17 July 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

Article 368 of the Constitution empowers Parliament to amend the Constitution and specifies the procedure, including the requirement of a two-thirds majority of members present and voting and a majority of the total strength of the House for most amendments.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Bill seeks to increase Lok Sabha strength to 850. Statement 2 is incorrect because constitutional amendments under Article 368 require a two-thirds majority of members present and voting, not a simple majority. Statement 3 is correct as the Bill provides the constitutional basis for implementing the Women's Reservation law.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the current strength of the Lok Sabha is 543, and the Bill seeks to increase it to 850. Option B (550) and Option D (360) are distractors. Option C (850) is the proposed strength, not the current one.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that for the Opposition, the immediate objective is to keep the NDA below the 360-vote threshold, as this would prevent the ruling alliance from securing the two-thirds majority needed to pass the constitutional amendment, even if they emerge as the single largest bloc.

Explanation

The Bab el-Mandeb Strait connects the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden. It is a key maritime chokepoint for oil shipments, especially for Gulf oil rerouted via the Red Sea after the Hormuz Strait closure. The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman, and the Strait of Malacca lies between Southeast Asia and India. The Suez Canal is a man-made waterway connecting the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article clearly states that Iran asked Houthis to be prepared to close the Red Sea route if US strikes Iranian power infrastructure. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article mentions that the Hormuz Strait is already closed (partially blocked after February 28 attacks). Statement 3 is correct: The article says India's Russian Urals cargoes pass through the Suez Canal and Bab el-Mandeb. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article cites data from Kpler that petroleum volumes transiting Bab el-Mandeb hit 7.4 million barrels per day in June, about 7% of global output. The other options are distractors: 4.2 million bpd was the volume a year earlier, 7.0 million bpd is close but not exact, and 5.6 million bpd is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India sources the bulk of its crude from the Gulf and Russia, and both supply lines run through the threatened chokepoints – Gulf barrels via Hormuz/Red Sea, and Russian Urals via Suez/Bab el-Mandeb. A blockade of Bab el-Mandeb would disrupt both, making energy security the primary concern. The other options are not mentioned as primary concerns.

Explanation

The Ministry of Commerce & Industry releases the Index of Core Industries (ICI). While MoSPI handles the IIP, CPI, and GDP, the ICI is under the purview of the Commerce Ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: iron ore has been added as the ninth core industry. Statement 2 is incorrect: the new base year for the ICI is 2022-23, not 2011-12 (which was the old base year). Statement 3 is correct: it accounts for about 40% of the IIP.

Explanation

The article states that core sector growth in 2025-26 was 2.7%, down from 4.5% in 2024-25. The 0.5% figure refers to the growth in May 2026 specifically.

Explanation

The official government statement cited 'extensive use of iron ore in industrial production and its significant contribution to industrial development' as the reason for its inclusion. The other options, while plausible, are not the stated primary objective in the news.

Explanation

Indian Railways, under the Ministry of Railways, operates all trains in India including the newly launched hydrogen train. While MNRE and MoEFCC are involved in green hydrogen policy, the operational responsibility lies with the Railways Ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the train is 10-coach, 3200 HP, and the world's longest. Statement 2 is correct as the route is Jind-Sonipat (89 km, 12 stations). Statement 3 is incorrect because in 2014 only 30% was electrified; 99% was achieved by 2026.

Explanation

The hydrogen train will cover the 89-km Jind-Sonipat route. The other options are distractors: 99% is the electrification percentage, and 100/120 are not mentioned.

Explanation

Hydrogen fuel cells produce electricity through a chemical reaction between hydrogen and oxygen, emitting only water vapor. This makes hydrogen trains a zero-emission alternative to diesel trains, aligning with India's climate goals. The article also calls it 'smokeless'.

Explanation

The hydrogen train is a project of Indian Railways, which falls under the Ministry of Railways. While the National Green Hydrogen Mission is under MNRE, the train's deployment and operation are managed by the Railways.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the train was launched in Jind, Haryana. Statement 2 is correct because hydrogen fuel cells produce only water vapor. Statement 3 is incorrect because hydrogen trains use fuel cells, not combustion engines.

Explanation

According to the news article, the hydrogen train was flagged off on July 17, 2026. The other options are close distractors representing other years in the same decade.

Explanation

Hydrogen fuel cells convert hydrogen into electricity electrochemically, with water vapor as the only emission. This makes them a clean alternative to diesel, contributing to India's net-zero goals.

Explanation

The SARFAESI Act was enacted in 2002 to allow banks and financial institutions to recover bad debts by taking control of secured assets without court intervention. The article mentions the Act as the basis for public auction of SNFA assets.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the train uses a PEM fuel cell. Statement 2 is correct: the only by-products are water vapour and heat. Statement 3 is incorrect: Germany was the first country to introduce commercial hydrogen passenger trains, later followed by other countries including France, Italy, China, and Japan. India's is the first in India, but not the world.

