7 July 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The Census of India is conducted under the Census Act, 1948, and is administered by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, which functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: caste enumeration in the 2027 Census is part of the Population Enumeration phase and has statutory backing under the Census Act, 1948. Statement 2 is incorrect: the last caste enumeration in independent India was in 1931; the 2011 SECC was conducted separately and its data was not officially released. Statement 3 is correct: the pre-test uses an open column for caste entry, mirroring the 2011 SECC methodology.

Explanation

The 2011 SECC recorded over 46 lakh different caste names due to the open-ended methodology. In contrast, the 1931 Census recorded 4,147 castes. Options A, C, and D refer to other data: 4,147 (1931 Census castes), 2,650 (OBCs in Central list), and 1,170 (SCs in Central list).

Explanation

The open-column methodology in the 2011 SECC yielded over 46 lakh caste names, many of which were variations (e.g., Gupta/Agarwal for Baniya). The government argued in the Supreme Court that such data cannot be relied upon for reservation in education, employment, or local body elections due to lack of standardization and reliability.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that the parliamentary committee was constituted under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. Article 217 deals with resignation and conditions of office, not the removal procedure. The other acts are not relevant to impeachment of judges.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the 1978 Supreme Court judgment mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states that the law does NOT explicitly say the inquiry must lapse upon resignation. Statement 3 is correct as the article notes that the Dinakaran probe was wound up after his resignation.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'over 146 Lok Sabha MPs moved a motion for his removal'. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article highlights that tabling the report brings findings into the public domain and could stop the judge's pension and post-retirement benefits if misconduct is established. Criminal proceedings are a potential future step, not the primary purpose. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

In N.P. Ponnuswami vs Returning Officer (1952), the Supreme Court held that the right to vote and contest elections are statutory rights created by the Representation of the People Act, not fundamental or common law rights. This principle was reaffirmed in later cases like Jyoti Basu (1982) and Kuldip Nayar (2006).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – in Union of India vs ADR (2002), the SC located the right to know under Article 19(1)(a). Statement 2 is incorrect – Kuldip Nayar (2006) reaffirmed that voting is a statutory right, not fundamental. Statement 3 is correct – the 2013 NOTA judgment held that rejecting candidates is a form of political expression under Article 19(1)(a). Hence option C.

Explanation

The Supreme Court in 2013 (People's Union of Civil Liberties vs Union of India) recognized NOTA as a form of political expression protected by Article 19(1)(a). The Court held that the secrecy of the ballot must extend even to those who choose NOTA. 2002 and 2003 are years of other election-related judgments (ADR and PUCL), while 2023 is the Anoop Baranwal case.

Explanation

The article points out that the SC has held that the right to reject candidates (NOTA) is a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(a), while the act of voting itself remains a statutory right. This creates an anomaly: the Constitution protects the right to reject but not the right to choose. Option A is incorrect as both voting and contesting are statutory. Option C is reversed – right to know is fundamental. Option D is false – elections are conducted under the Constitution.

Explanation

While NDMA coordinates disaster response, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) is the nodal ministry for climate change adaptation and mitigation, including heat action plans. The article discusses HAPs as a climate adaptation tool, falling under MoEFCC's purview.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: official data only counts heatstroke deaths. Statement 2 is correct: prolonged exposure to wet-bulb temperatures above 35°C can be fatal. Statement 3 is incorrect: heatwaves are NOT a notified disaster under the Disaster Management Act, unlike floods and cyclones.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that a 2026 mortality study found five states—Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Gujarat—account for more than 60% of estimated heatwave deaths.

Explanation

The article explains that heat is seldom recognized as a cause of death; it acts as a hidden trigger exacerbating underlying illnesses. Official data only counts heatstroke deaths, missing the broader category of heat-related deaths, leading to massive undercounting.

Explanation

The news is about the NATO summit in Turkey. NATO's core treaty commitment is Article 5, which declares an attack on one member is an attack on all. The other options refer to different organizations or treaty clauses not relevant here.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Trump listed Britain, France, Germany, Italy, and Spain for criticism and demanded 'loyalty'. Statement 2 is correct per the Pentagon announcement. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article states European allies and Canada pay for about 90% of Ukraine's air defences, not 50%.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The 2026 U.S. military budget is set at $901 billion, or about 3.3% of GDP.' Options A, C, and D contain incorrect figures mismatch with the source data.

Explanation

Trump's call for 'loyalty' after allies refused base access for Iran strikes, and his statement 'I just want loyalty' indicate a demand for unconditional support beyond the existing treaty obligations. The article highlights that Article 5 already binds members to collective defence, but Trump wants more. Options A, C, and D are not the primary objective or are not supported by the article.

