10 July 2026, Questions & Answers

156 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

156 questions  ·  0 topics covered  ·  32 min revision

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This page contains 156 current affairs questions with answers from 10 July 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

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10 July 2026, Questions with Answers

156 Qs
Q1.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for the management of India's land borders, as indicated by the announcement of the border fencing project?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Defence
  • B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of External Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Border Management
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes Union Home Minister Amit Shah, indicating that the Ministry of Home Affairs oversees border security and fencing projects. The Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for internal security, including border management, through agencies like the Border Security Force (BSF).

Source: ₹31,000 Cr India-Myanmar Border Fencing Approved: Home Minister Warns Against Illegal Infiltration & Demographic Changes →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-Myanmar border fencing project:

1. The government will fence the entire border at a cost of ₹31,000 crore.

2. The project will be executed under the Ministry of External Affairs.

3. Home Minister Amit Shah warned about demographic changes caused by illegal infiltration.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article says the government is fencing the 1,610-km stretch at ₹31,000 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect: The project is under the Ministry of Home Affairs, as the Home Minister announced it. Statement 3 is correct: Amit Shah cautioned against demographic changes caused by unnatural factors, citing illegal infiltration as the primary cause.

Source: ₹31,000 Cr India-Myanmar Border Fencing Approved: Home Minister Warns Against Illegal Infiltration & Demographic Changes →
Q3.

What is the total cost approved for fencing the India-Myanmar border, as per the announcement by Union Home Minister Amit Shah?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹30,000 crore
  • B.₹31,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹32,000 crore
  • D.₹31,500 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Home Minister said the government was fencing the border at a cost of ₹31,000 crore. The other options are close distractors; careful reading is required to avoid confusing with similar figures.

Source: ₹31,000 Cr India-Myanmar Border Fencing Approved: Home Minister Warns Against Illegal Infiltration & Demographic Changes →
Q4.

According to Home Minister Amit Shah, what is the primary cause of abnormal demographic changes in India's border areas?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Natural population growth
  • B.Illegal infiltration✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Economic migration from other states
  • D.Government resettlement policies
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly quotes Shah: 'illegal infiltration was the primary cause of demographic changes in border areas.' This highlights the government's concern about unauthorized cross-border movements affecting the demographic composition of border regions.

Source: ₹31,000 Cr India-Myanmar Border Fencing Approved: Home Minister Warns Against Illegal Infiltration & Demographic Changes →
Q5.

Which Indian agency signed a Memorandum of Understanding with Australia's Maritime Border Command during PM Modi's 2026 visit?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Navy
  • B.Indian Coast Guard✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of External Affairs
  • D.National Security Council Secretariat
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Joint Declaration on Defence and Security Cooperation included an MoU between Australia's Maritime Border Command and the Indian Coast Guard, focusing on maritime domain awareness and cooperation against shadow fleets.

Source: India-Australia Strategic Ties: From Convergence to Alignment via Defence, Energy & Cyber Pacts →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-Australia strategic partnership:

1. The SHANTI Act reformed India's nuclear liability law, enabling commercial uranium supply from Australia under the 2014 civil nuclear agreement.

2. The PACTS framework is a trilateral partnership involving India, Australia, and Canada.

3. According to the Lowy Institute Poll, trust in the United States among Australians reached a record low of 31%.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the SHANTI Act (Dec 2025) reformed liability laws, operationalising the uranium deal. Statement 2 is incorrect: PACTS is a bilateral India-Australia partnership (Cyber, Critical Tech, Supply Chains); the trilateral with Canada is AC-ITIP. Statement 3 is correct as per the Lowy Poll data mentioned in the article.

Source: India-Australia Strategic Ties: From Convergence to Alignment via Defence, Energy & Cyber Pacts →
Q7.

According to the Lowy Institute Poll cited in the article, what percentage of Australians expect India to be the world's most important power a decade from now?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.5%✓ Correct Answer
  • B.15%
  • C.31%
  • D.54%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Lowy Poll found that only 5% of Australians see India as the most important power in ten years, while 54% chose China. 31% was the trust rating for the United States, a separate data point. This shows a significant perception gap between elite convergence and public awareness.

Source: India-Australia Strategic Ties: From Convergence to Alignment via Defence, Energy & Cyber Pacts →
Q8.

What is the primary strategic challenge identified in the article for converting India-Australia 'convergence' into 'alignment'?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lack of bilateral trade agreements
  • B.Divergent force-structure orientations (Western Pacific vs continental/maritime)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Absence of a diaspora community in Australia
  • D.Disagreement over climate change targets
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Australia's defence posture (AUKUS, Western Pacific focus) and India's dual attention (continental threats + maritime challenges) mean the 'shared ground is narrower than political convergence suggests.' This is the core gap in operational alignment, not trade or diaspora absence.

Source: India-Australia Strategic Ties: From Convergence to Alignment via Defence, Energy & Cyber Pacts →
Q9.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for the implementation of the Demography Mission announced in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Defence
  • D.Ministry of External Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Demography Mission was announced by Union Home Minister Amit Shah at the Land Border Districts’ SPs Conference, which is under the Ministry of Home Affairs. The mission focuses on studying abnormal demographic changes in border areas caused by illegal migration, a key internal security concern.

Source: Amit Shah Announces ₹31,000 Cr India-Myanmar Border Fencing, Smart Border Grid at SPs Conference 2026 →
Q10.

Consider the following statements regarding the announcements made at the first-ever Land Border Districts’ SPs Conference 2026:

1. A Demography Mission has been constituted to study abnormal demographic growth in border areas.

2. The government has decided to fence the 1,610 km India-Myanmar border at a cost of ₹21,000 crore.

3. Border infrastructure has been augmented by 400% under the smart border vision.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Home Minister announced a Demography Mission. Statement 2 is incorrect: the cost mentioned is ₹31,000 crore, not ₹21,000 crore. Statement 3 is correct: border infrastructure augmentation of 400% was stated. Hence option C is correct.

Source: Amit Shah Announces ₹31,000 Cr India-Myanmar Border Fencing, Smart Border Grid at SPs Conference 2026 →
Q11.

What is the length of the India-Myanmar border that the government has decided to fence?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1,600 km
  • B.1,610 km✓ Correct Answer
  • C.1,620 km
  • D.1,650 km
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the government has decided to fence the 1,610-km-long India-Myanmar border at a cost of ₹31,000 crore. The other options are close distractors but not the exact figure mentioned.

Source: Amit Shah Announces ₹31,000 Cr India-Myanmar Border Fencing, Smart Border Grid at SPs Conference 2026 →
Q12.

What is the primary objective of the Demography Mission announced by the Home Minister?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase the population in border areas through incentives
  • B.To study the pattern of demographic changes caused by abnormal factors like illegal migration✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To resettle refugees from neighbouring countries in border areas
  • D.To implement a national population register in border districts
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Home Minister stated that a demography mission has been constituted to study the pattern of 'unnatural demographic growth' caused by abnormal factors such as infiltration. The objective is not to increase population or resettle refugees, but to analyse and address the threat of illegal migration.

Source: Amit Shah Announces ₹31,000 Cr India-Myanmar Border Fencing, Smart Border Grid at SPs Conference 2026 →
Q13.

Which legislative body passed the amendments to the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Samiti (BNSS) as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.A. Maharashtra Legislative Assembly
  • B.B. Maharashtra Legislative Council✓ Correct Answer
  • C.C. Parliament of India
  • D.D. Union Cabinet
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Maharashtra Legislative Council passed the amendments on July 8, 2026, and they are yet to be passed by the Legislative Assembly. So the body that passed is the Council.

Source: Maharashtra BNSS Amendments: 30-Day Preventive Custody, Digital Seizure, ACP Powers – Constitutional Test →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding the BNSS amendments passed by Maharashtra:

1. The amendment to Section 170 allows preventive custody up to 30 days, replacing the earlier 24-hour limit.

2. The amendment lowers the rank of officials who can exercise certain investigative powers from Superintendent of Police to Deputy Superintendent of Police.

3. The amendment to Section 98 includes electronic and digital records under the state's power to forfeit or seize content.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Section 170 amendment allows up to 30 days preventive custody. Statement 2 is incorrect: the rank change is from SP to ACP (Assistant Commissioner of Police), not DSP. Statement 3 is correct: Section 98 now includes electronic and digital records. Hence option C.

Source: Maharashtra BNSS Amendments: 30-Day Preventive Custody, Digital Seizure, ACP Powers – Constitutional Test →
Q15.

According to the article, what is the maximum period for which a judicial magistrate can order preventive custody under the amended Section 170 of BNSS?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.A. 15 days
  • B.B. 24 hours
  • C.C. 30 days✓ Correct Answer
  • D.D. 45 days
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the amendment allows the judicial magistrate to order detention for a period of 15 days at a time, but not beyond 30 days. So maximum is 30 days.

Source: Maharashtra BNSS Amendments: 30-Day Preventive Custody, Digital Seizure, ACP Powers – Constitutional Test →
Q16.

What is the primary legal basis that allows Maharashtra to amend the central BNSS law?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.A. Article 246 of the Constitution (Union List)
  • B.B. Concurrent List under Seventh Schedule✓ Correct Answer
  • C.C. State List under Seventh Schedule
  • D.D. President's Rule provision
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that state legislatures can make such amendments since criminal law is a subject in the Concurrent List of the Constitution. They must ensure amendments do not conflict with central law.

Source: Maharashtra BNSS Amendments: 30-Day Preventive Custody, Digital Seizure, ACP Powers – Constitutional Test →
Q17.

Which of the following bodies is proposed to be replaced by the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan (VBSA) under the VBSA Bill, 2025?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.NAAC and NBA
  • B.UGC, AICTE, and NCTE✓ Correct Answer
  • C.IGNOU and NIOS
  • D.AICTE and UGC only
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The VBSA Bill, 2025 proposes to dismantle the University Grants Commission (UGC), the All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE), and the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) and replace them with a single apex body called the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan (VBSA).

Source: VBSA Bill 2025 Opposed by NDA States for Over-Centralising Higher Education Regulation →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan (VBSA) Bill, 2025:

1. The Bill proposes to replace the UGC, AICTE, and NCTE with a single apex regulatory body.

2. Clause 47 of the Bill gives the Centre emergency powers to suspend the Commission for up to one year.

3. The Bill has been passed by both Houses of Parliament and is awaiting Presidential assent.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Bill proposes to dismantle UGC, AICTE, and NCTE. Statement 2 is correct: Clause 47 allows suspension for up to six months, extendable by another six months (total up to one year). Statement 3 is incorrect because the Bill is currently under review by a Joint Parliamentary Committee and has not been passed.

Source: VBSA Bill 2025 Opposed by NDA States for Over-Centralising Higher Education Regulation →
Q19.

According to the VBSA Bill, 2025, what is the maximum period for which the Centre can suspend or supersede the Commission or its Councils under Clause 47?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Six months (non-extendable)
  • B.One year (six months + six months extension)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Two years
  • D.Three months (non-extendable)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Clause 47 gives the Centre emergency powers to suspend or supersede the Commission or its Councils for up to six months, and allows an extension by another six months, making the total maximum period one year.

Source: VBSA Bill 2025 Opposed by NDA States for Over-Centralising Higher Education Regulation →
Q20.

What is the primary concern raised by state governments regarding the VBSA Bill, 2025?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Bill reduces funding for higher education institutions
  • B.The Bill centralises higher education regulation and undermines state autonomy✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Bill abolishes all accreditation bodies
  • D.The Bill increases the number of regulatory bodies
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

State governments, including NDA-ruled states like Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh, have opposed the Bill primarily because Clauses 45 and 47 give the Centre binding direction and supersession powers, limiting state representation in regulatory councils and threatening federal balance in education governance.

Source: VBSA Bill 2025 Opposed by NDA States for Over-Centralising Higher Education Regulation →
Q21.

Which institution issued the regulatory advisory on AI-enabled cyber threats for banks, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
  • D.Ministry of Finance
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article refers to a 'recent regulatory advisory issued to the banks' by the central bank, which is the RBI. The advisory elevates cybersecurity responsibility to the board level.

Source: IndiaAI Mission ₹10,372 Cr, 38,000 GPUs: National Response Needed for AI Cyber Risks in Banking →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding the article:

1. The RBI advisory elevates cybersecurity responsibility to the board level, making it a strategic issue.

2. The advisory recommends immediate patching of vulnerabilities without testing, to keep pace with AI threats.

3. The IndiaAI Mission has a government outlay of ₹10,372 crore.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states the advisory 'elevates cybersecurity responsibility to the board level'. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article warns against rushed patching, citing the Crowdstrike incident. Statement 3 is correct: the IndiaAI Mission has a government outlay of ₹10,372 crore, as mentioned.

