15 July 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

Section 166 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 provides for the filing of claim petitions for compensation arising out of motor vehicle accidents. Section 140 deals with 'no fault liability' which provides fixed baseline compensation regardless of fault. Section 173 relates to appeals, and Section 2(34) defines 'motor vehicle'.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The SC held that motor accident claims are civil proceedings, not criminal trials. The standard of proof is 'preponderance of probabilities', not 'beyond reasonable doubt'. Statement 2 is correct: the Court invoked res ipsa loquitur. Statement 3 is correct: the Court drew an adverse inference for withholding the best available evidence (the conductor).

Explanation

The Supreme Court awarded Rs 65.58 lakh, Rs 41.66 lakh, and Rs 35.36 lakh to the three families. The sum of these amounts is approximately Rs 1.42 crore, which is rounded to Rs 1.4 crore in the article. The other options are close distractors but incorrect.

Explanation

The SC emphasized that motor accident claims are civil proceedings. The standard of proof is 'preponderance of probabilities' (more likely than not), not the criminal standard of 'beyond reasonable doubt'. This reduces the evidentiary burden on claimants and aligns with the beneficial object of the Motor Vehicles Act.

Explanation

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the RBI is tasked with setting the repo rate to achieve the inflation target of 4% with a tolerance band of 2-6%. The article mentions the MPC's upcoming August meeting and its decision on rates.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: CPI inflation rose to 4.38% from 3.93% in May. Statement 2 is correct: food inflation was 5.32% and specific items were mentioned. Statement 3 is correct: the article says quarter average was 3.9% which is marginally lower than RBI's projection of 4.2%. Hence all three statements are correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The cumulative rainfall in the current monsoon season from June 1 has been 19.3 per cent below normal.' Option D (16.0%) is the decline in kharif sowing acreage, not rainfall.

Explanation

The article states: 'the increase in food and energy prices is finding its way to the restaurant category.' This indicates a pass-through of input costs, not demand or tax changes. Other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly refers to the Strait of Hormuz as the waterway Iran closed. It is a strategic chokepoint for about 20% of the world's oil shipments. The other options are also chokepoints but are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the MoU established a 60-day negotiation window. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article states that VP Vance and Secretary of State Rubio assured that no country can levy tolls on an international waterway – Trump's plan contradicted his own admin. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions one Indian crew killed and one missing. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the MoU allowed '60 days for negotiations on a broader settlement'. Almost half of that period had passed before the ceasefire collapsed. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that Iran is 'determined to prevent the emergence of alternative routes that could erode that leverage' and views control over the Strait as its 'last and most potent card'. Options A, C, and D are not supported by the article text.

Explanation

The National Statistics Office (NSO) is the nodal statistical agency in India and functions under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). It conducts large-scale surveys like the National Sample Survey (NSS).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: CMS-E was part of the NSS 80th round. Statement 2 is incorrect: CAPI does not allow non-response; enumerators must enter a value to proceed, which is a key flaw highlighted in the article. Statement 3 is correct: the survey found 27% of government school students are paying fees.

Explanation

The article states that in Himachal Pradesh, the percentage of students with no course fees in government schools was 55.6% in rural areas and 78.3% in urban areas. The 27% figure is the overall national finding that students are paying fees, while 50.4% is the negative difference in educational expenditure between govt and private schools in rural areas.

Explanation

The article's central argument is that the finding of 27% fee-paying students in government schools is likely due to data collection errors (CAPI rigidity, misinterpretation of 'tuition fees'), and if not properly investigated, such errors 'tarnish the reputation of government schools and teachers'. The article does not support amending the RTE Act or claim that private schools are more affordable.

Explanation

The Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958 provides for the preservation of ancient monuments of national importance. Section 16 of this Act specifically bars using a protected monument in a manner inconsistent with its character. The Places of Worship Act 1991 deals with maintaining the religious character of places of worship as of 1947.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Section 3 of the Act prohibits conversion of any place of worship and maintains its religious character as of August 15, 1947. Statement 2 is correct: Section 4(3)(a) exempts ancient and historical monuments covered by the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Act specifically excluded the Ram Janmabhoomi-Babri Masjid dispute from its purview under Section 5.

Explanation

The ASI survey report recorded Paramara-period foundations from the 9th or 10th century, along with temple-style pillars and inscriptions referring to 'Sharada Sadan'. The Paramara dynasty ruled in central India (Malwa region) during this period. The other options represent different historical periods and regions.

Explanation

The principal challenge is that the HC 'impermissibly delved into highly contentious and complex questions of fact, historical evidence, and archaeological interpretations' to determine the original character of the monument. The petitioners argue such detailed examination is beyond the scope of summary proceedings in writ jurisdiction (Article 226) and should have been relegated to a civil court for a full trial.

Explanation

The Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal ministry for India's trade agreements, including CETA. It handles negotiations related to tariffs, market access, and trade regulations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article confirms the agreement came into force on July 15, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect because the agreement also simplifies customs procedures and enhances regulatory cooperation. Statement 3 is correct as Telangana's exports to the UK are dominated by pharmaceuticals and electronics.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Telangana's exports to the UK were valued at $402.5 million during 2025-26. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article highlights that tariff elimination under CETA will make goods from Telangana more competitive in the UK market, as previously high tariffs (e.g., up to 16% on leather, 14% on machinery) are now zero. This directly boosts export potential.

Explanation

The Ministry of Commerce and Industry, through its Department of Commerce, handles all trade negotiations including FTAs. The Commerce Secretary is the top bureaucrat in this ministry, as mentioned in the article where Commerce Secretary Rajesh Agrawal announced the deal details.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: U.K. eliminates tariffs on 96.8% of tariff lines (97.7% trade value) immediately. Statement 2 is incorrect: The DCC relief was initially set at 3 years but was revised to 5 years. Statement 3 is correct: U.K. firms can participate as Class-II local suppliers in eligible Indian Central government procurement tenders.

Explanation

The article states that in the first year, a total of 20,000 completely built units (CBUs) of petrol and diesel passenger vehicles will be allowed at concessional rates of 30-50%. The quota rises to 37,000 by year 5 and then falls to 15,000 by year 15.

Explanation

The DCC addresses the problem of Indian workers paying social security in both India and the U.K. Since most are in the U.K. for short periods (up to 5 years) and U.K. benefits require 10 years of contributions, they would lose their U.K. contributions. The DCC exempts them from U.K. social security if paying in India, saving ~23% of salary.

Explanation

The Supreme Court relied on Article 21, which states that no person shall be deprived of life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. The Court held that this procedure must be fair, just, and reasonable, citing Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978).

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because Section 9 of the Foreigners Act places the burden on the proceedee to prove they are not a foreigner. Statement 2 is correct as per the SC ruling that the Tribunal must still examine material even in ex-parte cases. Statement 3 is incorrect because Articles 14 and 21 apply to 'any person' and 'no person' respectively, not just citizens.

