1 July 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The Citizenship Act, 1955 originally provided birthright citizenship under Section 3. However, the 1986 amendment required that at least one parent be an Indian citizen for a child born in India to acquire citizenship by birth, effectively ending unconditional jus soli. The 2003 amendment further added that a child would not become a citizen if either parent was an illegal immigrant at the time of birth.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the ruling was 6-3. Statement 2 is incorrect because the clause includes the phrase 'subject to the jurisdiction thereof', which has been interpreted to have exceptions for children of diplomats and enemies during hostile occupation. Statement 3 is correct - Article 5 granted citizenship based on birth, but the Citizenship Act amendments changed the criteria.

Explanation

The article states: 'At least 37 other countries grant citizenship to anyone born on their soil, mostly in South America and the Caribbean.' This is a direct quote from the news. The other options are close distractors but not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly says: 'The amendment, ratified in 1868 after the American Civil War, was intended to ensure that formerly enslaved people would be recognised as US citizens.' While the 14th Amendment also overturned Dred Scott, the article specifically highlights the intention to grant citizenship to freed slaves. This is a direct textual reference.

Explanation

The article states that a 31-member Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) chaired by BJP MP Aparajita Sarangi was formed to examine the Bill. A JPC is an ad-hoc committee with members from both Houses of Parliament, tasked with detailed scrutiny of a specific subject or bill.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Bill proposes automatic removal if a minister is detained for 30 consecutive days. Statement 2 is incorrect: The removal can be directed by the President/Governor upon advice of PM/CM OR automatically on the 31st day of detention. Statement 3 is correct: The Bill was introduced by Home Minister Amit Shah in August 2025.

Explanation

The article specifies that removal is automatic on the 31st day of detention. The 30-day period is the threshold for triggering the provision, but the actual removal occurs on the 31st day. Option B (30 days) is a common distractor as the detention period mentioned is 30 consecutive days.

Explanation

The article states that opposition MPs boycotted proceedings, arguing the provisions are undemocratic and anti-federal, but the primary concern highlighted is the potential for misuse of the law for political vendetta. The JPC report is expected to include safeguards to address this concern.

Explanation

The VB-G RAM G scheme is a rural employment guarantee program, and the Ministry of Rural Development is the nodal ministry for all rural development initiatives including MGNREGA and its replacement VB-G RAM G.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: VB-G RAM G replaces MGNREGA from July 1, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: the central government does not bear 100% wage cost; states now share 40% (except for NE/Himalayan states and UTs with legislature where Centre pays 90%). Statement 3 is correct: special cards with distinct colour are provided for single women, persons with disability, elderly, bonded labourers, PVTGs, and transgender persons.

Explanation

The VB-G RAM G Act increases guaranteed wage employment days from 100 (under MGNREGA) to 125 days per household per financial year. The other options are distractors: 100 was the old limit, 150 and 200 are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 60-day pause is designed to protect the availability of farm labour during peak agricultural sowing and harvesting seasons. This addresses a long-standing criticism that MGNREGA created labour shortages in agriculture. The other options are not mentioned or are incorrect interpretations.

Explanation

The 14th Amendment (1868) contains the Citizenship Clause: 'All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens.' This clause was the basis for the Supreme Court's rejection of Trump's executive order, reaffirmed by the 1898 Wong Kim Ark case.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect - the Supreme Court nullified Trump's executive order. Statement 2 is correct - the ruling protects children of H-1B and other temporary visa holders. Statement 3 is correct - the 14th Amendment was ratified in 1868 primarily to grant citizenship to former slaves.

Explanation

The article states 'the Indian-American community, which now numbers roughly 5.2 million people in the US'. This includes 1.2 million skilled professionals in the green card backlog. The other options are plausible distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article highlights that while the ruling removes the threat to birthright citizenship, the 'green card backlog so long that professionals can spend their entire careers waiting for permanent status' remains the core unresolved issue. Community leaders are now calling for reform of the employment-based green card system.

Explanation

The article quotes Abhay Kumar Singh, Chairman and Managing Director of NHPC, confirming the company's role in the project. NHPC is India's premier hydropower development company under the Ministry of Power.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article states the primary focus is safety (flood mitigation), with power generation as a secondary benefit. Statements 2 and 3 are directly supported by the article, which names SIFF/ABK as resisting groups and specifies the 9 billion m³ reservoir for prior-use rights.

Explanation

The article states: 'the project will generate 47 billion kWh of electricity annually, making it the largest planned hydroelectric facility in the subcontinent.' The other options are distractors: 11,000 refers to MW capacity, 60,000 refers to China's super dam, and 113,000 refers to the project cost in crore rupees.

Explanation

The article repeatedly stresses that the primary focus is safety: 'the primary focus of this project is safety, with power generation serving as a secondary benefit.' It also cites 'establishing early physical prior-use rights to strengthen India's legal claims under international transboundary water law' and creating a flood-buffer zone. The other options are not supported by the text.

