2 July 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The article states that the 1,000 biogas plants complement the Centre's GOBARdhan programme, which is a government scheme to promote biogas and organic fertiliser production from waste. Swachh Bharat Mission is related but broader, while PM Kisan is a direct income support scheme.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Modi called Takaichi his 'younger sister'. Statement 2 is correct: Japan announced a bilateral dialogue on petroleum stockpiling and continued support for India's IEA membership. Statement 3 is correct: Modi announced the Core Development Project under the Naval Radio Antenna Unicorn programme. Hence all three are correct.

Explanation

The article states that the leaders reiterated the target of attracting 10 trillion yen in Japanese investment over the next decade. The other options are distractors; no other investment target was mentioned.

Explanation

The article mentions that the joint roadmap aims to strengthen supply chain resilience in semiconductors, quantum technologies, and advanced materials. This is a direct response to global trade disruptions and economic coercion. While trade and climate are relevant, the roadmap's specific focus is on critical technology supply chains.

Explanation

The defence co-development pact involves defence technologies and maritime security, which falls under the purview of the Ministry of Defence. The Ministry of External Affairs handles diplomatic aspects, but implementation is led by Defence.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as PM Modi announced the first co-development project involving the Naval Radio Antenna 'Unicorn'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the investment is 10 trillion yen, not 10 billion yen. Statement 3 is correct as Modi mentioned a joint statement on AI and agreements between institutions.

Explanation

PM Modi explicitly stated that through the India-Japan Biogas Initiative, they will set up 1,000 biogas and organic fertilizer plants in India. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

PM Modi stated that the project will help develop defence technologies and strengthen 'maritime security and regional peace'. While reducing import dependence may be an indirect benefit, the stated objective is maritime security. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that implementation of GRAP is overseen by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM), a statutory body created for air quality management in the NCR region.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: VB-G RAM G guarantees 125 days (article says 'statutory guarantee of 125 days'). Statement 2 is incorrect: Under MGNREGA the Centre paid 100% wage bill, but VB-G RAM G is a centrally sponsored scheme with cost sharing (60:40 for most states, 90:10 for NE/Himalayan). Statement 3 is correct: it is a centrally sponsored scheme with the said ratio. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifies that the ban on non-BS-VI vehicles registered outside Delhi applies from November 1 to January 31 every year. The overall winter restrictions (including construction, WFH, etc.) are from November 1 to February 28, but the vehicle ban is shorter (till Jan 31). Option A is the overall restriction period, not the vehicle ban period.

Explanation

Under MGNREGA, the Centre paid 100% of the wage bill and 75% of material/admin costs. VB-G RAM G changes this to a centrally sponsored scheme with 60:40 (or 90:10) cost sharing, thus shifting part of the financial burden to states. The opposition criticises this as dismantling the statutory guarantee. The increase to 125 days is a feature, not the primary rationale for the shift.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the NCLAT's principal bench delivered this ruling. NCLT is the initial adjudicating authority, while NCLAT hears appeals. The Supreme Court and Bombay High Court were involved in related matters but not the primary ruling.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the case details. Statement 2 is incorrect because the company went into liquidation, not a successful resolution. Statement 3 is correct; the tribunal cited Embassy Property Developments to hold that NCLT/NCLAT powers are confined to IBC's own working.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that FIRs alleged bank fraud and diversion of loan funds exceeding Rs 1,600 crore. The other options are distractors: Rs 2.29 crore was the amount withdrawn by ED from the bank account, and Rs 6,000 refers to the number of vehicles attached.

Explanation

The NCLAT held that the moratorium under Section 14(1)(a) is limited to proceedings that add to the company's civil debt. Crimes under penal statutes like PMLA, even if they reduce the asset pool, are not covered. The court emphasized that national interest is uncompromisable. Option A is incorrect because timing of attachment was not the deciding factor. Option D is the opposite of what P. Mohanraj actually held (it allowed continuation of adjudicatory proceedings but not coercive action; here the court distinguished criminal proceedings).

Explanation

The article mentions officials from the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) briefing on the Indo-Pacific discussions. The MEA is the nodal ministry for India's foreign policy, diplomatic relations, and international engagements.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the joint statement. Statement 2 is incorrect: the summit was shifted to New Delhi due to PM Takaichi's tight schedule, not PM Modi's. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the Strategic Outlook for Expanding Japan-India Cooperation in Africa.

Explanation

The joint statement specifically condemned the terror incident in Delhi on November 10, 2025, and called for the perpetrators to be brought to justice. The other options are major terror incidents but not the one mentioned in this article.

Explanation

The article states that both leaders highlighted cooperation with ASEAN to strengthen regional resilience and promote peace. The trilateral dialogue with the Philippines is part of this effort, especially given the context of China's militarization in the South China Sea and East China Sea. This is a strategic move to maintain a free and open Indo-Pacific.

Explanation

Grid India is responsible for real-time grid operation, as mentioned in the article where it issued an advisory for gas-based stations. CEA is a statutory body under the Ministry of Power, but not the real-time operator. POSOCO is a subsidiary that manages grid operations, but the article specifically refers to 'Grid Controller of India (Grid India)' as the top grid operator.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: hydro fell 19.5% y-o-y with 40% rainfall deficit. Statement 2 is incorrect because it says 'five years', but the article specifies 'highest for the month in the past three years'. Statement 3 is incorrect: coal consumption (156.8 mt) exceeded supplies (147.2 mt) during April-May, resulting in a drawdown, not buildup. Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'pushing peak power demand to 264.76 gigawatts (GW) in June'. The other options are close distractors with only a 10 GW variation.