Explanation

The article states that the visa for journalists would be for up to 240 days, or in the case of Chinese nationals, 90 days. The visa holders could apply for extensions. This is a key data point for prelims questions on US visa policies.

Explanation

The RBI introduced the SNFA framework to prevent the practice of defaulters reclaiming seized assets and to ensure transparency. Banks are prohibited from selling repossessed properties back to the original borrower or related parties. The framework also requires public auctions under SARFAESI principles. This improves the integrity of the asset recovery process.

Explanation

Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas are under the Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education. They are centrally funded and run by the Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the court ruled that a transitional area is NOT rural. Statement 2 is correct: the court quoted Bhartruhari. Statement 3 is incorrect: 75% seats are reserved for rural students, not urban. Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Explanation

As per the JNV scheme, 75% of seats are reserved for rural students to uplift talented children from rural areas and provide them quality education.

Explanation

The court held that Pombhurna, being a nagar panchayat (transitional area), is not a rural area. Since the student studied there for a few months in Class 3, she lost eligibility for the rural quota.

Explanation

The Supreme Court linked the case to Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty), which has been expansively interpreted to include the right to health and access to essential medicines. The case title itself mentions 'Judicial Expediency in Article 21 Matters'.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the original petition sought a government-use licence under the Patents Act. Statement 2 is correct as the Centre rejected the request on the 'national urgency' threshold. Statement 3 is incorrect because the matter had been listed 57 times WITHOUT reaching a conclusion, not with a final judgment.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Ribociclib costs ₹78,468 per month. The other options are close distractors designed to test precise recall of this data point.

Explanation

The article states that the original petition sought a government-use licence under the Patents Act to facilitate the manufacture of a lower-cost version of Ribociclib. This is a form of compulsory licensing used in cases of national emergency or extreme urgency to override patent protection in public interest.

Explanation

The hydrogen-powered train is an initiative of Indian Railways, which operates under the Ministry of Railways. The project aligns with the Railways' decarbonisation goals, but the nodal ministry remains Railways. The other ministries are involved in policy support but not direct implementation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct (route Jind-Sonipat). Statement 2 is false – the article explicitly says 'designed by Indian engineers' and 'manufactured by an Indian company', not imported. Statement 3 is correct as per the PM's speech. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The article quotes PM Modi saying 'nearly 99% of India's rail network has been electrified'. The other options are plausible distractors, but 99% is the exact figure mentioned. 100% is likely the target, but not yet achieved.

Explanation

PM Modi explicitly linked the launch to the ongoing tensions in the Hormuz region, stating that if the situation had occurred before 2014 (when rail was heavily diesel-dependent), operations would have come to a standstill. The 99% electrification ensured continued operations. The hydrogen train itself is a green technology, but the energy security angle was about the broader electrification, not the hydrogen train alone.

Explanation

EPFO is a statutory body under the Ministry of Labour and Employment. The article mentions that the nodal agency for the new scheme is yet to be finalised by the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the scheme adopts a defined contribution framework with multiple contribution sources. Statement 2 is incorrect because the scheme allows systematic withdrawal plans in addition to annuities, unlike NPS which is purely annuity-based. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions a pooled 'Family Benefit Fund' for survivor pensions.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that out of India's 55 crore workforce, 76% or nearly 41.8 crore workers are in the unorganised sector with limited or no pension coverage.

Explanation

The article states the scheme aims to cover workers currently excluded from EPS, including unorganised sector workers, gig and platform workers, and higher-wage workers. It does not replace EPS but complements it by extending coverage to excluded segments.

Explanation

The India Semiconductor Mission falls under the purview of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), which is the nodal ministry for all semiconductor and electronics manufacturing policies in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The article explicitly states that subsidies for technology transfer costs have been removed under ISM 2.0. Statement 2 is correct: Silicon fab subsidy reduced from 50% (ISM 1.0) to 40% (ISM 2.0). Statement 3 is correct: Research-linked subsidies for cutting-edge chips (especially 7nm) can attract up to 75% from Centre and state combined.

Explanation

The Union Cabinet approved ISM 2.0 with an outlay of ₹1.27 lakh crore. ₹76,000 crore was the outlay for ISM 1.0. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

ISM 2.0 shifts priority to chip designing first, then building the supply chain ecosystem, and finally subsidising new manufacturing units. This marks a departure from ISM 1.0 which focused heavily on attracting fabs through high capex subsidies. The article explicitly states this new order of priorities.