Explanation

The article mentions that NITI Aayog’s latest assessment found India still sources 65% of critical ingredients from China, highlighting the limited impact of industrial policies in creating instant resilience.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: US directed Anthropic to suspend access to Fable 5 and Mythos 5 for foreign nationals. Statement 2 is incorrect because the mechanism is voluntary, not mandatory. Statement 3 is correct: the Trump administration is considering equity stakes in leading AI companies.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India spends 0.6% of GDP on research and development, with the private sector accounting for one-third of this. The other options are close distractors; 0.5% is slightly lower, while 0.8% and 1.2% are higher than the actual figure.

Explanation

The article highlights that rapid diffusion and model dependence pull in opposite directions: using foreign AI models today builds economic surpluses needed for future independence, but creates strategic vulnerabilities that require government intervention to manage geopolitical risks.

Explanation

The news explicitly states 'the Delhi government's decision' to mandate electric mobility. State governments have jurisdiction over transport policies within their territory, hence the Delhi Government is the nodal body.

Explanation

Statement 1 and 2 are directly from the article. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article says the policy 'does not totally discard the path of persuasion' and uses incentives alongside deadlines. Hence only 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation

The article states 'Commercial three-wheelers will undergo a mandatory transition beginning January 1 next year' (next year from July 2026, i.e., 2027). Option A is the deadline for two-wheelers. Options C and D are incorrect dates.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions challenges: 'An EV-dominated fleet will require an adequate charging infrastructure' and 'limitations of India's battery supply chain, especially its dependence on imported lithium cells'. The other options are not highlighted in the article.

Explanation

The article states that the notification was issued by the Union Ministry of Rural Development. Both MGNREGA and VB-G RAM G are rural employment schemes falling under this ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – the Act is effective from July 1, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect – the Rs 450 rate applies only to three gram panchayats (Gnathang, Lachung, Lachen) in Sikkim, not all parts. Statement 3 is correct – Haryana's hike was only 2.25%, the lowest, while its wage rate of Rs 409 is the highest.

Explanation

According to the news table, Haryana has the highest wage of Rs 409 per day. Rs 400 was the previous MGNREGA rate for 2025-26; Rs 450 is only for three Sikkim GPs; Rs 375 is for Himachal scheduled areas.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the lower hike in percentage terms is due to the 'base effect' – these states already had high absolute wage rates. The wage revision uses CPI-AL and the previous rates, so a high base results in a lower percentage increase.

Explanation

Section 2(1)(o) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 includes 'housing construction' within the definition of 'service'. This brings flat-allotment disputes under the purview of consumer forums.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Court held that an arbitration clause cannot override consumer forum jurisdiction. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Court said accepting possession does not automatically extinguish the right to claim compensation for delay. Statement 3 is correct: Section 12(4) prohibits transfer of an admitted complaint to any other court or tribunal.

Explanation

Section 12(4) of the CPA 1986 provides that once a complaint is admitted by the District Forum, it shall not be transferred to any other court or tribunal or authority set up under any other law. The Court relied on this to reject the arbitration referral.

Explanation

The Supreme Court held that the NCDRC erroneously concluded that Padmanabhan ceased to be a consumer and that the complaint could be referred to arbitration. The Court emphasized that Section 12(4) bars such transfer once a complaint is admitted.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the court confirming death penalty under provisions dealing with 'penetrative sexual assault' of the POCSO Act. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article confirms death penalty for rape of three minors. Statement 2 is correct as the court termed it 'rarest of rare'. Statement 3 is incorrect because the bench consisted of two judges (Justice N Anand Venkatesh and Justice K K Ramakrishan), not a single judge. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states 'the June 30 order said'. Hence the order was passed on June 30, 2026. Option B is correct.

Explanation

The court explicitly stated the judgment serves as a 'stark, unyielding warning' and that it does not act out of vengeance but out of duty to justice, deterrence, and restoration of moral order. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

Article 3 empowers Parliament to form new states, alter boundaries, or change names of existing states. Article 2 deals with admission of new states, Article 1 defines the name and territory of India, and Article 4 deals with laws made under Articles 2 and 3.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per Article 3. Statement 2 is incorrect because the opinion of the state legislature is not binding on Parliament; it must only be considered. Statement 3 is a factual statement from the news. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions that a unanimous resolution was passed by the Kerala Assembly on June 24, 2024, moved by the then Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan. July 1, 2026 is the date of Assembly endorsement of the President's reference. February 2026 is when the Union Cabinet approved the Bill, and November 1, 1956 is the date of linguistic reorganisation of states.

Explanation

After the state legislature's opinion, the Bill must be introduced in Parliament. It requires a simple majority in both Houses and then the President's assent. There is no requirement for a plebiscite or Supreme Court approval. This procedure is clearly outlined in Article 3.

Explanation

The article explicitly identifies the Strait of Hormuz as the critical chokepoint. It connects the Persian Gulf to the Arabian Sea via the Gulf of Oman and is vital for global oil shipments.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Iran closed the strait within days of the Feb 28 attack. Statement 2 is correct: Article 5 of the MoU specifies free passage for 60 days only. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article states Iran ruled out direct technical talks with the US after the MoU.