Explanation

The article states that the Supreme Court delivered its judgment on Monday, July 13, 2026. The other dates are close distractors.

Explanation

The SC held that non-appearance of the proceedee does not relieve the Tribunal of its duty to examine the material and provide a reasoned opinion. This ensures procedural fairness and prevents mechanical declarations of foreigner status.

Explanation

The article states that a bipartisan group of U.S. Senators unveiled the bill. The Senate is the upper chamber of the U.S. Congress and is responsible for introducing and passing legislation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the bill targets five countries including India and China with 100% tariffs. Statement 2 is incorrect: the bill exempts 15 European nations, not all of Europe. Statement 3 is correct: the earlier version proposed 500% tariffs. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions that an earlier version of the bill sought to impose 500% tariffs on purchasers of oil and gas from Russia. The current version proposes 100% tariffs.

Explanation

The article states the bill aims to punish countries financing another nation's war effort, referring to Russia's invasion of Ukraine. It is a geopolitical weapon to cut revenue streams funding Russian aggression.

Explanation

The news explicitly states that Iran's Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC) threatened to close the Strait of Hormuz. The IRGC is a separate branch from the regular military, established after the 1979 revolution to protect the Islamic system.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Houthis have threatened to close the Bab el-Mandeb Strait as well, making two vital arteries at risk. Statement 2 is correct as the Houthis are described as Iran-backed allies. Statement 3 is correct as the IRGC said it targeted facilities of the US Fifth Fleet in Bahrain.

Explanation

The article states that before the war began in February, about a fifth of global oil and gas shipments passed through Hormuz each day. The other options are plausible but incorrect fractions.

Explanation

The US military explicitly stated that the strikes were 'to continue degrading Iranian capabilities used to attack commercial shipping in the Strait of Hormuz.' This is a defensive and targeted objective, not regime change or territorial conquest.

Explanation

The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is India's national space agency, responsible for all space missions including Gaganyaan. While VSSC (Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre) and HSFC (Human Space Flight Centre) are ISRO centers involved in the project, the nodal agency is ISRO.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the sphere-cone configuration balances internal volume with aerodynamic stability. Statement 2 is incorrect: the service module separates and burns up during re-entry, while only the crew module survives splashdown. Statement 3 is correct: the crew module decelerates by aero-braking and faces dynamic instability near the speed of sound.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'the Gaganyaan crew module, for instance, has two distinct stable aerodynamic positions as well as two stable hydrodynamic positions.' This is because achieving a single stable orientation (mono-stability) is challenging due to centre of gravity constraints.

Explanation

The article defines the service module's role as providing 'on-orbit support to the OM' and states that 'the propulsion system in the service module will fire its thrusters to de-orbit the OM.' The crew module serves as the habitat, and the third module in Soyuz/Shenzhou houses docking and cargo.

Explanation

The LAHDC Act, introduced in 1997, provides for elected councils in Leh and Kargil districts. It is a statutory Act, not a constitutional provision like the Sixth Schedule. The J&K Reorganisation Act created Ladakh as a UT, but the LAHDC Act governs local governance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: 5 new districts (Sham, Nubra, Changthang, Zanskar, Drass) were notified in April 2026, making 7 total. Statement 2 is correct: total tehsils increased to 32 after 17 new tehsils. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article states that Leh district got 12 new tehsils and Kargil got 5, not the other way around. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Ladakh has a total population of 2.74 lakh as per the 2011 census. The other options are close distractors; 2.50 lakh is less than the actual figure, while 2.96 lakh and 3.12 lakh are higher. This data point is important for Prelims questions on demography.

Explanation

The article quotes the administration's argument that new districts and tehsils would bring government services closer to people, reduce travel, and strengthen infrastructure. Option A is not mentioned; option C contradicts the stated goal of protecting culture; option D is a possible secondary benefit but not the primary objective. Hence B is correct.

Explanation

The judgment was delivered by Justice Bibhu Datta Guru of the Chhattisgarh High Court, ruling that guest lecturers cannot be denied maternity salary under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court explicitly held that the Act does NOT restrict benefits only to regular employees. Statement 2 is correct as the court relied on Dr Kavita Yadav (2024). Statement 3 is correct as the court directed the state to decide the claim within three months.

Explanation

According to the petition, Dr Garibin Mashkare applied for maternity leave on August 18, 2025. She had been working as a guest lecturer since August 24, 2024. The leave was granted, and she resumed duty on October 25, 2025.

Explanation

The court held that the Maternity Benefit Act does not distinguish between regular and casual/guest workers. The ruling reinforces the principle that maternity benefits are a fundamental right linked to gender justice and dignity, not contingent on the nature of employment.

Explanation

India Semiconductor Mission is under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). The article quotes IT Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw, confirming MeitY's role.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: Cabinet approved ₹1.27 lakh crore. Statement 2 is a trap – ISM 1.0 outlay was ₹76,000 crore, not ₹1.64 lakh crore (that was the cumulative investment of 12 projects). Statement 3 is correct: the new scheme covers the entire value chain.

Explanation

The article clearly states 'Cabinet has approved ISM 2.0 with a total outlay of ₹1.27 lakh crore'. Option A is the outlay of ISM 1.0, C is cumulative investment under ISM 1.0, D is expected future investment.

Explanation

The article quotes Minister Vaishnaw: 'We will be self-reliant in the production of indigenous chips by the end of this programme'. The scheme covers the full value chain including design, manufacturing, and raw materials, not just imports or design.

Explanation

The article refers to the 'Fertilizers Ministry', which is the Department of Fertilizers under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. This ministry oversees urea production, subsidy, and investment policies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: NIPU-2026 targets 10 MT capacity via 8-9 plants. Statement 2 is incorrect: RoE is a band with floor 12% and ceiling 16%, not a flat 12%. Statement 3 is correct: the policy applies equally to all sectors as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states: 'The annual domestic production is around 30 million tonne against the requirement of 40 million tonne.' Hence demand is 40 MT. 30 MT is production, 10 MT is the import gap.

Explanation

The article repeatedly states that the policy aims to make India 'self-reliant' in urea, addressing the current import of 10 MT. It does not focus on revenue, exports, or reducing plants.

Explanation

The article states that the agreement was signed between Prime Minister Narendra Modi and his UK counterpart Keir Starmer in July last year (2025). Keir Starmer was the UK Prime Minister at that time.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 99% of exports become duty-free. Statement 2 is incorrect: the agreement is expected to boost GDP by £5 billion annually, not double it. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions textiles, leather, engineering, food processing, pharmaceuticals, and MSME as benefiting sectors.

Explanation

The article states: 'The pact is expected to at least double the trade between the two countries from the current annual levels of estimated 48 billion pounds by 2030.' Hence the current trade volume is £48 billion.

Explanation

The article repeatedly emphasizes that the treaty offers zero-duty market access for 99% of Indian exports, which is the core benefit. It is part of the vision of Viksit Bharat and pro-people diplomacy. The other options are not mentioned as primary objectives.