Explanation

BrahMos missile is developed by DRDO under the Ministry of Defence. Defence exports are also overseen by the Ministry of Defence through the Defence Procurement Procedure and related agencies. The other ministries play secondary roles in non-defence aspects.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states 'The BrahMos missile deal with Indonesia came after India inked similar pacts with Vietnam and the Philippines.' Statement 2 is correct: 'India decided to invest in the manufacturing of steel, nickel and rare earth permanent magnets in Indonesia.' Statement 3 is correct: 'jointly develop the strategically-located Sabang port which overlooks the Strait of Malacca and is 100 miles away from India’s Great Nicobar port project.' Hence all three are correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Sabang port 'is 100 miles away from India’s Great Nicobar port project.' The other options are close distractors, but 100 miles is the exact distance given in the news. This numeric detail is important for prelims questions on port connectivity and strategic geography.

Explanation

The article highlights that Sabang port 'overlooks the Strait of Malacca.' The Strait is a critical chokepoint for global trade and energy shipments. Joint development of the port enhances India's maritime domain awareness and allows better monitoring of sea lines of communication. While critical minerals and trade are part of other agreements, the port's primary significance is strategic maritime surveillance, not tourism (A), exclusively mineral trade (C), or a military base (D).

Explanation

The Gujarat High Court, through a division bench of Justices A.Y. Kogje and Samir Dave, upheld the death sentences. The Supreme Court is the apex court, while the Special Court delivered the original 2022 verdict.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions 21 blasts in 70 minutes. Statement 2 is incorrect because the original death sentences were awarded by a Special Court in 2022, not the High Court. The High Court upheld that verdict in 2026. Statement 3 is correct as some hospitals were targeted.

Explanation

The article clearly states that 56 persons were killed and 200 were injured in the blasts. 38 is the number of death row convicts, 70 is the duration in minutes, and 200 is the number of injured.

Explanation

The High Court upheld the Special Court's 2022 verdict, confirming death sentences for 38 Indian Mujahideen members. This reinforces judicial deterrence against terrorism. The other options are incorrect as no new law was introduced, and the verdict was not an acquittal or reduction.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions SEBI as the regulator issuing the notification dated July 1, 2026. SEBI is the securities market regulator in India, responsible for overseeing buyback regulations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'less than fifteen per cent of the paid up capital and free reserves'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the completion period is 66 working days, not calendar days. Statement 3 is incorrect because appointing a merchant banker is now discretionary, not mandatory.

Explanation

The article states: 'the buyback from the open market through the stock exchange shall be less than fifteen per cent of the paid up capital and free reserves of the company'. Hence 15% is the limit, though it is strictly 'less than 15%'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'SEBI's move is aimed at improving flexibility and execution efficiency, while potentially enhancing the attractiveness of buybacks as a capital allocation tool for listed companies.' The other options are not mentioned or contradict the reform's intent.

Explanation

The UN Security Council established the 1267 Committee to oversee sanctions against individuals and entities linked to Al-Qaeda and the Taliban, including terrorist designations like Hafiz Saeed. The General Assembly does not have this specific mandate, and the ICJ or INTERPOL does not designate individuals as terrorists under this regime.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states Hafiz Saeed is the founder of LeT and JuD. Statement 2 is incorrect because India and Pakistan do not have a bilateral extradition treaty. Statement 3 is correct as he is a UNSC designated global terrorist. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

India has specifically sought Hafiz Saeed's extradition for his role in orchestrating the 2008 Mumbai attacks, which killed over 160 people. While he is linked to other terror activities, the 2008 attacks remain the most significant trigger for India's legal demand.

Explanation

The article highlights that the absence of a formal extradition treaty between India and Pakistan is a key legal hurdle. Without such a treaty, there is no binding obligation on Pakistan to surrender Saeed, making the process dependent on diplomatic goodwill and ad-hoc arrangements.

Explanation

The order was passed by a bench of Acting Chief Justice Ravindra V Ghuge and Justice Gautam A Ankhad of the Bombay High Court. The woman had approached this court seeking protection from coercion by her family.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – the court explicitly stated that these are matters of personal choice under Article 21. Statement 2 is incorrect – the court did NOT order her return; it directed the police to close the missing person report and prohibited coercion. Statement 3 is correct – Senior Advocate Mihir Desai represented her.