Explanation

NALSA is a statutory body created under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. It filed the petition based on prison inspections that revealed a lack of a common framework for releasing aged and terminally ill inmates. The other options are also statutory but unrelated to this specific petition.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the deadline given is three months, not six months. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the judgment - the definition should be drawn from the UNODC Handbook, and independent medical boards must be set up to certify cases.

Explanation

The article specifically states that India's prisons had an occupancy rate of 131% as of December 31, 2022. This data point highlights the severe overcrowding issue that the judgment aims to address partially through the early release of eligible prisoners.

Explanation

The court observed that elderly and terminally ill inmates are entitled to a humane mechanism for remission or early release. While reducing overcrowding is a secondary benefit, the core objective is compassion and human dignity, as stated in the judgment.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions the textile belts in Warangal and Mangalagiri, which are located in the state of Telangana. These regions are known for traditional fabrics and are expected to see increased demand from U.K. fashion houses.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states CETA came into force on July 15. Statement 2 is incorrect because the special visa quota of 1,800 is for chefs, yoga teachers, and classical musicians, not IT professionals. Statement 3 is correct as the article highlights increased sourcing of textiles, agri-produce, spices, and marine products from Telangana.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that Telangana's existing exports to the U.K. stand at ₹3,553 crore, and the CETA presents an opportunity to increase this figure significantly.

Explanation

The article states that pharmaceuticals and life sciences will gain with reduction in tariffs, and the agreement will open up vistas for collaboration in research and development. It is not about a ban, nor primarily about hospital setup, but about trade and innovation.

Explanation

The VBSA Bill, 2025 proposes to dissolve the UGC, AICTE, and NCTE to create a single unified regulatory commission. NAAC, NMC, and BCI are not mentioned for dissolution in this Bill.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Bill dissolves UGC, AICTE, and NCTE to form a single regulator. Statement 2 is correct as the Bill aims to implement NEP 2020 by creating three councils for regulation, accreditation, and standards. Statement 3 is incorrect because the committee suggested that other members (besides presidents and full-time members) be appointed by the Central government, not the President, to avoid delays.

Explanation

The article states that the Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha in December last year. Since the article is published on July 17, 2026, 'last year' refers to 2025. Hence, the Bill was introduced in December 2025.

Explanation

The committee explicitly expressed apprehension that concentration of extensive regulatory powers in a single central regulator could lead to bureaucratic or ideological overreach, thereby affecting the institutional autonomy currently available under the UGC framework.

Explanation

The RBI, through its Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), is responsible for setting the repo rate to maintain price stability while keeping growth in mind. The Ministry of Finance handles fiscal policy, SEBI regulates securities markets, and NITI Aayog is a policy think tank.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: retail inflation rose to 4.38% in June 2026, breaching the RBI's 4% target. Statement 2 is correct: the article mentions WPI is now based on 2022-23. Statement 3 is incorrect: the government doubled import duties on gold and silver from 6% to 15% in May 2026, not reduced them.

Explanation

The article states that Wholesale Inflation (WPI) remained elevated at 9.87% in June, up from 9.68% in May. Option A (4.38%) is the retail inflation (CPI) rate. Option D (27.41%) is the fuel and power component of WPI.

Explanation

The article explicitly concludes that 'inflation is unlikely to return to the RBI's 4% target soon, leaving no room for a rate cut at the Monetary Policy Committee's August meeting.' With inflation above target and driven by imported factors, the MPC is expected to maintain a cautious stance.

Explanation

Article 44 of the Indian Constitution, under the Directive Principles of State Policy, directs the State to secure a Uniform Civil Code for citizens. It is non-justiciable but fundamental in governance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as PM Rajiv Gandhi disclosed the UCC bill readiness. Statement 2 is incorrect because China rejected the protest as 'unjustified'. Statement 3 is correct because Sri Lanka agreed to reformulate land settlement proposals after TULF talks. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that Pakistan had enriched uranium at its Kahuta plant in excess of the 5 per cent ceiling, set in 1984 by President Ronald Reagan as a condition for continuing the $3.2 billion aid package. The other options are close distractors but 5% is the exact figure.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Prime Minister said the Government 'is ready' with a Bill for a 'voluntary uniform civil code'. This is a key distinction from a mandatory UCC, which is often debated in contemporary politics.

Explanation

The MAHSR project is a railway infrastructure project implemented under the Ministry of Railways. The Ministry of External Affairs responded to the Japanese allegations, but the project's execution is the responsibility of the Railways.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the first 50-km Surat-Bilimora section will be operational by August 2027. Statement 2 is incorrect: Japan will supply E10 series trains only in the early 2030s, not for the first phase in 2027. Statement 3 is correct: ETCS Level 2 signalling will be used.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the design speed of the B28 train set is 280 kmph. It will initially run at 250 kmph and later be developed for higher speeds. The other options are distractors from future targets or other train systems.