Source: IndiaAI Mission ₹10,372 Cr, 38,000 GPUs: National Response Needed for AI Cyber Risks in Banking →
Q23.

According to the Stanford AI Index 2026 cited in the article, what was the private AI investment in the United States in 2025?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.$285.9 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • B.$12.4 billion
  • C.60 billion yuan
  • D.£2 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'The Stanford AI Index 2026 notes that private AI investment in the United States reached $285.9 billion in 2025.' The other options are also mentioned in the article but refer to China's private investment ($12.4B), China's national AI fund (60B yuan), and UK's compute roadmap (£2B).

Source: IndiaAI Mission ₹10,372 Cr, 38,000 GPUs: National Response Needed for AI Cyber Risks in Banking →
Q24.

What is the primary challenge banks face when AI systems produce an overabundance of vulnerability findings, according to the article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Lack of sufficient vulnerability data
  • B.Overabundance of data making prioritization difficult✓ Correct Answer
  • C.No access to AI tools for vulnerability assessment
  • D.High cost of AI-based security solutions
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'When AI systems produce findings at high speed, the problem is no longer a lack of insight but overabundance of the same. This might obscure the critical weakness risk in the noise.' Thus, the challenge is prioritization, not lack of data.

Source: IndiaAI Mission ₹10,372 Cr, 38,000 GPUs: National Response Needed for AI Cyber Risks in Banking →
Q25.

Which Indian ministry is primarily responsible for transmitting and examining extradition requests from foreign countries?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • D.Central Bureau of Investigation
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the extradition request is transmitted by the US State Department to India's Ministry of External Affairs, which then consults the Ministry of Home Affairs and agencies like CBI. Hence, MEA is the nodal ministry.

Source: India-US Extradition Treaty: Dual Criminality, Speciality, and Bishnoi Extradition Case →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-US Extradition Treaty:

1. The treaty requires that the offence for which extradition is sought must be punishable by imprisonment of more than one year in both countries.

2. Extradition can be refused on the ground that the person sought is an Indian citizen.

3. The rule of speciality ensures that an extradited person can be tried only for the offences for which extradition was granted.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: dual criminality requires >1 year imprisonment in both countries. Statement 2 is incorrect: the treaty explicitly says extradition cannot be refused merely because the person is an Indian citizen. Statement 3 is correct: rule of speciality is a key safeguard. Hence option C.

Source: India-US Extradition Treaty: Dual Criminality, Speciality, and Bishnoi Extradition Case →
Q27.

In which year was the India-US Extradition Treaty signed?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.1995
  • B.1997✓ Correct Answer
  • C.1999
  • D.2002
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the bilateral Extradition Treaty between India and the US was signed in 1997. The other options are close distractors: 1995 is not mentioned, 1999 is the year of the Kargil conflict, and 2002 is the year of the first extradition from India to US.

Source: India-US Extradition Treaty: Dual Criminality, Speciality, and Bishnoi Extradition Case →
Q28.

Why can India potentially delay the extradition of Lawrence Bishnoi even if the extradition treaty requirements are satisfied?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Because Bishnoi is an Indian citizen and the treaty allows refusal on that ground
  • B.Because he is already in judicial custody and faces numerous domestic criminal prosecutions✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Because the US charges do not satisfy dual criminality
  • D.Because the treaty has expired
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 14 of the treaty and Section 31 of the Extradition Act allow India to postpone surrender while domestic proceedings are pending. The article specifically mentions this as the most significant legal consideration for Bishnoi. Option A is incorrect because the treaty bars refusal on citizenship grounds. Option C is false as charges likely satisfy dual criminality. Option D is false as the treaty is still in force.

Source: India-US Extradition Treaty: Dual Criminality, Speciality, and Bishnoi Extradition Case →
Q29.

Which statutory body is responsible for certifying films for theatrical release in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Central Board of Film Certification✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
  • C.Film and Television Institute of India
  • D.National Film Development Corporation
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, established under the Cinematograph Act, 1952, to certify films for public exhibition.

Source: CBFC Sought 127 Cuts for Satluj Film; Section 69A Used for OTT Takedown Under IT Rules 2021 →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding regulation of OTT platforms in India:

1. OTT platforms are regulated under the Cinematograph Act, 1952.

2. The IT Rules, 2021 prescribe a three-tier grievance mechanism for digital media.

3. Section 69A of the IT Act empowers the government to block content.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: OTT platforms are regulated under the IT Rules, 2021, not the Cinematograph Act. Statement 2 is correct: Part III of IT Rules, 2021 prescribes a three-tier grievance structure. Statement 3 is correct: Section 69A of IT Act allows blocking of content subject to safeguards.

Source: CBFC Sought 127 Cuts for Satluj Film; Section 69A Used for OTT Takedown Under IT Rules 2021 →
Q31.

How many cuts did the Central Board of Film Certification seek before clearing the theatrical release of the film Satluj?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.100
  • B.127✓ Correct Answer
  • C.150
  • D.200
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the CBFC sought 127 cuts before clearing a theatrical release. The makers refused and opted for an OTT release instead.

Source: CBFC Sought 127 Cuts for Satluj Film; Section 69A Used for OTT Takedown Under IT Rules 2021 →
Q32.

What is the primary objective of the three-tier grievance mechanism established under the IT Rules, 2021 for OTT platforms?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To bring OTT platforms under the direct certification of CBFC
  • B.To ensure self-regulation by publishers with escalating government oversight✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To automatically block all content that is critical of the government
  • D.To levy fines on platforms for streaming uncertified content
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The IT Rules, 2021 set up a three-tier structure: self-regulation by the publisher, self-regulatory bodies, and government oversight through the I&B Ministry. This allows platforms to first regulate themselves before government intervention, as explained in the article.

Source: CBFC Sought 127 Cuts for Satluj Film; Section 69A Used for OTT Takedown Under IT Rules 2021 →
Q33.

Which agency issued the forecast that the current El Niño has an 81% chance of becoming very strong during October-December 2026?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.India Meteorological Department (IMD)
  • B.National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.World Meteorological Organization (WMO)
  • D.Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that NOAA issued the monthly bulletin with the 81% chance forecast. IMD is mentioned for India's monsoon forecasts, but the strong El Niño prediction is from NOAA.

Source: NOAA: 81% Chance of Very Strong El Niño (Oct-Dec 2026) – Impact on India's Monsoon →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding the current El Niño event:

1. El Niño is declared when the average sea surface temperature anomaly in the Niño 3.4 region surpasses 0.50°C.

2. El Niño strengthens the Indian monsoon rainfall, leading to above-normal precipitation.

3. The current El Niño began in June 2026 and is expected to intensify through the end of the year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: El Niño is declared when the Niño 3.4 anomaly exceeds 0.50°C. Statement 2 is incorrect: El Niño suppresses Indian monsoon rainfall, not strengthens it. Statement 3 is correct: the article states the current El Niño began in June and will intensify through the end of the year.

Source: NOAA: 81% Chance of Very Strong El Niño (Oct-Dec 2026) – Impact on India's Monsoon →
Q35.

According to the NOAA bulletin, what is the current value of the Niño 3.4 sea surface temperature index as mentioned in the news?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.0.50°C
  • B.1.0°C
  • C.1.2°C✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2.0°C
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the NOAA bulletin said the Niño 3.4 index had crossed 1.2°C, still in the moderate range. 0.50°C is the threshold for declaring El Niño, 2.0°C is the threshold for very strong El Niño.

Source: NOAA: 81% Chance of Very Strong El Niño (Oct-Dec 2026) – Impact on India's Monsoon →
Q36.

What is the primary impact of the current El Niño on India's monsoon as highlighted in the news?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It will cause above-normal rainfall across the country.
  • B.It will suppress rainfall, leading to a below-normal monsoon season.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It will only affect the southern states of India.
  • D.It will have no impact because the Indian Ocean Dipole is positive.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that El Niño has the effect of suppressing rainfall over the Indian region. IMD has forecast July rainfall below 94% of the long period average. The Indian Ocean Dipole is neutral, not positive, so it cannot counter the El Niño effect.

Source: NOAA: 81% Chance of Very Strong El Niño (Oct-Dec 2026) – Impact on India's Monsoon →
Q37.

According to the article, which country is the largest helium producer in the world?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.China
  • B.Qatar
  • C.United States✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Russia
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the world's major helium producers are the U.S. (meeting 43% of total supply), followed by Qatar, Russia, Canada, and Algeria. Hence the United States is the largest producer.

Source: China Temporarily Bans Helium Exports: 80% Import Reliance, US-Qatar Control 76% Global Supply →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding helium:

1. China imports more than 80% of its helium needs.

2. China is the world's largest helium producer.

3. Helium is a non-renewable resource.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says China imports more than 80% of its helium needs. Statement 2 is incorrect: China produces only about 1.6% of the world's helium, not the largest. Statement 3 is correct: helium is a non-renewable resource generated deep in the earth's crust over millions of years.

Source: China Temporarily Bans Helium Exports: 80% Import Reliance, US-Qatar Control 76% Global Supply →
Q39.

What was the reported spot price for highly pure helium in Northeast Asia in June 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$100-150 per thousand cubic feet
  • B.$150-205 per thousand cubic feet✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$200-250 per thousand cubic feet
  • D.$250-300 per thousand cubic feet
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'In June 2026, the spot price for highly pure helium in Northeast Asia had reportedly spiked to $150-205 per thousand cubic feet, almost double what it was in late 2025.'

Source: China Temporarily Bans Helium Exports: 80% Import Reliance, US-Qatar Control 76% Global Supply →
Q40.

According to the U.S. Geological Survey, which sector accounts for the largest share of global helium demand?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.MRI scanners
  • B.Semiconductors
  • C.Laboratory uses✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Aerospace
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article cites the U.S. Geological Survey: 'laboratory use-cases account for 22% of the demand for helium, followed by controlled atmospheres and semiconductors (17%), lifting gas (17%), MRI scanners (15%), aerospace (9%), and detecting leaks (5%).' Hence laboratory uses are the largest.

Source: China Temporarily Bans Helium Exports: 80% Import Reliance, US-Qatar Control 76% Global Supply →
Q41.

Which regulatory framework is the European Commission using to charge Meta over addictive design features on Facebook and Instagram?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
  • B.Digital Markets Act (DMA)
  • C.Digital Services Act (DSA)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.AI Act
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The European Commission issued the charges under the EU's Digital Services Act (DSA), which requires large platforms to assess and mitigate systemic risks like addictive design. GDPR covers data privacy, DMA targets anti-competitive practices, and the AI Act governs artificial intelligence.

Source: EU Charges Meta Under DSA: 6% Global Revenue Fine Risk for Addictive Design Features →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding the EU's action against Meta:

1. The European Commission has issued a final order requiring Meta to dismantle addictive design features.

2. Meta faces a potential fine of up to 6% of its global annual revenue.

3. The investigation was initiated in 2024 over concerns about child safety.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the charges are preliminary findings, not a final order. Meta has the chance to respond before a final decision. Statement 2 is correct: the fine can be up to 6% of global annual revenue. Statement 3 is correct: the investigation began in 2024 over child safety concerns.

Source: EU Charges Meta Under DSA: 6% Global Revenue Fine Risk for Addictive Design Features →
Q43.

What is the maximum potential fine Meta could face under the Digital Services Act for the alleged violations?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.4% of global annual revenue
  • B.6% of global annual revenue✓ Correct Answer
  • C.10% of global annual revenue
  • D.€20 million
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The DSA allows for fines up to 6% of a platform's global annual revenue. The other options are distractors: 4% is the maximum under GDPR, 10% is under the DMA, and €20 million is an alternative GDPR threshold.

Source: EU Charges Meta Under DSA: 6% Global Revenue Fine Risk for Addictive Design Features →
Q44.

What is the primary objective of the EU's Digital Services Act (DSA) as demonstrated in this action against Meta?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase tax revenue from digital companies
  • B.To protect users, especially minors, from harmful online content and addictive design✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To promote European digital platforms over American ones
  • D.To reduce the market dominance of social media companies
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The DSA aims to create a safer digital space by holding platforms accountable for systemic risks. The action against Meta specifically targets design features that harm mental health, with a focus on protecting minors. While the DSA has market implications, its core objective is user safety.