Explanation

The court noted that she is an adult, being 21 years of age. Though the age of majority is 18, the court specifically mentioned 21, which is the minimum age for marriage for women under the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006.

Explanation

The court held that the right to personal liberty under Article 21 includes the right to decide where to reside, whom to marry, and whether to pursue education. While Article 19(1)(d) also guarantees freedom of movement and residence, the judgment explicitly relied on Article 21.

Explanation

The Narmada Water Disputes Tribunal (NWDT) was constituted in 1969 under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, which provides the framework for resolving disputes over inter-state river waters. The other options are incorrect as they pertain to different legislation or policies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: NWDT was constituted in 1969 and its Award was given in 1979. Statement 2 is correct: The Award specified water and power shares for the four states. Statement 3 is incorrect: The recent agreement resolved pending financial dues (cost-sharing, R&R, compensation), not the water sharing itself, which was already settled by the Award.

Explanation

The NWDT was constituted in 1969 and its final Award was given in 1979. The Award specified the quantum of water and power shares for the four beneficiary states. Option A (1969) is the year of constitution, not the Award.

Explanation

The agreement specifically addressed outstanding financial dues including cost-sharing of the Sardar Sarovar Project and Indira Sagar Project, R&R expenditure, compensation for submerged land, and interest on borrowings. Water sharing was already determined by the NWDT Award. The other options are incorrect or not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

According to the article, vepdegestrant was developed by Arvinas and Pfizer. Arvinas is a US-based biotechnology company that pioneered PROTAC technology, and Pfizer collaborated to bring the drug to market.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: PROTACs are catalytic; after triggering degradation, they detach and can degrade another target. Statement 2 is correct: vepdegestrant degrades the estrogen receptor. Statement 3 is incorrect: PROTACs are larger and more complex, often leading to poorer oral bioavailability compared to traditional small-molecule drugs, as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that among 270 patients with ESR1-mutated tumours, the median progression-free survival was 5 months for vepdegestrant versus 2.1 months for fulvestrant. Option A is the value for fulvestrant, C and D are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article highlights that vepdegestrant is the world's first FDA-approved PROTAC drug. Unlike traditional inhibitors, PROTACs degrade target proteins catalytically, offering a novel way to tackle previously 'undruggable' proteins and overcome resistance. Options A, C, and D are overgeneralizations not supported by the article.

Explanation

The PLI scheme for electronics manufacturing is administered by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). The article mentions LG's investment in electronics manufacturing, which falls under this ministry's purview. Other ministries handle different PLI schemes: Commerce & Industry for some sectors, Heavy Industries for automobiles, and Finance for overall coordination.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: APACT and ASIP Technologies are building the OSAT project in Visakhapatnam. Statement 2 is correct: The project will produce 96 million semiconductor devices a year. Statement 3 is incorrect: LG's ₹5,000 crore plant at Sri City will manufacture air-conditioner compressors, refrigerators, washing machines, and air conditioners, not EV batteries.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that LG Electronics India CEO Hong Ju Jeon confirmed a ₹5,000 crore investment for its third Indian manufacturing plant at Sri City. ₹468 crore is the investment for the APACT OSAT project, not LG's investment.

Explanation

The article highlights that the Minister invited companies to set up EV semiconductor hubs, OSAT projects, and component manufacturing. This aligns with India's broader goal of self-reliance in electronics and semiconductors, reducing import dependence. While revenue generation is a secondary benefit, the core objective is strategic: building a domestic manufacturing ecosystem for critical technologies like EVs and semiconductors.

Explanation

The notice was issued by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), which is the nodal ministry for IT and digital platforms. The Ministry of Home Affairs operates the National Cyber Crime Reporting portal but is not the issuer of this notice.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Section 67B of the IT Act criminalises publishing or transmitting CSAM. Statement 2 is incorrect: the POCSO Act explicitly applies to electronic forms and criminalises creating, storing, transmitting, distributing, or facilitating CSAM. Statement 3 is correct: the government ordered ISPs to dynamically block CSAM using lists from IWF (UK) or Project Arachnid (Canada).

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Meta is expected to respond to the government's notice within seven days. The other options are common timeframes used in regulatory notices but are not correct here.

Explanation

The notice is a regulatory action by MeitY to seek Meta's explanation and the measures it has taken regarding CSAM on Instagram. The goal is to ensure compliance with IT Act and POCSO Act provisions. A financial penalty or ban is not mentioned as the immediate objective; further action will depend on Meta's response.