Explanation

Article 5 of the MoU explicitly states that Iran would remove mines and other technical impediments for traffic within 30 days of signing the memorandum.

Explanation

The article states that by retaining control despite US threats, Iran has demonstrated deterrence capability. It wants to assert sovereignty over the strait to cement its role as a dominant regional power. While service fees are part of the plan, the broader objective is strategic positioning.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'SAARC is largely dysfunctional' in the context of India's political and strategic challenges in South Asia. This is a static fact about the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation, which has been paralyzed due to India-Pakistan tensions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says the US is treating China as a de facto equal/ G2 partner. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article states the US has become noticeably quieter on Quad and Taiwan to avoid provoking Beijing. Statement 3 is correct: Washington is deepening defence, maritime, digital and infrastructure cooperation with these South Asian nations.

Explanation

The article states: 'India's trade surplus with South Asia has grown from about US$6.7 billion to nearly US$20 billion over the past two decades.' The other options are plausible distractors but only US$20 billion matches the text.

Explanation

The article explicitly says India's high-level participation in the South Asia Dialogue alongside Pakistan, US, UK blurred its position of rejecting third-party mediation with Pakistan, as earlier demonstrated by dismissing Trump's claim of mediation during Operation Sindoor. This is about maintaining consistency in India's foreign policy stance.

Explanation

The Fourth Amendment explicitly protects against unreasonable searches and seizures. The article repeatedly refers to this amendment in relation to geofence warrants.

Explanation

Statement 1 is false: geofence warrants start from a place and time (reverse investigation), not from a suspect. Statement 2 is correct: the article mentions the court relied on Carpenter v. US. Statement 3 is false: India does not have a statutory geofence regime; it uses tower dumps under Section 94 BNSS but that is not a geofence warrant regime.

Explanation

The article states: 'Google's location history service logs a device's position around every two minutes'. This precision was cited by the court as a reason for heightened privacy protection.

Explanation

The article explains that a geofence warrant uses Google's precise location history data, whereas a tower dump requests records from telecom operators for devices connected to a specific cell tower. Both start from a location rather than a person, but the data source differs.

Explanation

Article 368 of the Constitution provides the procedure for amendment. It requires a Bill to be passed by a majority of total membership and at least two-thirds of members present and voting in each House.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per Article 368. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect: absent members are not counted; only those present and voting are considered. Abstentions also do not count as 'ayes' or 'noes'.

Explanation

The article states the Lok Sabha has a total membership of 545, though currently 540 MPs are sitting. The simple majority threshold (273) is based on total membership of 545.

Explanation

The article mentions that the 130th Constitution Amendment Bill seeks to remove ministers after their arrest or detention for 30 consecutive days for serious offences. The other options are related to other proposed amendments but not this specific bill.

Explanation

The Delhi Electric Vehicles Policy 2026 is a state-level policy notified by the Delhi government. The transport department is the nodal department for implementing vehicle registration policies. The other options are central bodies that may advise or regulate but are not directly responsible for Delhi's vehicular policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the policy mandates only electric three-wheelers from Jan 1, 2027. Statement 2 is incorrect: the ₹1 lakh incentive is a scrapping incentive for first 1 lakh applicants who scrap an ICE vehicle and buy an EV, not a general purchase subsidy. Statement 3 is correct: two-wheelers are 67% of Delhi's vehicle stock as per the policy document.

Explanation

The policy clearly states that registrations of new non-electric two-wheelers will be stopped from April 1, 2028. January 1, 2027 is the date for three-wheelers. July 1, 2026 is the notification date. December 31, 2026 is a distractor.

Explanation

The article quotes Amit Bhatt of ICCT stating that such policies give automakers confidence that EV demand will be sustained, encouraging them to ramp up production, invest in innovation, and expand model offerings. This leads to lower costs and greater consumer choice. The other options are not supported by the article as primary purposes.

Explanation

Agnikul Cosmos, an IIT Madras-incubated company, signed the MoU with ICEYE. It is developing the Agnibaan launch vehicle capable of carrying SAR payloads.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: ICEYE had launched over 70 satellites at the time of the article. Statement 2 is correct: the MoU was signed at Bharat Innovates in Nice, France. Statement 3 is incorrect: Agnibaan uses single-piece 3D-printed engines, not traditionally manufactured ones.

Explanation

The article states that ICEYE has delivered sovereign satellite constellations to seven governments across Europe, including Poland, Sweden, and Germany.

Explanation

The article quotes Agnikul's CEO saying that applications such as disaster response, sensitive area monitoring, and security are national priorities, and India deserves sovereign capabilities to support them.

Explanation

As per the article, the Department of Commerce lifted the export controls. The CIA Director only commented on AI capabilities, and the Department of Defense was not mentioned. The Department of Commerce oversees export controls under the Export Administration Regulations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The government forced Anthropic to cut access on June 12 after discovering vulnerabilities. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Department of Commerce lifted the restrictions, not the CIA. Statement 3 is correct: OpenAI's GPT-5.6 was also restricted to approved partners as per the article.