Source: EU Charges Meta Under DSA: 6% Global Revenue Fine Risk for Addictive Design Features →
Q45.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for negotiating and signing Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) for India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ministry of External Affairs
  • C.Ministry of Finance
  • D.Ministry of Law and Justice
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

While MEA handles diplomatic aspects, the Ministry of Commerce and Industry (Department of Commerce) is the nodal ministry for negotiating and signing FTAs, as it deals with trade policy and international trade agreements.

Source: PM Modi First Indian PM in 40 Years to Visit New Zealand; FTA Signed, Trade & Sports on Agenda →
Q46.

Consider the following statements:

1. PM Modi is the first Indian Prime Minister to visit New Zealand in 40 years.

2. The India-New Zealand Free Trade Agreement (FTA) was signed in March 2025.

3. New Zealand spends approximately 1.5% of its GDP on Research and Development.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Modi is the first Indian PM to visit NZ in 40 years. Statement 2 is incorrect: The FTA was signed in April 2026, not March 2025 (March 2025 was when negotiations started). Statement 3 is correct: NZ spends about 1.5% of GDP on R&D as mentioned in the article.

Source: PM Modi First Indian PM in 40 Years to Visit New Zealand; FTA Signed, Trade & Sports on Agenda →
Q47.

What is the current bilateral trade volume between India and New Zealand as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.US$1.25 billion
  • B.US$2.25 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.US$3.25 billion
  • D.US$4.25 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that bilateral trade with New Zealand currently stands at US$2.25 billion. The other options are plausible distractors, but only US$2.25 billion is the correct figure from the news.

Source: PM Modi First Indian PM in 40 Years to Visit New Zealand; FTA Signed, Trade & Sports on Agenda →
Q48.

What is the primary geopolitical objective behind India's outreach to New Zealand as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To counter China's assertive behaviour in the Indo-Pacific region✓ Correct Answer
  • B.To establish a military base in the South Pacific
  • C.To gain exclusive access to New Zealand's dairy technology
  • D.To replace Australia as India's primary trade partner in Oceania
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly links India's outreach to New Zealand as part of its Indo-Pacific strategy, alongside engagements with Japan, Australia, and Indonesia, to counter China's assertive behaviour. While technology cooperation and trade are important, the primary strategic objective is geopolitical balancing in the Indo-Pacific.

Source: PM Modi First Indian PM in 40 Years to Visit New Zealand; FTA Signed, Trade & Sports on Agenda →
Q49.

The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) city estimates discussed in the article are released by which organization?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Labour and Employment
  • B.National Statistics Office (NSO)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.NITI Aayog
  • D.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the 'latest PLFS city estimates from the National Statistics Office'. The NSO operates under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).

Source: PLFS Report: Female LFPR in Big Cities at 25.5% Despite Better Salaried Jobs →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding female employment in India's 46 million-plus cities, based on the PLFS data:

1. The female Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) in these cities is higher than the urban India average.

2. A majority of employed women in these cities are in regular salaried work.

3. The gender gap in unemployment is smaller in these cities compared to other urban areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Female LFPR in big cities is 25.5%, lower than the urban average of 27.7%. Statement 2 is correct: 65.1% of employed women in these cities are in regular salaried work. Statement 3 is incorrect: The gender gap in unemployment is larger in big cities (9.81% for women vs 6.49% for men) compared to elsewhere (9.07% vs 6.36%).

Source: PLFS Report: Female LFPR in Big Cities at 25.5% Despite Better Salaried Jobs →
Q51.

According to the PLFS data, what is the average earnings gap between men and women in urban India?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.12.6%
  • B.20%
  • C.22.7%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.30%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that 'women earn 22.7 per cent less than men'. The 12.6% figure refers to the fewer hours worked by women, and 20% is the portion of the earnings gap explained by fewer hours.

Source: PLFS Report: Female LFPR in Big Cities at 25.5% Despite Better Salaried Jobs →
Q52.

The article argues that despite offering better jobs, big cities have lower female LFPR. What is the primary reason cited for this paradox?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lack of college-educated women in cities
  • B.Concentration of women in the informal sector
  • C.High costs of urban living
  • D.Constraints of commute, safety, and household responsibilities✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article argues that women's employment is 'not just a wage decision'. Evidence from job-search behaviour shows women search closer to home. The 'geography of work'—including safety, household responsibility, social norms, and weak transport systems—prevents women from accessing the jobs available in cities.

Source: PLFS Report: Female LFPR in Big Cities at 25.5% Despite Better Salaried Jobs →
Q53.

Which directorate issued the notification for quotas and tariffs under India-U.K. CETA?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT)✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)
  • C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • D.Ministry of External Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the notification was issued by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade, which is responsible for implementing foreign trade policy in India.

Source: India-U.K. CETA: 20,000 CBU Auto Import Quota at 30-50% Concessional Tariff Notified →
Q54.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-U.K. CETA auto import provisions:

1. India-U.K. CETA comes into force on July 15, 2026.

2. The initial quota for petrol/diesel completely built units (CBUs) is 37,000 vehicles.

3. Alternate fuel vehicle concessions start from year 6 of the deal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the deal comes into force on July 15, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect because the initial quota is 20,000 CBUs, not 37,000. Statement 3 is correct as alternate fuel vehicle concessions begin from year 6. Hence option C is correct.

Source: India-U.K. CETA: 20,000 CBU Auto Import Quota at 30-50% Concessional Tariff Notified →
Q55.

What is the minimum landed cost (in pounds) for an alternate fuel vehicle to be eligible for concessions under the India-U.K. trade deal?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.£30,000
  • B.£40,000✓ Correct Answer
  • C.£50,000
  • D.£80,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

According to the article, no alternate fuel vehicle with a landed cost of less than 40,000 pounds will receive any concessions. £30,000, £50,000, and £80,000 are distractors; £80,000 is the threshold for ultra-luxury vehicles.

Source: India-U.K. CETA: 20,000 CBU Auto Import Quota at 30-50% Concessional Tariff Notified →
Q56.

What is the primary objective of delaying concessions for alternate fuel vehicles to year 6 in the India-U.K. trade deal?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To prioritize petrol/diesel import revenue
  • B.To protect domestic manufacturers✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To align with global climate goals
  • D.To reduce tariff revenue loss
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that delaying concessions provides 'domestic manufacturers a buffer before they will have to start competing with U.K. brands.' This infant industry protection rationale is common in trade agreements.

Source: India-U.K. CETA: 20,000 CBU Auto Import Quota at 30-50% Concessional Tariff Notified →
Q57.

Which constitutional body is responsible for conducting the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B.Election Commission of India✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Chief Electoral Officer of the state
  • D.Law Commission of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The ECI oversees all electoral roll revisions, including SIR, under Article 324 and the Representation of the People Act, 1950. The CEO acts as its state-level delegate but the ultimate authority lies with the ECI.

Source: 64.2% of 1.59 Lakh Voter Deletions in Manipur SIR from 19 ST Constituencies →
Q58.

Consider the following statements regarding the SIR in Manipur:

1. The 19 Scheduled Tribe (ST) constituencies accounted for 64.2% of the total deletions.

2. The 'Death' category accounted for 41.9% of deletions in the ST constituencies.

3. The draft SIR rolls were released on July 5, 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: ST constituencies had 64.2% of deletions. Statement 2 is incorrect: 'Death' accounted for 41.9% in General constituencies, not ST; in ST it was only 18.9%. Statement 3 is correct: the draft rolls were released on July 5, 2026. Hence option C is correct.

Source: 64.2% of 1.59 Lakh Voter Deletions in Manipur SIR from 19 ST Constituencies →
Q59.

What was the total number of voter deletions during the enumeration phase of the SIR in Manipur?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.1.02 lakh
  • B.1.59 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • C.56,850
  • D.14,152
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that 1.59 lakh deletions occurred during the enumeration phase. 1.02 lakh is the number of deletions in ST constituencies alone, 56,850 is deletions in General constituencies, and 14,152 is the deletions in Saikot constituency.

Source: 64.2% of 1.59 Lakh Voter Deletions in Manipur SIR from 19 ST Constituencies →
Q60.

What is the primary concern raised by civil society organizations regarding the SIR exercise in Manipur?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The use of outdated technology in voter registration
  • B.The risk of disenfranchisement of conflict-displaced eligible voters✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The increase in duplicate voter entries
  • D.The lack of political party representation in the revision process
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that many organizations expressed concerns over disenfranchisement of voters displaced by conflict who may have lost identity documents. No mention of technology, duplicate entries, or political representation as primary concerns.

Source: 64.2% of 1.59 Lakh Voter Deletions in Manipur SIR from 19 ST Constituencies →
Q61.

Which organization is sponsoring the international NeoSep1 trial mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.World Health Organization (WHO)
  • B.GARDP Foundation✓ Correct Answer
  • C.United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF)
  • D.Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

According to the article, the NeoSep1 trial is sponsored by the GARDP Foundation (Global Antibiotic Research and Development Partnership) in collaboration with UCL, City St George's University of London, and Penta Foundation. WHO, UNICEF, and ICMR are not mentioned as sponsors.

Source: GARDP-Sponsored NeoSep1 Trial Begins in India to Combat Antimicrobial Resistant Neonatal Sepsis →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding neonatal sepsis in India:

1. Neonatal sepsis is a life-threatening bloodstream infection occurring in babies under 90 days old.

2. In India, Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is the leading cause of neonatal sepsis, similar to high-income countries.

3. The NeoSep1 trial aims to enrol 3,000 newborns across Asia and Africa by the end of 2028.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article defines neonatal sepsis as a bloodstream infection in babies under 90 days old. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article states that GBS accounts for only 2-5% of cases in India, while gram-negative organisms predominate. Statement 3 is correct: the trial aims to enrol 3,000 newborns across Asia and Africa by the end of 2028.

Source: GARDP-Sponsored NeoSep1 Trial Begins in India to Combat Antimicrobial Resistant Neonatal Sepsis →
Q63.

According to the article, what is the target enrolment number for newborns in the NeoSep1 trial across Asia and Africa?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.2,000
  • B.2,500
  • C.3,000✓ Correct Answer
  • D.3,500
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'NeoSep1 aims to enrol 3,000 newborns across Asia and Africa by the end of 2028.' The other numbers are not mentioned. This is a direct data point that can be asked in Prelims.

Source: GARDP-Sponsored NeoSep1 Trial Begins in India to Combat Antimicrobial Resistant Neonatal Sepsis →
Q64.

What is the primary objective of the NeoSep1 trial as described in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To compare early-onset vs late-onset neonatal sepsis outcomes
  • B.To identify safe, effective, and affordable antibiotic treatments for drug-resistant neonatal sepsis✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To map the complete genome of neonatal sepsis pathogens
  • D.To establish a neonatal sepsis registry for Indian hospitals
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the trial's goal is 'to identify one or more safe, effective, and affordable treatments that can reduce the high number of newborn deaths caused by drug-resistant sepsis, especially in low- and middle-income countries.' The other options are not stated or are peripheral.

Source: GARDP-Sponsored NeoSep1 Trial Begins in India to Combat Antimicrobial Resistant Neonatal Sepsis →
Q65.

Which court issued the order regarding 'due primacy' to the district judge's opinion in the appointment of public prosecutors?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Supreme Court of India
  • B.Kerala High Court✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Madras High Court
  • D.Delhi High Court
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that a bench of Chief Justice Soumen Sen and Justice Syam Kumar V M of the Kerala High Court issued the order on July 8, 2026, directing that the district judge's opinion must be given 'due primacy' in the appointment panel.

Source: Kerala HC Orders 'Due Primacy' to District Judge in Public Prosecutor Selection; Madras HC Flags Political Appointments →
Q66.

Consider the following statements regarding the Kerala High Court order:

1. The court directed that the district judge's opinion must be given 'due primacy' in the appointment panel.

2. The court held that the district police chief's opinion is final and binding on the committee.

3. The court appreciated the assistance of amicus curiae Senior Advocate P Deepak.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court modified the draft circular to use 'due primacy'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court made it clear that the district police chief's opinion was not final or binding; it was only meant to assist in antecedent verification. Statement 3 is correct as the court appreciated the amicus curiae's assistance. Hence option C is correct.

Source: Kerala HC Orders 'Due Primacy' to District Judge in Public Prosecutor Selection; Madras HC Flags Political Appointments →
Q67.

