5 July 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The 14th Amendment, ratified in 1868, states that 'all persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens.' This is the constitutional foundation for birthright citizenship (jus soli). The 13th Amendment abolished slavery, the 15th granted voting rights regardless of race, and the 19th granted women's suffrage.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the SCOTUS upheld birthright citizenship with a 6-3 majority. Statement 2 is correct: EO 14160 sought to deny citizenship to children born to mothers unlawfully present when the father was not a citizen or permanent resident. Statement 3 is incorrect: the majority judgment rejected the narrow view that the 14th Amendment was only a remedy for former slaves, holding that the framers deliberately used universal language.

Explanation

The article states that births to unauthorized immigrant mothers rose from about 3% in 1990 to a peak of approximately 9% in 2006-2007. This mirrored the tripling of the unauthorized immigrant population between 1990 and 2007. After the 2008 financial crisis, this percentage fell to about 6% by 2016, before rising again to 9% by 2023.

Explanation

The SCOTUS held that the text of the 14th Amendment is clear and that 'changes in circumstances can't justify new meanings to it.' This is a fundamental principle of constitutional interpretation. The ruling also demonstrates the limits of executive power when it conflicts with constitutional provisions, a key concept for comparative studies with India's constitutional framework.

Explanation

Article 81 of the Constitution provides for the composition of the Lok Sabha, including the principle that seats are allotted to states as far as practicable in proportion to their population. The article is directly referenced in the news as the constitutional hurdle for delimitation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the 2023 Act. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 131st Amendment Bill proposed to use the 2011 Census, not the first Census after the Act. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article clearly states the NDA does not have two-thirds majority in either House. Hence only Statement 1 is correct.

Explanation

The NDA originally had 293 MPs in Lok Sabha. After gaining 20 TMC and 6 Shiv Sena (UBT) MPs, the total becomes 319. The two-thirds mark is 360, so NDA is still 41 short.

Explanation

The DMK has demanded continuation of the status quo (freeze on delimitation based on 1971 Census) to prevent southern states with slower population growth from losing seats. The article states that unless the freeze is extended, the next delimitation will follow the population principle under Article 81, harming states like Tamil Nadu.

Explanation

The Basic Exchange and Communications Agreement (BECA), signed in 2020, allows India and the US to share advanced geospatial (satellite) data for missile targeting and long-range navigation. GSOMIA covers classified info, LEMOA covers logistics, and COMCASA covers encrypted communications.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the US supplied weapons, transport aircraft, and training during the 1962 war. Statement 2 is false: India was named a Major Defence Partner in 2016, not 2015. Statement 3 is correct: the Quad's roots lie in the humanitarian relief after the 2004 tsunami. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The article states that US defence trade with India has topped $25 billion in contracted value since 2008, with estimates ranging about $20–25 billion. The question asks for the quoted figure, which is $25 billion.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions CAATSA concerns during India's S-400 deal with Russia. It states that the US has created a stressful situation for India to restrict purchases of Russian arms and oil. The other options are not highlighted in the article.

Explanation

IN-SPACe was created in 2020 as an autonomous nodal agency under the Department of Space to facilitate and regulate private sector participation in space activities. It acts as an interface between ISRO and private parties, as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Vikram-1 is India's first private orbital rocket. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article states that Vikram-1 has 'solid fuel boosters', not liquid fuel. Statement 3 is correct: It can carry up to 350 kg to LEO. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Drishti was launched on 3 May 2026 by the Falcon 9 rocket of SpaceX as part of the CAS500-2 mission. The other options are distractors: 4 May is the date of Pixxel's Pathfinder partnership announcement, and 12 July/2 August are part of the Vikram-1 launch window.

Explanation

The article explains that Drishti solves the problem of temporal and spatial gaps by placing both optical and SAR sensors on the same satellite, operating in sync to produce simultaneous imaging of the same place. This eliminates the need to manually align datasets from two different satellites, delivering intuitive, all-weather Earth imagery that is already analysis-ready.