Explanation

The judgment was delivered by a Division Bench of the Kerala High Court, comprising Chief Justice Soumen Sen and Justice V.M. Syam Kumar. The court was hearing a PIL on the compliance of Digi Yatra with data protection laws.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The court ruled that Aadhaar cannot be insisted upon for Digi Yatra registration. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Airports Authority of India argued that Digi Yatra is a voluntary service, not mandatory. Statement 3 is correct: The PIL sought strict compliance with the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 and its Rules, 2025.

Explanation

The PIL specifically sought to ensure that Digi Yatra's collection, storage, processing, and transmission of passenger data complies with the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 and the Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025.

Explanation

The court's observation upholds the voluntary nature of Aadhaar, as established by the Supreme Court in the Puttaswamy judgment. It means Digi Yatra must accept other valid identity documents (like passport or driving license) for registration, not just Aadhaar.

Explanation

The article states that the Pentagon issued a subsequent statement reaffirming the 2024 agreement to end the mission. The Pentagon is the U.S. Department of Defense that oversees military operations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the invasion was based on 'faulty claims' of WMD. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says the peak was 170,000 troops, not 200,000. Statement 3 is correct: the Pentagon reaffirmed a 2024 agreement to end the mission against IS fighters. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Iraqi PM Ali al-Zaidi said 'U.S. forces will be out of Iraq' by Sept. 30, and the Pentagon confirmed the withdrawal timeline. The other options are incorrect dates not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that the U.S. has been shifting the burden for combating IS to Iraqi troops who have been trained by the U.S. military, and President Trump said 'we don't think we need the military there anymore.' The 2024 agreement was to end the mission against IS, implying the threat has been reduced and Iraqi forces are now capable.

Explanation

The India Semiconductor Mission is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) to develop the semiconductor ecosystem in India, as detailed in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because ISM 2.0 has tiered subsidies: 40% for silicon fabs, 35% for other fabs, 35% for advanced packaging, and 25% for conventional packaging, not uniform 50%. Statement 2 is correct: outlay Rs 1.27 lakh crore, 6 years. Statement 3 is correct: the scheme includes R&D and talent development subsidies. Hence option C.

Explanation

Under ISM 2.0, silicon fabs receive a 40% subsidy on capex, down from 50% in ISM 1.0. Other fabs get 35%, advanced packaging 35%, and conventional packaging 25%.

Explanation

ISM 2.0 focuses on subsidising ancillary supply chain (gases, chemicals) and R&D to deepen domestic value addition and insert India into the global chip supply chain, aiming for 70-75% domestic chip needs by 2029 and top global status by 2035.

Explanation

The scheme for mobile phone manufacturing and the earlier PLI for smartphones fall under the purview of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), which oversees the electronics sector. The other ministries have different mandates.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the scheme provides differentiated rates ranging from 2.25% to 5%, not a uniform 5%. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: an additional incentive of up to 1.5% is linked to domestic sourcing. Statement 3 is correct: the scheme targets 60,000 direct jobs.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The scheme targets to reach cumulative production of Rs 39 lakh crore during the tenure of the scheme.' Option A (₹22 lakh crore) is the production achieved under the previous PLI scheme. Option C (₹11.6 lakh crore) is the smartphone production under PLI. Option D is the scheme outlay.

Explanation

The 3% incentive specifically targets Indian brands for design and R&D. This aims to foster homegrown innovation and reduce reliance on foreign design houses, moving India up the value chain from mere assembly to product development. Options A and D are secondary benefits or not the primary objective.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Iran's Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC) on Tuesday reported attacks on American bases in Jordan, Bahrain, Kuwait and other targets in West Asia.' The IRGC is a separate branch of Iran's military and is designated as a terrorist organization by the US.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions attacks on US bases in Jordan, Bahrain, Kuwait, and Oman. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says satellite images indicate 'damage' to the drone command and control centre, not complete destruction. Statement 3 is correct: President Trump warned of a 'massive strike' next week. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions that satellite images showed damage to the fighter jet maintenance and repair centre at the 'Al Udeid base in Qatar' following Iranian strikes. This is a key US military facility in the region.

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz is a critical chokepoint through which a significant portion of global oil passes. A blockade on Iranian ports disrupts oil supply, leading to higher prices and threatening energy security for oil-importing nations such as India. The article highlights the blockade as a major escalation.

Explanation

The Delimitation Commission is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament for the purpose of redrawing boundaries of constituencies. It works under the supervision of the Election Commission but is a separate body constituted for each delimitation exercise.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article actually argues AGAINST population being the sole determinant. Statement 2 is correct - southern states contribute ~20% of taxes but have only 13% population. Statement 3 is correct - the author advocates for a hybrid formula including tax contribution.

Explanation

The article states that Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Telangana contribute roughly 20 per cent of all taxes (direct plus indirect). Option A (18%) was their share five years ago. Option C (13%) is their population share. Option D (6%) is the tax contribution of the northern states.

Explanation

The article argues that a population-only formula incentivizes states to increase population to protect their seat share, leading to regressive policies like encouraging higher birth rates. This distracts from development-focused governance.

Explanation

The Ministry of Commerce and Industry, through its Department of Commerce, leads trade negotiations including FTAs. The article discusses the India-UK FTA, which falls under the purview of this ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states India secured zero-duty on 99% tariff lines and 87% of pharma exports became duty-free. Statement 2 is incorrect: the CBAM is omitted from core treaty protections. Statement 3 is correct: the FTA provides a legal guarantee that India can reciprocate tariffs if the UK introduces carbon tariffs. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that for Category 1 hot-rolled sheets, India's CSQ is 33,456 tonnes per year. Option B (18.3 million tonnes) is the EU's global import cap. Options C and D refer to car quotas under the FTA (10,000 units in year one, 37,000 by year five).

Explanation

The article highlights that CBAM is excluded from the FTA's core protections, and India's only recourse is the right to impose counter-tariffs. This means India cannot use FTA provisions to negotiate exemptions or seek tariff-free treatment for carbon-intensive goods like steel, potentially increasing costs for Indian exporters. The other options are too extreme or incorrect.

Explanation

The POCSO Act, 2012 is the comprehensive law to protect children from sexual abuse. The article discusses its application to consensual adolescent relationships, which the expert committee aims to address through sex education.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the curriculum starts from Class 6. Statement 2 is incorrect: consent is excluded for younger groups and introduced at secondary stage. Statement 3 is correct: teacher training is mandatory before delivery.

Explanation

The article states that the committee proposed introducing adolescent education from Class 6 through a graded approach. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Supreme Court directed the Centre to address the growing criminalisation of consensual adolescent relationships and minor pregnancies under POCSO. The committee's report and the proposed curriculum aim to provide age-appropriate education to reduce such cases.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the M S Swaminathan Research Foundation (MSSRF) has been a partner in this effort, together with the Vidhi Centre for Legal Policy (Maharashtra).