What is the date of the Kerala High Court order that modified the draft circular for public prosecutor appointments?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.July 10, 2026
  • B.July 8, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.April 1, 2026
  • D.July 7, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'the July 8 order said' referring to the Kerala High Court's ruling. July 10, 2026 is the publication date of the article, and April 1, 2026 is the date of the Madras High Court order. Hence the correct answer is July 8, 2026.

Source: Kerala HC Orders 'Due Primacy' to District Judge in Public Prosecutor Selection; Madras HC Flags Political Appointments →
Q68.

According to the Kerala High Court, what is the primary purpose of involving the district police chief in the appointment process of public prosecutors?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To provide final approval of the candidate
  • B.To verify the candidate's antecedents✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To evaluate the candidate's legal knowledge
  • D.To represent the police department in the committee
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court stated that the district police chief's input was only meant to assist the committee in verifying a candidate's antecedents, considering the importance of the office. It was not final or binding. This checks the understanding of the court's precise reasoning.

Source: Kerala HC Orders 'Due Primacy' to District Judge in Public Prosecutor Selection; Madras HC Flags Political Appointments →
Q69.

Which US military command released the screengrab of explosions in Iran mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.US European Command (EUCOM)
  • B.US Central Command (CENTCOM)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.US Indo-Pacific Command (INDOPACOM)
  • D.US Africa Command (AFRICOM)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the screengrab was released by US Central Command (CENTCOM), which oversees US military operations in the Middle East. CENTCOM's area of responsibility includes Iran, Iraq, and the Persian Gulf region.

Source: US Airstrikes on Iran Resume as Ceasefire Ends; Israel Raises Turkey Concerns Over F-35 Sale →
Q70.

Consider the following statements:

1. US President Trump declared the ceasefire with Iran as 'over' after Iranian attacks on shipping in the Strait of Hormuz.

2. Iran retaliated to US airstrikes by targeting US-allied Saudi Arabia and the UAE.

3. Netanyahu raised concerns over Turkish President Erdogan's rhetoric and potential F-35 jet sales to Turkey.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Trump said Iranian attacks on shipping effectively ended the truce. Statement 2 is incorrect because Iran targeted Kuwait and Qatar, not Saudi Arabia and UAE. Statement 3 is correct as Netanyahu raised concerns over Erdogan's rhetoric and potential F-35 sales to Turkey.

Source: US Airstrikes on Iran Resume as Ceasefire Ends; Israel Raises Turkey Concerns Over F-35 Sale →
Q71.

According to the news, which countries did Iran target in retaliation to US airstrikes?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Saudi Arabia and UAE
  • B.Kuwait and Qatar✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Bahrain and Oman
  • D.Israel and Turkey
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Iran retaliated by targeting 'US-allied Kuwait and Qatar'. The other options are close distractors as Saudi Arabia and UAE are also US allies in the region, but the article specifically names Kuwait and Qatar.

Source: US Airstrikes on Iran Resume as Ceasefire Ends; Israel Raises Turkey Concerns Over F-35 Sale →
Q72.

What is the primary strategic concern for India arising from the escalation of US-Iran conflict in the Strait of Hormuz?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Increased military presence of US in Indian Ocean
  • B.Disruption of oil supplies and volatility in global energy prices✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Potential for India to mediate peace talks
  • D.Loss of diplomatic ties with Iran
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz is a critical chokepoint through which a significant portion of global oil passes. India, being a major oil importer, is highly vulnerable to any disruption in this strait, leading to energy price volatility and impacting its economy. While other options may be secondary concerns, energy security is the primary direct impact.

Source: US Airstrikes on Iran Resume as Ceasefire Ends; Israel Raises Turkey Concerns Over F-35 Sale →
Q73.

Which of the following central agencies is primarily responsible for enforcing the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Intelligence Bureau (IB)
  • B.Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Customs Department
  • D.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The NCB, under the Ministry of Home Affairs, is the nodal agency for coordinating and enforcing the NDPS Act. While Customs and IB assist, NCB is the primary body for drug law enforcement as mentioned in the article.

Source: 5 States + Puducherry Form Permanent Anti-Drug Network; SP-Rank Nodal Officers Appointed →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding the anti-drug coordination network:

1. The network involves the police forces of five South Indian states and the Union Territory of Puducherry.

2. Each state will appoint a nodal officer of at least Deputy Superintendent of Police (Dy.SP) rank for intelligence sharing.

3. Kerala Home Minister Ramesh Chennithala announced the mechanism after a high-level meeting in Thiruvananthapuram.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: five states (Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana) and Puducherry are involved. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article specifies 'at least Superintendent of Police (SP) rank', not Dy.SP. Statement 3 is correct: Home Minister Ramesh Chennithala made the announcement. Thus only statement 1 and 3 are correct? Wait, statement 3 is correct as well. The correct option should be 'Both 1 and 3' (C). Let me correct that. Actually re-evaluate: Statement 3 is explicitly correct. So correct is both 1 and 3. The trap is in statement 2 (rank). So answer is C.

Source: 5 States + Puducherry Form Permanent Anti-Drug Network; SP-Rank Nodal Officers Appointed →
Q75.

According to the news, what is the rank of the nodal officer to be appointed by each participating state for the anti-drug coordination network?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Deputy Superintendent of Police (Dy.SP)
  • B.Superintendent of Police (SP)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Deputy Inspector General (DIG)
  • D.Inspector General (IG)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'nodal officer of at least Superintendent of Police (SP) rank'. Dy.SP is lower, DIG and IG are higher ranks. The close distractor is Dy.SP, which appears later in the article for 'specialised narcotic units' but not for nodal officers of the network.

Source: 5 States + Puducherry Form Permanent Anti-Drug Network; SP-Rank Nodal Officers Appointed →
Q76.

What is the primary objective of establishing a permanent interstate coordination mechanism for anti-drug action in South India?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce the number of drug-related court cases
  • B.To ensure continuous intelligence sharing and joint operations against inter-state narcotics networks✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To empower state police forces to operate independently of central agencies
  • D.To replace the Narcotics Control Bureau with state-level authorities
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The mechanism aims to strengthen anti-drug surveillance through regular exchange of operational information and coordinated action. It does not reduce court cases (rather special courts increase), nor does it replace central agencies or make states independent. Option B is the core purpose stated in the article.

Source: 5 States + Puducherry Form Permanent Anti-Drug Network; SP-Rank Nodal Officers Appointed →
Q77.

What is the primary principle guiding the Assam government's decision to impose a 'green cess' on polluting industries?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Precautionary Principle
  • B.Polluter Pays Principle✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Sustainable Development Principle
  • D.Intergenerational Equity Principle
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the decision is guided by the principle that 'those who cause environmental degradation should also contribute towards its mitigation', which is the core of the Polluter Pays Principle.

Source: Assam Budget 2026-27: Green Cess on Industries, ₹2 Lakh Cr Outlay, Jibon Prerana Scheme →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the Assam Budget 2026-27:

1. The budget has proposed a 'green cess' on stone crushers and brick kilns.

2. The budget size of Assam has increased to ₹2,00,782 crore, expanding fivefold over the past decade.

3. The government announced an export subsidy of ₹3 per kg for premium Assam CTC tea.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Only 2 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the green cess targets stone crushers and brick kilns. Statement 2 is incorrect because the budget expanded 'almost threefold', not fivefold. Statement 3 is correct as the Guwahati Tea Auction Buyers' Association appreciated the ₹3 per kg export subsidy.

Source: Assam Budget 2026-27: Green Cess on Industries, ₹2 Lakh Cr Outlay, Jibon Prerana Scheme →
Q79.

What is the monthly stipend amount promised to job-seeking graduates under Assam's Jibon Prerana scheme, and from which month will it be provided?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹1,500 from August
  • B.₹2,500 from September✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹2,000 from August
  • D.₹3,000 from September
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Finance Minister announced that 48,366 job-seeking graduates would start getting ₹2,500 per month each from September under the Jibon Prerana scheme.

Source: Assam Budget 2026-27: Green Cess on Industries, ₹2 Lakh Cr Outlay, Jibon Prerana Scheme →
Q80.

Why did the Assam government decide to resume the distribution of lentils and sugar to NFSA ration card holders from August?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To promote local agriculture
  • B.Due to rising prices caused by the West Asia crisis✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To reduce the fiscal deficit
  • D.As a result of a Supreme Court directive
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the resumption is because 'the prices of these essential commodities have risen due to the West Asia crisis', directly linking the policy to global geopolitical events affecting domestic food security.

Source: Assam Budget 2026-27: Green Cess on Industries, ₹2 Lakh Cr Outlay, Jibon Prerana Scheme →
Q81.

Which ministry/department is primarily responsible for administering the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 and the Drugs Rules, 1945?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers
  • B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • D.Ministry of Law and Justice
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Drug regulation in India falls under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. The Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) is the central authority under this ministry. Hence option B is correct.

Source: Govt Amends Drugs Rules: High Alcohol Formulations (>12% v/v, >30ml) Now Under Schedule H1, Require Prescription →
Q82.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent amendment to the Drugs Rules, 1945:

1. Formulations containing more than 12% v/v ethyl alcohol in quantities exceeding 30 ml are now required to be sold only under prescription.

2. All formulations of tinctures containing ethyl alcohol are now prohibited from sale.

3. The amendment moves these formulations from Schedule K to Schedule H1.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the new rule: >12% v/v and >30 ml require prescription. Statement 2 is incorrect; the amendment does not prohibit sale, only regulates it through prescription and licensing. Statement 3 is correct: products are moved from Schedule K (exemption) to Schedule H1 (prescription). Hence option C is correct.

Source: Govt Amends Drugs Rules: High Alcohol Formulations (>12% v/v, >30ml) Now Under Schedule H1, Require Prescription →
Q83.

What is the minimum ethyl alcohol concentration (in % v/v) above which a drug formulation's exemption under Schedule K is removed and it requires prescription under Schedule H1?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.10% v/v
  • B.12% v/v✓ Correct Answer
  • C.15% v/v
  • D.20% v/v
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The amendment specifies the threshold as 'more than 12% v/v ethyl alcohol'. Distractors like 10% and 15% are common confusions. The correct value is 12% v/v.

Source: Govt Amends Drugs Rules: High Alcohol Formulations (>12% v/v, >30ml) Now Under Schedule H1, Require Prescription →
Q84.

What is the primary objective of moving high-alcohol drug formulations from Schedule K to Schedule H1?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase government revenue through licensing fees
  • B.To prevent diversion and misuse of these formulations for intoxication✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To promote exports of traditional tinctures by standardising quality
  • D.To reduce the cost of these formulations for patients
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The government release explicitly states that the move aims to 'significantly reduce the possibility of diversion and misuse while ensuring their continued availability for legitimate therapeutic use'. Options A, C and D are not mentioned as objectives. Hence option B is correct.

Source: Govt Amends Drugs Rules: High Alcohol Formulations (>12% v/v, >30ml) Now Under Schedule H1, Require Prescription →
Q85.

Which ministry released the FAQ document defending the E20 fuel policy?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  • D.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas released a frequently asked questions (FAQ) document on July 10, 2026, addressing concerns about E20 fuel's mileage and cost.

Source: E20 (20% Ethanol) Fuel: Govt Admits 3-5% Mileage Decline, Points to Higher Octane & 40% Lifecycle Carbon Reduction →
Q86.

Consider the following statements regarding E20 fuel:

1. It may cause a 3-5% reduction in fuel economy in some vehicles.

2. It reduces lifecycle carbon emissions by approximately 40%.

3. The government stated that E20 is always cheaper than pure petrol.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the government admitted a 3-5% mileage hit in some vehicles. Statement 2 is correct: E20 reduces lifecycle carbon emissions by about 40%. Statement 3 is incorrect: E20 is not cheaper when crude oil is around $70 per barrel; it becomes cheaper only at higher crude prices ($120-130/bbl).

Source: E20 (20% Ethanol) Fuel: Govt Admits 3-5% Mileage Decline, Points to Higher Octane & 40% Lifecycle Carbon Reduction →
Q87.

According to the government's FAQ, what is the procurement price of maize-based ethanol as quoted in the article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹50.00 per litre
  • B.₹71.86 per litre✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹90.00 per litre
  • D.₹120.00 per litre
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'We have progressively increased its procurement price and today it is around ₹71.86 per litre, even before GST, transportation, storage and depot handling costs.'