Explanation

As per the article, the Gujarat High Court Division Bench comprising Justices A Y Kogje and Samir Dave upheld the death sentences. The other options are incorrect as the case was heard in Gujarat.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the HC upheld death sentences for 38. Statement 2 is correct as per article. Statement 3 is incorrect because 11 convicts received life imprisonment, not all death.

Explanation

The article states that 22 bombs went off at various spots in Ahmedabad. Two additional bombs did not explode (one each at Kalol and Naroda). Options 20 and 24 are close distractors.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the prosecution claimed the blasts were planned as revenge for the 2002 post-Godhra riots in Gujarat and also to overthrow the government. However, the primary stated motive was revenge for the riots.

Explanation

Bintang Adipurna is Indonesia's highest civilian award, conferred for exceptional service to national unity and prosperity. Other options are different awards from Indonesia or India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: BrahMos missile deal was signed. Statement 2 is incorrect: Indonesia will station a Liaison Officer at IFC-IOR, not India. Statement 3 is correct: India will earmark slots for Indonesian cadets at NDA and DSSC.

Explanation

The article states that Indonesia commands roughly 21% of the world's nickel reserves. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

Indonesia dominates global production of nickel, copper, bauxite, and tin, which are critical for electronics and clean energy technologies. The cooperation aims to ensure stable access for India's industries.

Explanation

IIM Ahmedabad established the first overseas campus of any IIM in Dubai. The campus was formally inaugurated on September 11, 2025. IIM Bangalore's announcement to set up a campus in Indonesia is the second such overseas expansion.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the news article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the first overseas campus was by IIM Ahmedabad, not IIM Bangalore. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions IIM Ahmedabad's Dubai campus and the push for internationalisation.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the IIM Ahmedabad Dubai campus was formally inaugurated on September 11, 2025, at Dubai International Academic City. The current news article about IIM Bangalore's Indonesia campus is dated July 7, 2026.

Explanation

The article emphasises that the campus will serve the wider ASEAN region, and PM Modi said it will benefit youth across ASEAN. This aligns with India's Act East Policy, aiming to build cultural and economic bridges. The agreements on AI, telecom, and space further underscore this strategic partnership.

Explanation

Section 2 of this Act provides that in matters of marriage, divorce, inheritance, etc., the rule of decision for Muslims shall be Muslim Personal Law (Shariat). The Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 is related but specifically deals with grounds for women to seek divorce.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Talaq-e-Hasan is gradual and revocable. Statement 2 is incorrect: The 2017 Supreme Court judgment declared instant triple talaq (Talaq-e-Biddat) unconstitutional, not Talaq-e-Hasan. Statement 3 is incorrect: A fatwa is a non-binding expert opinion, not a judicial verdict.

Explanation

The article states that the division bench pronounced the judgment on July 3, 2026. July 7 is the publication date of the article. September 25, 2024 is the date the husband sent the third talaq notice, and March 17, 1939 is when Section 5 of the 1937 Act was repealed.

Explanation

The court held that Talaq-e-Hasan, pronounced in the prescribed Shariat manner, constitutes a complete divorce. The ruling does not ban Talaq-e-Hasan and clarifies that a fatwa is not binding. Option B, C, and D are incorrect based on the judgment.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Madras High Court, presided by Justice G K Ilanthiraiyan, passed the order. The Gauhati High Court is mentioned separately for a different case.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the order. Statement 2 is incorrect because the deadline given was 12 weeks, not 8 weeks. Statement 3 is correct as the court directed the petitioner to lodge a fresh complaint before the RDO and ordered the RDO to conduct an enquiry.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the court directed the police to file a final report within a period of 12 weeks. The same deadline was given for the RDO to pass orders.

Explanation

The court ordered police protection and an enquiry to enable the petitioner and his family to reside in their home without fear. This directly protects their right to life and liberty under Article 21, as also highlighted by the Gauhati HC ruling.

Explanation

Waqf properties and boards fall under the purview of the Ministry of Minority Affairs. This ministry oversees the implementation of the Waqf Act and related amendments.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: MP became the first state to operationalise the provision. Statement 2 is incorrect because the amendment mandates at least two non-Muslim members, not one. Statement 3 is correct as Congress MLA Arif Masood vowed to move the Supreme Court.

Explanation

The article states that the MP government issued a gazette notification constituting a 10-member Waqf Board headed by Sanwar Patel. The other numbers are distractors.

Explanation

The article mentions that the Narendra Modi government defended the amendments as measures to improve transparency, curb alleged irregularities in Waqf land management and protect public property. The other options are not cited as the government's stated objectives.