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The WFC de-links the requirement of owning land. Statement 2 is correct: The Act adopts the broad definition of 'farmer' from the National Policy for Farmers (2007). Statement 3 is incorrect: The monitoring committee is headed by the Chief Secretary, not the Chief Minister. The governing council is headed by the Chief Minister.

Explanation

The article states that 82% of the rural female workforce in Maharashtra is employed in agriculture, compared to 58% of rural men. The all-India figures are 73% for women and 47% for men.

Explanation

The WFC formally recognizes a woman as a farmer and effectively de-links the requirement of owning land. This enables access to entitlements under government schemes, extension services, credit, and market opportunities.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the Bab el-Mandeb Strait connecting the Red Sea with the Gulf of Aden. It is a key chokepoint for global trade and Saudi oil exports.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the IRGC warned it could target Bab el-Mandeb. Statement 2 is incorrect: the US Fifth Fleet is based in Bahrain, not Kuwait. Statement 3 is correct: Houthis are an Iran-aligned group. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'roughly one-fifth of the world's daily oil and natural gas shipments transited through the Strait of Hormuz'. One-fifth equals 20%.

Explanation

The article highlights that closing Bab el-Mandeb could drive crude oil prices as high as $200 per barrel, as it is a key route for Saudi oil exports. This threatens global energy security and could impact economies like India.

Explanation

The article clearly states that SEBI has voluntarily adopted a comprehensive code of conduct for its board members. The other options are other financial regulators, but the news specifically refers to SEBI.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the code applies to both WTMs and PTMs. Statement 2 is false: the code restricts WTMs from making fresh investments in equities, equity-linked instruments, and derivatives. Statement 3 is correct: gifts over Rs 50,000 from personal friends must be reported to the OEC.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that gifts exceeding Rs 50,000 from personal friends on social occasions must be reported to SEBI's Office of Ethics and Compliance. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the text.

Explanation

The article's headline and opening lines state that the code aims to boost transparency, accountability, and public confidence. Other options are not mentioned as objectives. The code was voluntarily adopted, not as a direct response to Hindenburg, but following allegations.

Explanation

The article quotes Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal, indicating that the Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal ministry for trade agreements in India. The Ministry of External Affairs handles diplomacy, not trade directly. The Ministry of Finance deals with tariffs but not negotiation of trade pacts.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states 99% of Indian goods will be duty-free or have reduced tariffs. Statement 2 is incorrect: the exemption is for up to 60 months, not 36 months. Statement 3 is correct: the deal aims to double trade from ~48 billion pounds by 2030. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions that import duty on Scotch whisky has been cut from 150% to 75% under the CETA. Therefore, the pre-CETA duty was 150%. Option B (75%) is the new rate, option C (110%) is the pre-CETA duty on premium UK cars, and option D (50%) is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article states that the Agreement on Social Security exempts Indian professionals on temporary UK assignments of up to 60 months from making social security contributions in both countries, reducing costs for employees and employers. This is its primary objective. The other options are not mentioned or are incorrect interpretations.

Explanation

EPFO is a statutory body under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, as confirmed by the mention of Labour and Employment Minister Mansukh Mandaviya in the article. It is not under Finance or Corporate Affairs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the interest was credited on July 15 'for the first time in the history of EPFO'. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article does NOT mention any specific interest rate for FY26; only the total amount (₹1.44 lakh crore) is given. Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly mentions merging '123 databases into one single national database'. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article quotes an official saying '1,700 crore records were migrated as part of the exercise'. The other options are close distractors: 1,400 crore refers to the number of transactions migrated, but the total records include employer records as well, summing to 1,700 crore.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the migration was done to overcome verification challenges and achieve 'crediting of interest in one go'. The revamped portal enabled automated processing of interest and claims. Other options are not supported by the article's content.

Explanation

The article quotes Union Minister of Commerce and Industry Piyush Goyal announcing the operationalization of CETA, indicating that the Commerce Ministry is the nodal body for trade agreements in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the FTA came into force on Wednesday (15 July 2026). Statement 2 is incorrect because the article says 'nearly 99%' not 100%. Statement 3 is correct as PM Modi mentioned the Agreement on Social Security. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the agreement 'delivers zero-duty market access for nearly 99 per cent of India's exports'. Option D (100%) is a distractor, as the figure is 'nearly 99%'.

Explanation

PM Modi specifically said the trade deal will benefit 'the farmers, entrepreneurs and MSMEs' and deepen cooperation in technology, professional services and innovation. This is directly mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the amendments were issued under Section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. The RBI Act governs the central bank itself, while the Companies Act applies to all companies and SEBI regulates securities markets.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the RBI said the review was intended to enable boards to focus on strategy and risk governance. Statement 2 is incorrect: the effective date is October 1, 2026, not January 1, 2027. Statement 3 is correct: the article states 'The Chairperson of the Board will have the primary responsibility for setting the agenda of the meeting.' Hence, only 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states 'The amendments... will come into effect from October 1, 2026.' July 15, 2026 is the publication date. The other options are plausible but incorrect dates.

Explanation

The article says the review was intended to enable boards to utilise time more effectively and facilitate 'more focused and qualitative engagement' on strategic issues and risk governance. Options A, C, and D contradict the article: the number of meetings is not increased, the chairperson gets more responsibility, and the framework applies to both PSBs and private banks.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Dr. Reddy's Laboratories suspended supplies of its generic semaglutide after its internal inspection detected impurities in the API during production scale-up. This is a key fact mentioned in the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'supplies about 20% of the world's generic medicines by volume'. Statement 2 is incorrect: India is the world's third largest by volume and 11th largest by value. Statement 3 is correct: 'more than 40 Indian firms have reportedly announced plans to launch their lower-cost products'. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically states: 'The estimated size of API market in India in 2025 was about ₹1,31,700 crore catering to domestic as well as export requirements of formulations.' The other options are distractors: ₹15,000 crore is the PLI outlay, and the others are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that scaling up production of peptide-based drugs without compromising quality is a major technical challenge. It states that 'success in this market depends not merely on patent expiry but on manufacturing excellence and regulatory compliance because regulatory credibility is a strategic asset.' The Dr. Reddy's incident underscores this point.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions the Abathsahayeswarar Temple at Thukkachi as the recipient of the UNESCO award. The other options are famous Chola temples but not the one in the news. This requires careful reading of the temple name.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the temple is a 12th-century Later Chola monument. Statement 2 is incorrect: the restoration was funded by philanthropist T. Vasanthakumar, not the government. Statement 3 is correct: drone surveys and digital mapping were used. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that on December 6, 2024, UNESCO announced its Award of Distinction. September 3, 2024 was the date of the kumbhabhishekam (consecration). The other dates are distractors. This is a precise fact for prelims.