Explanation

The article states: 'The government abruptly forced Anthropic to cut off access to its two cutting-edge artificial intelligence models on June 12.' June 26 is the date of the Commerce Secretary's letter, June 30 is the announcement of lifting, and July 1 is the publication date.

Explanation

In the article, CIA Director John Ratcliffe said: 'It would be... not misplaced to refer to their capabilities as akin to digital nuclear weapons.' This analogy underscores the perceived catastrophic potential of frontier AI models and justifies strict government controls.

Explanation

Title IX is the federal law that bans sex discrimination in educational programs receiving federal funding. The Supreme Court upheld state bans under Title IX, ruling it does not require allowing transgender athletes to compete by gender identity.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Court upheld bans in Idaho and West Virginia. Statement 2 is incorrect – the Court ruled that Title IX does NOT require inclusion of transgender athletes; it permits states to ban them. Statement 3 is correct – the article states more than two dozen Republican-led states have adopted such bans.

Explanation

The article cites an AP-NORC poll from October 2025 finding that about 6 in 10 U.S. adults 'strongly' or 'somewhat' favored such restrictions. The other options are invented distractors.

Explanation

Idaho's State Solicitor General argued that the ban is 'necessary for fair competition because, where sports are concerned, men and women are obviously not the same.' The Court accepted this reasoning, rejecting the claim that Title IX requires inclusion.

Explanation

The article states that PM Modi visited Tel Aviv, the capital of Israel, on February 25-26, 2026. This visit occurred just days before the US-Israel coordinated attack on Iran on February 28, 2026.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions PM Modi's visit to Tel Aviv on Feb 25-26, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect because the attack occurred after the visit (Feb 28). Statement 3 is incorrect as India sent two representatives: MoS Pabitra Margherita and Bihar Governor Lt. Gen. Syed Ata Hasnain.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'the U.S. and Israel launched their coordinated attack on Iran (February 28, 2026)'. The dates Feb 25-26 correspond to PM Modi's visit to Tel Aviv, which is a common examiner trap.

Explanation

The article explicitly warns that deeper alignment with Israel 'risks pushing Tehran further into the China-Pakistan strategic embrace', that India's 'economic ambitions in Europe... may come under closer scrutiny', and that 'every visible alignment with Israel... risks putting that precious capital (Global South) in jeopardy'. Hence all three are mentioned as consequences.

Explanation

The IIP is compiled and released by the Central Statistics Office (CSO), which operates under MoSPI. The other ministries are involved in related but distinct functions; for example, the Ministry of Finance deals with fiscal policy, not industrial statistics.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because MoSPI shifted from WPI to PPI (Producer Price Index), not CPI. Statement 3 is correct – the core sector index grew at the second-lowest rate in 21 months in May 2026. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The article states the IIP growth hit a five-month high of 5.1% in May 2026. 4.9% was the April growth, 5.5% was manufacturing sector growth (not overall IIP), and 6.2% is not mentioned. Hence the correct answer is 5.1%.

Explanation

The article notes that the strong IIP growth does not reconcile with the core sector index (which was second-lowest in 21 months) and that the belated shift to PPI suggests an unsystematic approach. The core sector has a significant weight in IIP, so the divergence raises doubts about what exactly is being measured. Options B, C, and D are either incomplete or unsupported by the article.

Explanation

FCRA is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), as foreign contributions are considered a matter of internal security. The MHA issues and cancels FCRA licences and ensures compliance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: FCRA was enacted in 1976. Statement 2 is incorrect: The 2020 amendment prohibited onward transfer of foreign contributions to partner organisations. Statement 3 is correct: The 2026 rules indeed require disclosure of social media accounts and publications by key functionaries.

Explanation

The article clearly states that nearly 20,000 organisations had lost their FCRA licences in the last 12 years as of March 2026. This data point is important for prelims factual questions.

Explanation

The article argues that the 2026 rules deepen a regulatory framework that treats independent civic action as a source of risk rather than a democratic asset, expanding executive discretion over who may receive foreign funds and on what terms. The other options are not supported; the 20% cap was set in 2020 and remains, funding is not increased, and requirements for religious organisations are tightened, not relaxed.

Explanation

The UMEED portal was launched by the Ministry of Minority Affairs. Other ministries like Finance or Law are not directly responsible for waqf properties. This is a standard static linkage question linking a scheme to its nodal ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: UMEED portal launched June 6, 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: Rajasthan (37%) has the highest rejection rate, not UP (22.23%). Statement 3 is correct: the process has three layers—initiator (mutawalli), checker (district/board official), approver (senior board official). Hence option C.

Explanation

The article states 88,571 applications were rejected, accounting for 11% of the total 7,95,784. Other options are distractors: 1,34,545 is West Bengal's total applications; 1,60,857 is Uttar Pradesh's total; 5,87,804 is the number approved.

