16 July 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India co-sponsored ‘UN Security Council Resolution 2817 (2026)’. The UNSC is responsible for maintaining international peace and security, and it passed this resolution to condemn Iran’s attacks.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as India co-sponsored the resolution. Statement 2 is incorrect because India’s transactional relationship with Iran revolves around energy flow, trade corridors, and the Chabahar port, not military cooperation. Statement 3 is incorrect – the article says India ‘rightly chose not to position itself as an interlocutor’ preferring quiet diplomacy.

Explanation

The article states: ‘Adopted on March 11, 2026’ – this is the exact date of the UNSC Resolution. July 16, 2026 is the publication date of the article itself, and the other options are plausible distractors.

Explanation

The article describes the Axis of Resistance as a network of Iran-backed proxies (Hezbollah, Hamas, Houthis) that ‘liberally endorsed their use of terrorism to cause widespread disruption’. Iran’s strategy aims to counter what it calls the ‘Big Satan-Little Satan’ (US and Israel), not economic integration or diplomacy.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions 'Large and Medium Industries Minister M.B. Patil' as the minister who flagged off the consignments. Chandru Iyer is the British Deputy High Commissioner, Nirmala Sitharaman is India's Finance Minister (not mentioned), and Basavaraj Bommai is the former Chief Minister of Karnataka (not mentioned).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says '99% of Indian products would gain duty-free access'. Statement 2 is correct: 'reduce U.K. import tariffs on aerospace products from 11% to zero'. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article explicitly mentions 'Mode 1 services provisions would significantly benefit Bengaluru's IT industry', so services are covered. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states '99% of Indian products would gain duty-free access to the UK market'. The other options are close distractors: 90% and 95% are not mentioned; 100% would imply complete duty-free access, but only 99% is covered.

Explanation

The article explicitly says 'The agreement's Mode 1 services provisions would significantly benefit Bengaluru's IT industry'. Mode 1 refers to cross-border supply of services, allowing Indian IT firms to provide services remotely without needing a physical presence. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Article XII of the Indus Waters Treaty (1960) provides for modification of the provisions 'from time to time' but only through another government-level treaty agreed upon by both countries. Article VII deals with new drainage or engineering works. Article VIII establishes the Permanent Indus Commission.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the Indus Waters Treaty is described as a 'partition agreement' allocating entire rivers. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Treaty has no mention of groundwater resources or water quality provisions. Statement 3 is incorrect; the PIC functions merely as an implementing agency, unlike the Mekong River Commission which acts as a joint river water-management system.

Explanation

The study by Vimal Mishra and Urmin Vegad of IIT Gandhinagar showed that the basins of the eastern rivers have seen a 20% decline in annual rainfall over the last 70 years, while precipitation in the western river basins has remained largely unchanged.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India's request for renegotiation is delinked from the abeyance decision. The Treaty lacks provisions for groundwater, water quality, environmental flows, and climate change adaptation. The renegotiation is a common-sensical response to structural gaps, not a punitive measure.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the High-Level Committee (HLC) was chaired by former President Ram Nath Kovind. This is a direct static fact from the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Bill is the 129th Amendment and inserts Article 82A amending Articles 83 and 172. Statement 2 is correct: the HLC report says real GDP growth is approximately 1.5 percentage points higher under simultaneous elections. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article estimates black money at over Rs 1,00,000 crore, not Rs 50,000 crore.

Explanation

The article states: 'black money, unaccounted and untraceable, which the Centre for Media Studies estimates at over Rs 1,00,000 crore for the 2024 Lok Sabha election alone.' The other options are common distractors used in exams.

Explanation

The article invokes the Kesavananda Bharati case to argue that simultaneous elections could violate the basic structure of the Constitution, particularly parliamentary democracy and free and fair elections. The other options are not supported by the article: the Bill does not mention Article 326, it does not increase expenditure (it claims to reduce it), and local body elections are not covered by the Bill.

Explanation

India signed the IAEA Additional Protocol in 2009, committing to a separation plan for civilian and military nuclear facilities. This strengthened India’s non-proliferation credentials and paved the way for Australia to conclude the Nuclear Cooperation Agreement in 2015.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Australia’s policy was to export uranium only to NPT signatories. Statement 2 is correct: The AA was finalized at the 3rd India-Australia Annual Summit in Melbourne on 9 July 2026. Statement 3 is incorrect: The target is 100 GW by 2047, not 2030.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India’s installed nuclear power capacity is 8.78 GW, with a target to increase it to 100 GW by 2047. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The SHANTI Act enables private participation to assist the country’s nuclear build, while the government retains control over strategic and security-sensitive segments of the nuclear fuel cycle. This is crucial for scaling up capacity to 100 GW by 2047.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the U.S. military's Central Command (CENTCOM) launched the airstrikes. CENTCOM is responsible for U.S. security interests in the Middle East and parts of Central Asia.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states Greater Tunb overlooks the approach to the Strait of Hormuz, through which one-fifth of the world's oil passes. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly says there is no agreement, provisional or otherwise, for the Tunb islands. Statement 3 is correct as Central Command said the operation lasted 90 minutes.

Explanation

The article states that Iran assumed control of the three islands in 1971, when the Shah of Iran occupied them as Britain was relinquishing its presence in the region. This is a key factual detail for prelims.

Explanation

The article quotes analysts stating that control of the islands would provide significant leverage over shipping movements through the Strait of Hormuz, a crucial chokepoint for global oil supplies. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

EPFO is a statutory body under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, established under the EPF Act, 1952. The Ministry of Finance approves the interest rate but does not oversee the organisation directly.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the interest rate is 8.25%, not 7.25%. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions ₹1.44 lakh crore. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Union Finance Ministry approved the recommendation of the EPFO's Central Board of Trustees to provide interest at the rate of 8.25%. The other options are close distractors: 8.15% was the rate for 2024-25, while 8.35% and 8.50% are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article mentions that CITES was implemented to update the database, enabling auto-processing and verification of interest, leading to simultaneous credit to all accounts. Increasing contribution rates or privatization are not objectives of CITES.