Explanation

The article states that after the disastrous Beijing floods of 2012, China incorporated Kongjian Yu's ideas into its Sponge City programme across dozens of urban centres. This is a fact-based static GK linkage from the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Mumbai receives around 2,400 mm annually. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Sponge City concept treats rainwater as a resource to be absorbed and reused, not flushed away. Statement 3 is correct: The article says warming Arabian Sea increases atmospheric moisture, making extreme rainfall events more intense. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that China's long-term target, outlined in the 2015 Sponge City guidelines, is for more than 80% of urban areas to capture and reuse at least 70% of annual rainfall by 2030. The numbers are a common examiner trap.

Explanation

The article describes the Sponge City concept as one that seeks to work with nature: parks become detention basins, wetlands restored, green roofs, permeable pavements. The goal is to absorb, filter, store, and gradually release rainwater, not to flush it away quickly or build hard infrastructure.

Explanation

The article mentions that Somnath Kar from Bhabha Atomic Research Centre collaborated on the research led by Prof Debabrata Maiti at IIT Bombay.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the method achieves conversion in 'fewer steps', not a single step. Statement 2 is correct as the article states it is 'a general process applicable to a wide array of organic compounds.' Statement 3 is correct as muricatacin was synthesized and it has anti-cancer properties.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'Just about 15 mg of muricatacin is obtained from about 15 kg of plant material, and that too is mixed with other substances.' This highlights the inefficiency of natural extraction.

Explanation

The article states the method 'could make drug discovery faster, cheaper and more sustainable' by quickly converting simple fatty acids into many different bioactive molecules. It is a platform technology, not a direct cure or extraction method.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that Christians are governed under the colonial-era statute, the Divorce Act, 1869. The Indian Christian Marriage Act, 1872 governs marriage solemnization, not divorce. The Special Marriage Act covers interfaith and civil marriages, and the Hindu Marriage Act applies to Hindus, Buddhists, Jains, and Sikhs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Justice Thomas held the provision is 'simple, plain and unambiguous' and courts have no business rewriting it. Statement 2 is incorrect: the court rejected the argument of unconstitutional discrimination, holding that personal laws of different religious communities may differ. Statement 3 is correct: the court held that Section 3(3) only governs initial filing, and the case can be transferred under Section 24 of the CPC, as clarified in Eldho Varghese v Liya Jose (2024). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the Divorce Act was 'substantially amended in 2001 to remove several gender-based inequalities in the grounds for divorce under Section 10.' The year 2003 is relevant as the year when Parliament fixed a similar jurisdictional gap for Hindu and civil marriages under the Hindu Marriage Act and Special Marriage Act.

Explanation

The court did not amend the law itself but urged Parliament to add a provision enabling wives to file petitions where they reside. The court clarified that while Section 3(3) restricts initial filing, women can seek case transfer under Section 24 of the CPC as an interim remedy. The court explicitly rejected the argument of unconstitutional discrimination, so option D is wrong.

Explanation

The device was developed by researchers from the Indian Institute of Technology Bombay (IIT Bombay) and the ICMR-National Institute for Research on Women’s Health (ICMR-NIRWoH) in Mumbai.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article explicitly states the device is a static two-chamber platform that can be used in a standard laboratory, NOT a sophisticated microfluidic one. Statement 2 is correct as the device reproduced cellular architecture and produced ß-hCG. Statement 3 is correct as the team recreated hyperglycaemia and observed increased glucose transport.

Explanation

According to the article, the project took more than three-and-a-half years to complete, beginning during the Covid-19 pandemic.

Explanation

The article highlights that the device could reduce dependence on animal models (which often fail to replicate human pregnancy) and is a simpler, reproducible, and more accessible static two-chamber platform usable in standard laboratories, unlike existing systems requiring sophisticated microfluidic equipment.

Explanation

The article states the Uttar Pradesh Startup Mission will function under the administrative control of the Department of IT & Electronics. This is the nodal agency for startup growth in the state.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the target is 2 GW capacity and Rs 2 lakh crore investment. Statement 2 is incorrect: the earlier policy expired on January 27, 2026, not 2025. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions extra incentives for Bundelkhand and Purvanchal regions.

Explanation

The article states seed funding has been increased from Rs 7.5 lakh to Rs 15 lakh for general startups. Rs 30 lakh is for deep-tech startups, and Rs 50 lakh is the maximum under special circumstances.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions this objective. The policy targets 2 GW capacity, emphasizes GPU infrastructure and energy efficiency, and includes green and sustainable operations incentives.