Explanation

The article repeatedly highlights the legal vacuum: the Waqf Act does not specify what happens to properties rejected on the portal. Mutawallis and boards are uncertain, with no government clarity. While other options may be tangential, the core legal issue is the absence of a roadmap.

Explanation

The Act provides that each Advisory Board shall comprise a Chairperson who is or has been a High Court judge and two members qualified to be appointed as High Court judges. This is similar to the composition under the National Security Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: detention can be confirmed for up to 12 months. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Act specifically targets persons classified as 'goondas' as defined in Section 2(d), not any IPC offender. Statement 3 is incorrect: Section 10(4) states that a detained person shall NOT ordinarily be represented by a legal practitioner before the Advisory Board.

Explanation

The Act explicitly states that a person may be detained for a maximum period of 12 months once a detention order is confirmed. This aligns with the National Security Act, but differs from other state laws. The other options are distractors.

Explanation

The article highlights that the Act permits preventive detention without a criminal trial and restricts legal representation (Section 10(4)), which has drawn criticism. Option A is wrong because preventive detention laws already exist (NSA, PASA). Option C is wrong because it targets individuals classified as 'goondas'. Option D is wrong because the Advisory Board, not the Supreme Court, reviews orders.

Explanation

GST stands for Goods and Services Tax, a comprehensive indirect tax levied on the supply of goods and services in India. It is mentioned in the article as the tax whose collections are reported.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: gross collections rose 13.9% to ₹1.95 lakh crore. Statement 2 is incorrect: import revenues rose 34.6%, not 6.5% (domestic transactions grew 6.5%). Statement 3 is correct: net collection after refunds was over ₹1.62 lakh crore, up 11.2%. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that import revenues rose 34.6% to ₹60,038 crore. The other options are distractors: 6.5% is domestic transaction growth, 13.9% is gross collection growth, and 29.1% is refund growth.

Explanation

With import revenues growing at 34.6% compared to domestic transactions at 6.5%, the higher contribution to overall GST growth came from imports. This suggests import-dependent sectors were more active, possibly due to increased trade or compliance improvements.

Explanation

The article quotes the Director-General of the India Meteorological Department (IMD), Mrutyunjay Mohapatra, highlighting that IMD is the nodal agency for monsoon forecasting. While INCOIS provides ocean state forecasts, and IITM conducts research, IMD is the official weather department under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: positive IOD means warmer western and cooler eastern Indian Ocean, which aids monsoon. Statement 2 is false: the article says 1997 saw surplus rainfall (not drought) due to a positive IOD. Statement 3 is correct: that event highlighted the IOD's ability to override El Niño. Hence (C) is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that despite a 'fierce' El Niño, the 1997 monsoon ended up being 'surplus, about 2% above normal'. Options A and D are close distractors but not mentioned. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

A positive IOD warms the western Indian Ocean, creating a temperature gradient that drives stronger westerly winds (from Africa toward India), carrying more moisture and enhancing rainfall. This mechanism can offset the subsidence caused by El Niño. Options A and D are inaccurate; option C is not the primary reason.

Explanation

The article states that Crimea, seized from Ukraine in 2014, saw the Moscow-installed authorities enact fuel rationing in May 2026 and halt sales to civilians. The other options are other Russian peninsulas not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the AP count of over 50 attacks. Statement 2 is incorrect – the drop in crude processing was 25% (to 3.95 mbpd), not 17% (17% is the drop in gasoline production). Statement 3 is correct: repair of Moscow Oil Refinery is expected to take at least three months. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'the amount of crude oil Russia processed into fuel in June was down 25% from a year ago, to 3.95 million barrels per day'. The 17% figure refers to gasoline production drop, and the other percentages are distractors.

Explanation

The article states: 'Ukrainian officials describe the strikes as a campaign to pressure Moscow to end the war by undermining its military logistics and supply lines and weakening its ability to mount assaults along the front.' The other options are not mentioned as objectives.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that UPDIC is strategically developed by UPEIDA. UPEIDA is the nodal authority for expressways and industrial corridors in Uttar Pradesh, making it the implementing body for this defence corridor.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions six nodes and launch in 2018. Statement 2 is incorrect: 1,141.79 hectares were allotted, not 1,500. Statement 3 is correct: BrahMos Aerospace's ₹300 crore facility in Lucknow is producing the BrahMos NG missile. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that UPDIC has attracted investment proposals worth ₹39,571.09 crore. The other options are specific figures: ₹13,486 crore is the value of projects already grounded, ₹12,948 crore is Kanpur's node investment, and ₹1,500 crore is Adani Defence's individual facility.

Explanation

The article highlights that UPDIC is reinforcing India's commitment to Atmanirbhar Bharat (self-reliance) in defence manufacturing, while also contributing to UP's $1 trillion economy goal. The corridor's six nodes ensure balanced development. Options A, C, and D are not the primary objective as stated.