Explanation

Article 350A of the Constitution directs every state to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage to children of linguistic minority groups. Article 30 gives minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions, while Article 21A deals with the right to education (6-14 years) and Article 29 protects cultural and educational rights of minorities.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: GER and NER calculations use the school-age population as the denominator, which is derived from Census data. Without updated Census data, these indicators become unreliable. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article explicitly states that sample surveys like ASER and UDISE+ cannot substitute for a Census as they cannot provide a complete count or capture demographic changes at the village/ward level. Statement 3 is correct: Article 350A requires accurate data on the distribution of mother tongues to determine if the number of children is sufficient to justify establishing mother-tongue schools.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the last full Census was conducted in 2011, and by July 2026, fifteen years had passed. The 2021 Census was delayed due to the COVID-19 pandemic and has not been conducted as of the article's publication. Options B, C, and D provide incorrect year or duration combinations.

Explanation

The article explains that scholarships, DBT schemes, hostel facilities, residential schools, and mother-tongue education rights (Article 350A) are designed around estimates of the eligible population that the Census provides. Without updated data, governments risk planning and allocating resources based on outdated population estimates, as migration and urbanization have significantly altered the distribution of these communities. The other options are incorrect as they do not reflect the article's argument.

Explanation

The news article explicitly states that the Directorate General of Maritime Administration (DGMA) issued Circular No. 36 of 2026 directing shipping firms to avoid deploying Indian seafarers in the Strait of Hormuz. This body operates under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article cites the 'heightened security situation' in the Gulf region. Statement 2 is incorrect because the advisory is directed at Ship Owners, Ship Managers and RPSL Companies to avoid deploying Indian seafarers on any vessels (not just Indian-flagged) transiting the Strait. Statement 3 is correct as the advisory explicitly mentions implementing Ship Security Plans (SSP) in accordance with the ISPS Code.

Explanation

The article states: 'As many as 13 Indian sailors have died in the region since the US-Iran war began since February 28.' The other options are close distractors; 13 is the exact figure mentioned.

Explanation

The advisory explicitly states it is issued 'in view of the heightened security situation in the Gulf region' and directs shipping firms to avoid deploying Indian seafarers on vessels transiting the Strait of Hormuz. This is a protective measure for Indian citizens, not a trade restriction, sanction, or naval deployment.

Explanation

The article specifies that PM Modi will flag off the train at Jind in Haryana. The train is named NaMo Green Rail and will operate on the Jind-Sonipat route.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the chemical reaction produces electricity. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says it is a 10-coach train, not 12. Statement 3 is correct: the train leaves behind water vapour. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the PM will unveil initiatives valued at over ₹25,000 crore. Other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article highlights that unlike traditional trains, the hydrogen train generates electricity onboard and leaves behind water vapour, meaning no direct carbon emissions. This aligns with India's climate goals.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the judgment came on a plea by NALSA. NALSA is a statutory body under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, mandated to provide free legal aid and promote access to justice.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the SC directed states/UTs to formulate a policy within three months. Statement 2 is correct: e-Prisons portal will process requests, generate compliance reports, and protect medical privacy. Statement 3 is incorrect: the Ministry of Law and Justice, Ministry of Home Affairs, and NIC (under MeitY) are all required to provide technical assistance, not just MHA.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the bench directed that the policy be formulated within three months. The other options are distractors: 1 month is too short, 6 months and 1 year are not mentioned.

Explanation

The SC judgment emphasized that the e-Prisons portal shall facilitate time-bound processing, automated alerts, compliance reports, and oversight, while maintaining safeguards for confidentiality and privacy of prisoners’ medical and personal information. Options A and C are not primary objectives; D is incorrect as the portal supplements, not replaces, existing systems.

Explanation

The judgment was delivered by Justice Maheswara Rao Kuncheam of the Andhra Pradesh High Court. The case involved a writ petition filed by farmers from Kothapalem village in Vizianagaram district, which is in Andhra Pradesh.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The court explicitly relied on M C Mehta vs Kamal Nath to explain the Doctrine of Public Trust. Statement 2 is incorrect: The court held that water bodies are 'critical public assets' and the state is a trustee, not that they can be exploited. Statement 3 is correct: The SOP issued on May 8 provides for drone and satellite monitoring, CCTV surveillance, and annual reviews.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'the Kannamnaidu pond which local farmers say irrigates nearly 2,000 acres'. Options A, C, and D are close distractors designed to test precise recall of this data point.

Explanation

The court explicitly invoked the Doctrine of Public Trust, stating that the state is a trustee of natural resources like water bodies and cannot allow their illegal exploitation. The other options are also environmental law principles but were not the primary basis of this judgment. The court linked this doctrine to Articles 21, 48A, and 51A(g) of the Constitution.