Explanation

The article states that the HR&CE Department undertook the restoration as a pilot project to develop a model for conserving living historic temples, and the experience was incorporated into the State's Manual for Temple Restoration. It did not become a World Heritage Site, nor was it the first use of modern technology (though it integrated both). Funding was from a philanthropist, not UNESCO.

Explanation

The article clearly states that in 2005, the Supreme Court's e-committee proposed a blueprint for digitising court administration. The Law Commission and Ministry of Law and Justice are involved in broader legal reforms but not the specific 2005 e-courts blueprint.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the first paperless e-court opened at Karkardooma, Delhi in 2008. Statement 2 is correct: Gujarat HC went live on YouTube in July 2021, a first among HCs. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article states that Calcutta's district courts and Nagaland reported no digitised district court records, not the highest.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that as of December 31, 2025, High Courts and district courts had conducted 3.93 crore cases via video conferencing. The other options are close distractors; 5 crore+ is the total case pendency figure.

Explanation

The e-Mulakat system specifically allows lawyers and family members to schedule video meetings with undertrial prisoners without physically going to jail, reducing logistical hassles. The other options describe different digital initiatives in the judiciary.

Explanation

The article repeatedly mentions MMSY as the overarching scheme under which all road and bridge projects are approved. Setu Bandhan is a sub-scheme for bridges only.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the total outlay is ₹30,000 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect - Setu Bandhan Yojana has an outlay of ₹11,000 crore, not ₹6,700 crore (which is for TRIP). Statement 3 is correct as CUVDA targets left wing extremism-affected, hilly, and remote regions.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Cabinet approved extension of Setu Bandhan Yojana with a substantial outlay of ₹11,000 crore for construction of 1,750 new bridges and completion of 1,417 ongoing ones.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the large-scale infrastructure push comes at a politically significant time with Odisha heading towards three-tier panchayat and urban local body elections early next year, making it a strategic move by the ruling party.

Explanation

The article directly mentions that a Constitution Bench in the case of Bihar Legal Support Society versus Chief Justice of India in 1986 had underscored that the Supreme Court is a 'people's court' and must function as the 'symbol of the hopes and aspirations of millions of people in the country.' This judgment came after the Supreme Court's late-night hearing of bail applications of industrialists.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states 'no work, unless of an urgent nature, shall be admitted after 4.30 p.m.' on normal working days. Statement 2 is incorrect because urgent work is allowed after 4:30 p.m. Statement 3 is correct: the amended rule left it to the Chief Justice of India's discretion to decide when offices would remain open during partial court working days, Christmas and New Year holidays.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Surinder Koli, who was a convict in the Nithari serial murders case, however won reprieve when an apex court Bench stayed his execution after midnight hearing. Koli was acquitted in the Nithari case in November 2025.'

Explanation

The article states that the petition seeks 'framing a uniform and institutional framework to urgently set up Benches, night or day, no matter the hour, for citizens who approach constitutional courts... in cases affecting their life and liberty.' The petition highlights the need for continuous judicial accessibility beyond court hours to prevent irreversible consequences from executive excesses.

Explanation

The article states that Jaishankar was on a two-day visit to Belgium from July 14 to 15 to participate in the 3rd India-EU Trade and Technology Council meeting and interact with EU and Belgian counterparts in Brussels. Therefore, the correct country is Belgium.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says Jaishankar went to Brussels for the 3rd TTC. Statement 2 is incorrect: the summit yielded both a Free Trade Agreement AND a new Security and Defence Partnership. Statement 3 is correct: Kaja Kallas in her post mentioned cooperation between EU operations ATALANTA and ASPIDES and the Indian navy. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Jaishankar visited Belgium to participate in the '3rd India-EU Trade and Technology Council meeting'. This is a specific data point that can be asked in prelims. The other options are distractors.

Explanation

The article's headline and Jaishankar's own statement emphasize 'advancing trade and technology cooperation'. The TTC is the platform for this. While maritime security and supply chain resilience are discussed, the core objective of the TTC is trade and technology cooperation. The other options are either too narrow or not mentioned as the primary aim.

Explanation

The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016 established the National CAMPA and State CAMPA bodies to manage funds collected for compensatory afforestation. The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 mandates compensatory afforestation but does not establish CAMPA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states the ratio is 10:90 (National:State). Statement 2 is correct: the article mentions that the stipulation is for plantations on non-forest areas, though activists have raised violations. Statement 3 is incorrect: the extension is for 3 more years, not 5.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the funds are shared between National and State/U.T. fund in the ratio of 10:90. The National CAMPA gets 10% and States get 90%.

Explanation

The article states that one of the main drawbacks is that 'plantations are inherently different from natural ecosystems.' Mere afforestation without acknowledging the ecological balance fails to replicate the ecosystem. Other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) is supporting the project along with Innovation Norway. MNRE is the nodal ministry for all renewable energy projects in India, including this river kinetic energy demonstration plant.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states it is India’s first river kinetic energy demo plant in Arunachal. Statement 2 is incorrect: The technology generates electricity directly from river currents ‘without requiring major civil infrastructure.’ Statement 3 is correct: The MoU was signed under the India-Norway Green Partnership, with MNRE and Innovation Norway supporting it.

Explanation

The news article explicitly states that the project is a ‘500 kW project’ to demonstrate the technology. Options A, C, and D are close distractors but do not match the exact capacity mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article highlights that river kinetic energy technology generates electricity directly from river currents ‘without requiring major civil infrastructure,’ making it environmentally sustainable and cost-effective compared to conventional hydroelectric projects that involve dams and extensive construction.

Explanation

The article states that Russia's Ministry of Agriculture announced the use of alternative shipping routes and modal shifts for grain exports from the Sea of Azov.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the latest attack hit 11 vessels including 5 tankers. Statement 2 is incorrect: Russia announced rerouting, not a halt. Statement 3 is correct: drone attacks on oil refineries have caused a fuel crisis. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article quotes Ukrainian commander Robert Brovdi stating that the total number of vessels struck in the past nine days reached 116. The other options are distractors: 11 is the latest attack count, 108 is the number of drones shot down by Ukraine, and 288 is the number of drones intercepted by Russia.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Ukraine's drone campaign aims to disrupt Russian fuel supplies, slow military logistics, and increase the economic cost of the war. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

While the Ministry of Agriculture assesses agricultural drought, the overall coordination for disaster relief, including sending Central teams for drought assessment, falls under the Ministry of Home Affairs, which administers the National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the news. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states Karnataka received 203 mm against a normal of 292 mm (30% deficit), not the other way around. Statement 3 is correct as the storage was 303 TMC out of 895.65 TMC, which is 34%.

Explanation

The article clearly states the seasonal target for kharif sowing is 84.10 lakh hectares. Option A (28.36 lakh hectares) is the area actually sown as of the first week of July, which is only 34% of the target. Options C and D are distractors.

