 999 (99.9%) and 995 (99.5%).

Explanation

The article states that in each purity category (995 and 999), investors have six different denominations: 10 mg, 100 mg, 1 g, 10 g, 100 g, and 1 kg. Hence, 6 denominations.

Explanation

The article states that the initiative aims at improving transparency in gold pricing, standardising quality, and providing investors with a regulated and secure way to own the yellow metal. The other options are either secondary or not mentioned.

Explanation

The BSF is a central armed police force under the Ministry of Home Affairs, responsible for guarding India's international borders, including the Indo-Bangladesh border mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions a 90-km stretch. Statement 2 is correct as the BSF earlier explored releasing snakes and crocodiles. Statement 3 is incorrect because experts are divided; some fear adverse effects on wildlife movement.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the BSF is studying a 90-km stretch of mangrove forests in the Indo-Bangladesh border for erecting fences.

Explanation

The article quotes a scientist who fears the fence could adversely affect movement of species like deer, wild boar, crocodiles, and tigers that constantly cross rivers and sandbanks. Other options are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the data on international students was sourced from the Immigration, Refugees and Citizenship Canada (IRCC). This department handles study permits, permanent residency, and immigration policy. CBSA handles border enforcement, Global Affairs handles foreign policy, and National Defence handles military matters.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states overall student numbers fell by 44% from 6.8 lakh (2023) to 3.8 lakh (2025). Statement 2 is correct: Indian students fell by 66% from 2.78 lakh to 93,915. Statement 3 is incorrect: the rejection rate for Indian applications was 74%, not 24% (24% was the rejection rate for Chinese students).

Explanation

The article states that April 2026 data showed a 16% drop compared with April 2025. The 44% figure refers to the overall decline in total student permits in Canada from 2023 to 2025. The 66% figure refers to the decline in Indian students from 2023 to 2025. The 81% figure refers to the drop in permits issued to Indians from April 2024 to April 2025.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Canada's shift to allow far fewer students is part of its 'bid to bring immigration back to sustainable levels, as articulated in its 2026-2028 ILP.' Option A is the opposite of the policy. Option C is not stated; the article notes higher rejection rates for Indians but does not cite this as an objective. Option D refers to a different category of immigrants.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Andhra Pradesh High Court, comprising Justices Battu Devanand and Subhendu Samanta, delivered the judgment on July 17, 2026.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the 85th Amendment added 'with consequential seniority'. Statement 2 is incorrect: CAT had quashed the promotions and directed redrawing of seniority lists. Statement 3 is incorrect: the court held that the 85th Amendment rendered the catch-up rule inoperative. Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly mentions that the CAT order was passed on October 21, 2024, and the High Court quashed it on July 17, 2026.

Explanation

The court stated that the Constitution does not stop at 'mere formal equality' but seeks to achieve 'substantive equality' by addressing historical disadvantages. This principle underpins the validity of consequential seniority for SC/ST employees.

Explanation

According to the article, China and 29 countries signed an agreement to create the World AI Cooperation Organisation (WAICO), which is now operational. The other options are either not mentioned or are different initiatives.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: WAICO was proposed at last year's (2025) WAIC and is now operational. Statement 2 is incorrect: WAICO aims to ensure AI developments are accessible to everyone, including developing countries, not just signatories. Statement 3 is correct: Xi Jinping spoke about guarding against 'overstretching' of national security concerns. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that along with China, 29 countries signed the agreement. The other options are round numbers used as distractors. 29 is the exact figure mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article highlights that WAICO is an alternative to Western AI governance and that Xi's speech emphasised inclusivity and universal access, appealing to developing countries. China is intervening at the rule-making stage, which is unprecedented. Options A, C, and D are false: China has participated earlier, WAICO does not replace the UN, and it does not restrict AI to only US and China.

Explanation

The Department of Fertilizers, under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers, is the nodal body for fertiliser policy including urea. The article explicitly states that the Department of Fertilizers introduced NIP-2012 and will cover new gas-based units under NIPU-2026.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as NIPU-2026 introduces a 12-16% RoE band. Statement 2 is incorrect — the policy covers only gas-based urea manufacturing units, not coal-based. Statement 3 is correct as the policy addresses forex risk by converting fixed costs to rupees after 4 years at prevailing exchange rate. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India has 33 operational urea manufacturing units with a reassessed installed capacity of 269.42 lakh metric tonnes (LMT). The other options are close distractors designed to test precise recall of the number.

Explanation

The article states NIPU-2026 aims to achieve self-sufficiency under Atmanirbhar Bharat by encouraging investment in gas-based urea units and boosting domestic production to narrow the demand-supply gap. Reducing retail price or phasing out subsidies are not objectives; the policy focuses on production capacity.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Madhya Pradesh government introduced the UCC Bill on July 20, 2026. Uttarakhand already has a UCC, but this news is about Madhya Pradesh.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect – the Opposition used an adjournment motion, not a privilege motion. Statement 3 is correct because the Speaker adjourned the House for 30 minutes.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the bill was introduced on Monday, July 20, 2026. The discussion was scheduled for July 21.