Explanation

The Ministry of Commerce and Industry, through its Department of Commerce, is responsible for India's external trade policy, including the negotiation and implementation of bilateral and multilateral trade agreements such as CETA. The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) operates under this ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the agreement was operationalised on July 15, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: the duties were slashed to zero percent, not 5%. Statement 3 is correct: the first shipment was flagged off from Amritsar Airport to Birmingham. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that approximately 99 per cent of all Indian products will get comprehensive duty-free access to the British market under the CETA framework. The other options are close distractors: 95% and 90% are not mentioned, and 100% is too absolute as some products may have exceptions.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that by clearing and routing international cargo directly from Amritsar, regional manufacturers no longer have to rely on congested logistics hubs in distant metropolitan cities like New Delhi or Mumbai. This translates into savings in transit time, fuel consumption, and supply chain expenses. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article repeatedly mentions Bab el-Mandeb as the gateway to the Red Sea. The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman, while Malacca is in Southeast Asia. Suez is a canal, not a strait.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Houthis have deployed missiles and drones near Bab el-Mandeb. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says 'Representatives of Iran's Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC) who are already in Yemen will control the decision.' Statement 3 is correct: Saudi Arabia diverted 70% of its energy exports through Yanbu. Hence options C.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'the waterway now carries around 7% of global energy supplies.' The other options are distractors; 5% is too low, 10% and 15% are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article quotes a regional source describing 'Iranian thinking' as seeking to pressure the United States by raising the potential cost to the global economy. While disrupting Saudi exports is a consequence, the stated objective is to pressure the US. Options A, C, and D are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Vikram-1 will be launched from the first launch pad of the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota. VSSC is ISRO's technical centre, not a launch site. The other options are other Indian launch sites but not the one mentioned.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says 'India’s first privately developed orbital-class rocket'. Statement 2 is incorrect: the payload capacity is 350 kg, not 450 kg (450 km is the target orbit altitude). Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions 'all-carbon composite structure' and '3D-printed engines'. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that Vikram-1 will be launched on July 18, 2026. July 16 is the date of the announcement, not the launch. The other dates are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article quotes the CEO saying the test flight will provide 'valuable data' and show how technologies perform in 'real-world conditions'. The COO also mentions using in-flight data to 'learn, improve, and build further'. While revenue and records are secondary, the core purpose is data gathering and technology validation.

Explanation

The Madras High Court, through a Division Bench of Justices S.M. Subramaniam and N. Senthilkumar, delivered this ruling. The judgment clarifies that promotion rights accrue only after the actual promotion order is issued, not upon panel inclusion.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the ruling explicitly states that inclusion in a promotion panel does not confer any right to promotion. Statement 2 is correct as the court held the government can defer promotion until disposal of departmental proceedings. Statement 3 is correct as per Rule 17(b) which bars promotion during major penalty proceedings.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that charges were framed under Rule 17(b) (major penalties) of the Tamil Nadu Civil Services (Discipline and Appeal) Rules. This rule pertains to major disciplinary actions like dismissal, removal, etc.

Explanation

The court emphasized that the purpose of the disciplinary rules is to prevent tainted officials from being promoted. The ruling ensures integrity and accountability in public service by allowing the government to defer promotion until corruption charges are resolved.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that NPCIL is the body that operates nuclear power plants in India and issued the statement on the data breach. BARC is focused on research, AERB is the regulatory body for safety, and DAE is the parent department. NPCIL is the operating entity that manages all nuclear power reactors in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states '99 per cent of Indian goods entering the UK...will either be duty-free or attract reduced tariffs'. Statement 2 is correct: tariffs on British cars are reduced from up to 110% to 30% in year one, with an annual quota starting at 20,000 vehicles. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article explicitly states 'agriculture and dairy continued to remain off-limits', meaning they are NOT included in the tariff reduction commitments.

Explanation

The article states the Cabinet approved ISM 2.0 'with an outlay of Rs 1.27 lakh crore' and 'the duration of the scheme is six years'. Option A is wrong on duration (5 years vs 6). Option B is the cumulative investment under ISM 1.0 (₹1.64 lakh crore), not the outlay for ISM 2.0. Option D is the budget allocation for FY 2026-27 only, not the total outlay.

Explanation

The article explicitly states ISM 2.0 'will carry a key focus on subsidising the supply chain around chip manufacturing to attract companies producing commodities like gases, and chemicals used in the production process'. The reduction in subsidy on fabs is a strategic reallocation of resources toward supply chain inputs rather than just fabrication, aiming to build a comprehensive ecosystem. Option A is a consequence, not the primary objective. Option C is incorrect as advanced packaging gets 35% vs 25% for conventional. Option D contradicts the goal of attracting global suppliers.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the launch will be from "the country’s premier spaceport at the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota." This is the primary launch site of ISRO, located in Andhra Pradesh.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states it is "the nation's first-ever attempt to place a payload into orbit using a completely privately developed launch vehicle." Statement 2 is incorrect because the payload includes multiple technology demos from Grahaa Space, Cosmoserve, DCubed, and a diamond art piece, not just SCOPE. Statement 3 is correct as Vikram-1 is "engineered to deliver small satellites weighing up to 350 kg to Low Earth Orbit." Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically states "it is targeting a 450 km orbit at a 60-degree inclination." The other options are plausible distractors based on typical LEO ranges for small satellites.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that this is India's first attempt to place a payload into orbit using a completely privately developed launch vehicle. This is a milestone for private sector participation in space, differentiating it from ISRO's managed launches. Options A and D are beyond the scope of Vikram-1's mission, and option C is incorrect as Vikram-1 is a small satellite launcher, not for heavy satellites.

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) handles India's diplomatic and multilateral engagements, including BIMSTEC. The article quotes MEA statements, confirming its nodal role for BIMSTEC coordination.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the meeting was hosted by NSA Ajit Doval in New Delhi. Statement 2 is incorrect — the article mentions 'guiding principles' and 'guidelines', which are non-binding, not legally binding treaties. Statement 3 is correct as the MEA confirmed discussions on cyber, maritime, and energy security.

Explanation

NSA Doval stated that BIMSTEC represents a combined GDP of nearly USD 5 trillion. The other options are plausible distractors but do not match the specific figure given in the article.

Explanation

The MEA stated that the guiding principles are expected to 'outline reference points for increasing predictability and promoting safety during maritime engagements among member states'. Option A is incorrect as no common command was proposed. Options C and D relate to economic or fisheries issues, not the security-focused meeting.