Explanation

The CM specifically mentioned that any significant decline in production due to drought could have wider implications for the national availability and prices of pulses, especially tur dal. This is because Karnataka is a major producer of pulses, and a shortfall can affect the national market.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Hassabis proposed a body 'much similar to the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (FINRA)'. FINRA is a self-regulatory organization for the US financial industry, and the proposed AI body would adopt a similar public-private partnership model.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions a '30-day pre-release assessment window'. Statement 2 is incorrect: the body is proposed as a 'public-private partnership', not entirely government-run. Statement 3 is correct: Hassabis says AGI 'could arrive within the next few years'. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Hassabis suggested a '30-day pre-release assessment window for frontier models'. The other options are common regulatory timeframes but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states the body would 'conduct meticulous evaluations before deployment' and test for risks like cybersecurity and biological threats. While it may indirectly influence development speed, the core objective is safety assessment, not promotion or funding.

Explanation

As per the article, the HMRC guidance states that workers must obtain a 'certificate of coverage' from India's EPFO as evidence of making social security contributions in India. EPFO is the nodal agency for provident fund and social security in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect – the article explicitly states the DCC is not retrospective and does not apply to those already working before July 15. Statement 2 is correct – the exemption is for 60 months. Statement 3 is correct – the DCC took effect on July 15, 2026 alongside CETA.

Explanation

The article states that the India-U.K. DCC increased the exemption from 12 to 60 months for detached workers. This is a key factual point likely to be tested in exams. The previous UK law allowed only 12 months.

Explanation

The DCC is designed to ensure that temporary workers (detached workers) do not have to pay social security contributions in both India and the UK for the same period. It exempts them from host country contributions for up to 60 months, thereby avoiding double contributions.

Explanation

Section 124-A IPC defines and punishes sedition. It was invoked in this case along with Sections 188 (disobedience to order) and 120-B (criminal conspiracy). Section 302 deals with murder.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court held sloganeering is not sufficient for sedition. Statement 2 is correct – the High Court dismissed the Haryana government's appeal. Statement 3 is correct – the court observed violent protest may be rioting but not sedition. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The High Court order was dated July 2, 2026, as mentioned in the article. July 15, 2026 is the publication date. September 23, 2019 is the trial court acquittal date. August 25, 2017 is the date the FIR was registered.

Explanation

The High Court stated that the burden lies squarely on the prosecution to establish guilt beyond reasonable doubt. It noted that suspicion and suppositions are probabilities, not proof. The court also stressed the importance of test identification parade when witnesses are strangers to the accused.

Explanation

The article states that the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), chaired by the Prime Minister, approved the projects. NHAI is the implementing agency, not the approving body. The CCEA is the highest economic decision-making cabinet committee.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: the NH-19 corridor is 46.039 km long (the 43.218 km figure is for NH-31). Statement 3 is correct: the NH-31 project will reduce travel time from 40 min to 20 min. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the 43.218 km NH-31 corridor is at a total capital cost of ₹10,998.32 crore. The NH-19 corridor costs ₹14,447.64 crore. The total of both projects is over ₹25,400 crore. Option D is a distractor not mentioned.

Explanation

The article mentions multiple objectives: decongesting Varanasi, improving connectivity to Kashi Railway Station, airport, temple, and port; facilitating tourism and pilgrimage; and supporting logistics efficiency and economic growth in eastern UP. Therefore, all options are correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Ministry of Heavy Industries has invited global bids for setting up ACC battery manufacturing plants under the PLI scheme. The Ministry of Heavy Industries is the nodal ministry for this scheme.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article confirms the scheme was approved in 2021. Statement 2 is incorrect: The total capacity is 50 GWh, not 40 GWh (40 GWh is the part already allocated). Statement 3 is correct: The article says these batteries will be used for grid-scale energy storage. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions that the Centre approved an ₹18,100-crore PLI scheme to build 50 GWh of battery manufacturing capacity. The other options are distractors; ₹50,000 crore is close to the capacity target but not the outlay.

Explanation

The article states: 'The objective of the scheme is to reduce India's dependence on imported ACCs by strengthening domestic manufacturing capabilities and incentivising large domestic and international players to establish a globally competitive ACC battery-manufacturing ecosystem.' Options A, C, and D are secondary or not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) is an attached office of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. It is responsible for formulating and implementing India's foreign trade policy, including FTAs and export promotion schemes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the FTA eliminated duties only on 'eligible Indian home textile products,' not all textiles. Statement 2 is correct as Collector C. Muthukumaran flagged off the consignment. Statement 3 is correct as the industry expects doubling to ₹1,600 crore within two years.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Karur Textile Cluster exports home textile products worth approximately ₹800 crore annually to the UK. The other options are either lower or represent the expected doubling target.

Explanation

The article explains that duties increased the landed cost, making Indian products less competitive. With duty elimination, the landed cost decreases, directly improving price competitiveness and allowing exporters to compete with countries that had preferential access.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'The Department of Fertilizers will cover new gas-based urea manufacturing units under NIPU-2026.' Hence, the Department of Fertilizers is the implementing body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: NIPU-2026 replaces NIP-2012. Statement 2 is incorrect: the policy introduces a return on equity band of 12% to 16%, not a fixed 12%. Statement 3 is correct: the policy aims for self-sufficiency under Atmanirbhar Bharat.

Explanation

The article states: 'India currently has 33 operational urea manufacturing units with a reassessed installed capacity of 269.42 lakh metric tonnes (LMT).' Option A is the exact representation. Option C uses 'lakh tonnes' which is equivalent but LMT is the precise term used.

Explanation

The article clearly states that NIPU-2026 aims 'to encourage investment in gas-based urea manufacturing units and increase domestic production' and 'achieve the goal of self-sufficiency under the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative.' Options A, B, and D are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article quotes Secretary P Bharathi of Gujarat’s Department of Science and Technology. DST is the nodal department for the data centre policy. GESIA is an industry association, not a government department.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: Rs 6 lakh crore investment and 7.5 GW capacity. Statement 2 is incorrect: Telangana was the first state to announce a data centre policy in 2016. Statement 3 is correct: 51% green energy mandate is part of the policy.

Explanation

The article clearly states the policy targets investments of Rs 6 lakh crore. Option A (Rs 60,000 crore) is the EFCI cap for a 1 GW project; option D (Rs 91,000 crore) is the investment in Tata Electronics semiconductor plant in Dholera.

Explanation

The article mentions that Dholera is being developed as a smart industrial city and already hosts the Tata Electronics semiconductor plant. The extra subsidies aim to attract data centres there, potentially creating a cluster of electronics and AI infrastructure. Fiscal burden reduction is not the goal; it is an investment promotion strategy.

Explanation

The Madras High Court, comprising Justice N Anand Venkatesh and Justice K K Ramakrishnan, passed the order on July 14, 2026, upholding the conviction of a man for sexually exploiting women through non-consensual recordings and blackmail.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the court cited mirror neurons as the biological substrate of empathy that fires similarly whether we experience an event or merely observe it. Statement 2 is incorrect: the court found a 'high degree of premeditation, cruelty and moral depravity' and upheld the sentence with no reduction. Statement 3 is correct as per the recovery details mentioned in the order.