Explanation

The article states that Leader of Opposition Umang Singhar raised the issue of land purchases linked to the Chief Minister through an adjournment motion. The UCC Bill was introduced by the government, not the Opposition's demand.

Explanation

The National Medical Commission (NMC), established under the NMC Act 2019, is the apex regulator of medical education in India. It replaced the Medical Council of India (MCI) and has taken the decision to end PG diploma courses from 2027-28.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Bhore Committee distinguished between a consultant pathway (MD/MS) and a practitioner pathway (diploma). Statement 2 is incorrect: The Sokhey Committee (1938) was appointed under the National Planning Committee chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru, which was an Indian initiative, not a British colonial one. Statement 3 is correct: The Mudaliar Committee recommended diploma courses for secondary care.

Explanation

The NMC's communication states that 2026-27 is the last academic year for admissions into PG diploma courses, and from 2027-28, no fresh admissions will be permitted. All existing seats will be converted into broad speciality MD or MS seats.

Explanation

As highlighted by the Bhore and Mudaliar Committees, diploma courses were designed to quickly produce doctors with specialist skills (e.g., performing C-sections, managing TB, reading X-rays) who could serve in district, taluk, and rural hospitals where full specialist networks were unavailable.

Explanation

The article states that the Ministry of Commerce and Industry released the new series of the ICI. The Office of Economic Adviser in the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), which is under this ministry, publishes the index.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct — the new base year is 2022-23 (old was 2011-12). Statement 2 is incorrect — the new ICI covers 9 sectors, not 10. Statement 3 is correct — iron ore grew 43.9% in June 2026. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically states that electricity generation grew by 9.8% in June 2026. The other options are distractors: 11.2% was the growth in May 2026, 5.0% is the overall core sector growth, and 4.6% is the steel sector growth.

Explanation

According to the article, economist Madan Sabnavis attributed the contraction in crude oil, gas, refinery, and fertiliser sectors to higher imports as global crude prices cooled off. The export of refinery products also slowed down, and fertiliser imports increased. This is a real-world example of how global price trends affect domestic production.

Explanation

The Juvenile Justice Act, 2015, is the primary legislation for juveniles in conflict with law. It emphasises reform and prohibits stigmatisation. The Public Safety Act is a preventive detention law, not meant for juveniles.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the court ruled that juvenile acts CANNOT justify preventive detention after majority. Statement 2 is correct: the Juvenile Justice Board granted bail in August 2022. Statement 3 is correct: the DM Shopian issued the detention order on April 28, 2025.

Explanation

The article states the High Court delivered the judgment on July 17, 2026. July 20, 2026 is the publication date of the news. April 28, 2025 is the date of the detention order. August 2022 is when bail was granted.

Explanation

The court explicitly held that juvenile acts do not stigmatise the future and cannot form the basis of preventive detention under PSA. This protects the rehabilitative principle of the Juvenile Justice Act. The ruling does not strike down PSA or change trial procedures for juveniles.

Explanation

The Ministry of Jal Shakti, through the National Water Development Agency (NWDA), is responsible for river-linking projects. The environment ministry provides clearance, but the nodal ministry for execution is Jal Shakti.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Ken-Betwa Link is India's first river-linking project under the NRLP. Statement 2 is incorrect: only parts of the Panna Tiger Reserve are expected to be submerged. Statement 3 is correct: Amit Bhatnagar, founder of Jai Kisan Sangathan, led the protest. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the Union Government’s ₹44,000 crore Ken-Betwa Link Project. The other options are close distractors – ₹40,000 and ₹45,000 are not correct.

Explanation

The article cites multiple grievances: inadequate compensation, loss of forest rights under the Forest Rights Act, and ecological damage to Panna Tiger Reserve. Therefore, all options are valid reasons for the opposition.

Explanation

The Cauvery Water Management Authority (CWMA) was established to ensure compliance with the CWDT award as modified by the Supreme Court. The CWRC is a technical committee that recommends releases, while CWMA is the overarching authority.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The water year starts on June 1. Statement 2 is incorrect: Biligundulu is the inter-State point between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, not Kerala. Statement 3 is correct: Mettur dam is indeed the lifeline of the Cauvery delta.

Explanation

The article states that the water level at Mettur dam stood at 75.14 ft, against the full level of 120 ft. Option C (93.47 ft) is the capacity in tmc ft, not the water level. Option D is the full reservoir level.

Explanation

The deficit directly impacts the Cauvery delta's agriculture, especially the kharif (samba) crop which depends on water released from Mettur dam. While political tensions may arise, the core issue is agricultural distress in the delta region.