Explanation

The article states that Grid India issued an advisory 'anticipating the need for additional gas-fired generation for 10-15 days in July' due to weak monsoons affecting hydro and solar output during evening peaks. Option A is not the immediate reason; option C and D are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

According to the article, the Indo-Pacific concept was first articulated by former Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe in his address to the Indian Parliament in 2007. This is a key static fact for UPSC.

Explanation

All three statements are directly supported by the article. Japan passed a record defence budget (122.3 trillion yen), relaxed arms exports to 17 countries including India, and increased OSA by 125% to $116 million. None contain any trap; they are all factual.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the 'finalisation of a $7-billion deal to deliver 11 Mogami-class frigates' during the Japanese PM's visit to Australia. This is a precise data point for questions.

Explanation

The article lists three priority areas of the updated FOIP vision: building economic infrastructure for AI and data, strengthening supply chain resilience for energy and critical materials, and enhancing security cooperation for regional peace and stability. Other options are too narrow or not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the report is 'based on Rural Development Ministry surveys'. The Ministry of Rural Development oversees rural development initiatives including panchayat-related programs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states 'gram sabhas spend 13% of the time identifying local issues but only 4% discussing revenue generation'. Statement 2 is incorrect: the report pushes for more use of the NIRNAY app and real-time upload of minutes, not increasing tax powers – the article criticizes that gram panchayats are 'systematically constrained from raising their taxes'. Statement 3 is correct: '18%-28% of respondents citing a lack of outcomes as the reason for low interest'.

Explanation

The article clearly states 'gram sabhas spend 13% of the time identifying local issues but only 4% discussing revenue generation'. The 13% refers to issue identification, 18%-28% refers to respondents citing lack of outcomes.

Explanation

The article argues that the state's framing of 'participation fatigue' and its tech-based solutions (more meetings, NIRNAY app) are a 'recipe to further alienate the rural working class' because they ignore the systemic problem: citizens do not see real outcomes from gram sabhas, as funds are tied to central priorities, and economic exclusion (e.g., precarious rural labour) prevents genuine participation.

Explanation

The article mentions that Skyroot Aerospace thanked ISRO and INSPACe for their support. INSPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre) is the agency created to facilitate private sector participation in space.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Vikram-1 is indeed India's first private orbital rocket. Statement 2 is incorrect: the launch is from the historic First Launch Pad (FLP), not the Second Launch Pad. Statement 3 is correct: Skyroot Aerospace developed Vikram-1.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the target orbit as 450 km with a 60 degree inclination in Low Earth Orbit. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

Vikram-1 is India's first private orbital rocket. Mission Aagaman is its maiden test flight, showcasing the success of space sector reforms enabling private players to build orbital launch vehicles. Options A, C, and D are unrelated to this news.

Explanation

The Bar Council of India (BCI) is the apex statutory body under the Advocates Act, 1961 responsible for regulating the legal profession and legal education. The Supreme Court directed BCI to constitute a committee to examine AI-generated hallucinated precedents and formulate norms.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court set aside both the NCLT and NCLAT orders. Statement 2 is incorrect: The bank filed an affidavit stating its counsel had not cited the fictitious precedents; the court noted the NCLT sourced them through its own research. Statement 3 is correct: The court directed BCI to constitute a committee to formulate norms.

Explanation

The article states that the NCLT Mumbai Bench admitted the insolvency application after recording a claimed default of ₹87.43 crore. The ₹200 crore figure refers to the total credit facility extended by Jammu and Kashmir Bank to Pan India Utilities Distribution Company Ltd., not the default amount.

Explanation

The Supreme Court emphasized that even a single fake precedent violates the sanctity of adjudication and subverts the rule of law. It declared zero tolerance for unverified AI use, but allowed AI in assistive capacity with human oversight. The court did not ban AI outright, nor did it suggest replacing judges.

Explanation

The Chhattisgarh HC explicitly relied on the Supreme Court's judgment in Selvi vs State of Karnataka (2010) which held that compulsory administration of narcoanalysis, polygraph, and BEAP tests violates Article 20(3) (right against self-incrimination) and Article 21 (right to personal liberty and mental privacy).

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court ruled that such tests cannot be forced and require voluntary and informed consent. Statement 2 is correct as the court relied on Article 20(3). Statement 3 is correct as the court mandated consent recorded before a judicial magistrate and compliance with safeguards.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the writ petition was disposed of on June 29, 2026. June 16, 2026 is the date of the investigation report, and July 02, 2026 is the publication date of the news article.

Explanation

The ruling reinforces Article 20(3) and Article 21 by making voluntary and informed consent mandatory for narcoanalysis, polygraph, and BEAP tests. It checks coercive investigative practices and upholds the Selvi vs State of Karnataka precedent.

Explanation

The article mentions that the Ministry of Rural Development issued the release on interim allocation and the scheme is an overhaul of MGNREGA, which is under the Ministry of Rural Development. Hence, VB-G RAM G is also implemented by the same ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states the Union government shall determine normative allocation based on objective parameters. Statement 2 is incorrect: the new ratio is 60:40, not 75:25. Statement 3 is correct: the scheme shifts responsibility fully to states for additional expenditure beyond normative allocation.

Explanation

The analysis shows states will have to spend at least ₹51,000 crore in 2026-27, compared to about ₹7,700 crore in 2024-25. ₹20,422 crore is the pending dues in 2025-26, and ₹95,692 crore is the Centre's interim allocation for 2026-27.