Explanation

The trial court specifically took into account that 355 nude and semi-nude videos and more than 1,000 obscene photographs were recovered during the investigation, depicting hundreds of young women victimised by the accused.

Explanation

The court observed that the digital era has shattered the protective wall, and judges now have to consume explicit content that captures the offence itself. It warned that if the mental and neurological toll is ignored, the system will end up with burnt-out, traumatised, and emotionally numbed investigators, lawyers, and judges.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the trial court convicted the man for sexual assault under the provisions of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012. The other acts are related but not the primary one used in this case.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court described the crime as a 'deep, lacerating wound' on society. Statement 2 is correct as the court explicitly said leniency based on youth or family responsibilities would undermine legislative intent. Statement 3 is incorrect because the court held that lack of physical resistance or failure to loudly protest under threat could NOT be called consent.

Explanation

The article states that the convict was sentenced to imprisonment for life and ordered to pay a fine of Rs 30,000. The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'The lack of physical resistance or the failure of the child to loudly protest, while being shifted through public places under threat, could not be called consent'. This principle protects traumatized child victims from having their silence misinterpreted.

Explanation

As per the article, the Bombay High Court acquitted them in 2010, and the Supreme Court later upheld that acquittal in 2026. The trial court (Sessions Court) had convicted them in 2008.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court explicitly said the chain of circumstances is broken. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court said the affair was not proven, only a one-sided infatuation. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the grinding stone was not sealed at seizure, reducing evidentiary value.

Explanation

The article states the case pertains to the death of Kiran Suryawanshi in February 2007. The other options are distractors: 2008 is the trial court conviction year, 2010 is the Bombay HC acquittal year.

Explanation

The Supreme Court specifically held that the chain of circumstances was broken and the hypothesis of guilt was not exclusively established. While motive and forensic issues were part of the reasoning, the core legal principle was the failure to establish an unbroken chain of circumstantial evidence.

Explanation

The article states that the Chhattisgarh High Court, presided by Justice Ravindra Kumar Agrawal, delivered the ruling on July 9, 2026. The other options are incorrect as the judgment was specific to the Chhattisgarh High Court.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court ruled that privacy does not automatically preclude admissibility. Statement 2 is correct as the court relied on K S Puttaswamy (2017). Statement 3 is correct as the court set aside the trial court's order and directed that admissibility be decided during trial after evidence is led.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'the court said on July 9'. July 15, 2026 is the publication date of the news article. March 27, 2026 is the date of the trial court's rejection order. November 1, 2022 is the date of the land sale agreement mentioned in the case.

Explanation

The High Court held that the right to privacy is not an automatic exclusionary rule. Admissibility must be assessed based on relevance to the facts, authenticity of the recording, and compliance with the legal framework for electronic evidence. This balances privacy with the need for truth-seeking in litigation.

Explanation

The Medical Assessment & Rating Board (MARB) is an autonomous board under the NMC. It is responsible for assessing and rating medical institutions, releasing seat matrices, and issuing Letters of Permission (LoP) after compliance checks like the E-Bank Guarantee. The other options are different boards under NMC with distinct functions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the 1,36,939 seats exclude Institutes of National Importance (INIs). Statement 2 is correct: private colleges have 73,643 seats vs government's 63,296. Statement 3 is correct: 25 new colleges (7 govt + 18 private) added 2,400 seats (400 govt + 2,000 private). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically states that 9,911 are newly increased seats this year. Option A (2,400) is the number of seats from new colleges only, option B (7,800) is the increase in private colleges, and option D (1,27,028) is the renewed seats from existing capacity.

Explanation

The E-Bank Guarantee is a compliance mechanism mandated by MARB to ensure that private colleges meet financial and regulatory standards. The Letter of Permission (LoP) is issued only after this guarantee is received and found in order, preventing irregularities in seat allocation and admissions.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the CCEA approved the proposal 'piloted by the Department of Fertilizers'. This department under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers is responsible for fertiliser production and subsidy policies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per article: six new units were set up, including four through JVs of PSUs and two by private companies. Statement 2 is incorrect: the policy encourages gas-based, not coal-based, manufacturing units. Statement 3 is correct: NIP-2012 expired in October 2019.

Explanation

The article states: 'There are 33 operational urea-manufacturing units with reassessed/installed capacity of 269.42 LMT.' LMT stands for Lakh Metric Tonnes, a common unit for fertiliser production capacity.

Explanation

The article explicitly says the policy 'aims to make the country self-reliant in the production of fertiliser' under the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative. While reducing imports may also reduce subsidy, self-reliance is the declared primary objective.

Explanation

The proposed law transfers control of over 500 UG colleges from the Governor (Chancellor) to a newly created higher education department in Bihar. This is a state-level administrative change, not involving UGC or the central ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions both university acts are being merged. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article explicitly states that the new law will do away with the pathway for college teachers to become university professors. Statement 3 is correct: the mandatory PhD requirement for assistant professors is removed, with NET qualification being sufficient.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Bihar has 21 state universities running both undergraduate and postgraduate courses. This is a key factual data point for prelims.

Explanation

The core of the proposed law is to bifurcate degree colleges from universities and bring them under direct control of the Department of Higher Education, removing the Governor's (Chancellor's) control. The other options are either opposite of the proposed changes or not mentioned as objectives.

Explanation

According to the article, the US Department of Justice indicted Lawrence Bishnoi after a coordinated action by law enforcement from the US, Canada, and Europe. The RCMP and IHIT are involved in a separate Canadian investigation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article clearly states the indictment does not include the Indian government or its officials. Statement 2 is correct as the RCMP Deputy Commissioner said there is no evidence to link Indian government officials. Statement 3 is correct as four Indian nationals were charged with First Degree Murder and Conspiracy to Commit Murder in BC Supreme Court.

Explanation

The article mentions that US authorities indicted Lawrence Bishnoi for allegedly ordering the killing in 2023 of Khalistani separatist Hardeep Singh Nijjar in Canada. The other years are distractors.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that the indictment aligns with India's position that it does not interfere in other countries' internal affairs. While it supports India's denial, it does not prove all Canadian allegations false, nor does it transfer investigation authority or automatically free diplomats.