Explanation

The U.S. State Department mediated the Rome talks, as stated in the article. The U.S. has been a key intermediary in the Israel-Lebanon conflict, especially given the broader U.S.-Iran tensions involving Hezbollah.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions Froun, Ghandouriyeh and Zawtar as the pilot zone towns. Statement 2 is incorrect: Hezbollah has vehemently opposed the agreement and said it will not disarm. Statement 3 is correct: President Aoun is to visit Washington on July 21. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the war began when Hezbollah fired missiles across the border on March 2, 2026, two days after the U.S. and Israel attacked Iran. The other dates are distractors; July 15 is the date of the U.S. statement.

Explanation

The article explains that the pilot zones are where Israeli forces are to withdraw and turn over control to the Lebanese army, which will then clear the areas of Hezbollah presence. Immediate disarmament or permanent border is not the immediate goal of these zones.

Explanation

The article specifically refers to the Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill as the proposed legislation to raise Lok Sabha seats to 850 and begin delimitation. This bill number is a factual detail often tested in prelims.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says NDA strength rose from 298 to 329. Statement 2 is correct: the two-thirds majority in Rajya Sabha is 164. Statement 3 is incorrect because the uniform 50% increase is only a proposal under discussion, not yet part of the bill as introduced. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the bill proposes to raise the number of Lok Sabha seats to 850. The current strength is 543, so 850 represents a significant increase. The other options are plausible distractors.

Explanation

The article mentions that the bill 'forms the basis for implementing women's reservation from the 2029 Lok Sabha election.' The 106th Amendment (women's reservation) requires redrawing of constituencies, which is why delimitation is needed. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article states that the Supreme Court of India recorded the Union government's solemn assurance about restoring statehood. The High Court, Parliament, and Election Commission are not the body that recorded this assurance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the article clearly says 'It set no timeline'. Statement 2 is correct: the Solicitor-General invoked security citing the Pahalgam attack. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions the sit-in on July 20.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'It has been over two and a half years since the Supreme Court ... recorded the Union government's solemn assurance'. Other options are incorrect durations.

Explanation

The article states that the Solicitor-General invoked 'security' citing the Pahalgam attack. While delimitation is a factor mentioned in the political analysis, the Centre's official rationale is security. Economic instability and lack of political consensus are not cited.

Explanation

The memorandum was issued by the Department of Space (DoS), as signed by Joint Secretary (Personnel), S.R. Rajashekar. ISRO is an attached office under DoS, but the memo was issued at the departmental level to all ISRO Centers and Heads of Units.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the overall sanctioned strength is 18,142. Statement 2 is incorrect: the vacancy in Science & Technology category is 1,636, not 2,613 (the total vacancy across all categories is 2,613). Statement 3 is correct: recruitment for 1,449 posts is in progress. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The Minister stated that there is an overall vacancy of 14.4% (2,613 out of 18,142 sanctioned posts). The 8% refers to the posts for which recruitment is already in progress, and the 5% is the remaining posts for which action is yet to be initiated. Hence 14.4% is the correct percentage.

Explanation

The memorandum explicitly states that spate of VRS/resignation requests 'severely impacting the implementation of projects of national importance'. It directs that such requests from Group A personnel on Gaganyaan and other important missions may not be accepted as a matter of routine. The objective is retention, not cost-cutting or punishment.

Explanation

The NMC, established in 2020, replaced the MCI and oversees medical education. Its Medical Assessment and Rating Board (MARB) specifically approves seat increases and new colleges. The other options are not directly involved in seat approvals.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: total seats become 13,999 in 78 colleges. Statement 2 is incorrect: only 150 seats were added to government colleges, while 800 were added to private colleges. Statement 3 is correct: the loss of 461 seats due to deemed university status prompted legal action. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the total number of MBBS seats in 78 colleges will be 13,999 after the increase. 13,049 would be the original number before addition (13,999 - 950). 14,099 and 14,500 are close distractors.

Explanation

The article states that the state will lose 461 MBBS seats from the state quota after three private medical colleges obtained 'deemed to be university' status. This means they no longer have to follow reservation policy, 7.5% horizontal reservation for government school students, or the state-prescribed fee structure. The government is considering legal action as a result.

Explanation

The Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal ministry for India's trade policy, including export promotion, trade agreements, and trade data monitoring. While the Ministry of Finance handles customs duties and tariffs, the overall trade policy is under Commerce and Industry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the trade deficit jumped 430% due to imports of crude, gold, and fertilizers. Statement 2 is incorrect: non-petroleum exports (not petroleum exports) grew 16.5% in June; total merchandise exports grew 15.5%. Statement 3 is correct: the government removed BCD on those components to support electronics manufacturing. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that service exports grew only 2.9% in June 2026. Option B (6.2%) is the Q1 service exports growth. Options C (15.5%) and D (16.5%) are merchandise and non-petroleum export growth rates respectively, making them close distractors.

Explanation

The article states the decision is to 'boost its manufacturing of high-end electronics such as smartphones, laptops and smart TVs' by making input imports cheaper. While it may indirectly affect the trade deficit, the core objective is manufacturing promotion, not deficit reduction or revenue generation.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the NPT institutionalised a hierarchy rather than dismantling it, dividing the world into nuclear 'haves' and 'have-nots'. The other options are either test ban treaties or specific agreements (JCPOA) not mentioned in this context.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: Iran submitted to the most intrusive inspection regime under JCPOA. Statement 2 is incorrect: the US withdrawal happened in 2018, not 2017. Statement 3 is correct: the JCPOA was negotiated under the Obama administration. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly mentions that the abandonment of the JCPOA by the Donald Trump administration occurred in 2018. The other years are common distractors; 2017 is close but incorrect, as the withdrawal was announced in May 2018.