Explanation

The article highlights that the earlier sharing pattern was roughly 90:10 (Centre:State) and the new pattern is 60:40, resulting in a three-fold increase (and potentially six-fold in actual expenditure). This shift significantly increases the financial burden on states.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the IMF's GFS Manual as the international benchmark for public finance accounting, defining compensation as any recurring payment in an employer-employee relationship. This static GK fact is often tested in UPSC and banking exams.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: contract workers rose to 76% of permanent workforce by 2020-21. Statement 2 is false: contract worker pay is completely omitted from headline compensation figures. Statement 3 is correct: the Ministry of Labour data is available for only six non-continuous years, and no centralized database exists. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article states that even at minimum wage levels, at least Rs 14,000 crore is spent annually on contract worker pay at the central level, none of which is reflected under the salary head. This exact figure is a high-yield prelims data point.

Explanation

The article concludes that the 8th CPC presents an opportunity to improve accounting frameworks, align with GFS standards, and publish comprehensive data on all worker categories. The other options are not supported by the article; the focus is on fiscal transparency rather than specific pay increases or privatization.

Explanation

The NCB is India's apex drug law enforcement agency and operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs, as explicitly mentioned in the article. Its mandate includes enforcement of the NDPS Act and coordination of anti-drug operations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the report says Myanmar has overtaken Afghanistan as the leading source of illicit opium. Statement 2 is correct: nitazenes are 500 times more potent than heroin. Statement 3 is incorrect: the Golden Crescent includes Iran, Afghanistan, and Pakistan, not Myanmar, Thailand, and Laos.

Explanation

The report states that 1,83,675 people were arrested in 2025, up from 1,22,224 in 2024. Option A is the 2024 figure, Option D is the weight of seized drugs targeted for destruction in the disposal drive.

Explanation

The vision document is built on four pillars: Enforcement, Precursor Control, Demand Reduction, and Capacity Building. The operational doctrine 'Detect, Disrupt, Destroy' aims to dismantle cartels and networks at all levels, as emphasized by the Home Minister. It is not about legalization or only demand reduction, but a comprehensive supply-and-demand approach.

Explanation

NIPUN Bharat is a flagship initiative under the National Education Policy 2020, implemented by the Ministry of Education. The Ministry of Human Resource Development was renamed to Ministry of Education in 2020, so option D is outdated.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: NIPUN Bharat was launched in 2021 with the goal of FLN by Grade III. Statement 2 is incorrect: TaRL is a tried and tested approach developed over 20 years, not new or experimental. Statement 3 is correct: NCF-FS was launched on October 20, 2022 by the Ministry of Education.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that NCF-FS was officially launched on October 20, 2022, by the Ministry of Education. 2021 is the launch year of NIPUN Bharat, not NCF-FS.

Explanation

The article states that foundational learning does not resolve at Grade III; consolidation through Grades IV and V is essential, especially for first-generation learners. The extension aims to prevent children from falling permanently behind, not to introduce new subjects or reduce dropouts directly.

Explanation

According to the article, American and Iranian negotiators held separate meetings with Qatari and Pakistani mediators. The other options are not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: negotiators met separately with Qatari and Pakistani mediators. Statement 2 is incorrect: the nuclear programme was not discussed in this round; it was deferred. Statement 3 is correct: both sides decided to create a communication channel. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions 'the release of $6 billion in frozen Iranian funds' as one of the topics discussed. The other options are close distractors not found in the news.

Explanation

The article states that US negotiators tried to convince Iran to forgo plans of charging tolls in the Strait of Hormuz. This reflects the strategic importance of the strait as a global oil chokepoint and the potential economic impact of such tolls.

Explanation

Vikram-1 is developed by Skyroot Aerospace, a Hyderabad-based private space launch company. ISRO is the government space agency, while IN-SPACe is the regulatory body for private space activities in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Vikram-1 is indeed India's first privately developed orbital-class rocket. Statement 2 is incorrect; the payload capacity is 350 kg, not 500 kg. Statement 3 is correct as per the article. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that Vikram-1's maiden mission will target an orbit at an altitude of 450 km with a 60-degree orbital inclination. 350 kg is the payload capacity, not altitude.

Explanation

The CEO of Skyroot Aerospace explicitly stated that the single most important objective is to capture real in-flight performance data to validate designs and inform subsequent vehicle development. Commercial satellite launches will follow after successful demonstrations.

Explanation

The article states that initially, the sample only included women who had ever been married, who were between the ages of 13 and 49. This is a key static fact about the evolution of NFHS.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: underweight is around 32%, unchanged from NFHS-5. Statement 2 is incorrect: the consanguinity figure of 11% is from NFHS-5, not NFHS-6. Statement 3 is correct: full vaccination coverage stands at 87.1%.

Explanation

The article reports that women with low BMI has reduced to 19.7% in the current round (NFHS-6), slightly higher than the 18.7% recorded during NFHS-5. 36% was the NFHS-2 figure, and 54% is not related.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that economic initiatives alone cannot solve the persistence of early marriages and consanguinity; social and cultural reform is needed. This is a key takeaway for understanding the limitations of purely economic approaches.