Explanation

By developing its own train sets (B28) and using European signalling (ETCS Level 2), India is reducing its reliance on Japanese Shinkansen technology. This aligns with the 'Atmanirbhar Bharat' policy and builds domestic manufacturing capacity in high-speed rail technology.

Explanation

The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is responsible for the release of official GDP data. The article explicitly mentions the 'latest official data series released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation' showing over 7% growth.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions 'over 7% in each of the past three years — 2022-23, 2023-24 and 2024-25'. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article states nominal GDP growth rate is 'likely to improve this year' (FY27), not be lower. Statement 3 is correct: the article says India's imports exceed exports, leading to an outflow of foreign exchange, i.e., a trade deficit.

Explanation

The article states: 'most estimates peg India's GDP to grow by anywhere between 6.4% and 6.8% (see chart 2)'. This is the range provided by estimates including the IMF and Bank of Baroda. The other options are incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'India imports 90% of its crude oil, higher crude oil prices alone can typically drag down domestic economic growth.' This is because it increases production costs across sectors and fuels inflation, reducing purchasing power and overall demand.

Explanation

BIMSTEC was originally formed as BIST-EC in 1997 with four members. After Myanmar joined, it became BIMST-EC, and finally in 2004, with the inclusion of Nepal and Bhutan, it was renamed BIMSTEC with seven members.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: BIMSTEC has 7 members (Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Thailand). Statement 2 is incorrect: Bhutan and India have not joined China's BRI. Statement 3 is correct: The article states India hosted an outreach summit with BIMSTEC leaders alongside the BRICS summit in Goa in 2016.

Explanation

The article states that BIMSTEC members have a combined GDP of nearly $5 trillion. The other options are distractors.

Explanation

According to the article, India's renewed push followed the Uri terrorist attack in September 2016 and the boycott of the SAARC summit in Islamabad. BIMSTEC offered an alternative platform for regional cooperation while countering China's growing influence through BRI in the region.

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) handles India's foreign policy and diplomatic visits. The article explicitly states 'the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) said' while announcing the visits.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says 'first ever visit by an Indian President to Moldova' and 'first ever visit by an Indian President to North Macedonia'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the visit to Romania starts on July 23, not July 21. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions 'a visit by an Indian President after three decades' to Romania. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that President Murmu 'will arrive in North Macedonia on July 21 for a two-day visit'. July 19 is the start of the overall tour (Moldova), July 20 is for Moldova, and July 23 is for Romania.

Explanation

The article highlights that Romania is a 'valuable partner in the European Union' and that the India-EU Free Trade Agreement will strengthen bilateral economic partnership. There is no mention of defense pacts, Ukraine mediation, or space missions.

Explanation

The news article explicitly states that the US Department of Homeland Security (DHS) announced the rule eliminating 'duration of status'. While USCIS is a component of DHS, the announcement came from DHS itself, not the State Department which typically handles visa issuance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the new rule eliminates D/S and caps initial admission at a maximum of 4 years. Statement 2 is incorrect: the grace period has been halved from 60 to 30 days, not increased. Statement 3 is correct: the final rule takes effect on September 15, 2026, after Fall admissions are generally complete.

Explanation

The article states that most students will now be admitted for a fixed period matching the length of their academic program, with an absolute maximum initial admission of four years. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article quotes DHS Secretary Markwayne Mullin stating that the shift 'restores integrity to the nation's immigration system, combats rampant visa abuse, and strengthens national security through regular vetting.' The other options are opposite to the stated goals.

Explanation

The USCIS is the agency within DHS that oversees lawful immigration, including green card applications and the 'public charge' determination. ICE focuses on enforcement, and the Department of State handles visa issuance abroad.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the rule revives the 'public charge' concept. Statement 2 is incorrect because the new rule does NOT specifically name benefits like Medicaid or food stamps; it allows for 'individualized, fact-specific' decisions. Statement 3 is correct as the rule was first implemented in February 2020.

Explanation

The Migration Policy Institute estimated that no more than 167,000 people could be found ineligible. The figure of 26 million refers to the 'chilling effect' estimated by Manatt Health, and 22.8 million is the total number of non-citizens in the US in 2023.

Explanation

Critics argue the rule creates widespread fear and confusion, causing immigrants and their US citizen family members to avoid applying for benefits they are legally entitled to, leading to poorer health outcomes. The rule does not directly target deportations or skilled worker visas.