Explanation

The article repeatedly argues that the NPT created an unequal system where nuclear weapon states retain their arsenals while non-nuclear states are pressured to forgo enrichment. This structural discrimination is the core issue, not simply lack of inspections or trust.

Explanation

Windfall taxes are a form of taxation, hence under the purview of the Ministry of Finance, specifically the Department of Revenue. The article refers to the government's decision, which is executed through the Ministry of Finance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: diesel export duty increased from Rs 8.5 to Rs 15.5 per litre, a rise of Rs 7. Statement 2 is incorrect: petrol export duty was reduced (cut) from Rs 4 to Rs 2.5 per litre, not increased. Statement 3 is correct: the article states the revised rates are effective July 16.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the aviation turbine fuel duty was raised to Rs 14.5 per litre from Rs 7.5 per litre. The other options are distractors: Rs 7.5 is the old rate, Rs 15.5 is the diesel rate, and Rs 8.5 is the old diesel rate.

Explanation

The article mentions that the windfall tax is 'linked to the international fuel prices and refining margins'. The revision comes after crude prices jumped due to West Asia tensions, indicating the aim is to tax the windfall gains of exporters from higher global prices. Other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that Section 3 of the Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council Act provides for the constitution of a council in every district through government notification. The Sixth Schedule applies to tribal areas in the Northeast, not Ladakh. The J&K Reorganisation Act created Ladakh as a UT, but the AHDCs are governed by the 1997 Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the administration announced AHDCs for all seven districts. Statement 2 is incorrect: both ABL and KDA oppose the move, fearing it will weaken the proposed Article 371 body. Statement 3 is correct: the article quotes leaders saying the councils are 'virtually defunct' and have lost relevance after 2019. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that five new districts – Drass, Sham, Nubra, Changthang and Zanskar – were created in April 2026, bringing the total to seven districts. The creation of these new districts prompted the administration to extend AHDCs to all of them. Options 2 and 7 are distractors: there were already 2 districts (Leh, Kargil) with AHDCs, and 7 is the total after addition.

Explanation

The article repeatedly states that ABL and KDA fear that empowering seven district councils will leave little meaningful authority for the proposed territorial government under Article 371. Option A is not mentioned; Option C is incorrect because the Sixth Schedule does not apply to Ladakh; Option D is a symptom (councils losing power to LG secretariat) but not the primary constitutional concern.

Explanation

The article states that the Finance Ministry issued the notification. Windfall taxes are a fiscal policy tool under the purview of the Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Petroleum.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: SAED on diesel increased to ₹15.5/litre. Statement 2 is incorrect because the revision is fortnightly, not monthly. Statement 3 is correct: petrol export duty cut to ₹2.5/litre from ₹4/litre. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that SAED on ATF exports has been raised to ₹14.5 per litre from ₹7.5 per litre. Option A is the old rate, C is the diesel rate, D is the petrol export duty.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the windfall tax was intended to ensure domestic availability of petroleum products by disincentivising exports in the backdrop of West Asia crises. While revenue generation may be a secondary effect, the core objective is domestic supply security.

Explanation

This Act was enacted to prohibit manual scavenging, ban dry latrines, and mandate rehabilitation. It also lays down compensation norms. The other options relate to different labour issues.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court ruled that state liability is not contingent on employer identity. Statement 2 is false – the court enhanced compensation to ₹30 lakh, not reduced. Statement 3 is correct as the private home owner had paid ₹2 lakh each plus ₹50,000 funeral expenses. Hence option C.

Explanation

The court enhanced the compensation from ₹10 lakh (the amount initially sought by families based on SC order) to ₹30 lakh. The other amounts are not mentioned in the judgment.

Explanation

The court held that the state's constitutional duty under Article 21 makes it primarily liable. It can later recover the compensation from the private home owner. This ensures that victims' families receive immediate relief without being dependent on the financial capacity of private individuals.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) has notified the procedure for allocating TRQs for vehicle imports under CETA. DGFT is the nodal agency under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry for formulating and implementing foreign trade policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: FTAs aim to reduce tariffs, simplify procedures, encourage investments, and open new markets. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the duty reduced from 110% to 10%, it is subject to Annual Quota Limits, not without limits. Statement 3 is correct as the article refers to the agreement as the India-UK CETA (Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement). Therefore option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'For MSMEs, which number over 6.3 crore across India and contribute nearly 30% to the GDP'. The other options provide close but incorrect numbers, which is a common examiner trap.

Explanation

The outreach program's theme was 'Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) and Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreements (CETAs) with various countries'. FKCCI President stressed that FTAs present 'transformative opportunities' for MSMEs. The core aim is to educate and enable MSMEs to use these agreements for better international market access, not to negotiate or increase imports.

Explanation

The Semicon 2.0 program is under the India Semiconductor Mission, which falls under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). The Ministry of Commerce and Industry handles trade aspects, but the semiconductor ecosystem is under MeitY.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the third TTC meeting was in Brussels on July 15, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: Chips 2.0 was adopted in June 2026, not July. Statement 3 is correct: Henna Virkkunen highlighted India's skilled talent pool. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the Union Cabinet approved Semicon 2.0 with an outlay of about $13.25 billion. The other options are distractors: $10 billion was the approximate outlay of Semicon 1.0.

Explanation

The article mentions that Semicon 2.0 focuses on chip design, semiconductor equipment, materials, R&D, chemicals, gases, and setting up fabrication units. The primary objective is building a comprehensive domestic semiconductor ecosystem, not just exports or imports.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'Delhi Transco Limited has been tasked with expanding public charging facilities.' Other agencies are involved in Delhi's administration but are not mentioned in this specific role for EV charging.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the deadline for three-wheelers and LCVs is January 1, 2027, not 2028. Statement 2 is correct: 'Three-wheelers...43.16% of them are already electric.' Statement 3 is correct: The policy sets January 1, 2028 as the deadline for 'only EVs' for two-wheelers, implying 100% EV registration target.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Of the 5.68 lakh two-wheelers registered in 2025-26, only 41,263 (7.25%) were EVs.' Option A (4.56 lakh) is the 2024-25 figure for two-wheeler registrations. Option C (41,263) is the number of EV two-wheelers registered.