Source: E20 (20% Ethanol) Fuel: Govt Admits 3-5% Mileage Decline, Points to Higher Octane & 40% Lifecycle Carbon Reduction →
Q88.

Why is E20 fuel not cheaper than pure petrol or E10 at the current crude oil price of around $70 per barrel, according to the government?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Because ethanol production is less efficient and costly
  • B.Because the government imposes high taxes on ethanol blends
  • C.Because the government purchases ethanol at remunerative prices to compensate farmers fairly✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Because transportation and storage costs for ethanol are prohibitively high
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The government explains that it buys ethanol at remunerative prices (e.g., ₹71.86/litre) to ensure farmers are fairly compensated. When crude oil is at $70/bbl, the cost of producing E20 is higher than that of pure petrol. The price advantage of ethanol only reverses at much higher crude prices ($120-130/bbl).

Source: E20 (20% Ethanol) Fuel: Govt Admits 3-5% Mileage Decline, Points to Higher Octane & 40% Lifecycle Carbon Reduction →
Q89.

Which organization estimated India's June 2026 retail inflation at 4.25%?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Reserve Bank of India
  • B.Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
  • D.National Statistical Office
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that CMIE (Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy) estimated the June retail inflation at 4.25%. CMIE is a private economic think tank, not a government agency. RBI sets the target but does not estimate monthly inflation — that is done by the Ministry of Statistics (NSO) and private agencies like CMIE.

Source: CMIE Estimates June Retail Inflation at 4.25%, Breaching RBI’s 4% Target; Fuel & Transport Key Drivers →
Q90.

Consider the following statements:

1. Retail inflation in India has remained below RBI's 4% target for the past 16 months before June 2026.

2. Transport inflation in June 2026 was estimated at 4.6% due to higher fuel costs and Maruti's vehicle price hike.

3. The RBI's tolerance band for inflation is 4% plus or minus 2 percentage points.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct — retail inflation stayed below 4% for 16 consecutive months (since about Feb 2025). Statement 2 is correct — transport inflation estimated at 4.6% due to fuel price hikes and Maruti's price revision. Statement 3 is correct — RBI's tolerance band is +/-2% around the 4% target, i.e., 2% to 6%.

Source: CMIE Estimates June Retail Inflation at 4.25%, Breaching RBI’s 4% Target; Fuel & Transport Key Drivers →
Q91.

What was the retail inflation rate in India for May 2026, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.3.93%✓ Correct Answer
  • B.4.00%
  • C.4.25%
  • D.6.00%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that May retail inflation was 3.93%. 4.00% is the RBI target, 4.25% is the June estimate, and 6.00% is the upper tolerance band limit. This is a direct data recall question for prelims.

Source: CMIE Estimates June Retail Inflation at 4.25%, Breaching RBI’s 4% Target; Fuel & Transport Key Drivers →
Q92.

If retail inflation in India exceeds 6% and remains elevated, what monetary policy action is the RBI likely to take according to the article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Reduce interest rates to boost growth
  • B.Increase interest rates to cool demand✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Keep the repo rate unchanged
  • D.Print more money to increase liquidity
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that if inflation goes above 6%, RBI will need to raise interest rates in the economy, making loans costlier and reducing economic activity to cool price rise. Option A would be expansionary and fuel inflation further, C is status quo, D is inflationary.

Source: CMIE Estimates June Retail Inflation at 4.25%, Breaching RBI’s 4% Target; Fuel & Transport Key Drivers →
Q93.

Which organization issued the Red Corner Notice against Goldy Brar?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.FBI
  • B.Interpol✓ Correct Answer
  • C.CBI
  • D.NIA
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that 'A Red Corner Notice was issued against Goldy Brar by the Interpol Secretariat General in Lyon, France.'

Source: Operation Hardball: 24 Arrested, 1,000 kg Cocaine Seized in US-Led Crackdown on Bishnoi-Brar Syndicate →
Q94.

Consider the following statements:

1. Operation Hardball was launched by the FBI in coordination with Indian agencies.

2. Interpol Green Notice is used to locate a missing person.

3. The India-US Extradition Treaty was signed in 1997.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) 1 only
  • B.(B) 1 and 3 only✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) 2 and 3 only
  • D.(D) 1, 2 and 3
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: US law enforcement coordinated with Indian agencies. Statement 2 is incorrect: Green Notice warns about criminal activities, not missing persons (Yellow Notice does). Statement 3 is correct: the bilateral Extradition Treaty of 1997 governs extradition between India and the US.

Source: Operation Hardball: 24 Arrested, 1,000 kg Cocaine Seized in US-Led Crackdown on Bishnoi-Brar Syndicate →
Q95.

How many kilograms of cocaine were seized under Operation Hardball?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.100 kg
  • B.500 kg
  • C.1,000 kg✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2,000 kg
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The DoJ press release stated that law enforcement seized approximately 1,000 kilograms of cocaine as part of Operation Hardball.

Source: Operation Hardball: 24 Arrested, 1,000 kg Cocaine Seized in US-Led Crackdown on Bishnoi-Brar Syndicate →
Q96.

What is the primary legal principle governing extradition between India and the US?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Mutual legal assistance
  • B.Dual criminality✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Prima facie evidence
  • D.Habitual residence
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that the Extradition Treaty of 1997 is based on the principle of dual criminality — an offence is extraditable if punishable with imprisonment of more than one year in both countries.

Source: Operation Hardball: 24 Arrested, 1,000 kg Cocaine Seized in US-Led Crackdown on Bishnoi-Brar Syndicate →
Q97.

Which implementing agency is responsible for the Mumbai-Ahmedabad High Speed Rail corridor?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Railways
  • B.Ministry of Railways
  • C.National High Speed Rail Corporation Limited (NHSRCL)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

NHSRCL is the special purpose vehicle established to implement India’s first bullet train project. It is jointly owned by the Centre and the governments of Gujarat and Maharashtra.

Source: NHSRCL Completes 13 Heavy Portal Beams in Ahmedabad; Surat-Bilimora Priority Corridor by Aug 2027 →
Q98.

Consider the following statements regarding the Mumbai-Ahmedabad bullet train project:

1. All 13 heavy portal beams in the Ahmedabad section have been launched by NHSRCL.

2. The heaviest portal beam weighs 2,200 metric tonnes and was launched using a 1,640 MT crawler crane.

3. The operational target for the 47-km priority corridor (Surat-Bilimora) is August 2027.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect – the heaviest beam weighs 1,640 MT and was launched using a 2,200 MT crawler crane (swap of numbers). Statement 3 is correct about the August 2027 target.

Source: NHSRCL Completes 13 Heavy Portal Beams in Ahmedabad; Surat-Bilimora Priority Corridor by Aug 2027 →
Q99.

What is the weight of the heaviest portal beam launched in the Ahmedabad section of the Mumbai-Ahmedabad bullet train?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1,500 metric tonnes
  • B.1,640 metric tonnes✓ Correct Answer
  • C.2,200 metric tonnes
  • D.1,800 metric tonnes
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states that the final portal beam at Sabarmati weighs approximately 1,640 metric tonnes. Options 2,200 MT refers to the crane capacity, while 1,500 and 1,800 are distractors.

Source: NHSRCL Completes 13 Heavy Portal Beams in Ahmedabad; Surat-Bilimora Priority Corridor by Aug 2027 →
Q100.

What is the primary objective of developing the Ahmedabad bullet train station as a multi-modal transport hub?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce construction cost of the station
  • B.To provide seamless connectivity between different modes of transport for passengers✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To generate revenue through retail outlets and advertising
  • D.To showcase India’s architectural heritage with a kite-inspired design
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the hub will allow passengers to easily switch between metro, buses, taxis, autos, and other local transport. While the kite-inspired design is an aesthetic feature and retail outlets generate revenue, the core purpose is multimodal integration and smooth traffic flow.

Source: NHSRCL Completes 13 Heavy Portal Beams in Ahmedabad; Surat-Bilimora Priority Corridor by Aug 2027 →
Q101.

Which state government issued the advisory urging farmers to adopt Direct Seeded Rice (DSR) method for paddy cultivation?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Punjab
  • B.Haryana
  • C.Chhattisgarh✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Odisha
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Chhattisgarh government issued an advisory on July 3, 2026, asking farmers to prioritize DSR over traditional transplanting due to rainfall uncertainty and labour shortages.

Source: Chhattisgarh Pushes DSR Method for Paddy: 20% Water Savings, ₹5,000/Acre Cost Cut, Low Adoption →
Q102.

Consider the following statements regarding Direct Seeded Rice (DSR):

1. DSR saves about 20% water compared to the transplanting method.

2. DSR requires less labour and reduces cultivation costs by approximately ₹5,000 per acre.

3. DSR adoption in Chhattisgarh is high due to the widespread availability of laser levelling equipment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: DSR saves 20% water. Statement 2 is correct: DSR reduces costs by ₹5,000 per acre and requires less labour. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article mentions that laser levelling equipment is not readily available in Chhattisgarh, contributing to low adoption.

Source: Chhattisgarh Pushes DSR Method for Paddy: 20% Water Savings, ₹5,000/Acre Cost Cut, Low Adoption →
Q103.

According to the article, how much water does the Direct Seeded Rice (DSR) method save compared to traditional transplanting?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.10%
  • B.20%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.30%
  • D.40%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The government advisory explicitly states that DSR saves 20% water. The other options are close distractors; 10% is too low, while 30% and 40% are not mentioned in the article.

Source: Chhattisgarh Pushes DSR Method for Paddy: 20% Water Savings, ₹5,000/Acre Cost Cut, Low Adoption →
Q104.

What is the primary reason for low adoption of DSR in Chhattisgarh despite its benefits?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.High initial cost of DSR machines (₹1.5 lakh) and lack of rental services✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Farmers prefer traditional methods due to cultural reasons
  • C.Government has not provided any subsidy for DSR
  • D.DSR yields are significantly lower than transplanting
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that the high cost of super seed drills (₹1.5 lakh) and unavailability of equipment for rent discourage small farmers. While cultural factors may exist, the article specifically mentions economic and logistical barriers as key reasons. The government does provide a price of ₹3,100 per quintal, but DSR adoption remains low due to these practical hurdles.

Source: Chhattisgarh Pushes DSR Method for Paddy: 20% Water Savings, ₹5,000/Acre Cost Cut, Low Adoption →
Q105.

Which country announced a temporary export ban on helium on July 10, 2026?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.China✓ Correct Answer
  • B.United States
  • C.Iran
  • D.Israel
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that China announced the temporary export ban on helium. The other options are countries involved in the conflict mentioned but not the one imposing the ban.

Source: China Imposes Temporary Helium Export Ban Amid Chip Shortage, Military Tensions →
Q106.

Consider the following statements regarding China's helium export ban:

1. Helium is critical for heat management in semiconductor production.

2. The ban is permanent and has no expiry.

3. The ban was announced on July 10, 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says helium is essential for heat management in chip manufacturing. Statement 2 is incorrect: the ban is temporary, not permanent. Statement 3 is correct: the announcement date is July 10, 2026. Hence option C is correct.

Source: China Imposes Temporary Helium Export Ban Amid Chip Shortage, Military Tensions →
Q107.

On what date did China announce the temporary export ban on helium?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.July 9, 2026
  • B.July 10, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.July 11, 2026
  • D.June 10, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states 'China announced on Friday (July 10, 2026) a temporary export ban on helium'. The other dates are close distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Source: China Imposes Temporary Helium Export Ban Amid Chip Shortage, Military Tensions →
Q108.

What is the primary reason cited by China for imposing the temporary helium export ban?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase global helium prices for profit
  • B.To prevent domestic shortages critical for chip manufacturing✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To retaliate against U.S. tariffs on Chinese goods
  • D.To support the AI industry in China by reducing exports
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the ban aims to 'prevent domestic shortages of critical materials' and that helium is 'critical for chip manufacturing'. While supporting AI and retaliation are plausible, the primary stated reason is preventing domestic shortages.

Source: China Imposes Temporary Helium Export Ban Amid Chip Shortage, Military Tensions →
Q109.

Which US law imposes sanctions on countries that engage in significant defense transactions with Russia, affecting Turkey's F-35 access?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.CAATSA (Countering America's Adversaries Through Sanctions Act)✓ Correct Answer
  • B.IRAN SANCTIONS ACT
  • C.NDAA (National Defense Authorization Act)
  • D.ITAR (International Traffic in Arms Regulations)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that Trump favors lifting 'CAATSA sanctions on Turkey'. CAATSA is a US law passed in 2017 targeting countries that have significant transactions with Russia's defense sector. Turkey's purchase of the S-400 system triggered these sanctions, leading to its removal from the F-35 program.