Explanation

The article explicitly refers to Section 129 of the Motor Vehicles Act as the provision that mandates compulsory helmet use, with the exemption for Sikhs. Section 128 deals with precautions at road junctions, Section 130 with driving license requirements, and Section 131 with speed limits – all are irrelevant. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – the court explicitly ruled the exemption as reasonable classification under Article 14. Statement 2 is incorrect – the court clarified the exemption is NOT based on caste or religion but on a valid logical basis (religious headgear practice). Statement 3 is correct – the judgment reiterates the two conditions for reasonable classification: intelligible differentia and rational relation to the statute's objective. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The judgment was delivered on June 29, 2026, as mentioned in the article ('the June 29 order'). July 2, 2026 is the publication date of the news report. June 28 and July 1 are incorrect. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The court applied the test of reasonable classification, which requires an intelligible differentia (Sikhs wearing turbans vs others) and rational relation to road safety. It rejected the argument of class legislation. Doctrine of proportionality (used in fundamental rights limitations) and basic structure (applicable to constitutional amendments) are not relevant here. Absolute equality is negated by Article 14 itself which permits reasonable classification. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The article quotes External Affairs Ministry spokesman Randhir Jaiswal. The Ministry of External Affairs handles diplomatic relations and joint statements. While defence and commerce are involved, the nodal ministry for diplomacy is MEA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says 'the first co-development project between India and Japan' in defence. Statement 2 is correct: they prepared a joint roadmap for economic security in areas like semiconductors, quantum, and advanced materials. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Special Strategic and Global Partnership was elevated in 2014, not during this summit.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions 'one thousand bio-gas and organic fertiliser plants in India'. Options 500, 2000, and 5000 are common distractors for such initiatives.

Explanation

The article quotes PM Modi: 'Through this, we will strengthen supply chain resilience in strategic areas such as semiconductors, quantum, and advanced materials.' Options A, C, and D are not mentioned or contradict the core purpose. This aligns with the broader theme of economic security and reducing dependence on single sources.

Explanation

The CBFC is a statutory body under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, functioning under the Cinematograph Act, 1952. It is responsible for certifying films for public exhibition in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the SC set aside the NCLT order. Statement 2 is incorrect; the amendments proposed a higher RTI application fee, not a reduction. Statement 3 is correct as the India-Japan talks resulted in both an economic framework and a defence pact.

Explanation

The article states that an 11-year-old boy crashed a pickup truck into a group of monks in northeastern Thailand, killing nine. Five monks died at the site, and four others died at a hospital.

Explanation

The Supreme Court specifically observed that the use of non-existent or AI-generated hallucinated judicial precedents is 'catastrophic' to the judicial process, as it undermines the integrity and reliability of legal proceedings.

Explanation

The EPFO and EPF schemes are under the administrative control of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. The article confirms that the Ministry of Labour and Employment notified the new scheme.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the new scheme explicitly replaces the 1952 scheme. Statement 2 is incorrect: contributions above the wage ceiling are voluntary, not mandatory, as per the article. Statement 3 is correct: the concept of principal employer is introduced for the first time for contract workers.

Explanation

The article states that the rate of contribution remains the same at 12% for both employer and employee, with 10% for certain notified establishments. 8.33% is the contribution rate for the Employee Pension Scheme (EPS), which is separate.

Explanation

The article mentions that the concept of principal employer is introduced for the first time and that the ultimate responsibility for contributions will be with the principal employer, even if the contractor makes the initial payment. This aims to protect contract workers' social security.

Explanation

The article states that the reforms are being considered by the Ministry of Education's nine-member committee. While Medical education involves the Ministry of Health, NEET and JEE are under the purview of the Ministry of Education (erstwhile HRD Ministry). Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article mentions a nine-member committee set up by the Ministry of Education. Statement 2 is incorrect: The proposed 50% weightage applies to both NEET and JEE admissions as the article says 'crucial admissions presently based on scores of entrance exams like NEET and JEE'. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions 'closer alignment of entrance tests with school syllabi' and 'multiple attempts' as part of the contemplated changes. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The changes being contemplated are 50 per cent weightage for board marks in admission/merit'. Options 25% and 40% are plausible distractors, while 75% is an exaggeration. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the move is contemplated 'with an idea of reducing the high-stakes nature of any exam' and aims to address 'students’ dependence on coaching' and 'the spread of dummy schools'. Option A is opposite to the intent, C is extreme, and D is not mentioned. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The Supreme Court directly asked the Bar Council of India to deliberate on the issue and prescribe guiding principles along with disciplinary action. The BCI is the statutory body responsible for regulating the legal profession under the Advocates Act, 1961.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the NCLT order of Aug 28, 2024 was set aside for relying on fake material. Statement 2 is incorrect because the SC did not ban AI entirely; it only imposed zero tolerance for unverified AI-generated material and allowed rightful use. Statement 3 is correct as the SC directed BCI to form a committee for guidelines and disciplinary norms.

Explanation

The article states that both the NCLT order (August 28, 2024) and the NCLAT order (September 11, 2025) were set aside. The NCLAT order was issued on September 11, 2025. July 2, 2026 is the date of the Supreme Court judgment.

Explanation

The Supreme Court emphasized that unverified AI-generated material, when presented as legal precedents, contaminates the judicial process and amounts to subversion of the rule of law. The court used the analogy of methyl isocyanate to describe the insidious and catastrophic nature of this problem.

Explanation

The Madras High Court explicitly cited Article 48 (Directive Principles of State Policy) which directs the State to take steps to prohibit the slaughter of cows and calves and other milch and draught cattle. Article 21 deals with right to life, Article 25 with freedom of religion, and Article 14 with equality.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the HC order banned cow slaughter 'on the eve of Bakri Eid or on any other day' – a blanket ban, not limited to Bakri Eid. Statement 2 is correct as per the TN Animal Preservation Act, 1958. Statement 3 is correct: the state argued that the HC's absolute ban goes beyond the original petition and constitutes judicial lawmaking.