Explanation

The UIP is a flagship program of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India. It provides free vaccines to children against 12 preventable diseases, including measles.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states India achieved 95% both-dose coverage in 2025, up from 84% in 2019. Statement 2 is incorrect: COVID-19 has an R0 of 3-4, but measles has an R0 of 12-16, making it far more contagious. Statement 3 is correct as Dr. Haldar explained that even with 100% vaccination, 15% do not sero-convert.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 4.53 lakh children in India missed their measles vaccine in 2025. Option A (2.3 lakh) is the reduction in zero-dose children over the previous year. Option C (6.79 lakh) is the number of zero-dose children (no vaccine at all). Option D (18,774) is the number of measles cases reported in 2025.

Explanation

The article explains that measles has an R0 of 12-16, meaning one infected person can spread it to 12-16 others. Additionally, 15% of vaccinated individuals may not sero-convert, leaving some unprotected. National averages also mask pockets with lower coverage, allowing the virus to spread.

Explanation

The European Commission acts as the EU competition enforcer and is responsible for implementing the Digital Markets Act. It opened specification proceedings and set the requirements for Google's compliance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Commission said Google will open up 11 features on its Android OS to AI rivals. Statement 2 is incorrect because the data must be shared subject to anonymisation. Statement 3 is correct as users will benefit from changes from July 2027 in the next iteration of Android. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The EU measure will be implemented from January next year (2027) for data sharing. The Android feature changes will be effective from July 2027. These dates are critical for prelims fact-based questions.

Explanation

The EU tech chief stated the measures aim to see 'emerging alternatives to Google Search and Google's AI services' and that users can enjoy 'greater choice of services'. While privacy safeguards are included, the core objective is fostering competition under the DMA.

Explanation

The CPCB, under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is the nodal agency for monitoring ambient air quality, including PM2.5 levels, across India through the National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the association remained after controlling for diabetes and hypertension. Statement 2 is incorrect: Delhi residents had a lower baseline eGFR (106.4) than Chennai (112). Statement 3 is correct: eGFR decline per 5 μg/m³ was 0.42 in Delhi vs 0.32 in Chennai.

Explanation

The article states the baseline PM2.5 level in Delhi was 118 μg/m³, while Chennai’s baseline was 33 μg/m³. Option A is Chennai’s baseline, B is a subsequent visit value for Chennai, and D is a subsequent visit value for Delhi.

Explanation

Since the effect is independent, reducing air pollution can directly lower the risk of kidney damage, even in the absence of diabetes or hypertension. This strengthens the case for strict environmental regulations as a public health measure.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the US FDA approved the pill version called Lipfendra (enlicitide). The DCGI is India's drug regulator, EMA is European, and WHO does not approve drugs for market use.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states Lipfendra is a PCSK9 inhibitor that brings LDL down by up to 60%. Statement 2 is incorrect because statins reduce cholesterol production, while PCSK9 inhibitors help the liver clear LDL from the bloodstream. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions ApoB reduction of about 50%.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that a combination of Bempedoic acid 180 mg + Ezetimibe 10 mg can reduce LDL by 35-40%. Ezetimibe alone lowers it by 18-25%, and Bempedoic acid alone by 17-23%. The 50-60% reduction is associated with Lipfendra.

Explanation

The article explains that in people with diabetes and dyslipidaemia, LDL levels may appear normal but the number of small, dense LDL particles (which are more harmful) may be high. South Asians are known to have a higher prevalence of this pattern, making ApoB a more accurate risk marker than LDL alone.

Explanation

As per the article, the Ministry of Commerce and Industry releases the ICI. In contrast, MoSPI releases the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). This is a classic exam distinction.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the new base year is 2022-23. Statement 2 is incorrect: iron ore is added as the 9th core industry, not the 8th (the original ICI had 8 sectors). Statement 3 is correct: weights are derived from the IIP 2022-23 series by MoSPI. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states the revised ICI will be released on July 20, 2026, along with the provisional ICI for June 2026 and a back series from April 2023 to May 2026. July 17 is the article's publication date, not the release date.

Explanation

The government explicitly stated that coal middlings and washed coal were excluded to eliminate double counting since they are derived from raw coal. This improves data accuracy, not to reduce weight or align with standards.

Explanation

Article 21 guarantees the Right to Life and Personal Liberty. The Supreme Court has interpreted this to include the right to health and access to medical treatment, making it the primary article invoked in cases about access to life-saving medicines.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The SC took suo motu cognisance of the matter. Statement 2 is incorrect: The patient died during the pendency of the plea in the Kerala High Court, not before the Supreme Court. Statement 3 is correct: The Kerala HC continued the proceedings suo motu and retitled the case as 'In Re Exorbitant Pricing of Life Saving Patented Medicines'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the petition before the high court was originally filed in 2022 by the patient from Ernakulam. This is a key factual detail that can be tested in prelims.