Source: Turkey Emerges as Key Beneficiary of NATO Summit Amid €70B Ukraine Aid, US-Europe Rift →
Q110.

Consider the following statements regarding the NATO Ankara Summit:

1. The US demanded European allies reimburse $350 billion for spending on Ukraine.

2. Non-EU NATO members including Turkey and the UK are given equal access to the EU's SAFE defense fund.

3. President Trump attended the summit primarily because Turkish President Erdogan was the host.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Trump asked EU members to reimburse $350 billion that the US spent on Ukraine. Statement 2 is incorrect: SAFE mandates at least 65% EU-origin procurement, and non-EU members like Turkey face veto from Greece and Cyprus, effectively being treated as 'foreigners'. Statement 3 is correct: Trump explicitly stated he attended only because Erdogan was the host. Hence option C is correct.

Source: Turkey Emerges as Key Beneficiary of NATO Summit Amid €70B Ukraine Aid, US-Europe Rift →
Q111.

What is the total value of military aid to Ukraine pledged at the NATO Ankara Summit?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.$350 billion
  • B.€70 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$70 billion
  • D.€150 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'NATO has pledged €70 billion in military aid to Ukraine that will be fully financed by the EU.' $350 billion is the amount the US demanded as reimbursement from Europe, not the pledged aid. €150 billion refers to the SAFE fund's project value, not Ukraine aid. Hence option B is correct.

Source: Turkey Emerges as Key Beneficiary of NATO Summit Amid €70B Ukraine Aid, US-Europe Rift →
Q112.

What is the primary objective of the EU's Security Action for Europe (SAFE) defense fund?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To increase NATO's collective defense spending
  • B.To reduce EU's dependency on US defense equipment and expedite EU defense innovation✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To provide direct military aid to Ukraine
  • D.To facilitate Turkey's accession to the European Union
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that SAFE mandates at least 65% procurement from EU-origin sources, aimed at reducing EU's dependency on the US and expediting EU's defence innovation. While SAFE may indirectly benefit Ukraine and NATO, its core objective is EU defense autonomy. Option A is incorrect as SAFE is an EU fund, not a NATO mechanism. Option D is unrelated.

Source: Turkey Emerges as Key Beneficiary of NATO Summit Amid €70B Ukraine Aid, US-Europe Rift →
Q113.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for the ethanol blending programme in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  • B.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
  • D.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The ethanol-petrol blending programme is overseen by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, as it involves blending ethanol with petrol for use as automotive fuel. The ministry coordinates with oil marketing companies, automobile manufacturers, and other stakeholders.

Source: Centre Rejects Multiple Fuel Grades, Defends E20 as Superior; Cites Logistical Challenges and ₹1 Lakh Cr/yr Investment →
Q114.

Consider the following statements regarding India's ethanol blending programme:

1. India achieved its E10 (10% ethanol blending) target in June 2022.

2. E20 fuel contains 80% ethanol and 20% petrol.

3. The government has rejected the demand for offering multiple fuel grades (pure petrol, E10, E20) citing logistical challenges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India achieved E10 target in June 2022. Statement 2 is incorrect: E20 contains 80% petrol and 20% ethanol, not the reverse. Statement 3 is correct: The government has rejected the demand for multiple fuel grades citing enormous logistical challenges.

Source: Centre Rejects Multiple Fuel Grades, Defends E20 as Superior; Cites Logistical Challenges and ₹1 Lakh Cr/yr Investment →
Q115.

According to the government, what is the approximate annual investment financed by public sector banks in ethanol production and associated infrastructure?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹50,000 crore
  • B.₹1 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹2 lakh crore
  • D.₹5 lakh crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The petroleum ministry stated that public sector banks have financed nearly ₹1 lakh crore per year of investments in ethanol production and associated infrastructure over the past several years.

Source: Centre Rejects Multiple Fuel Grades, Defends E20 as Superior; Cites Logistical Challenges and ₹1 Lakh Cr/yr Investment →
Q116.

What is the primary reason cited by the government for not offering multiple grades of base petrol (pure petrol, E10, E20) at retail outlets?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.E20 is not suitable for older vehicles
  • B.Consumers prefer E20 over other blends
  • C.Maintaining multiple grades would create enormous logistical challenges and increase costs✓ Correct Answer
  • D.E10 production has been discontinued globally
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The government argued that India's vast fuel distribution network (over 1 lakh retail outlets, extensive pipelines and depots) cannot efficiently handle multiple base fuel grades. This would increase handling costs, complicate inventory management, and reduce operational efficiency.

Source: Centre Rejects Multiple Fuel Grades, Defends E20 as Superior; Cites Logistical Challenges and ₹1 Lakh Cr/yr Investment →
Q117.

Which Shia shrine is mentioned in the article as the source of the red flag draped on Khamenei's casket?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Najaf shrine
  • B.Karbala shrine✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Mashhad shrine
  • D.Qom shrine
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the casket was draped in the red Ya Hussein flag flown from the Karbala shrine itself. Karbala is the site of Imam Hussain's martyrdom, a central symbol in Shia Islam.

Source: Iran Burials Khamenei: Symbolic Power Performance, Mojtaba Succession & Strait of Hormuz MoU →
Q118.

Consider the following statements regarding the funeral of Ayatollah Khamenei:

1. The funeral route included Tehran, Qom, Najaf, Karbala, and finally Mashhad.

2. Mojtaba Khamenei attended the funeral but did not speak publicly.

3. The ceremonies were timed to coincide with Muharram and the 250th anniversary of American independence.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the casket travelled from Tehran to Qom, across the border to Najaf and Karbala, and finally to Mashhad. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says Mojtaba did NOT attend the funeral. Statement 3 is correct: the ceremonies were timed to coincide with Muharram and the 250th anniversary of American independence. Hence option C.

Source: Iran Burials Khamenei: Symbolic Power Performance, Mojtaba Succession & Strait of Hormuz MoU →
Q119.

For how many days has Iran guaranteed toll-free passage through the Strait of Hormuz under the MoU with the US?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.30 days
  • B.60 days✓ Correct Answer
  • C.90 days
  • D.120 days
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that under the MoU signed with the US, Iran has guaranteed toll-free passage for 60 days. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Source: Iran Burials Khamenei: Symbolic Power Performance, Mojtaba Succession & Strait of Hormuz MoU →
Q120.

According to the article, what is the primary function of the funeral ceremonies for Ayatollah Khamenei?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.To honor the deceased leader and provide closure to the nation
  • B.To perform power and conceal the regime's strategic weakness✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To mobilize international support for Iran's war efforts
  • D.To consolidate the succession of Mojtaba Khamenei as Supreme Leader
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article argues that the funeral was designed as a symbolic inversion to recast defeat as sacrifice, and that the regime needed citizens to be seen grieving. The performance of strength was a substitute for actual power, as seen in the absence of the new leader and the Strait of Hormuz MoU.

Source: Iran Burials Khamenei: Symbolic Power Performance, Mojtaba Succession & Strait of Hormuz MoU →
Q121.

Which organization developed India's first hydrogen-powered train?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Railway Board
  • B.Northern Railway
  • C.Integral Coach Factory (ICF)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ministry of Railways
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Chennai-based Integral Coach Factory (ICF) developed the hydrogen train set. ICF is a premier coach manufacturing unit under the Ministry of Railways.

Source: India's First Hydrogen Train on Jind-Sonipat Route: 89 km, 13 Stops, 2400 kW Power →
Q122.

Consider the following statements regarding India’s first hydrogen train:

1. It is the world’s longest hydrogen train set with 10 coaches.

2. It has a total power output of 1200 kW from two Driving Power Cars.

3. The train runs on the Jind-Sonipat route in Haryana.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 3
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the train set has 10 coaches and is the world’s longest hydrogen train. Statement 2 is incorrect: total power is 2400 kW (two DPCs of 1200 kW each). Statement 3 is correct: the route is Jind-Sonipat in Haryana. Hence option C is correct.

Source: India's First Hydrogen Train on Jind-Sonipat Route: 89 km, 13 Stops, 2400 kW Power →
Q123.

What is the maximum operational speed of India's first hydrogen train?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.75 kmph✓ Correct Answer
  • B.80 kmph
  • C.100 kmph
  • D.110 kmph
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly mentions that the train will operate at a maximum speed of 75 kmph on the Jind-Sonipat route. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Source: India's First Hydrogen Train on Jind-Sonipat Route: 89 km, 13 Stops, 2400 kW Power →
Q124.

What is the primary environmental benefit of the hydrogen-powered train?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Reduced noise pollution
  • B.Zero CO2 emissions, only water vapour✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Lower electricity consumption
  • D.Faster travel than diesel trains
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that the hydrogen train produces zero CO2 emissions and the only emission is water vapour, making it a green rail initiative. This is the core environmental advantage compared to diesel or even electric trains (which may have indirect emissions).

Source: India's First Hydrogen Train on Jind-Sonipat Route: 89 km, 13 Stops, 2400 kW Power →
Q125.

Which country's intelligence agency shared the alleged assassination plot information with the United States?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Iran
  • B.Israel✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Saudi Arabia
  • D.United Kingdom
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Israel shared intelligence with the US about an alleged Iran assassination plot against President Trump. The other countries were not mentioned as sharing such intelligence.

Source: Israel Shares Intel on Iran Assassination Plot Against Trump Amid Nuclear Deal Talks with Mid-August Deadline →
Q126.

Consider the following statements:

1. Israel shared intelligence with the US alleging a new Iran plan to assassinate President Trump.

2. US intelligence agencies have confirmed that an active assassination plot exists.

3. Iran has repeatedly vowed to retaliate against Trump for the 2020 killing of General Qassem Soleimani.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article says US intelligence agencies have not confirmed any active plot. Statement 3 is correct as Iran has vowed retaliation for Soleimani's killing. Hence option C.

Source: Israel Shares Intel on Iran Assassination Plot Against Trump Amid Nuclear Deal Talks with Mid-August Deadline →
Q127.

According to the news, what is the deadline by which the US and Iran aim to reach a nuclear deal?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.End of July 2026
  • B.Mid-August 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.September 2026
  • D.October 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Washington and Tehran are aiming to reach a nuclear deal by mid-August. The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the article.

Source: Israel Shares Intel on Iran Assassination Plot Against Trump Amid Nuclear Deal Talks with Mid-August Deadline →
Q128.

What is the most likely impact of the alleged assassination plot intelligence on the ongoing US-Iran nuclear negotiations?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It will likely derail or complicate the talks due to heightened tensions.✓ Correct Answer
  • B.It will have no effect as the talks are independent of security issues.
  • C.It will accelerate the talks as both sides seek to reduce tensions.
  • D.It will lead to immediate US military action against Iran.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that the intelligence comes amid renewed US-Iran tensions during nuclear negotiations. Such a serious allegation could harden positions and derail progress. The article does not suggest no effect, acceleration, or immediate military action.

Source: Israel Shares Intel on Iran Assassination Plot Against Trump Amid Nuclear Deal Talks with Mid-August Deadline →
Q129.

Which of the following reports is the primary source for the data on engineering enrolment and graduates in India as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.NFHS-6 Report
  • B.AISHE 2023-24 Report✓ Correct Answer
  • C.PLFS 2023-24 Report
  • D.Unified District Information System for Education (UDISE+)-2023-24 Report
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly cites the All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2023-24 as the source for all enrolment and graduate output data. The other reports cover different domains.

Source: AISHE 2023-24: Computer Engineering Tops Enrolment with 39.7% Share, UG Pass-outs at 2.62 Lakh →
Q130.

Consider the following statements regarding the AISHE 2023-24 findings:

1. Computer Engineering accounts for the highest share of engineering enrolment among all disciplines.

2. Mechanical Engineering produced more undergraduate graduates than Electronics Engineering in 2023-24.

3. Overall higher education enrolment in India reached a record 4.5 crore students in 2023-24.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 1 and 2
  • C.(C) Only 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the table shows Computer Engineering has 39.7% enrolment share. Statement 2 is correct: Mechanical had 1,13,390 pass-outs vs Electronics 1,11,242. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly states overall higher education enrolment reached 4.5 crore.

Source: AISHE 2023-24: Computer Engineering Tops Enrolment with 39.7% Share, UG Pass-outs at 2.62 Lakh →
Q131.