Explanation

The Act allows slaughter of cows aged over 10 years if a competent authority declares them unfit for work and breeding. This provision was cited by the state government to argue that the HC's blanket ban contradicts the existing state law. Options 5, 8, and 12 are distractors not supported by the article.

Explanation

The state argued that the HC order 'imposed a blanket ban on cow slaughter even in designated slaughterhouses' and that this 'is unsustainable in law' and 'amounts to judicial lawmaking'. While religious freedom is a related issue, the state's core argument was about separation of powers and the HC exceeding its jurisdiction. The other options are not the primary argument presented in the article.

Explanation

The Akal Takht, located in Amritsar, is the highest temporal seat of the Sikhs. It issued a directive to the Punjab government to put the new anti-sacrilege law on hold. The SGPC is a religious committee, while SAD is a political party.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The 2026 Act was passed by the AAP government in Punjab. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Act applies only to Sri Guru Granth Sahib, not other scriptures. Statement 3 is correct: BNS sections 298 and 299 are central laws that continue to apply alongside the state law.

Explanation

The 2026 Amendment Act introduced a maximum fine of Rs 25 lakh for sacrilege with criminal conspiracy, along with 10 years to life imprisonment. The earlier 2008 Act had a maximum fine of only Rs 50,000.

Explanation

The Union Home Ministry rejected earlier attempts (2016, 2018) because the laws applied only to specific scriptures (Sri Guru Granth Sahib), violating secularism. The 2026 Act also only covers Sri Guru Granth Sahib, raising similar constitutional concerns.

Explanation

The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 is the primary legislation for regulating drugs and cosmetics in India. The recent amendment was made to the Drugs Rules, 1945, which are framed under this Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the amendment covers stem cell derived products and gene therapeutic products. Statement 2 is incorrect because xenografts are explicitly included in the new framework. Statement 3 is correct as the health ministry stated the need for enhanced regulatory scrutiny for patient safety.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions Chimeric Antigen Receptor T-cell therapy (CAR-T) as a cutting-edge cancer treatment for blood cancers, which Indian companies are developing as affordable alternatives to patented therapies.

Explanation

The health ministry explicitly stated that these technologies need enhanced regulatory scrutiny to ensure patient safety. While cost reduction or export promotion may be secondary benefits, the core objective is safety and quality control through central licensing.

Explanation

CAQM was established under the CAQM Act 2021 to coordinate air quality management in Delhi-NCR. It replaced the earlier EPCA and now oversees GRAP enforcement. The other bodies have related roles but CAQM is the nodal agency for GRAP.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – GRAP 3 halts most private construction. Statement 2 is incorrect – GRAP 4 bans entry of trucks except those carrying essential goods and services. Statement 3 is correct as per the CEEW report quoted in the article. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the winter of 2024-25 witnessed the highest number of GRAP IV days at 27 days across three spells. The other options: 2023-24 had 13 days, 2025-26 had 14 days, and 2022-23 is not discussed. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The plan makes measures like work from home, staggered office timings, construction curbs, and vehicle restrictions mandatory from Nov 1 to Feb 28, irrespective of daily AQI. It does not replace GRAP but operates alongside. Options A, C, D are exaggerations or incorrect as per the article.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the policy brief was released by the INSA-Centre for Science, Technology, Innovation and Policy (CSTIP) in May 2026. Other options are common distractors – NITI Aayog often releases policy documents but not this one.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the framework has four pillars (adequacy, access, affordability, and appropriate sustainability), not three. Statement 2 is correct as per the article (40 GW to 260 GW). Statement 3 is correct – the framework proposes a phased approach with near-term priorities including green hydrogen and institutional mechanisms.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that India aims for net-zero emissions by 2070. Energy self-reliance is targeted for 2047 (100th year of independence). 2050 is a common global target (e.g., by many developed countries), but India’s stated target is 2070.

Explanation

The article states that ‘appropriate sustainability’ underscores pursuing sustainability in a manner aligned with India’s unique social, economic, and environmental context, avoiding a one-size-fits-all approach. Options A, C, and D contradict the framework’s emphasis on context-specific solutions.

Explanation

The article specifically states that the National Testing Agency (NTA) had to re-conduct the NEET exam. NTA is the autonomous body under the Ministry of Education responsible for conducting entrance exams like NEET, JEE, etc.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article identifies printing press insiders (Gujarat 2023, J&K 2022) as a common element. Statement 2 is correct: the Maharashtra case kingpin was from Patna, and teams from Bihar and Haryana were involved. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article argues that hunting for kingpins leaves the core problem untouched.

Explanation

The article mentions the postponement of the Maharashtra Teacher Eligibility Test 'just before its scheduled date (June 28)'. The exam was scheduled for June 28 and postponed just ahead of it.

Explanation

The article states that public examinations and recruitment are pathways to creating skilled individuals. Corruption in these merit-based processes will erode India's ability to fully realize its demographic dividend. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

Article 21A, inserted by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, provides the right to free and compulsory education for children aged 6-14 years. The Odisha scheme extends free education beyond this mandate up to PG level.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the scheme waives admission fees for Classes IX-XII and UG/PG in regular mode in government and aided institutions. Statement 2 is incorrect because self-financing courses, unaided institutions, and professional/technical programmes are explicitly excluded. Statement 3 is correct as the cabinet approved an expenditure of ₹5,467.55 crore over five years.

Explanation

The Odisha Cabinet approved an estimated expenditure of ₹895.57 crore for the first year and ₹5,467.55 crore over a period of five years for the scheme. The first year outlay is a subset of the total five-year outlay.