Explanation

The Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is part of the US Department of the Treasury and is responsible for administering and enforcing economic sanctions, including the SDN List mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article confirms deletion from the SDN List. Statement 2 is also correct as the article mentions they were accused of supplying dual-use equipment. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article does not state that the US President directly announced the delisting; it was an OFAC action.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Galaxy Bearings Ltd was sanctioned in October 2024, and the other companies were sanctioned around the same period for similar reasons.

Explanation

The delisting reduces the risk of punitive US actions against Indian entities, enabling India to maintain its strategic and economic ties with Russia without immediate US sanctions, reflecting India's balancing act in foreign policy.

Explanation

The Ministry of Finance releases monthly GST collection data. It oversees the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) which implements GST. The other ministries are not directly involved in tax administration.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Gross GST collection was Rs 1.95 lakh crore with 13.9% YoY growth. Statement 2 is incorrect: Import GST growth in June was 34.6%, not 19.1% (19.1% was May's growth). Statement 3 is correct: Refunds rose 29.1% to Rs 32,436 crore. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that gross GST collection in June 2026 was Rs 1.95 lakh crore. Rs 1.94 lakh crore was the collection in May 2026. Rs 2.43 lakh crore is the record high in April 2026. Rs 1.62 lakh crore is the net GST revenue after refunds.

Explanation

KPMG's Abhishek Jain noted that the exceptional growth in import GST could partly be due to rupee depreciation, while officials also pointed to rising prices of memory chips, copper, and aluminium. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The commission held that prior consent is mandatory under the ART (Regulation) Act, 2021 for procedures involving embryos, and that destruction of embryos without explicit consent constituted a direct breach of statutory obligations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the embryos were discarded within 2 months, while the cryopreservation period was valid until March 4, 2025. Statement 2 is correct: the commission awarded ₹5 lakh compensation and ₹30,000 litigation costs. Statement 3 is incorrect because the clinic failed to file its written version within the prescribed time, resulting in forfeiture of its right to defend.

Explanation

The commission awarded ₹5 lakh as compensation for mental agony, inconvenience, health issues, and financial loss, along with ₹30,000 towards litigation costs. The complainants had originally sought over ₹30 lakh including punitive damages, but the commission declined the higher amount and treatment expense reimbursement.

Explanation

The ruling emphasized that prior consent is mandatory under the ART (Regulation) Act, 2021 for procedures involving embryos. The clinic's act of discarding embryos without the couple's knowledge or consent was held to be a breach of statutory obligations, negligence, and unfair trade practice.

Explanation

The article clearly states that NMHC is a project of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways along with the Government of Gujarat. This ministry often handles maritime-related cultural projects. Option A (Ministry of Culture) is a common distractor as many museums fall under it, but NMHC is under the ports ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Lothal has the earliest known man-made dockyard (Harappan). Statement 2 is false: the article says Phase I includes a 14-gallery maritime museum, not 7. Statement 3 is correct: the architecture draws from Harappan planning (upper/lower citadels, water management). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states the complex is spread across 'nearly 400 acres'. Option A (200 acres) is too low; options C and D are higher. This data point is important for Prelims as a direct fact.

Explanation

The article quotes the architects stating they wanted to move away from static history and create an 'immersive learning environment' where visitors engage through movement, atmosphere, and participation. Options A and D contradict the stated goals, while B is incorrect because the design uses Harappan principles but does not merely replicate.

Explanation

The article mentions MoS Pabitra Margherita from the Ministry of External Affairs representing India at the funeral, highlighting MEA's role in diplomatic engagements.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per article: Modi visited Tel Aviv Feb 25-26, attack on Iran Feb 28. Statement 2 is incorrect: India sent MoS Pabitra Margherita and Bihar Governor, not the Minister of External Affairs. Statement 3 is correct: the article warns that greater alignment with Israel could push Tehran into the China-Pakistan strategic embrace.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the US and Israel launched their coordinated attack on Iran on February 28, 2026, just after PM Modi's visit to Tel Aviv on Feb 25-26.

Explanation

The article argues that greater alignment with Israel risks pushing Tehran further into the China-Pakistan strategic embrace. Given Iran's ability to threaten the Strait of Hormuz through which India's oil imports transit, this would directly compromise India's energy security.

Explanation

The judgment was delivered by the Gauhati High Court (bench of Chief Justice Ashutosh Kumar and Justice Arun Dev Choudhury). The official name is Gauhati High Court, not Guwahati, though the city is spelled Guwahati. 'Assam High Court' does not exist; the high court for Assam is the Gauhati High Court. The Supreme Court is a higher court but did not deliver this ruling.

Explanation

Statement 1 is false because the court explicitly stated that such documents establish identity but not title. Statement 2 is correct; the court accepted GIS maps as modern representation of original boundaries. Statement 3 is false; the Taungya system was a temporary arrangement and does not create permanent rights. Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions Barapani, Lutumai, and Kaki reserve forests in Nagaon district. Kaziranga is a national park (not a reserve forest in this context), Manas is a tiger reserve, and Dibru-Saikhowa is a national park. Option A is the correct set of reserve forests from the judgment.