Explanation

The case revolves around the exorbitant pricing of patented cancer drugs, which directly implicates the fundamental right to life (Article 21). The core issue is the tension between the exclusive rights granted by patents and the public's need for affordable access to life-saving treatments.

Explanation

The Union government's Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying is the nodal ministry for fisheries-related policies, including issuing Letters of Authorisation for deep-sea fishing. The article mentions 'Union government issuing official Letters of Authorisation', which falls under this ministry's purview.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states that the Union government issued LoAs for venturing into high seas. Statement 2 is correct: India's marine potential is estimated at 58.6 lakh metric tonnes. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article explicitly says moving larger vessels to international waters will give the coastal marine ecosystem a window to recover, not increase pressure.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'the vast majority of Indian fishing activities have remained concentrated within just 40 to 50 nautical miles of the shore.' This is a key data point for prelims – note the exact range.

Explanation

The article states that 'moving larger commercial vessels into international waters will give the fragile coastal marine ecosystem a vital, much-needed window to naturally recover.' This is the primary environmental benefit mentioned, as it reduces pressure on over-exploited coastal zones.

Explanation

The Bill was passed by the Chhattisgarh Assembly on July 16, 2026. It is a state-level legislation, not a central one. The other options are incorrect as the Bill is specific to Chhattisgarh.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Bill makes Chhattisgarh the first state to implement a risk- and trust-based system. Statement 2 is correct: it covers 43 services from 8 departments. Statement 3 is incorrect: committees are headed by the Chief Secretary at state level and Collectors at district level, under a council chaired by the Chief Minister.

Explanation

The Bill specifically brings 43 services offered by eight state departments under the risk-based approval framework. The other options are close distractors but only 43 is correct as per the article.

Explanation

The Bill classifies industries and commercial establishments by size and risk profile. Low-risk businesses get faster approvals, while high-risk projects still face technical scrutiny and physical inspections. This balances ease of doing business with necessary oversight.

Explanation

While the right to privacy is protected under Article 21, the remedy to approach a High Court for enforcement of fundamental rights (including the Right to be Forgotten) is provided under Article 226. Article 32 is for the Supreme Court. Article 14 deals with equality.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because India currently lacks a specific law governing the Right to be Forgotten. Statement 2 is correct as courts have recognized it under Article 21 via the Puttaswamy judgment. Statement 3 is correct as per the article - relief is refused where public interest outweighs privacy, especially for convictions against women/children.

Explanation

The article specifies that the petitioner was a 37-year-old environment and climate change consultant whose criminal proceedings had been quashed after the parties settled the dispute. This detail could be used in a factual prelims question.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the right to be forgotten is not absolute and courts can refuse relief where public interest outweighs an individual's privacy. This includes cases involving convictions for offences against women/children, breaches of public trust, or public conduct of public figures.

Explanation

The article states that the hydrogen train was developed by Chennai-based Integral Coach Factory (ICF). ICF is a unit of the Ministry of Railways responsible for manufacturing railway coaches.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the train operates between Jind and Sonipat. Statement 2 is incorrect: the maximum speed is 75 kmph, not 100 kmph. Statement 3 is correct: PESO granted the required license for storage and dispensing of compressed hydrogen gas at Jind. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifies that the 10-car trainset includes two DPCs with a capacity of 1,200 kW each, providing a combined power output of 2,400 kW. The other options are common distractors.

Explanation

The article describes the hydrogen train as a 'green rail initiative' and notes that India joins countries exploring hydrogen-powered trains for cleaner rail transportation. The core objective is environmental sustainability by replacing diesel with hydrogen fuel cells, which produce only water as a by-product.

Explanation

The article states: 'The 4% inflation the Reserve Bank of India targets refers to headline CPI inflation.' The RBI uses CPI as the key measure for monetary policy under its inflation targeting framework.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as CPI inflation rose to 4.38% from 3.93%. Statement 2 is incorrect: core inflation was unchanged at 3.9%, not increased. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions 'India's goods imports from China now exceed $130 billion annually.' Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'WPI inflation... increased to 9.87% from 9.68%' in June 2026. The other options are distractors: 9.57% is output PPI, 9.38% is May output PPI, and 9.68% is May WPI.

Explanation

The article quotes ANZ economists: 'In the last four fiscal years, gross fixed capital formation (GFCF) growth has consistently driven GDP, outpacing private consumption growth.' Subdued core inflation reflects moderation in discretionary demand, not strong consumption.

Explanation

Article 16(4) specifically allows the state to make provisions for reservation in appointments in favour of any backward class of citizens that is not adequately represented. Article 15(4) deals with educational institutions, Article 17 abolishes untouchability, and Article 46 is a directive principle for promotion of educational and economic interests of weaker sections.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the HC is testing the 'mainstream of national life' criterion. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Supreme Court struck down the 2018 Act in 2021, calling Marathas a 'dominant forward class'. Statement 3 is correct: Advocate General Milind Sathe argued that individual political success does not define community backwardness.