Explanation

The scheme aims to make quality education accessible, equitable, and affordable, particularly for economically weaker and disadvantaged sections. It seeks to reduce financial burden, encourage enrolment, improve retention, and reduce dropout rates, ensuring that financial constraints do not hinder education.

Explanation

The Bill explicitly states that certificates will be issued by Gram Sabhas (in rural areas) or urban local bodies (in urban areas), ensuring local-level identification and verification.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Bill establishes a Maharashtra State Women Farmers’ Fund. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Bill explicitly removes the land ownership precondition, targeting landless women as well. Statement 3 is correct: the Council includes the CM as an ex-officio member.

Explanation

Chief Minister Devendra Fadnavis stated that women account for more than 81% of participation in Maharashtra’s agricultural sector, highlighting the need for recognition and empowerment.

Explanation

The Bill aims to address the systemic non-recognition of women who cultivate land without formal titles, by issuing certificates that unlock access to subsidies, institutional finance, and market support. It does not directly address productivity or provide free inputs; its core is identity-based entitlement.

Explanation

The article states that Ireland is holding the presidency of the Council of the European Union for the eighth time, and the Irish ambassador expressed hope for signing the EU-India FTA during this presidency.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the FTA was concluded in January 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: the final sealing remains to be done, it has not been signed yet. Statement 3 is correct: Ambassador Kelly described India as one of the most important strategic partners of Europe.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The EU-India FTA was concluded in January this year'. The news is dated July 2026, so 'this year' refers to 2026.

Explanation

The article lists maritime security, digital commerce, research, connectivity, and resilient supply chains as areas of EU-India partnership. Agriculture subsidies are not mentioned in this context, making it the correct answer.

Explanation

The article states that the Centre for High Technology under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas approved scaling up of DME technology. The scheme is also linked to petroleum products (LPG substitution), making this ministry the nodal body. While coal is involved, the primary ministry is Petroleum and Natural Gas.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: non-Hormuz sourcing increased from 55% to 70%. Statement 2 is incorrect: BIS approved blending up to 20% (not 25%). Statement 3 is correct: the scheme provides incentive up to 20% of plant and machinery costs. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that a 20% DME blend could save nearly ₹34,000 crore in foreign exchange annually. ₹37,500 crore is the scheme outlay, not the saving. ₹6,300 crore is a distractor, and ₹54,000 crore is unrelated.

Explanation

The article argues that the real long-term solution to LPG vulnerability is producing a domestic molecule (DME) to serve the same purpose. The scheme aims to scale coal gasification for DME production, thereby reducing LPG import dependence. While increased coal use is a means, the objective is import substitution for energy security.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the roadmap was prepared jointly by the Gujarat State Institute of Transformation (GRIT) and the Planning Division of the General Administration Department, not by NITI Aayog or other bodies.

Explanation

All statements are directly taken from the article: the unveiling date (June 30, 2026), GSDP target ($3.5 trillion by 2047), and the framework (11 themes, 120 macro goals, 55 thrust areas). Hence option D is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions that the Vision Document targets raising Gujarat’s GSDP to $3.5 trillion by 2047. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned.

Explanation

The Chief Minister stated that the ultimate objective is improving citizens’ quality of life, with the roadmap focusing on implementation rather than intent. The other options are plausible but not the primary stated objective.

Explanation

The Calcutta High Court's Division Bench of Justices Tapabrata Chakraborty and Rajashekhar Mantha passed the order on May 22, 2024, cancelling all OBC certificates issued since 2010. The court found that religion was the sole criterion for granting OBC status to 77 communities.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Bills reduced sub-castes from 179 to 66. Statement 2 is incorrect: the High Court cancelled all OBC certificates issued since 2010, not upheld them. Statement 3 is correct: the 1993 list had 66 sub-castes (54 Hindu, 12 Muslim). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The Left Front government issued seven executive orders in 2010 that added 42 new classes (41 Muslim) as OBCs, enhancing OBC reservation from 7% to 17%. Of this, 10% was earmarked for OBC-A (Most Backward) and 7% for OBC-B.

Explanation

The Division Bench stated that 'religion indeed appears to have been the sole criterion' for granting OBC status to 77 communities. The court also noted that the state committed 'fraud on constitutional power' by excluding the Commission's role in identification.

Explanation

The article explicitly refers to the 'financial stability report' released by RBI Governor Sanjay Malhotra. The RBI is the nodal body for banking regulation and financial stability assessments in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says 'gross NPAs were at 1.8 per cent in March 2026, there were no signs of any build-up in stress'. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article states 'borrowing for consumption purposes, not asset creation, is the key driver of loans'. Statement 3 is correct: 'the index of eight core industries grew by just 1.1 per cent during April-May'.

Explanation

The article mentions 'capital to risk weighted assets ratio was at 17.7 per cent'. Options A (15.2%) and B (16.9%) are plausible distractors, while D (19.1%) is an inflated number. This is a direct data recall question for Prelims.

Explanation

The article directly states that deficient monsoon and El Niño could affect kharif and rabi crops, and by referring to the 2023-24 El Niño year when food inflation averaged 8.5%, it warns of implications for inflation and demand. Other options are not explicitly mentioned.

Explanation

The article mentions the writer is chief scientist, International Cotton Advisory Committee (ICAC). FAO is referenced for soil data, Ministry of Textiles for productivity data, and ICAR is not mentioned.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India's yield (441 kg/ha) is lower than China (2,311) and Turkey (1,728). Statement 2 is incorrect: yields peaked in 2013-14 and then declined. Statement 3 is correct: soil organic carbon averages 0.3-0.6% vs global min 1-1.5%. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'nearly 32 per cent of Indian land is degraded and 25 per cent faces desertification.' The other options are distractors; 25% is the desertification figure, not the degraded land percentage.