As per the AISHE 2023-24 report, what is the total enrolment in Engineering and Technology programmes (including all levels) in India?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.46,33,868✓ Correct Answer
  • B.8,33,808
  • C.2,62,408
  • D.4,50,00,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states 'Engineering and Technology enrolment across undergraduate, postgraduate, integrated, MPhil, and PhD programmes stands at 46,33,868 students.' The other options are distractors: 8,33,808 is UG pass-outs, 2,62,408 is Computer Engineering UG pass-outs, and 4.5 crore is overall higher education enrolment.

Source: AISHE 2023-24: Computer Engineering Tops Enrolment with 39.7% Share, UG Pass-outs at 2.62 Lakh →
Q132.

What is the primary reason cited in the article for the growing popularity of Computer Engineering among students?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Higher starting salaries compared to other branches
  • B.Expansion of India's digital economy and job opportunities in AI and software✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Reservation of seats in government institutions
  • D.Reduction in fees for computer-related courses
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states 'The findings point to changing student preferences as India’s digital economy expands' and mentions LinkedIn data on AI hiring growth. Other options are not mentioned or supported by the article.

Source: AISHE 2023-24: Computer Engineering Tops Enrolment with 39.7% Share, UG Pass-outs at 2.62 Lakh →
Q133.

Which provision of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 deals with the filling of casual vacancies in legislative bodies?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Section 151-A✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Section 152
  • C.Section 153
  • D.Section 154
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions Section 151-A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 as the legal provision under which the court examined whether vacancies are 'clear'. This section governs the procedure for filling casual vacancies in the House of the People and State Legislative Assemblies.

Source: Madras HC Restrains ECI from Notifying Bypolls to 5 TN Assembly Seats Over Pending Election Petitions →
Q134.

Consider the following statements regarding the Madras High Court order:

1. The Madras High Court restrained the Election Commission of India from issuing any notification for bypolls to five Assembly constituencies until July 31.

2. The court held that all vacancies are automatically 'clear vacancies' under Section 151-A of the RP Act, 1951.

3. The court cited the Supreme Court judgment in D Sanjeevayya vs Election Tribunal as a precedent.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court restrained ECI from notifying bypolls. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court held that vacancies with pending election petitions are NOT 'clear vacancies'. Statement 3 is correct as the court quoted from D Sanjeevayya vs Election Tribunal, among other precedents.

Source: Madras HC Restrains ECI from Notifying Bypolls to 5 TN Assembly Seats Over Pending Election Petitions →
Q135.

How many Assembly constituencies were involved in the Madras High Court order restraining bypolls?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Four
  • B.Five✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Six
  • D.Seven
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically lists five constituencies: Tiruchi (East), Perundurai, Ambasamudram, Viralimalai and Karur. This is a direct factual detail from the news.

Source: Madras HC Restrains ECI from Notifying Bypolls to 5 TN Assembly Seats Over Pending Election Petitions →
Q136.

What is the primary constitutional risk highlighted by the Madras High Court if bypolls are conducted while election petitions seeking composite relief are pending?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Violation of Article 324 of the Constitution
  • B.Two elected representatives for the same constituency✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Delay in representation for the constituency
  • D.Financial burden on the public exchequer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court explicitly stated that conducting bypolls before deciding election petitions could create a 'constitutional anomaly' where two individuals with competing claims represent the same constituency. This is the core legal reasoning behind the stay.

Source: Madras HC Restrains ECI from Notifying Bypolls to 5 TN Assembly Seats Over Pending Election Petitions →
Q137.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  • B.Ministry of Information and Broadcasting✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Culture
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The CBFC is a statutory body under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, established under the Cinematograph Act, 1952. The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology oversees the IT Act, not film certification.

Source: Centre Proposes IT Rules Amendment: Mandatory CBFC Certification for OTT Films After Satluj Row →
Q138.

Consider the following statements regarding the film 'Satluj':

1. The film is a biopic on Punjab human rights activist Jaswant Singh Khalra.

2. The film was released in theatres before its OTT release.

3. The makers accepted all 127 cuts suggested by CBFC.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the film is a biopic on Jaswant Singh Khalra. Statement 2 is incorrect: the film never reached cinemas; it was released directly on OTT. Statement 3 is incorrect: the makers refused the cuts and released the uncut version on ZEE5.

Source: Centre Proposes IT Rules Amendment: Mandatory CBFC Certification for OTT Films After Satluj Row →
Q139.

On which date did the Bombay High Court dispose of the petition related to the film 'Satluj'?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.May 2023
  • B.January 7, 2025✓ Correct Answer
  • C.July 3, 2026
  • D.January 7, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Bombay High Court disposed of the case on January 7, 2025, after the makers withdrew the petition. May 2023 is when CBFC sent a communication prohibiting release. July 3, 2026, is the OTT release date.

Source: Centre Proposes IT Rules Amendment: Mandatory CBFC Certification for OTT Films After Satluj Row →
Q140.

What is the primary objective of the proposed amendment to the IT rules mentioned in the news?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase government revenue through certification fees
  • B.To ensure that all films available for public viewing have CBFC certification, regardless of platform✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To ban all films critical of the government on OTT platforms
  • D.To promote Indian films in international markets
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the Centre wants to make certification mandatory for movies available for public viewing on any platform, not just theatrical releases. This is a regulatory move, not revenue or promotion driven.

Source: Centre Proposes IT Rules Amendment: Mandatory CBFC Certification for OTT Films After Satluj Row →
Q141.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for the Food Corporation of India (FCI)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
  • B.Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Finance
  • D.Ministry of Rural Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, FCI falls under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. The Minister for this ministry was unavailable for comment, confirming the linkage.

Source: 5 FCI Officials Including ED Suspended for Rice Diversion to NERAMAC Under OMSS(D) Scheme →
Q142.

Consider the following statements regarding the suspension of FCI officials:

1. Ashutosh Joshi, the suspended Executive Director of FCI, is a 1994-batch Indian Audit and Accounts Service (IA&AS) officer.

2. The suspension order against Ashutosh Joshi was issued on July 7, 2026.

3. NERAMAC is a public sector enterprise under the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – Joshi is an IA&AS officer of 1994 batch. Statement 2 is incorrect – the suspension order was issued on July 6, 2026, not July 7. Statement 3 is correct – NERAMAC is under the Ministry of DoNER. Hence option C is correct.

Source: 5 FCI Officials Including ED Suspended for Rice Diversion to NERAMAC Under OMSS(D) Scheme →
Q143.

How many senior officials of the Food Corporation of India were suspended in connection with the rice diversion case?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.3
  • B.4
  • C.5✓ Correct Answer
  • D.6
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that five officials were suspended, including the Executive Director (Ashutosh Joshi), General Manager (Anupam Dubey), Deputy General Manager (Vikash Krishna), Assistant General Manager (Brahm Prakash), and General Manager Regional Office Delhi (K P Asha). Thus 5 is correct.

Source: 5 FCI Officials Including ED Suspended for Rice Diversion to NERAMAC Under OMSS(D) Scheme →
Q144.

What is the primary objective of the Open Market Sale Scheme (Domestic) under which the rice was sold?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To distribute free foodgrains to below poverty line families
  • B.To stabilize market prices and ensure steady supply of foodgrains✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To export surplus foodgrains to foreign countries
  • D.To provide subsidized inputs to farmers for cultivation
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, OMSS(D) is a government initiative under which FCI sells surplus foodgrains through e-auctions at predetermined reserve prices to stabilise market prices and ensure steady supply. Option B correctly captures this objective.

Source: 5 FCI Officials Including ED Suspended for Rice Diversion to NERAMAC Under OMSS(D) Scheme →
Q145.

What is a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) in international relations?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.A legally binding treaty requiring ratification
  • B.A non-binding agreement outlining mutual intentions✓ Correct Answer
  • C.A formal executive order issued by a head of state
  • D.A unilateral declaration by one nation
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

An MoU is a non-binding agreement that expresses the common will of parties and is often used as a precursor to a treaty. The article mentions the U.S.-Iran MoU as a ceasefire and talks framework, not a legally binding treaty.

Source: U.S.-Iran Ceasefire MoU Collapses in 20 Days: Air Strikes Over Strait of Hormuz Escalate Tensions →
Q146.

Consider the following statements regarding the U.S.-Iran MoU:

1. The MoU was signed on June 17, 2026, and promised to extend the ceasefire by 60 days.

2. One of the major sticking points was Iran's refusal to withdraw from southern Lebanon.

3. The U.S. promoted an alternative route for shipping through the Strait of Hormuz along Oman's coast.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The MoU was signed on June 17, 2026, and promised a 60-day ceasefire extension. Statement 2 is incorrect: The sticking point was Israel's refusal to withdraw from southern Lebanon, not Iran's. Statement 3 is correct: The U.S. backed an alternative route along Oman's coast while Iran opened its own safe passage route.

Source: U.S.-Iran Ceasefire MoU Collapses in 20 Days: Air Strikes Over Strait of Hormuz Escalate Tensions →
Q147.

How many days after the U.S.-Iran MoU was signed did the ceasefire start to unravel?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.10 days
  • B.20 days✓ Correct Answer
  • C.30 days
  • D.40 days
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states, 'It took only 20 days for the U.S.-Iran memorandum of understanding ... to start unravelling' after being signed on June 17, 2026. The other options are distractors; 40 days refers to the duration of U.S. bombing, not the breakdown period.

Source: U.S.-Iran Ceasefire MoU Collapses in 20 Days: Air Strikes Over Strait of Hormuz Escalate Tensions →
Q148.

Why did Iran open a 'safe passage route' along its coast in the Strait of Hormuz?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To comply with international maritime law
  • B.To assert control and retain strategic leverage over the waterway✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To facilitate humanitarian aid shipments to Yemen
  • D.To reduce tensions with the U.S. by proposing a shared corridor
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that Iran fears the U.S. is promoting an alternative Oman route to strip away Iran's leverage established during the war. Opening a safe passage along its coast is Iran's attempt to remain the sole custodian of the Strait, a key bargaining chip in negotiations.

Source: U.S.-Iran Ceasefire MoU Collapses in 20 Days: Air Strikes Over Strait of Hormuz Escalate Tensions →
Q149.

Which constitutional body is responsible for conducting the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B.Election Commission of India✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Human Rights Commission
  • D.State Election Commission of Manipur
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the SIR is being implemented by the Election Commission of India (ECI). The ECI is the constitutional authority under Article 324 mandated to conduct elections and maintain electoral rolls for Parliament and State Legislatures.

Source: ECI's Special Intensive Revision of Electoral Rolls in Manipur Risks Deepening Exclusion Amid Ethnic Conflict →
Q150.

Consider the following statements regarding the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) in Manipur:

1. The SIR has been criticised for summary deletion of voters and lack of transparency.

2. The Kuki-Zo community in Manipur enjoys Sixth Schedule protections for their autonomous councils.

3. Over 90% of Kuki-Zo people are unlikely to produce a single consistent spelling of their names.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article notes adverse criticism of SIR for hasty, disproportionate, and summary deletion of voters. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article explicitly states that Manipuri tribals (Kuki-Zo and Naga) do NOT enjoy Sixth Schedule status; they have only Article 371C and weak Autonomous Councils. Statement 3 is correct: the article says 'more than 90% of Kuki-Zo people are unlikely to be able to produce a single, consistent spelling of their own names'. Hence option C.

Source: ECI's Special Intensive Revision of Electoral Rolls in Manipur Risks Deepening Exclusion Amid Ethnic Conflict →
Q151.

According to the article, approximately how many people have been internally displaced due to the ethnic conflict in Manipur?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.26,000
  • B.50,000
  • C.60,000✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2,60,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions that the conflict has 'displaced some 60,000 people within and outside Manipur'. Options A (26,000) is close to the Naga population percentage, B (50,000) is the approximate Kuki-Zo displaced figure, and D (2,60,000) is a distractor. The correct total IDP figure is 60,000.

Source: ECI's Special Intensive Revision of Electoral Rolls in Manipur Risks Deepening Exclusion Amid Ethnic Conflict →
Q152.

What is the primary risk of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls in Manipur, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Increase in voter turnout due to better roll accuracy
  • B.Mass disenfranchisement of the displaced Kuki-Zo community✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Enhanced representation of hill tribes in the assembly
  • D.Speedy resolution of the ethnic conflict through electoral reforms
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article argues that SIR, under the prevailing conditions of displacement, lost documents, and biased narratives against Kukis, will lead to their systematic exclusion from electoral rolls, effectively disenfranchising them. The other options are not supported; the SIR is not designed to increase turnout or resolve conflict.