Explanation

The article quotes the policy stating that 'two-wheelers account for nearly 67% of Delhi’s vehicle fleet' and that their 'rapid electrification [is] critical for achieving meaningful reductions in vehicular emissions.' Options A and D are attributed to three-wheelers and goods carriers, not two-wheelers. Option B is factually incorrect.

Explanation

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 added Part IX to the Constitution, providing a constitutional framework for Panchayati Raj institutions, including their financial powers. The 74th Amendment relates to Urban Local Bodies. The other options are not related to Panchayati Raj.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the cabinet approved the draft rules for tax levy. Statement 2 is incorrect because the delimitation is based on the 2011 Census, not 2021. Statement 3 is correct as water supply projects worth ₹596.43 crore under AMRUT 2.0 were approved.

Explanation

The article states that the cabinet gave administrative approval for three water supply projects worth ₹596.43 crore (Khagaria: ₹170.86 crore, Sitamarhi: ₹197.12 crore, Samastipur: ₹228.45 crore) under AMRUT 2.0. ₹232.90 crore is the cost of the sewerage project in Hajipur.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the move will enable panchayats to develop their own financial resources, thus reducing their dependence on the state government. This is about fiscal decentralisation and strengthening local self-governance, not about increasing state revenue or centralising collection.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the digital system stores data on the government's cloud platform, MeghRaj. DigiLocker is for storing documents, NIC Cloud is a generic term, and Aadhaar Cloud is not a standard platform mentioned in the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: BNS believes in delivery of justice through retribution, replacing IPC's punishment focus. Statement 2 is incorrect: BNSS considers an accused as a citizen whose rights should be balanced with victims' interests, not as a criminal. Statement 3 is correct: The shift makes the system more democratic and citizen-oriented.

Explanation

The article cites National Crime Records Bureau data stating only 46% of FIRs were digitally transmitted to courts. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article links mandatory forensic examination to the need for robust evidence in serious offences. While increasing forensic labs (option B) is a consequence, the primary objective is to strengthen evidence quality, which supports fair trial and justice delivery. Options A and D are not directly stated as objectives.

Explanation

The article is authored by Dr. N.K. Ganguly, former director-general of the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR). ICMR is the apex body for biomedical research in India. The other options are prominent institutions but not mentioned in the article context.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article which lists organoids, organ-on-chip, and AI as NAMs. Statement 2 is incorrect; India's pharma exports are $30 billion, not $50 billion. Statement 3 is incorrect; the US, EU, UK, and Japan are actively adopting NAMs. Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Explanation

The article states that globally only around 10% to 14% of drug candidates entering Phase I trials ultimately receive regulatory approval. This highlights the limitation of traditional preclinical models and the need for NAMs to improve predictive accuracy.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that NAMs enable more reliable science, faster development cycles, and stronger IP creation, positioning India as a hub for drug discovery and innovation rather than just a manufacturing base. While other benefits exist, this is the core strategic opportunity highlighted.

Explanation

Oil exploration and production fall under the purview of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, which oversees hydrocarbon resources. The Ministry of Mines handles minerals, while Power and Coal are separate sectors.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states 600 million tonnes, not barrels. Statement 3 is correct: exploration halted in the 1990s due to extremism. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Nagaland's reserves have the 'potential to increase India's onshore oil production by 75%'. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned.

Explanation

The article states that these organisations want the inter-State border dispute and the 'Indo-Naga political issue' resolved before exploration resumes. Other options are plausible but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the tariffs are being imposed under Section 301 of the Trade Act of 1974. The IEEPA was used earlier but was restricted by the Supreme Court. Section 232 deals with national security, and the Tariff Act of 1930 is a general tariff law.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the tariff is on 'some' Brazilian imports, not all. Statement 2 is correct as the article lists coffee, beef, oranges, orange juice, some oil/gas, and aerospace parts as exempted. Statement 3 is correct as the USTR conducted the investigation.

Explanation

The article clearly states '25% tariffs' and 'will take effect July 22'. Option A and D confuse the announcement date (July 16) with the effective date. Option C has the wrong rate and date.

Explanation

The article states: 'The order exempts some goods that are not produced in the U.S. or that officials worry would disrupt supply chains.' The list includes coffee, beef, oranges, orange juice, some oil/gas, and aerospace parts. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

ULLAS is India's current adult education programme, launched in 2022 under the Ministry of Education (formerly Ministry of Human Resource Development). It targets adults aged 15+ who could not complete formal schooling.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: NAEP (1978) and NLM (1988) were early adult literacy schemes. Statement 2 is incorrect: Rajasthan certified 83.54 lakh adults, while Punjab certified only 30,573 (2nd worst nationally). Statement 3 is correct: Mizoram identified exactly 3,026 non-literate adults and assigned 292 teachers with individual accountability, achieving 98.2% literacy.

Explanation

The article states the World Bank's standard measure of adult literacy for persons aged fifteen and above placed India at 69.3% as per the 2011 Census. The 80.9% figure is for persons aged seven and above (PLFS 2023-24), and 50.6% is the literacy rate for rural women specifically.

Explanation

The article argues that successful campaigns (Ernakulam, Pudukkottai, Mizoram) treated literacy as a social project with visible community stakes and individual accountability. Failed programmes treated it as an administrative target to be reported upward, leading to the relaunch cycle without resolving structural failures.