Explanation

The author explicitly argues that the primary focus of the Cotton Technology Mission should be restoring soil organic carbon via regenerative agriculture, particularly biochar-compost systems, along with other agronomic measures. Approving GM seeds alone is not recommended as the solution.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the study was released by iFOREST. CPCB and MoEFCC are regulatory bodies, but the study was conducted by iFOREST, an independent research forum.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Ludhiana has 54% unmitigated PM2.5. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 98% unmitigated figure applies to commercial cooking sector in Ludhiana, not Varanasi (the article says 'commercial cooking sector is characterized by an exceptionally high level of unmitigated emissions. Around 98% of commercial sector emissions occur without pollution controls' — it does not specify Varanasi). Statement 3 is correct: 65-70% of emissions originate outside city boundaries.

Explanation

The study estimates Varanasi's annual PM2.5 emissions at 14,000 tonnes, with 62% remaining unmitigated. The 54% figure is for Ludhiana, and 98% refers to commercial cooking emissions in Ludhiana.

Explanation

The study highlights that a large share of emissions come from outside city limits, meaning city-centric plans under NCAP are inadequate. A regional airshed approach is needed to address transboundary pollution, as emphasized in the article.

Explanation

The World Bank classifies countries into four income categories based on Gross National Income (GNI) per capita. The IMF handles financial stability, UNDP focuses on human development, and WTO regulates trade. This is directly mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Sri Lanka was upgraded to upper-middle income by the World Bank. Statement 2 is incorrect: the economy expanded by 5% in 2025, not contracted. Statement 3 is correct: classifications are based on GNI per capita estimates from the previous calendar year (2025). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Sri Lanka's real GDP grew by 5% in 2025, driven by a rebound across industries and growth in financial and tourism services. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article attributes the 5% growth to a 'broad-based recovery across industries and growth in tourism and financial services', supported by worker remittances and an IMF-backed stabilization program. The other options are not mentioned or contradict the article's reasoning.

Explanation

Section 7 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 specifies that a Hindu marriage must be solemnized in accordance with customary rites and ceremonies, with saptapadi being a key ceremony. Section 5 deals with conditions for a valid marriage, Section 8 with registration, and Section 13 with divorce.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the HC specifically ruled that registration alone is NOT enough; ceremonies are essential. Statement 2 is correct as saptapadi is a key ceremony under Section 7. Statement 3 is correct as the HC emphasized marriage is a samskara.

Explanation

The HC specifically mentioned that saptapadi (the taking of seven steps by the bridegroom and bride jointly before the sacred fire) provides a marriage with spiritual, social, and legal status as a sacrament. While other ceremonies are also important, saptapadi is highlighted as the essential one under Section 7.

Explanation

The HC ruled that registration is a procedural formality but cannot substitute the actual solemnization of marriage through rites like saptapadi. This means that a marriage certificate alone, without proof of ceremonies, does not establish a valid Hindu marriage. The judgment reinforces the sacramental nature of Hindu marriage.

Explanation

The Simla Agreement was signed on July 2, 1972. At that time, Indira Gandhi was the Prime Minister of India, as clearly stated in the article. She reached Simla a day ahead of the meeting with President Bhutto.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The agreement transformed the ceasefire line into a formal 'line of control' as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article explicitly says 'there was no mention of a Kashmir plebiscite' in the Simla Agreement. Statement 3 is correct: India agreed to withdraw from 5,000 square miles of Pakistani desert land occupied during the conflict.

Explanation

The article states that the Simla Agreement was signed on July 2, 1972. The meeting began on June 28, 1972 but the final agreement was reached and signed on July 2. Options B, C, and D are distractors from other dates mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article notes that Gandhi 'proposed converting the existing ceasefire line in Jammu and Kashmir into a permanent international border' in return for restoring most captured territory. This was her key strategic aim to settle the Kashmir dispute on India's terms. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The NTA was established as an autonomous body under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, as per the Ministry of Education. This act provides a framework for registration of societies but does not give the legal mandate of a statutory body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the parliamentary panel made this recommendation. Statement 2 is incorrect: NTA is an autonomous body under the Societies Registration Act, not a statutory body, and lacks equivalent legal authority. Statement 3 is correct: the re-examination was held on June 21, 2026.

Explanation

The article is published on July 2, 2026, and states that the committee 'convened its first meeting under his chairmanship' on that day. The meeting was held to examine the NEET-UG re-examination and structural reforms for NTA.

Explanation

The panel specifically flagged that students from marginalised backgrounds may have little to no prior experience with computer-based assessments, posing a challenge to equitable access. The other options are not the primary concern raised in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the detention order was based on the Jammu and Kashmir Public Safety Act, 1978. This is a state-specific preventive detention law applicable in the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the court found the dossier contained only assumptions (ipse dixit). Statement 2 is incorrect: the petitioner was under a bond under Section 107 CrPC, not convicted. Statement 3 is correct as the court specifically used that phrase.

Explanation

The article states that the district magistrate, Pulwama, passed the preventive detention order on May 7, 2025. May 29, 2025 is the date the petition was filed. June 29, 2026 is the date of the court order.