Explanation

The court repeatedly emphasized that Aadhaar, voter ID, ration cards, electricity connections, and panchayat certificates only serve administrative purposes (identity, elections, PDS, power supply) and do not operate as instruments of title. Adverse possession (option A) is inapplicable against the state in reserve forests. Option B contradicts the ruling. Option D is false; Taungya is temporary. Hence option C best captures the core principle.

Explanation

The article states that 'The Ministry of Railways has approved multiple projects'. Railway projects in India are under the exclusive purview of the Ministry of Railways, which also oversees all 18 railway zones including ECR, Eastern Railway, and SER.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'The Mansi-Saharsa railway line doubling project... falls under the administrative jurisdiction of East Central Railway (ECR).' Statement 2 is incorrect because the project replaces 'relay-based interlocking systems with modern Electronic Interlocking (EI)' — not the other way around. Statement 3 is correct: 'The project will lay 48-fibre OFC over 1,696.2 route kilometres (RKm) across four divisions' of SER.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The Mansi-Saharsa railway line doubling project in Bihar has been approved at Rs 499 crore.' ₹432 crore is the cost of the Electronic Interlocking project, ₹200 crore is for the OFC project, and ₹1,131 crore is the total of all three projects.

Explanation

The article states: 'Electronic Interlocking is a modern signalling technology that replaces ageing relay-based systems with computer-based interlocking, ensuring higher reliability, faster fault diagnosis, easier maintenance and enhanced operational flexibility.' Options A and C are incorrect as speed increase and doubling are objectives of other projects. Option D is for the OFC project.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the US has declared the IRGC as a Foreign Terrorist Organisation. The IRGC is a branch of Iran's armed forces responsible for protecting the regime.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the 14-point pact was signed June 17 with a 60-day deadline. Statement 2 is incorrect: Israel was not part of the negotiations and opposed the deal. Statement 3 is correct: Ghalibaf said Iran is prepared for war if dialogue fails.

Explanation

The article quotes Ghalibaf saying 'more than 50 barrels of oil going out of Iran' since the blockade was lifted, compared to zero exports in the prior 50-60 days.

Explanation

The article states that Israeli officials said the agreement 'does not resolve any of the war's primary motives – which were to eliminate Iran's nuclear program and demolish its regime.' While Israel was not part of negotiations, the core objection is the pact's failure to address these goals.

Explanation

Article 22 deals with protection against arrest and detention in certain cases, including preventive detention. It allows the state to enact laws for preventive detention subject to safeguards provided in clauses (4) to (7). The Bengal Public Safety Bill exercises this constitutional power.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article explicitly says 'every award is final, with no appeal to any court'. Statement 2 is correct: detention cannot exceed 12 months. Statement 3 is correct: the definition of 'goonda' in the bill includes a person 'generally reputed to be desperate and dangerous to the community'.

Explanation

The article states: 'Ordinarily, the person must have a conviction in the preceding seven years, or at least three separate charge-sheets.' Thus, if there is no conviction, at least three charge-sheets are needed for the detention order.

Explanation

The article clearly states the bill 'establishes a legal framework for claiming compensation for damage caused to public and private property during incidents like riots or anti-social activities.' The other options are either features of the Public Safety Bill (option D) or not stated (options A and C).

Explanation

The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) is the nodal ministry for all national highway projects in India, including NH-148AE (Dwarka tunnel) and the Kanpur-Kabrai highway (part of Kanpur-Bhopal economic corridor). The Union Cabinet approval is required for projects above a certain cost threshold, but implementation falls under MoRTH.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the Dwarka tunnel uses the Hybrid Annuity Mode (HAM), not BOT. Statement 2 is correct: the ridge tunnel of 3.1 km will be bored using a TBM. Statement 3 is correct: the highway has design speed 80-100 kmph and travel time reduction from 3.5 to 1.5 hours as per the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the Dwarka tunnel project cost is ₹6,970 crore. ₹7,145 crore is the cost of the Kanpur-Kabrai highway (distractor). 8.1 km is the length (distractor). ₹6,700 crore is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article clearly states the tunnel will help decongest the Dhaula-Kuan-IGI Airport, Chhatarpur-Mahipalpur, and Rangpuri bottlenecks. While it does connect Dwarka to AIIMS area, the stated objective is decongestion. Option A is wrong (aggregate mining is for Kabrai highway). Option C is inaccurate (it's a tunnel, not elevated road; also not directly to AIIMS). Option D is partially true but too narrow.

Explanation

The report was jointly published by Oxford Economics, a UK-based economic research firm, and Digital Prosperity Asia, as mentioned in the article. NITI Aayog, MeitY, and RBI are not mentioned as publishers.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: ₹30,400 crore is the potential additional VC investment under an enabling approach, not a loss. Statement 3 is correct: 42% of startups reported increased customer trust. Thus option B is correct.

Explanation

The report's economic modelling indicates that a shift to a restrictive environment could lead to a 25% reduction in annual VC investment, representing a loss of approximately ₹91,500 crore each year. ₹30,400 crore is the potential additional VC under an enabling approach.