Explanation

The Maharashtra SEBC Act, 2024 provides 10% reservation to Marathas in education and government jobs. The earlier 2018 Act had granted 16%, which was reduced by the Bombay HC to 12% in education and 13% in employment, and later struck down by the Supreme Court.

Explanation

The petitioners argue that with existing reservation at 52%, adding 10% Maratha quota and 10% EWS quota would push total reservation to 72%, exceeding the 50% ceiling set in the Indra Sawhney case. The state must prove 'extraordinary situation and exceptional circumstances' to justify the breach, as per the Supreme Court's 2021 judgment.

Explanation

The article specifically cites the US National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) for forecasting an 81% probability of a 'very strong' El Niño. NOAA is the US agency responsible for monitoring oceanic and atmospheric conditions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: El Niño involves abnormal warming of the central/eastern Pacific and is associated with dry weather in India. Statement 2 is correct: pulses acreage dropped 23.3% and oilseeds 21%, worse than the overall 16% decline. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article says there is a 97% chance of El Niño persisting through the spring months till March-April (i.e., spring of 2027), not summer.

Explanation

The article states: 'the cumulative deficiency for the four-month southwest monsoon season (June-September) as of July 16 is still at 24%.' The 38% figure is the deficit for June alone, 7.3% is the deficit for July so far, and 16% is the overall kharif sowing lag.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that oilseeds, pulses, millets, and cotton are predominantly rainfed crops. A deficient monsoon due to El Niño will reduce domestic oilseed production, forcing India to increase imports to meet demand. Additionally, global vegetable oil prices have firmed up due to biofuel demand, making imports more expensive.

Explanation

The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), under the Ministry of Power, is the nodal agency for implementing energy efficiency programmes, including CAFE norms. The article explicitly mentions that manufacturers can purchase credits from BEE to meet their obligations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the draft introduces CNFs for ethanol, CBG, and other biofuels. Statement 2 is incorrect because compliance will be assessed over two blocks—an initial three-year period followed by a two-year period—not annually. Statement 3 is correct as the slope of the weight-adjustment curve is proposed as 0.00158 in Year 1, gradually reducing to 0.00131 in Year 5.

Explanation

The draft specifies that the target will tighten from 3.996 L/100 km (94.76 gCO₂/km) in 2027-28 to 3.327 L/100 km (78.90 gCO₂/km) by 2031-32. Option A is the target for 2031-32, not 2027-28.

Explanation

The flatter curve reduces the slope of the formula, meaning that as vehicle weight increases, the emission target does not become as lenient as before. This addresses the contentious issue where heavier SUVs had a disproportionate compliance advantage, while also making targets slightly easier for lighter vehicles.

Explanation

The article specifically discusses the reform of the European Union's carbon market, the ETS. The EU is a regional organization, not a global body like the UN or World Bank.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per article: 'free allowances... were initially due to disappear by 2034.' Statement 2 is incorrect: the extension is conditional on companies committing to long-term decarbonisation. Statement 3 is correct: ETS2 was pushed back from 2027 to 2028 at the request of Poland and Hungary. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'The price of a tonne of carbon dioxide varies, currently standing at around 80 euros'. The other options are plausible distractors but the exact figure mentioned is €80.

Explanation

The article repeatedly emphasizes the conflict between the EU's climate goals and the need to support industry amid high energy costs, with countries like Italy and Poland pushing for more flexibility. The other options, while plausible, are not the primary focus of the article.

Explanation

The article states the bill was introduced in the U.S. Senate by Senators Blumenthal and Graham. The Senate is the upper chamber of the U.S. Congress.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the bill targets top five purchasers of Russian oil/gas. Statement 2 is incorrect: exemptions apply only to European nations whose imports are less than 15% of Russia's total gas exports and are taking steps to reduce. Statement 3 is correct: the U.S. Trade Representative must reassess every 180 days.

Explanation

The article clearly states the bill seeks 100% tariffs. An earlier version proposed 500%, but the current bill is 100%. The 12.5% figure refers to a separate US proposal on forced labour imports.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the bill is designed to deprive Russian President Putin of revenue used to finance the war against Ukraine. This is a geopolitical tool, not a market or trade policy.

Explanation

BIMSTEC stands for Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation. Its members are India, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Nepal and Bhutan, as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The meeting was held in New Delhi and hosted by NSA Ajit Doval. Statement 2 is correct: The MEA said they adopted guidelines for the maritime component of HADR. Statement 3 is incorrect: The guiding principles are for conduct of maritime law enforcement agencies during interactions at sea, not on land. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states the meeting was held on Thursday, July 16, 2026. July 17 is the publication date. The other dates are distractors.