Explanation

The UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik) scheme is a flagship regional connectivity initiative of the Ministry of Civil Aviation. It was launched in 2016 and is implemented by the Airports Authority of India (AAI) under the ministry's oversight.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: UAPA was enacted in 1967. Statement 2 is correct: The 2019 amendment introduced the provision for individual designation as a terrorist. Statement 3 is correct: Section 35 of UAPA empowers the central government to designate individuals as terrorists and list them in the Fourth Schedule.

Explanation

The article states that after the addition of 23 operatives, the total count of designated terrorists under UAPA has risen to 80. Previously, 57 individuals had been designated in 2024 after the 2019 amendment.

Explanation

The article states that the BIA will ensure a secure and predictable investment climate and is expected to contribute to increased cross-border investment activity. It includes portfolio investments and reduces the local remedies exhaustion period, making it more investor-friendly.

Explanation

The article mentions that the Union Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs will support states in assessing waste management infrastructure. The Solid Waste Management Rules fall under the purview of this ministry, as urban development and municipal solid waste are urban governance subjects.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says mandatory segregation at source is a key aspect of the new Rules. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Rules reference waste-to-energy plants multiple times, exploring their possibility, not prohibiting them. Statement 3 is correct: Environmental Compensation is new to the 2026 Rules and applies the polluter pays principle.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'about 55% of the waste generated by ULBs is wet waste (biodegradable)'. The other options are distractors: 30% is the percentage of recyclables, while 40% and 60% are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article clearly states that Environmental Compensation is a new concept that applies the 'polluter pays' principle. It is designed to penalize non-compliance and incentivize proper waste management, not primarily for revenue generation or subsidizing plants. User charges are separate from Environmental Compensation.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions CG Semi's OSAT facility in Sanand. OSAT involves assembly, packaging, and testing of chips after fabrication.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the women underwent training in Malaysia as well. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions women from Jharkhand's Giridih and West Singhbhum, and MP's Balaghat, and refers to tribal belts of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, and MP. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states the facility is in Sanand, Gujarat. The other options are states with other semiconductor or industrial hubs but not the location of this facility.

Explanation

The article emphasises the women's journey from ordinary backgrounds, ITI training, and overseas exposure, highlighting the government's focus on vocational education and inclusive growth. While reducing import dependence is a broader goal, the direct significance of this story is skill development and empowerment.

Explanation

The Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal ministry for disaster management in India. The NDMA and related funds (NDRF, NDMF) operate under its administrative purview, as per the Disaster Management Act, 2005.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: article mentions cumulative damage of nearly Rs 10,000 crore from cyclones (1999 super cyclone to 2019 Fani). Statement 2 is incorrect: CDRI is an international coalition launched by India, not a domestic Indian agency. Statement 3 is correct: article states 75% of distribution lines were commissioned three decades ago.

Explanation

The Detailed Project Report mentions total cost of Rs 9,755 crore, with Rs 3,755 crore for transmission and Rs 6,000 crore for distribution. Rs 6,000 crore is only the distribution part; Rs 9,000 crore is an approximate figure in the headline; Rs 10,000 crore is the cumulative damage amount.

Explanation

The article states that damage to transmission and distribution systems affects hospitals, water supply, telecom, emergency operations, etc. Building disaster-proof infrastructure will substantially reduce recovery time for essential services following major disasters. This is the core objective.

Explanation

The article states that Minister of State for External Affairs Kirti Vardhan Singh will lead the Indian delegation. This falls under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of External Affairs, which handles foreign policy and international engagements.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the forum is established under GA Resolution 79/325. Statement 2 is incorrect because a second session is planned for New York in May 2027. Statement 3 is correct as the article states IISPA provides the first independent scientific assessment of AI. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Global Digital Compact was adopted as part of the Pact of the Future in September 2024. The other dates refer to other events: July 2026 is the first dialogue session, August 2025 is when terms of reference were adopted, and February 2026 is the AI Impact Summit in New Delhi.

Explanation

The article states the dialogue will help build capacities, especially in developing countries, to direct AI systems towards the pursuit of sustainable development. This is the core objective, complementing the IISPA's scientific role. Options A, C, and D are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that more than a million ASHAs work across India, monitoring pregnancies and delivering essential services. ASHAs are a key component of the National Health Mission's community health workforce.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the Nature Medicine review of 198 studies. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says India experiences 6 additional heat-risk days per year; Mumbai alone saw 26 such days over a five-year period. Statement 3 is correct: India has roughly 1 in 6 babies born preterm.