Source: ECI's Special Intensive Revision of Electoral Rolls in Manipur Risks Deepening Exclusion Amid Ethnic Conflict →
Q153.

Which ministry's Expert Appraisal Committee (EAC) granted environmental clearance for the Wayanad twin-tunnel project?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC)✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
  • C.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Science and Technology
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Expert Appraisal Committee (EAC) is a statutory body under the MoEFCC that evaluates projects requiring environmental clearance under the Environment Protection Act, 1986. The article specifically mentions the EAC under the Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.

Source: 6 Workers Dead in Wayanad Tunnel Debris Slide: Construction Suspended, Probe Ordered →
Q154.

Consider the following statements regarding the Wayanad debris slide incident:

1. The debris slide occurred at the entrance of an under-construction twin tunnel in Meppadi panchayat.

2. The Kerala government suspended construction after the incident and ordered a comprehensive probe.

3. The Supreme Court had earlier halted the project citing environmental concerns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the debris slide happened at the entrance of the twin tunnel at Kalladi in Meppadi panchayat. Statement 2 is correct: the state government suspended construction pending a probe. Statement 3 is incorrect: the Supreme Court actually rejected a plea to halt the project in April 2026, citing 'national importance'.

Source: 6 Workers Dead in Wayanad Tunnel Debris Slide: Construction Suspended, Probe Ordered →
Q155.

What was the approximate cost of the twin-tube tunnel project linking Anakkampoyil to Meppadi in Wayanad?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹1,500 crore
  • B.₹2,100 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹2,500 crore
  • D.₹3,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions the project cost as approximately ₹2,100 crore. The other options are plausible distractors: ₹1,500 crore is too low, ₹2,500 crore and ₹3,000 crore are higher than the stated figure.

Source: 6 Workers Dead in Wayanad Tunnel Debris Slide: Construction Suspended, Probe Ordered →
Q156.

What is the primary reason cited by environmentalists for opposing the Wayanad twin-tunnel project?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.High cost of construction
  • B.Lack of adequate healthcare facilities in the region
  • C.Fragile ecology of the Western Ghats and risk of landslides✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Displacement of local communities
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Environmentalists flagged the project as a 'recipe for disaster' due to the fragile ecology of Wayanad, which has witnessed repeated landslides. The article notes that the region is highly susceptible to climate-induced catastrophes. While cost and displacement may be concerns, the primary environmental argument is ecological fragility.

Source: 6 Workers Dead in Wayanad Tunnel Debris Slide: Construction Suspended, Probe Ordered →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 10 July 2026?▼

This page contains 156 current affairs questions from 10 July 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 10 July 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. ministry is primarily responsible for the management of India'…
  2. Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the India-Myanmar …
  3. Q3. is the total cost approved for fencing the India-Myanmar borde…
  4. Q4. According to Home Minister Amit Shah, what is the primary caus…
  5. Q5. Indian agency signed a Memorandum of Understanding with Austra…
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the India-Australi…
  7. Q7. According to the Lowy Institute Poll cited in the article, wha…
  8. Q8. is the primary strategic challenge identified in the article f…
  9. Q9. ministry is primarily responsible for the implementation of th…
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the announcements …
  11. Q11. is the length of the India-Myanmar border that the government …
  12. Q12. is the primary objective of the Demography Mission announced b…
  13. Q13. legislative body passed the amendments to the Bharatiya Nagari…
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the BNSS amendment…
  15. Q15. According to the article, what is the maximum period for which…
  16. Q16. is the primary legal basis that allows Maharashtra to amend th…
  17. Q17. of the following bodies is proposed to be replaced by the Viks…
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the Viksit Bharat …
  19. Q19. According to the VBSA Bill, 2025, what is the maximum period f…
  20. Q20. is the primary concern raised by state governments regarding t…
  21. Q21. institution issued the regulatory advisory on AI-enabled cyber…
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the article: 1. T…
  23. Q23. According to the Stanford AI Index 2026 cited in the article, …
  24. Q24. is the primary challenge banks face when AI systems produce an…
  25. Q25. Indian ministry is primarily responsible for transmitting and …
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the India-US Extra…
  27. Q27. In which year was the India-US Extradition Treaty signed?
  28. Q28. Why can India potentially delay the extradition of Lawrence Bi…
  29. Q29. statutory body is responsible for certifying films for theatri…
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding regulation of OTT …
  31. Q31. many cuts did the Central Board of Film Certification seek bef…
  32. Q32. is the primary objective of the three-tier grievance mechanism…
  33. Q33. agency issued the forecast that the current El Niño has an 81%…
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the current El Niñ…
  35. Q35. According to the NOAA bulletin, what is the current value of t…
  36. Q36. is the primary impact of the current El Niño on India's monsoo…
  37. Q37. According to the article, which country is the largest helium …
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding helium: 1. China …
  39. Q39. was the reported spot price for highly pure helium in Northeas…
  40. Q40. According to the U.S. Geological Survey, which sector accounts…
  41. Q41. regulatory framework is the European Commission using to charg…
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the EU's action ag…
  43. Q43. is the maximum potential fine Meta could face under the Digita…
  44. Q44. is the primary objective of the EU's Digital Services Act (DSA…
  45. Q45. ministry is primarily responsible for negotiating and signing …
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements: 1. PM Modi is the first In…
  47. Q47. is the current bilateral trade volume between India and New Ze…
  48. Q48. is the primary geopolitical objective behind India's outreach …
  49. Q49. The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) city estimates discuss…
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding female employment …
  51. Q51. According to the PLFS data, what is the average earnings gap b…
  52. Q52. The article argues that despite offering better jobs, big citi…
  53. Q53. directorate issued the notification for quotas and tariffs und…
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the India-U.K. CET…
  55. Q55. is the minimum landed cost (in pounds) for an alternate fuel v…
  56. Q56. is the primary objective of delaying concessions for alternate…
  57. Q57. constitutional body is responsible for conducting the Special …
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the SIR in Manipur…
  59. Q59. was the total number of voter deletions during the enumeration…
  60. Q60. is the primary concern raised by civil society organizations r…
  61. Q61. organization is sponsoring the international NeoSep1 trial men…
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements regarding neonatal sepsis in…
  63. Q63. According to the article, what is the target enrolment number …
  64. Q64. is the primary objective of the NeoSep1 trial as described in …
  65. Q65. court issued the order regarding 'due primacy' to the district…
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the Kerala High Co…
  67. Q67. is the date of the Kerala High Court order that modified the d…
  68. Q68. According to the Kerala High Court, what is the primary purpos…
  69. Q69. US military command released the screengrab of explosions in I…
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements: 1. US President Trump decl…
  71. Q71. According to the news, which countries did Iran target in reta…
  72. Q72. is the primary strategic concern for India arising from the es…
  73. Q73. of the following central agencies is primarily responsible for…
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the anti-drug coor…
  75. Q75. According to the news, what is the rank of the nodal officer t…
  76. Q76. is the primary objective of establishing a permanent interstat…
  77. Q77. is the primary principle guiding the Assam government's decisi…
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the Assam Budget 2…
  79. Q79. is the monthly stipend amount promised to job-seeking graduate…
  80. Q80. Why did the Assam government decide to resume the distribution…
  81. Q81. ministry/department is primarily responsible for administering…
  82. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the recent amendme…
  83. Q83. is the minimum ethyl alcohol concentration (in % v/v) above wh…
  84. Q84. is the primary objective of moving high-alcohol drug formulati…
  85. Q85. ministry released the FAQ document defending the E20 fuel policy?
  86. Q86. Consider the following statements regarding E20 fuel: 1. It m…
  87. Q87. According to the government's FAQ, what is the procurement pri…
  88. Q88. Why is E20 fuel not cheaper than pure petrol or E10 at the cur…
  89. Q89. organization estimated India's June 2026 retail inflation at 4…
  90. Q90. Consider the following statements: 1. Retail inflation in Ind…
  91. Q91. was the retail inflation rate in India for May 2026, as mentio…
  92. Q92. If retail inflation in India exceeds 6% and remains elevated, …
  93. Q93. organization issued the Red Corner Notice against Goldy Brar?
  94. Q94. Consider the following statements: 1. Operation Hardball was …
  95. Q95. many kilograms of cocaine were seized under Operation Hardball?
  96. Q96. is the primary legal principle governing extradition between I…
  97. Q97. implementing agency is responsible for the Mumbai-Ahmedabad Hi…
  98. Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the Mumbai-Ahmedab…
  99. Q99. is the weight of the heaviest portal beam launched in the Ahme…
  100. Q100. is the primary objective of developing the Ahmedabad bullet tr…
  101. Q101. state government issued the advisory urging farmers to adopt D…
  102. Q102. Consider the following statements regarding Direct Seeded Rice…
  103. Q103. According to the article, how much water does the Direct Seede…
  104. Q104. is the primary reason for low adoption of DSR in Chhattisgarh …
  105. Q105. country announced a temporary export ban on helium on July 10,…
  106. Q106. Consider the following statements regarding China's helium exp…
  107. Q107. On what date did China announce the temporary export ban on he…
  108. Q108. is the primary reason cited by China for imposing the temporar…
  109. Q109. US law imposes sanctions on countries that engage in significa…
  110. Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the NATO Ankara Su…
  111. Q111. is the total value of military aid to Ukraine pledged at the N…
  112. Q112. is the primary objective of the EU's Security Action for Europ…
  113. Q113. ministry is primarily responsible for the ethanol blending pro…
  114. Q114. Consider the following statements regarding India's ethanol bl…
  115. Q115. According to the government, what is the approximate annual in…
  116. Q116. is the primary reason cited by the government for not offering…
  117. Q117. Shia shrine is mentioned in the article as the source of the r…
  118. Q118. Consider the following statements regarding the funeral of Aya…
  119. Q119. For how many days has Iran guaranteed toll-free passage throug…
  120. Q120. According to the article, what is the primary function of the …
  121. Q121. organization developed India's first hydrogen-powered train?
  122. Q122. Consider the following statements regarding India’s first hydr…
  123. Q123. is the maximum operational speed of India's first hydrogen train?
  124. Q124. is the primary environmental benefit of the hydrogen-powered t…
  125. Q125. country's intelligence agency shared the alleged assassination…
  126. Q126. Consider the following statements: 1. Israel shared intellige…
  127. Q127. According to the news, what is the deadline by which the US an…
  128. Q128. is the most likely impact of the alleged assassination plot in…
  129. Q129. of the following reports is the primary source for the data on…
  130. Q130. Consider the following statements regarding the AISHE 2023-24 …
  131. Q131. As per the AISHE 2023-24 report, what is the total enrolment i…
  132. Q132. is the primary reason cited in the article for the growing pop…
  133. Q133. provision of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 deals …
  134. Q134. Consider the following statements regarding the Madras High Co…
  135. Q135. many Assembly constituencies were involved in the Madras High …
  136. Q136. is the primary constitutional risk highlighted by the Madras H…
  137. Q137. ministry is primarily responsible for the Central Board of Fil…
  138. Q138. Consider the following statements regarding the film 'Satluj':…
  139. Q139. On which date did the Bombay High Court dispose of the petitio…
  140. Q140. is the primary objective of the proposed amendment to the IT r…
  141. Q141. ministry is primarily responsible for the Food Corporation of …
  142. Q142. Consider the following statements regarding the suspension of …
  143. Q143. many senior officials of the Food Corporation of India were su…
  144. Q144. is the primary objective of the Open Market Sale Scheme (Domes…
  145. Q145. is a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) in international relati…
  146. Q146. Consider the following statements regarding the U.S.-Iran MoU:…
  147. Q147. many days after the U.S.-Iran MoU was signed did the ceasefire…
  148. Q148. Why did Iran open a 'safe passage route' along its coast in th…
  149. Q149. constitutional body is responsible for conducting the Special …
  150. Q150. Consider the following statements regarding the Special Intens…
  151. Q151. According to the article, approximately how many people have b…
  152. Q152. is the primary risk of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of…
  153. Q153. ministry's Expert Appraisal Committee (EAC) granted environmen…
  154. Q154. Consider the following statements regarding the Wayanad debris…
  155. Q155. was the approximate cost of the twin-tube tunnel project linki…
  156. Q156. is the primary reason cited by environmentalists for opposing …