Explanation

The PCMA, 2006 sets the minimum marriage age as 18 for females and 21 for males. POCSO deals with sexual offences, not marriage age. The Indian Majority Act defines majority age (18), but marriage age is governed by PCMA. The Shariat Act does not prescribe a uniform age.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the judgment. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court explicitly said Shariat cannot override PCMA. Statement 3 is correct as the court agreed with the reasoning in the Moidutty Musliyar case.

Explanation

The article mentions that under Muslim personal law, a girl who has attained puberty—generally presumed at the age of 15—is competent to marry. The other options are distractors: 18 is the PCMA age, 21 is the male age, 12 is not mentioned.

Explanation

The HC held that police and Childline officials were acting within the scope of their statutory duties under the PCMA to prevent a possible violation of the POCSO Act. The marriage attempt involved a 16-year-old girl, so the FIR was justified.

Explanation

The news explicitly states that Amnesty International released the report on July 1, 2026. The other options are other human rights organizations, but the report specifically belongs to Amnesty International.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: investigation based on interviews with 247 people, including 208 survivors. Statement 2 is incorrect because the report states the Zaghawa and other non-Arab ethnic groups were targeted, not Arab groups. Statement 3 is correct as the report named three RSF commanders. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the RSF repeatedly used the derogatory slur 'falangay' (or 'falangayat' in plural), a term referring to slavery or servitude, while attacking civilians from non-Arab ethnic groups. The other options are unrelated terms: Janjaweed is the militia group that preceded the RSF, Darfuri refers to people from Darfur, and Zaghawa is the name of an ethnic group.

Explanation

The article states that Amnesty called on all countries to immediately stop supplying arms to parties to the Sudan conflict, specifically urging states to stop providing arms to the UAE until it complies with the UN arms embargo. The report identifies the UAE as the RSF's principal foreign backer.

Explanation

The article states that Brazil launched the National Alcohol Program (Proálcool) in 1975 in response to the 1973 oil crisis. The Fuel of the Future Act came in 2024, the 1931 law was a blending mandate, and the FFV initiative evolved later.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: E10 was achieved in 2022. Statement 2 is correct: the original E20 target was 2030, but it was achieved in 2026. Statement 3 is incorrect: India has only a handful of flex-fuel models (e.g., WagonR, Toyota Hycross prototype), while Brazil's FFVs account for ~90% of new cars.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'India currently imports nearly 88.5% of its crude oil requirement.' The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article highlights three key enabling factors for Brazil's success: graded blending with milestones, vehicular ecosystem adaptation, and consumer choice with price incentives. India has flouted all three, leading to a bumbling transition.

Explanation

The BrahMos missile is a joint venture between India's Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Russia's NPO Mashinostroyeniya, as mentioned in the article. DRDO leads the Indian side in this partnership.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: India supplies 2 batteries worth $200 million to Indonesia. Statement 2 is also correct: a battery comprises 4 launchers and 12 missiles. Statement 3 is incorrect because Indonesia is the third country after Philippines (2022) and Vietnam (2026), not the fourth.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the deal is valued at $200 million. The other options are plausible distractors; $150 million might be from an earlier estimate, while $250 million and $300 million are not mentioned.

Explanation

As stated in the article, countries sell sophisticated weapon systems to nations they regard as friendly partners. The export serves to deepen strategic ties and defence cooperation with Southeast Asian nations, with secondary benefits of foreign exchange earnings and regional influence.

Explanation

The NTA is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Education (formerly Ministry of Human Resource Development). It conducts national entrance exams like NEET-UG, JEE Main, and UGC NET. The article explicitly mentions 'Ministry of Education' as the parent body proposing the revamp.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: NEET-UG 2027 will be computer-based over 5-6 days. Statement 2 is incorrect: the revamp covers organisation, infrastructure, technology, and processes—not just question paper setting. Statement 3 is correct: Education Minister Pradhan said the CBT switch was based on the Radhakrishnan committee recommendation.

Explanation

The article states that NEET-UG 2027 will be conducted at around 1,000 centres in 500 cities. The other options reverse the numbers or inflate them.

Explanation

The article explicitly links the switch to CBT and the NTA revamp to the 2024 paper leak and the need to strengthen the examination system. The multi-day, multi-centre approach reduces the risk of a single-point leak. Cost reduction and centre numbers are secondary or not mentioned.