Explanation

The court criticized the dossier as being based on 'self-entertained impression and assumption' (ipse dixit). It held that preventive detention cannot be based on mere suspicions; concrete facts are required. The other options were not the primary ground cited.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that IRDAI has partnered with the Institute of Public Auditors of India, a statutory body, to monitor dark patterns across the industry over a period of 9 months. The other options are regulatory bodies in different financial sectors.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the regulator in April directed insurers to conduct a self-assessment on dark patterns. Statement 2 is incorrect: the monitoring period is 9 months, not 6. Statement 3 is correct: the survey found 80% faced hidden charges and difficulty cancelling policies. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'Around 90% of the sample size of over 87,000 respondents said they were repeatedly bugged to continue or buy policies through unsolicited calls and messages.' The other options are close distractors; 80% refers to those facing hidden charges/difficulty cancelling.

Explanation

IRDAI Chairman Ajay Seth explicitly said the keyword is 'more trusted' and that the measures aim to make financial inclusion more understandable, more trusted, and more actionable. While sales and digital promotion may be secondary effects, the core objective is building consumer trust.

Explanation

The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) is the nodal body for IT policy, internet governance, and cybersecurity in India. It has authority over intermediaries like WhatsApp under the IT Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states usernames will not be publicly searchable or listed in a directory. Statement 3 is correct as the Meta spokesperson confirmed reserving usernames for high-profile names.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the government asked WhatsApp to explain within three days. The other options are plausible distractors for time-bound notices.

Explanation

The government's letter specifically mentioned that the usernames feature could increase online fraud, phishing, 'digital arrest' scams, and impersonation by allowing bad actors to contact victims without disclosing phone numbers.

Explanation

The article states that the Karnataka High Court, presided by Justice M Nagaprasanna, dismissed the petitions. The FIR was registered in Bengaluru, and the court is based in Karnataka.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court upheld ED's power to share information under Section 66(2) PMLA. Statement 2 is correct: the funds were routed via US debit cards across the three states. Statement 3 is also correct as per ED's claim about Maoist-affected areas.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Rs 92.55 crore ($9.9 million) was allegedly transacted in violation of laws between November 2025 and April 2026. The other options are distractors: Rs 6.34 crore is the amount linked to Maoist areas, not the total.

Explanation

The bench rejected the argument that ED can share information only for PMLA offences. The court held that Section 66(2) is intended to ensure information does not remain siloed when it reveals infractions under other enactments, thus enabling inter-agency cooperation.

Explanation

The UN General Assembly created the panel on August 26, 2025, through Resolution A/RES/79/325, as per the article. The Security Council and other bodies were not involved in its creation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the report warns of 'agentic' autonomy that oversight cannot manage. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 118 countries are mainly from the Global South, not Global North. Statement 3 is correct: the report documents 'evaluation awareness' where AI models suppress dangerous capabilities. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The report states the US accounts for three-fourths (75%) of the computing power among the top 500 AI machines. China accounts for 15%. The other options are distractors: 60% is too low, 85% and 90% are excessive.

Explanation

The report warns that 'agentic' autonomy means AI systems can act independently, and current oversight cannot manage them, potentially allowing dangerous capabilities to emerge before governments can respond. While other options are related concerns, this is the direct risk highlighted for the agentic phase.

Explanation

According to the article, NEC Corporation has been appointed as the system supplier for the I-2SEA submarine cable project. ASEAN Cableship is the marine installation partner, while Lightstorm and Tata Communications are consortium members.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – the cable connects India's east coast (Machilipatnam & Chennai) to Singapore and Malaysia. Statement 2 is incorrect – the estimated length is 3,600 km, not 2,500 km. Statement 3 is correct – the consortium consists of Microsoft, Lightstorm, Singtel, and Tata Communications. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the estimated length of the high-capacity cable is 3,600 km from Singapore to Machilipatnam with onward connectivity to Hyderabad. The other options are distractors – 2,500 km is incorrect, and 4,200 km and 5,000 km are also not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the cable is expected to deliver the fastest transmission on the Singapore/Malaysia–Hyderabad corridor, which is the most strategically critical city pair for AI workloads in the region. Other options, though plausible, are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The 2024 guidelines were brought out by the Women and Child Development Ministry in consultation with the Labour Ministry. This ministry is the nodal authority for crèche standards, while the Labour Ministry handles the mandate under the Code on Social Security.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the guidelines are described as 'suggestive' standards and protocol, not mandatory. Statement 2 is incorrect as the crèche supervisor must be minimum 12th Pass, while the helper is 10th Pass. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: 'Only women staff to be recruited as caregivers for the children.'

Explanation

The article states that the Code on Social Security and the Code on Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions mandates a crèche facility in every establishment where 50 or more workers are employed. This is a key factual detail for Prelims questions on labour codes.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the guidelines aim to 'promote female labour force participation in the economy' and ensure 'women-led development'. While other options may be tangential benefits, the core objective is to enable women to work by providing safe childcare.

Explanation

The MoU was signed between Adani Enterprises, UAE's International Resources Holding (IRH), and the Government of Odisha. Odisha is home to large bauxite reserves and is a major producer of alumina and aluminium.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: AEL and IHC (through its subsidiary IRH) formed a 50:50 JV. Statement 2 is correct: The project includes a 4,000 MW captive power plant and a 1 MMTPA downstream manufacturing park. Statement 3 is correct: Officials confirmed it is India's largest FDI in the metallurgy sector.

Explanation

The article states the investment is $11.5 billion, equivalent to ₹1.08 lakh crore. The other options are close distractors with different figures.

Explanation

The article mentions the downstream park is expected to attract manufacturers for transport, construction, power, packaging, renewable energy, and advanced engineering, supporting MSME growth. While other options are related, the core objective is value-added manufacturing and MSME promotion.