Explanation

Around 44% of respondents identified data governance rules as the primary area of concern, making it the top issue. AI (23%), cybersecurity (20%), and platform rules (13%) were other concerns cited in the report.

Explanation

According to the article, the Kerala government runs VISL, a special-purpose company fully owned by the government. It acts as landlord and project owner, while AVPPL is the private concessionaire.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the CM stated that as per the concession agreement, prior approval of the state government is needed for ownership change. Statement 2 is incorrect: MSC acquired a 49% stake, not 51%. Statement 3 is correct: the article states commercial operations began in December 2024.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that MSC's terminal wing TiL took a 49% stake worth ₹13,000 crore in AVPPL. This is the single largest foreign private investment in Indian port infrastructure. The other figures: ₹8,860 crore is the first phase project cost, ₹2,454 crore is Adani's investment, and ₹1,635 crore is the viability gap funding.

Explanation

The Kerala CM stated that the state was not consulted and that the deal without prior approval violates the concession agreement. Both the CM and opposition leader flagged the danger of monopoly – that if a single firm (Adani-MSC combine) controls the port, it could lead to unfair conditions for other users. The article does not mention FDI violation (option A), revenue reduction (option C), or MSC being Chinese (option D).

Explanation

Section 9 of the Foreigners Act, 1946 explicitly states that when a question arises whether a person is a foreigner, the burden of proving that he is not a foreigner lies upon that person. Sections 6, 7, and 8 deal with other aspects like penalties and powers of authorities.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Gauhati HC dismissed the petition, upholding the Tribunal's order. Statement 2 is incorrect – the petitioner produced 15 documents, not 20. Statement 3 is correct because the court noted inconsistencies that prevented linking the petitioner to his ancestors, whose presence before 1966 was claimed but not proven. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the petitioner exhibited 15 documents (Ext. A to Ext. N) including NRC 1951, voter lists, PAN card, EPIC, and school certificate. The other options are distractors – 10 and 12 are lower, 18 is higher than the actual count.

Explanation

The court observed that despite 15 documents, there were discrepancies in names (spellings), ages (e.g., 25 years in 1979 shown as 29 in 1989), and residence across three villages, indicating separate families. This meant the petitioner could not prove that his ancestors had been in India since before 1966. Oral testimony alone was not enough. The other options are not mentioned or incorrect.

Explanation

The bill was introduced by the Maharashtra government on Wednesday, July 1, 2026, as per the news article. The other states are not mentioned in connection with this bill.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the bill explicitly defines woman farmer without requiring land ownership. Statement 2 is incorrect because the bill's entire purpose is to remove land ownership as a precondition. Statement 3 is correct as the bill establishes a Women Farmer Empowerment Council, Cell, State Monitoring Committee, and Women Farmers Fund.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the bill provides for 'Woman Farmer Certificate' which enables access to entitlements, benefits, subsidies, services, and credit. Other options are either existing schemes or misnomers.

Explanation

The statement of objects and reasons explains that the land ownership precondition made schemes inaccessible to most women farmers. The bill addresses this by recognising women as farmers based on engagement and issuing certificates for scheme access, not by changing land ownership or providing universal cash transfers.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'the implementation of GRAP ... is overseen by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM).' This body was established to coordinate air pollution control in the National Capital Region.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the restriction period is Nov 1 to Feb 28. Statement 2 is correct because only vehicles below BS-VI are barred, so BS-VI vehicles are allowed. Statement 3 is incorrect because DMRC-owned parking facilities are specifically exempted from the doubling of charges.

Explanation

The article states that Delhi's median AQI ranged between 312 and 342 ('very poor') during those winters. Option C (461-494) is the peak AQI range, not median.

Explanation

The article explicitly says the move 'seeks to reduce disruptions to workplaces, educational institutions and transport through advance planning while addressing long-standing criticism that pollution-control restrictions under GRAP are largely reactive as they are implemented as air quality deteriorates.'

Explanation

The project is a highway project approved by the Union Cabinet. The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) is the nodal ministry for all national highway projects in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the highway is part of the Kanpur-Bhopal economic corridor. Statement 2 is correct: the project will provide seamless connectivity between the Bundelkhand Expressway and the Kanpur Ring Road. Statement 3 is incorrect: the project covers logistics nodes including railway stations (Kanpur, Ghatampur, Hamirpur, Mahoba, Kabrai, Bharwa Sumerpur, Banda Railway Stations), so it does include railway connectivity.

Explanation

The Union Cabinet approved the project at a cost of ₹7,145 crore. The other options are close distractors to test attention to the exact figure mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The project aims to create a modern access-controlled economic corridor linking the industrial and commercial centres of Uttar Pradesh with mineral-rich, manufacturing and agricultural regions of Madhya Pradesh, improving logistics efficiency and regional development. Option A is partially correct (it connects Kanpur to Kabrai, not Bhopal directly; Bhopal is onward connectivity). Option C is wrong: it reduces time between Kanpur-Kabrai, not Kanpur-Delhi. Option D is too broad and not accurate as the news only mentions specific cities.