Explanation

The Advocates Act, 1961 is the primary legislation that establishes the Bar Council of India and State Bar Councils, and lays down the disciplinary mechanism for lawyers. The other options are either outdated or not directly related to lawyer discipline.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is a trap: the court proposed a National Legal Academy, not a National Judicial Academy (which trains judges). Statement 3 is correct because the SC held that the IBA Caution List is for serious misconduct, not negligence. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that a bench of Justices P S Narasimha and Alok Aradhe passed the order. The other options are incorrect combinations of judges.

Explanation

The Supreme Court called for a National Legal Academy that will provide continued legal education to lawyers, enabling post-enrolment structural learning and enhancing professional competence. Options A, C, and D are not the stated purpose.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'latest RBI guidelines have placed strict limits on such rollovers' and that lenders are barred from evergreening loans. RBI is the central banking authority that regulates NBFCs in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states a 69.9% YoY increase to ₹3.29 lakh crore. Statement 2 is incorrect: the RBI has placed strict limits on rollovers, not allowed unlimited ones. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions gold loans are 'emerging as the fastest-growing segment of retail credit' for NBFCs.

Explanation

The article states 'Outstanding NBFC loans against gold jewellery surged by 69.9% year-on-year to Rs 3.29 lakh crore by the end of May 2026'. ₹1.94 lakh crore was the figure for May 2025. ₹6.3 lakh crore and ₹19.4 lakh crore refer to the industry portfolio (including banks) in March 2023 and March 2026 respectively.

Explanation

The article states the RBI guidelines aim to bar lenders from 'evergreening' loans by repeatedly extending tenure without fresh appraisals. This ensures that NPAs are not masked and loan quality is accurately reported. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

As per the article, the Canadian government designated the Bishnoi gang as a terrorist entity in September 2025. This is a static fact about international counter-terrorism measures.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: 37 individuals were charged. Statement 2 is incorrect: Operation Hard Ball targeted racketeering, targeted killings, shootings, extortion, and drug trafficking, not solely drug trafficking. Statement 3 is correct: Lawrence Bishnoi is imprisoned (the article describes him as 'imprisoned leader').

Explanation

The article states that 'law enforcement in the United States, Canada, and Europe have arrested 24 defendants'. The other options are distractors: 37 is the total charged, 11 were arrested in California specifically.

Explanation

The article describes Operation Hard Ball as a 'years-long federal probe into Indian crime syndicates allegedly involved in racketeering, targeted killings, shootings, extortion, trafficking of large quantities of narcotics across international borders, and other organised criminal activities affecting communities around the world, particularly the Indian diaspora.'

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that Congress passed a law prohibiting F-35 sales to Türkiye as long as it retains the S-400 system. While CAATSA is a related sanctions law, the specific F-35 ban was enacted through the NDAA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Trump is expected to back the F-35 sale during the Ankara NATO summit. Statement 2 is incorrect: Netanyahu opposed the sale on Fox News. Statement 3 is correct: sending the S-400 to a third country has gained traction as a solution.

Explanation

The article states the Trump administration formally notified Congress of its intention to sell jet engines worth more than $700 million for Türkiye's KAAN jet. Options $500 million and $600 million are lower distractors, while $800 million is higher.

Explanation

Netanyahu said on Fox News that the sale could 'upset the power balance in the Middle East.' This highlights the geopolitical sensitivity of advanced military technology transfers in the region.

Explanation

The article mentions that Russia has repeatedly accused NATO countries of enabling Ukraine to strike deep inside its territory. NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organization) is a military alliance. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Ukrainian President Zelenskyy described strikes on Russian oil facilities as 'long-range sanctions'. Statement 2 is incorrect: Crimea was annexed in 2014, not 2022. Statement 3 is correct: Russia's Defence Ministry announced capture of Kostiantynivka in the last week of the article's timeline (July 2026).

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'Russia now controls over 20% of Ukraine since 2014'. Options A, B, and C are lower approximations; the exact figure is 'over 20%'.

Explanation

The editorial argues that neither side has a viable military path and urges both leaders to adopt a more accommodative position with mutual concessions, agree to a ceasefire, and begin substantive negotiations. Options A, B, and D are not recommended in the editorial.

Explanation

The BRIMSTOWAD (Brihanmumbai Stormwater Disposal System) project was initiated post-2005 floods to widen drains, install pumping stations, and improve desilting. The other options are not directly related to the specific post-2005 drainage upgrade mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states Mumbai can absorb moderate rainfall over several hours. Statement 2 is incorrect because many BRIMSTOWAD works remain incomplete and completed upgrades are based on pre-climate change assumptions. Statement 3 is correct: high tides reduced drainage efficiency, worsening flooding.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that Mumbai received 944 mm in 24 hours during the July 2005 floods. The other options are plausible distractors close to the correct figure.