Explanation

The meeting focused on combating terrorism, organised crime, and security threats in cyber, maritime, and energy domains. BIMSTEC bridges South and Southeast Asia, and India's hosting reflects its strategic focus on the Bay of Bengal and the Act East Policy, not just tourism or trade tariffs.

Explanation

The article mentions Union Minister of Railways Ashwini Vaishnaw, indicating that the Ministry of Railways oversees the train. The train is an initiative of Indian Railways, which operates under the Ministry of Railways.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article specifies the route is 89-km between Jind and Sonipat. Statement 2 is incorrect; the train uses a Proton Exchange Membrane (PEM) fuel cell, not an internal combustion engine. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions a ten-coach train set with capacity to carry around 2,600 passengers.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the train is a 'ten-coach train set'. The other options are common train configurations but are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explains that the fuel cell generates electricity using hydrogen and oxygen, with water vapor as the only emission. This eliminates pollutants like CO2, NOx, and particulate matter that diesel engines produce. While the train may have other benefits, the core environmental advantage is zero emissions at the point of use.

Explanation

Banking is regulated by the RBI, a statutory body. The article specifically states that healthcare, unlike banking, telecom, electricity, and civil aviation, has no independent regulator with statutory powers. Education and private hospitals also lack such a regulator.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: NABH and JCI are voluntary, not statutory. Statement 2 is incorrect: India does not have an independent regulator for healthcare; the UK's Care Quality Commission is cited as an example of what India lacks. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions hospitals comply with the Clinical Establishments Act, NMC directives, and other laws.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that groups such as Apollo, Fortis, Max, Manipal and Narayana account for less than 5 per cent of India's total private-hospital beds. This highlights the fragmented nature of the sector.

Explanation

The article explains that PE funds have a fiduciary duty to deliver high returns, which can push hospitals to raise charges, use aggressive billing, and restrict access through selective insurance arrangements. This is the core risk, as there is no independent regulator to ensure patient welfare.

Explanation

The article repeatedly references the National Dam Safety Act, 2021 as the basis for formation of independent panels and the deadline for dam safety assessment. The other Acts are unrelated to dam safety regulation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions former CWC chairmen J. Chandrashekhar Iyer and A.K. Bajaj among experts. Statement 2 is correct: the superintending engineer concerned will function as member-secretary. Statement 3 is incorrect because panels will examine safety, design, seismology, hydro mechanics, geology, hydrology, and instrumentation—multiple angles, not just safety and hydrology.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Of the 123 dams in the State listed under the law, five dams are aged at least 100 years.' Options 19, 59, and 86 are distractors: 19 are less than 25 years, 59 are between 50-99 years, and 86 is the number of dams under review by independent panels.

Explanation

The article states: 'Tamil Nadu had opposed the move to bring the dams under the NDSA’s control, as it had argued that the dams “are owned, operated and maintained” by it.' This assertion was contested by Kerala because the dams are located in Kerala territory.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that USTR proposed tariffs under Section 301 of the US Trade Act, 1974, regarding forced labour. Section 122 is used for temporary balance-of-payments tariffs, not for forced labour.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: India and several other countries responded with forced labour commitments. Statement 2 is incorrect: Section 122 tariffs can only be imposed for at most 150 days without Congressional approval. Statement 3 is correct: USTR is examining structural excess capacity in manufacturing sectors in India and other economies.

Explanation

The article states: 'India has sought a review of the USTR's proposed tariffs of 12.5 per cent.' The 10% is the universal rate under Section 122, which is different. The other options are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article indicates that India introduced the forced labour section after the USTR's proposed tariffs, and it is part of a broader strategy to address US trade pressure. Other countries also made similar commitments, suggesting it is a response to tariff threats.

Explanation

The article states that the Legal Metrology Division of the Ministry of Consumer Affairs is the nodal agency for this project. This ministry oversees consumer protection and legal metrology standards in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the system reduces dependence on foreign time sources like GPS. Statement 2 is correct as it operates in compliance with UTC protocols. Statement 3 is incorrect because the network was inaugurated at the Regional Reference Standards Laboratory (RRSL) in Bengaluru, not at NPL in New Delhi.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that the network is based on 'White Rabbit Technology'. This is a high-precision time synchronisation technology developed for critical infrastructure. NTP and PTP are other time synchronisation protocols but are not the technology used in this network.

Explanation

The article highlights that the initiative aims to establish a uniform, highly precise and secure time standard across India. It reduces reliance on foreign time sources like GPS, thereby protecting critical sectors from cyberattacks and data manipulation. Cost reduction and GPS accuracy improvement are not the primary objectives.