Explanation

The scheme is a follow-on to the PLI for smartphones, which falls under the purview of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). The Union Cabinet approved the scheme, but MeitY is the nodal ministry for implementation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions it is a 'five-year follow-on to the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for smartphone assembly'. Statement 2 is incorrect: the additional incentive is '3%', not 5%. Statement 3 is correct: the government wants Indian companies to move into 'product design, research and development, intellectual property, component ecosystems and brand ownership'.

Explanation

The article cites Counterpoint Research data stating that Vivo led the India smartphone market with a 21% share in Q1 2026. Samsung and Oppo each had 17%, Xiaomi 12%, and Realme 9%.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the scheme aims to address the gap of India not having a major domestic smartphone brand. The focus is on moving beyond assembly to 'product design, research and development, intellectual property, component ecosystems and brand ownership', with a specific incentive for Indian brands.

Explanation

The Madhya Pradesh High Court, presided by Justice Himanshu Joshi, issued this directive while hearing a petition by Chaitali Mittra regarding an online fraud. The court impleaded the Union of India, RBI, and state police authorities to evolve a nationwide mechanism.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the court highlighted that victims lose savings in minutes but investigations take days. Statement 2 is incorrect: the court impleaded the Union of India (MHA, DoT), RBI, and multiple state DGPs, not just RBI. Statement 3 is correct: police informed the court that fraudsters use encrypted platforms like Telegram.

Explanation

The Superintendent of Police informed the court that obtaining preliminary responses from bank nodal officers generally takes three to five days, delaying investigations at the initial stage. This delay was cited as a critical factor that benefits cyber offenders.

Explanation

The court found that the issues transcended the individual case and required a coordinated framework for real-time information exchange among investigating agencies, banks, telecom firms, and online platforms. The impleadment aimed to explore a nationwide mechanism, not just resolve the single case.

Explanation

The NMC, established under the NMC Act 2019, is the apex regulator for medical education in India. It replaced the MCI and is responsible for releasing the annual seat matrix for MBBS admissions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: private colleges added 6,175 seats vs. government's 1,739. Statement 2 is correct: Karnataka has 15,395 seats, the highest in India. Statement 3 is incorrect: the total seats increased by 7,913, not decreased.

Explanation

The NMC declared a total of 1,36,939 MBBS seats for the academic year 2026-27. The other options are close distractors; 1,27,026 is not mentioned, 1,45,850 is too high, and 1,29,000 is not the official figure.

Explanation

Private college seats are typically more expensive than government seats. A larger increase in private seats, without a commensurate rise in government seats, raises concerns about affordability and equitable access to medical education for students from lower-income backgrounds.

Explanation

CAFE norms are enforced under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, which is under the purview of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH). The Ministry of Heavy Industries handles electric vehicle schemes (FAME), while the Ministry of Environment deals with air quality standards.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the draft targets. Statement 2 is incorrect because compliance will be assessed over two blocks (an initial three-year period followed by a second block of two years), not annually. Statement 3 is correct as CNFs are introduced for ethanol, CBG, and other biofuels.

Explanation

The draft proposes a reduction of eight percentage points for the current level of ethanol blending. For CBG and other biofuels, the reduction will depend on prevailing blending levels. This is a key data point for prelims.

Explanation

CNFs recognize that fuels like ethanol and CBG have lower lifecycle CO2 emissions compared to fossil fuels. By allowing manufacturers to reduce their declared tailpipe emissions based on blending levels, the policy encourages the adoption of renewable fuels without imposing a direct mandate.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the scheme is implemented by the State’s Women and Child Development Department. This is a static fact linked to the scheme's administration.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the scheme provides ₹1,500/month via DBT. Statement 2 is incorrect: the CAG found an excess expenditure of ₹3,541 crore, meaning it exceeded the budget. Statement 3 is correct: the article says only one woman per family can avail the benefit.

Explanation

The CAG report specifically mentioned an excess expenditure of ₹3,541.16 crore. Option A (₹3,490.75 crore) is the amount reappropriated from Lek Ladki Yojana, not the excess. Option C is the supplementary budget allocation for the scheme, and Option D is the original budget allocation.

Explanation

The article clearly states the government's stated purpose: promoting economic independence of women, improving their health and nutritional status, and strengthening their role in family decision-making. The other options, while related to women's welfare, are not the stated primary objectives of this specific scheme.

Explanation

The article clearly states the study was conducted by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) in Telangana. Other options, though relevant to health, were not the conducting body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is also correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because the same-day result increase was from 6.3% to 7.4%, not to 76.3% (the next-day result increased to 76.3%). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that before drones, the average time for TB diagnosis was 16.6 days; after drones it reduced to 6.9 days. Option B (10 days) is the approximate reduction time, not the pre-intervention baseline.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the aim was to see if drones improve efficiency of TB diagnosis in remote and rural areas, especially hilly regions. The study shows significant reduction in both time and cost. Options A, C, and D are not mentioned or are contrary to the initiative's scope.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Congress of Vienna was 'the first systematic attempt in modern history to institutionalise diplomacy as a mechanism for managing conflict rather than merely concluding it.' The other options are not mentioned: the UN was formed in 1945, neutrality was a later development, and the Crimean War occurred in 1853-56.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article describes the Concert of Europe as 'a balance-of-power architecture, which sought stability through managing rivalries among great powers.' Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says the Concert 'barely offered any framework for managing the conflicts that largely dominated the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries – nationalist independence movements, colonial contestations, and rebellions within states.' Statement 3 is correct: 'the Congress of Berlin in 1878... Under the mediation of German Chancellor Otto von Bismarck.' Hence option C.