Explanation

The article cites a major review published in Nature Medicine (2024) covering 198 studies across 66 countries, which found that heatwaves increase the risk of preterm birth by 26%. The other options are common distractors.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'We do not need an entirely new system to tackle this; what we need is to update the systems we already have to work for a hotter future.' It advocates for integrating heat-risk assessments, climate-responsive training for ASHAs, and better facility cooling.

Explanation

The article mentions that the government deputed ARAI to conduct the study on E20 fuel's impact on materials. ARAI is a government body under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, responsible for automotive research and certification in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: ethanol has a RON of ~108, higher than regular petrol (~91), enabling cleaner combustion. Statement 2 is incorrect: ethanol has lower calorific value than petrol, leading to ~30% less mileage. Statement 3 is correct: Brazil offers multiple blends (E27-E35 and E100) with a price discount for higher ethanol content.

Explanation

The article states that India fully transitioned to E20 fuel five years ahead of the original target of 2030. The transition was completed by 2025. Option A (2025) is the year it was actually achieved, not the original target.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the main reason for pushing higher blends is to lower India's dependence on fuel imports amid rising fuel prices and to aid domestic ethanol production, which also benefits sugarcane farmers. Improving efficiency or lowering consumer cost are not the primary drivers.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) ordered Instagram to disable CSEAM content. The other ministries are not directly involved in this regulatory action.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: MeitY ordered disablement of all such ads and content. Statement 2 is incorrect because the deadline is seven days, not 14. Statement 3 is correct as IT Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw directed summoning Meta. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Ministry demanded a detailed explanation within seven days. Options 5, 10, and 14 are distractors not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article says MeitY ordered Instagram to disable all ads and content promoting and facilitating access to CSEAM. Other options like age verification, market removal, or fine are not mentioned in the news. This shows the direct regulatory measure taken.

Explanation

Article 5 is the cornerstone of NATO's collective defence, stipulating that an armed attack on any member is considered an attack on all. This was explicitly mentioned in the article as the key principle of NATO.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Wales Summit (2014) set the 2% GDP target by 2024. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 5% target includes 3.5% for core defence and 1.5% for defence investment, not the other way around. Statement 3 is correct: the article states the Ankara Summit 'will be about execution, not grand strategy'. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'In 2024, the European allies spent a combined total of $380 billion.' The other options are close distractors; $470 billion and $500 billion are not mentioned, while $280 billion is lower than the actual figure.

Explanation

The article notes that NATO seeks to transform 'from a force optimised for crisis management to one that is focused on collective defence against peer competitors.' This is the core of the adaptation theme. Options A, C, and D are not mentioned or are contrary to the article's emphasis on agility and innovation over platforms.

Explanation

The Department of Fertilisers under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers is the nodal agency for fertiliser policy, subsidy management, and enforcement under the Fertiliser Control Order. The article mentions that the Department created special Flying Squads to inspect and prevent diversion.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article mentions that the case involves officials of state cooperatives Markfed and Milkfed, not just private traders. Statement 2 is correct: neem coating was mandated but diversion persists. Statement 3 is correct: agricultural urea is ₹5.92/kg while technical-grade urea is ₹55-65/kg, which is more than 10 times higher.

Explanation

The article states that technical-grade urea sells for ₹55-65 per kg (₹2,700-3,000 per bag). Option A is the subsidised price of agricultural urea. Options C and D are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The core driver of diversion is the huge price difference: subsidised agricultural urea at ₹5.92/kg vs. technical-grade urea at ₹55-65/kg. This creates a massive financial incentive for middlemen to divert, even after accounting for costs of removing neem coating. The article emphasises that this arbitrage is the root cause, not technology or production issues alone.

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) handles all foreign relations and official visits of the External Affairs Minister, as mentioned in the article where MEA issued the statement.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: he visits Qatar, Bahrain, Kuwait, and Oman. Statement 2 is incorrect: the campaign is for a non-permanent tenure (2028-29), not a permanent seat. Statement 3 is correct: the TTC meeting is in Brussels on July 14-15.