Explanation

The EPFO is a statutory body under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, as confirmed by the news article which quotes Labour and Employment Minister Mansukh Mandaviya. The Ministry of Finance oversees banking and fiscal policy, not provident fund administration.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states it is the first time interest was credited by July 15. Statement 2 is incorrect: out of 35 crore total accounts, only 8 crore are active contributing accounts. Statement 3 is correct: the EPFO merged 123 databases into one national database, migrating 1,700 crore records.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that Labour and Employment Minister Mansukh Mandaviya said the annual interest of Rs 1.44 lakh crore for FY 2025-26 was auto-processed. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that the new revamped portal enables automated processes including claim verification and informing members about withdrawal eligibility, aimed at reducing claim rejection rates. It also mentions settling 11 lakh claims in one go. Increasing interest rates or membership expansion are not mentioned as objectives.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the US Central Command (CENTCOM) carried out the strikes on Greater Tunb. CENTCOM oversees US military operations in the Middle East and Central Asia, making it the relevant command for this action.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says the blockade was reimposed 'at the direction of President Donald Trump.' Statement 2 is correct: Iran took control of Greater Tunb, Lesser Tunb, and Abu Musa in 1971, and the UAE claims them. Statement 3 is incorrect: the barracks struck were in Sistan and Baluchestan province, not Hormozgan.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'Tehran took control of Greater Tunb, Lesser Tunb, and Abu Musa in 1971.' This was just before the formation of the UAE. The other options are common distractors related to other Iranian historical events.

Explanation

The article states that the strikes were part of 'reimposing Iran's naval blockade' and that analysts say if the US takes over the islands, it could allow control of the Strait of Hormuz. Option A is a secondary aspect but not the primary stated objective. Options C and D are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the audit was done by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), a constitutional body under Article 148. The other options are also constitutional bodies but not relevant to financial audit of state funds.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the audit period was 2015-16 to 2023-24. Statement 2 is false: the article states that the state government did NOT incorporate the PMKKKY provision requiring CAG audit. Statement 3 is correct: in violation of DMFT Rules, funds were used without approved budgets and annual plans.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that DMFTs received Rs 13,101 crore up to 2023-24. Option A (₹10,253 crore) is the amount spent (78% of total). Option C is what was spent on directly affected villages. Option D is what was allocated before affected areas were identified.

Explanation

The article mentions that the expanded definition led to allocation of ₹709.47 crore for free items distributed randomly without criteria, diluting benefits meant for mining-affected communities. This is a classic case of governance failure where deviation from rules undermined the scheme's objective.

Explanation

The article states that the research was led by Professor Debabrata Maiti of IIT Bombay, and the team included students from IIT Bombay. BARC collaborated but did not lead.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the method converts straight-chain carbon compounds into ring-shaped molecules. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article emphasizes it is a general platform applicable to a wide array of organic compounds, not just muricatacin. Statement 3 is correct: the research was published in Nature.

Explanation

The article states that only about 15 mg of muricatacin is obtained from about 15 kg of plant material, and that too mixed with other substances. This highlights the inefficiency of natural extraction.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the new method could make drug discovery 'faster, cheaper and more sustainable' by reducing the number of steps and chemical waste. The other options are either false or opposite of the claimed benefits.

Explanation

Highway projects, including elevated corridors, are implemented by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways through agencies like NHAI. The Ministry of Railways handles railway projects, while the other ministries are not directly involved in highway construction.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Varuna corridor is 43 km and 6/4-lane elevated. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Ganga corridor has a 910 m cable-stayed bridge, not 1.32 km; the 1.32 km structure is an extradosed foot overbridge with a travelator. Statement 3 is correct: the railway doubling/quadrupling will increase freight capacity by 44 mtpa.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Cabinet approved projects worth Rs 25,446 crore. The other options are close distractors to test precise recall of the figure.

Explanation

The article states that the corridor has been conceived to decongest the road network of Varanasi and Chandauli, provide connection between NH-19, Varanasi Ring Road, Ramnagar, BHU, and other key centres, and includes a foot overbridge with travelator for pedestrian connectivity to Kashi Vishwanath Temple. Thus, all three objectives are mentioned.

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) handles India's diplomatic relations and responses to incidents involving Indian nationals abroad, as seen in the article where MEA issued a statement condemning the attacks.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: GFS Galaxy had 11 Indians, 10 rescued, one missing. Statement 2 is incorrect: MT Al Bahiyah had 12 Indians with one killed, not MT Mombasa. Statement 3 is correct: MEA called for free and unimpeded navigation. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'As many as 13 Indians have been killed, and three are missing since the war began on February 28.' The other options are close distractors (11 is number on GFS Galaxy, 12 is number on MT Al Bahiyah, 10 is number rescued from GFS Galaxy).

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz is a strategic waterway through which approximately 20% of the world's oil passes. The attacks on commercial vessels in this area directly threaten global energy supplies and maritime trade, which is why India called for unimpeded navigation.

Explanation

The article specifically states that 'US senators introduced a revised Russia sanctions bill.' The bill was first tabled in April 2025 by Senator Lindsey Graham and Senator Richard Blumenthal, indicating its origin in the US Senate.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the maximum tariff was reduced from 500% to 100%. Statement 2 is incorrect because the exemption threshold is for countries importing less than 15% (not 10%) of Russia's natural gas exports. Statement 3 is correct as the bill targets the shadow fleet and projects like Yamal LNG and Arctic LNG.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the 'blanket 500 per cent tariff envisaged in the original bill' was reduced to 100% in the revised proposal. The other options are incorrect as they do not match the figures mentioned.

Explanation

The article states the legislation 'seeks to impose sanctions on Russian officials and use tariffs to encourage countries heavily reliant on Russian energy to reduce their dependence.' The reduction from 500% to 100% and the exemption clause for countries taking steps to reduce imports further supports this objective.

Explanation

The article states that in 1962, American biochemist Leland C. Clark, Jr. and microbiologist Champ Lyons described the first functional biosensor in the form of an electrode coated with an enzyme that reacted with glucose to produce a measurable electrical current.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: aptamers are short, synthetic DNA or RNA strands that bind to target proteins with high selectivity. Statement 2 is incorrect: according to the article, aptamers are cheaper, more stable, and easier to manufacture than antibodies. Statement 3 is correct: over the last two decades, scientists have developed aptamers for hundreds of disease-relevant proteins.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Sepsis kills 11 million people every year.' The other options are distractors—5 million, 15 million, and 20 million are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explains that the high surface area of nanomaterials gives more protein binding sites, while their electrical properties generate stronger signals, enabling detection of proteins even at low concentrations. Options A, C, and D are not supported by the article—nanomaterials enhance sensitivity but do not replace the transducer or recognition element.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the data was released by China's National Bureau of Statistics (NBS). The World Bank and IMF are international bodies, not Chinese government agencies. The NBS is China's official statistical agency.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 4.3% growth was below the government's annual target of 4.5-5%. Statement 3 is correct as the NBS released the data. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that GDP expanded by 4.3% in Q2, down from 5% in the first quarter. The other options are distractors: 4.3% is the Q2 figure, and 4.5% and 5.5% are not mentioned as Q1 data.

Explanation

The article explicitly lists a 'real estate slowdown' as one of the multiple challenges facing China. The other options are opposite to the actual situation: the article mentions sluggish consumption and serious challenges in the job market, not rapid growth or high employment.