Explanation

The article explains that Mumbai lies on reclaimed land (former marshes, tidal flats), making it vulnerable when rainfall coincides with high tide. Incomplete drainage upgrades also contributed, but the question asks 'compounded' factors; the interplay of all three is explicitly mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The first of a two-part UN Global Dialogue on AI is underway in Geneva (July 6-7, 2026).' Therefore, the host is the United Nations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: 'In February 2026, India hosted the India AI Impact Summit 2026.' Statement 2 is incorrect: the summit focused on real-world harms of the Global South, not catastrophic/existential risks. Statement 3 is correct: 'India clarified this stance by joining Pax Silica, signalling strategic alignment with the United States-dominated semiconductor supply chain.' Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'In February 2026, India hosted the India AI Impact Summit 2026.' The other options are distractors; July 2026 is the date of the UN Global Dialogue, not the India summit.

Explanation

The article repeatedly raises the question: 'Will India mainly be a consumer of U.S. tech with Indian users bearing disproportionate harm?' It warns of a repeat of the social media story where economic value accrues to US industry while harms persist in domestic markets. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

Section 14 of the Family Courts Act, 1984 allows Family Courts to receive any report, statement, document, etc., that may assist in resolving disputes, irrespective of admissibility under the Evidence Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the SC upheld the Delhi HC order. Statement 2 is false because adultery was decriminalised in the Joseph Shine case (2018). Statement 3 is correct as the Family Court had directed sealed cover production.

Explanation

The article mentions a previous ruling by Justices BV Nagarathna and Satish Chandra Sharma in July 2025 allowing secretly recorded conversations as evidence in family disputes.

Explanation

The court balanced the right to privacy (KS Puttaswamy) with the need for evidence; since records were to be in sealed cover and not public, the wife's evidentiary need prevailed.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'fuel standards notified by BIS for these blends' were one of the government decisions triggering fresh concerns. BIS is the national standards body responsible for formulating fuel specifications.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says 'The government had originally planned to dispense petrol blended with 20% ethanol only by 2030.' Statement 2 is false because ethanol has lower calorific value than petrol, reducing mileage. Statement 3 is correct: 'ethanol's hygroscopic nature that promotes water uptake' can cause corrosion in older vehicles. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'E20 fuel — 80% petrol and 20% ethanol — is now the standard petrol variant available nationwide.' The other options are incorrect: E10 was the previous standard, E25 is proposed but not yet rolled out, and E85 is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that ethanol's hygroscopic nature promotes water uptake, which can cause corrosion in older vehicles' fuel systems. This is a major concern. Option A is false: mileage drops. Option C is false: higher-ethanol blends make winter starts harder. Option D is false: ethanol has a higher octane number.

Explanation

The article mentions an essay titled 'Firm and friendly umpire: a test of the EC's level playing field' by Ashok Lavasa, which directly assesses the credibility of the Election Commission. The other options are not examined in the e-book as per the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says 'unseen for over five decades'. Statement 2 is correct as the article states it 'threatens to dilute the parliamentary influence of the southern States'. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article explicitly says the e-book frames delimitation 'not merely as a technical administrative adjustment, but as a critical re-litigation of India's organising principles'.

Explanation

The article uses the phrase 'unseen for over five decades' – meaning more than 50 years. The last time Lok Sabha seats were redistributed among states was based on the 1971 Census, with a constitutional freeze imposed in 1976. Hence, 'over 50 years' is the correct approximation.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the central tension is between 'the democratic ideal of one person, one vote, one value' and 'the fragile balance of India's federal structure', specifically noting that southern states' influence will be diluted in favour of northern states with higher demographic growth. The other issues are not the primary focus.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions 'the five permanent members of the UN Security Council — China being one of them.' Permanent membership of the UN Security Council is a static GK fact often tested in exams.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the PLA Navy said it had notified relevant countries. Statement 2 is false – the U.S. called the buildup 'opaque', not transparent. Statement 3 is correct because the article says 'launched from one of its nuclear-powered submarines'. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states 'China on Monday (July 6, 2026) successfully test-fired a long-range strategic missile'. The publication date is July 7, 2026, but the test occurred the previous day. July 6 is the correct date.

Explanation

The U.S. State Department spokesperson said 'Beijing's rapid and opaque nuclear weapons buildup is of great concern' and urged China to engage in arms control discussions. Other options are not mentioned in the article and CTBT/NPT are not referenced.