Explanation

The article states: 'Its neutrality, recognised by the great powers at Vienna in 1815, was not a passive status but an active diplomatic instrument.' The Congress of Vienna lasted from 1814 to 1815, with the final act signed in June 1815. The other options are incorrect: 1814 is the start year, 1816 is post-Congress, and 1848 is the year of revolutions.

Explanation

The article explicitly concludes: 'procedural neutrality enables agreement, but cannot always guarantee its durability. At some point, a mediator needs leverage vis-à-vis normative authority to hold an agreement in place.' Norway lacked enforcement capacity, and the parties returned to the US for implementation. Options B and D contradict the article; option C is not supported – great powers like the US had reached deadlock before Norway's intervention.

Explanation

The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) is under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), Government of India. It is responsible for meteorological observations, weather forecasting, and seismology.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states 'the country-wide seasonal deficit has slipped to 24 per cent'. Statement 2 is incorrect: the IMD forecast for central India says 'Normal rainfall is likely over central India during July 22-29', not July 16-22. Statement 3 is correct: 'the monsoonal trough would be positioned much to the north of its normal position and remain closer to the Himalayan foothills', which suppresses rain over south and central India.

Explanation

The IMD forecast stated 'below-normal rainfall (about 94 per cent of the long period average) over the country during July'. Rainfall between 96-104% of LPA is considered normal, below 90% is deficient, so 94% is 'below normal'.

Explanation

July is the peak Kharif sowing month for crops like paddy, pulses, and oilseeds. A significant rainfall deficit can delay or reduce the area sown, impacting overall agricultural production for the season. Rabi wheat is sown in winter, and harvesting is not related to July rains.

Explanation

The policy was approved by the Delhi government, as stated by Chief Minister Rekha Gupta. It is a state-level initiative focused on students in Delhi's government schools and funded institutions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the policy offers seed funding up to ₹10 lakh. Statement 2 is incorrect because the policy covers government schools and government-funded colleges, not private universities. Statement 3 is correct as the SIPMC is being set up.

Explanation

Chief Minister Rekha Gupta announced that the government will invest ₹400 crore in the policy over the next five years. ₹22 crore was the budget of the previous AAP government's scheme.

Explanation

Chief Minister Rekha Gupta explicitly stated that the policy is not just to help launch start-ups but to transform Delhi's youth from job seekers into job creators. This aligns with the student-focused approach of the policy.

Explanation

According to the article, under Stage IV of GRAP, entry of diesel medium and heavy goods vehicles is restricted except for those carrying essential commodities or meeting specified exemptions. This is a key static fact about GRAP stages.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the initial phase aims to shift 'nearly half' of long-haul freight, not all. Statement 3 is correct as the article describes the trailer-exchange system. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the study found 'nearly 17,000 heavy-duty trucks enter Delhi every day' and later gives the exact figure as 16,900. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the hubs are designed as freight interchange points where long-haul diesel trucks transfer trailers or cargo to electric trucks for the final leg into the capital. The primary goal is to reduce freight emissions by using EVs for last-mile delivery, not congestion management or revenue generation.

Explanation

As per the policy, all aggregator companies must obtain a licence from the State Transport Authority (STA), which is the state-level regulatory body for transport. The other options are either central bodies or not the licensing authority mentioned in the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the policy mandates drivers receive at least 80% of each fare. Statement 2 is incorrect: the vehicle cap is 50 (not 100) in those cities. Statement 3 is correct: carpooling is legally recognized for cost-sharing, but private owners cannot earn profits. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The policy caps the number of vehicles a single owner can register on one platform at 50 for Mumbai, Pune, Nashik and Nagpur. In the rest of the state, the limit is 25 vehicles. Option B (50) is the correct number for these major cities.

Explanation

Transport Minister Pratap Sarnaik stated that the absence of a uniform regulatory framework had raised issues concerning passenger safety, driver earnings, and fare structures. The policy aims to address these by creating a legal and transparent framework. While revenue and EV adoption are related benefits, the core objective is comprehensive regulation.

Explanation

The article specifically states that Prof Adhikari delivered the Chandra Public Lecture at IUCAA in Pune. IUCAA is an autonomous institution under the Department of Atomic Energy, focused on astronomy and astrophysics.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Prof Adhikari stated LIGO India will be the most sensitive detector in the world. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article mentions LIGO India will commence operations with older components from US LIGO, though everything will be upgraded later. Statement 3 is correct as the project was approved by the Indian government in 2016.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that in 2016, LIGO detected gravitational waves for the first time, 100 years after Albert Einstein predicted their existence in his general theory of relativity. 2015 was the year LIGO began its first observing run, but the detection was announced in 2016.

Explanation

Prof Adhikari explained that the AI-first approach means complicated instruments will be controlled by a mixture of human and artificial intelligence, leading to a revolution in speed compared to current operations in the US. This is a key innovation, not just for data analysis but for real-time instrument control.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the PGSA was set up by Iran to regulate the flow of maritime traffic through the Strait of Hormuz. This is a static fact about a regulatory body created by a sovereign state.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India topped the list of origins for entry requests with 21% share. Statement 2 is correct: China had 21% share of exit requests, second only to India's 20%? Wait, check: 'those bound for India had a 20% share, second only to China’s 21%' for exit. So China is highest for exit. Statement 3 is correct: PGSA approved 79% of applications. Therefore all three statements are correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'As for requests by type of vessels, tankers had the highest share at 41%'. This is a direct data point that can be tested in prelims. The other options are for bulk carriers (27%), container ships (18%), and exit requests (53%).

Explanation

The article states: 'Around 40% of India’s crude oil imports, 60% of its LNG imports, and a whopping 90% of its LPG imports came from West Asia through the strait.' Option A is incorrect because it says 90% of crude, but it's actually 40%. Option C is about global flows, not India-specific. Option D is false. Option B is correct and highlights the extreme dependence on LPG, making the strait vital for household energy supply.