Explanation

According to the article, External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar will launch India's official campaign for the UN Security Council tenure 2028-29 in New York on July 13.

Explanation

The article states that the TTC was unveiled in 2022 to facilitate exchange of critical technologies related to AI, quantum computing, semiconductors, and cybersecurity. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that the ads were detected by the BBC World Service. BBC (British Broadcasting Corporation) is a UK-based public service broadcaster.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says the government ordered Meta to take down such ads. Statement 2 is incorrect because the ads directed users to Telegram, not WhatsApp. Statement 3 is correct as the article notes ads are approved by moderation technology before reaching users. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the material could be bought for as little as Rs 99. This data point is important for factual recall in prelims.

Explanation

The notice demonstrates regulatory action against a major platform for failing to prevent CSAM ads, enforcing due diligence obligations under the IT Rules. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article confirms that ISRO is conducting the SOLVE ground test and developing the Gaganyaan mission. The other options are foreign space agencies and not involved in this Indian program.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: SOLVE is a solid motor test platform for Gaganyaan. Statement 2 is incorrect: the test was conducted on July 3, not July 5 (the publication date). Statement 3 is correct: 10 parachutes will be deployed. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'During these test missions, the Crew Module will be carried to an altitude of 10-17 km and separated from the vehicle.' Option D (400 km) is the target orbit for the actual Gaganyaan mission, not the test altitude.

Explanation

The article explicitly says SOLVE is being developed 'as a test platform to carry out Integrated Parachute Tests for validation of deceleration system of Gaganyaan's Crew Module.' The crew escape system and propulsion are separate aspects, and behavioral studies (Mission MITRA) are a different test.

Explanation

The article states that the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas issued the notification amending the Natural Gas (Supply Regulation) Order, 2026. This ministry oversees the oil and gas sector, including regulation of natural gas supply.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the order was issued under the Essential Commodities Act after the Hormuz disruption. Statement 2 is incorrect: PNG/CNG were to be maintained at 100% of average consumption, not 80%. Statement 3 is correct: the government did authorize curtailment to petrochemicals and power stations to prioritize essential sectors. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that nearly 65% of India's LNG supplies come from West Asia. 40-45% refers to crude oil imports from West Asia, 50% is the overall natural gas import dependence, and 88% is crude oil import dependence. The examiner may try to confuse these percentages.

Explanation

The article explains that the order was introduced to prioritize gas supplies to essential sectors after suppliers invoked force majeure. It set specific allocation percentages for PNG/CNG (100%), fertilizer (70%), and industrial consumers (80%). The objective was not price reduction, boosting domestic production, or penalizing suppliers, but ensuring supply continuity to critical users.

Explanation

NHSRCL is a special purpose vehicle (SPV) incorporated under the Companies Act, 2013, specifically to implement the Mumbai-Ahmedabad High Speed Rail corridor. It is jointly owned by the Government of India, Gujarat, and Maharashtra.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article - it is India's largest rail TBM. Statement 2 is incorrect because the tunnel is a single-tube tunnel accommodating both tracks, not a twin-tube. Statement 3 is correct - the TBM weighs 3,100 tonnes. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the TBM features a 13.6-metre-diameter cutterhead, equivalent to the height of a four-storey building. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

According to the NHSRCL statement, the advanced tunnelling method was selected because of its superior ability to control ground settlement and minimise surface disruption in densely populated areas. The Mixshield TBM is specifically designed for mixed ground and high groundwater pressure conditions common in Mumbai.

Explanation

The article states that the DDA is working on a development road map for Delhi, making it the primary urban planning authority. Other bodies have specific roles but DDA is the central planning agency.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the plan covers 1,400 sq km. Statement 2 is incorrect: the riverfront development area is 100 sq km, not 200 sq km. Statement 3 is correct: the L-G chairs the advisory council and directed the zero-tolerance policy. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifies that transit-oriented development covers 207 sq km. The other options are distractors: 200 sq km is close but not exact, 150 sq km is low-density residential area, and 100 sq km is riverfront area.

Explanation

The L-G said, 'Delhi's growth must be inclusive, sustainable, and future-ready,' which reflects the core objective of the plan. The other options are not mentioned in the article.