29 June 2026, Questions & Answers
156 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
156 questions · 0 topics covered · 32 min revision
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This page contains 156 current affairs questions with answers from 29 June 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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156 QsWhich of the following is the official name of the India-UK Free Trade Agreement (FTA) mentioned in the article?
- A.Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA)
- B.Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.India-UK Trade Enhancement Agreement (IUTEA)
- D.Strategic Trade and Investment Framework Agreement (STIFA)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the UK-India FTA is formally known as the Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA). CEPA is a different type of agreement used in other contexts (e.g., India-UAE).
Consider the following statements regarding the India-UK CETA:
1. The agreement is the most economically significant trade deal the UK has done since leaving the European Union.
2. India will remove or reduce tariffs on 99% of its tariff lines for UK products.
3. The deal includes India's first-ever standalone chapters on anti-corruption, gender, and development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article calls it 'the most economically significant trade deal that the U.K. has done since leaving the European Union'. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article states '99% of U.K. tariff lines will be duty-free for Indian products', not the other way around. Statement 3 is correct: the deal includes India's first standalone chapters on anti-corruption, gender, and development.
According to the article, what is the projected annual increase in bilateral trade between India and the UK from the CETA in the long run?
- A.£4.8 billion
- B.£5.1 billion
- C.£25.5 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.£48 billion
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Explanation
The article states the FTA is forecast to 'increase bilateral trade by £25.5 billion every year in the long run'. £4.8 billion is the projected boost to UK GDP, £5.1 billion is for India's GDP, and £48 billion was the existing bilateral trade in 2025.
Which of the following best describes the primary benefit of the 'improved customs provisions' included in the India-UK CETA?
- A.Increasing tariff revenue for both governments
- B.Reducing red tape and helping goods reach markets faster, especially for SMEs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Providing new rules for intellectual property rights enforcement
- D.Establishing a common currency for bilateral trade
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that improved customs provisions will 'help goods reach markets faster — particularly valuable for small and medium-sized enterprises (SMEs) that cannot afford excessive red tape'. This is a trade facilitation measure, not about revenue generation, IPR, or a common currency.
Which ministry issued the notification to expand Schedule H2 drug traceability requirements to entire therapeutic classes?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers
- D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
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Explanation
The news explicitly states that the Health Ministry issued the notification to expand Schedule H2 drugs. The other ministries are not directly responsible for drug regulatory frameworks under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act.
Consider the following statements regarding the QR code-based drug traceability framework in India:
1. The expanded QR code requirement under Schedule H2 now applies to entire therapeutic classes instead of a curated list of brands.
2. The Jan Vishwas Act 2026 treats all compliance failures uniformly without distinguishing between procedural and substantial non-compliance.
3. The new framework aims to address concerns raised by the US FDA and European Medicines Agency about quality control.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article says the Health Ministry expanded Schedule H2 to entire therapeutic classes. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Jan Vishwas Act 2026 actually distinguishes between procedural and substantial non-compliance, considering only the latter as meaningful enforcement. Statement 3 is correct because the article mentions that the new system addresses recurring concerns of US FDA and European Medicines Agency.
In which year was Schedule H2 initially introduced requiring barcodes or QR codes on specific drug packs?
- A.2021-22
- B.2022-23✓ Correct Answer
- C.2023-24
- D.2025-26
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Explanation
The article explicitly states 'The government had introduced Schedule H2 in 2022-23'. The other options are close distractors, but 2022-23 is the correct year mentioned in the news.
What is the primary objective of expanding the QR code requirement to entire therapeutic classes under Schedule H2?
- A.To increase revenue from pharmaceutical exports
- B.To better track defective batches and combat counterfeit drugs✓ Correct Answer
- C.To simplify packaging regulations for MSME manufacturers
- D.To align with international patent protection norms
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Explanation
The article states that authorities hope to 'better track down defective batches' and mentions concerns about counterfeit networks targeting vaccines, cancer medicines, and antimicrobials. While MSME compliance is a challenge, it is not the objective. Revenue and patent alignment are not mentioned as primary goals.
Which corps of the Indian Army is set to host the first Integrated Battle Groups (IBGs)?
- A.IX Corps
- B.XVII Mountain Strike Corps✓ Correct Answer
- C.XXXIII Corps
- D.59 Division
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Explanation
The article states that the IBGs will be carved out of the Panagarh-based XVII Corps (Mountain Strike Corps) facing China. The other options are distractors: IX Corps was used for test-bedding, XXXIII Corps is not mentioned, and 59 Division is a division under XVII Corps.
Consider the following statements regarding Integrated Battle Groups (IBGs):
1. Each IBG will be commanded by a Major General rank officer.
2. Each IBG will comprise over 5,000 troops with 12-13 units.
3. The IBG concept was test-bedded at IX Corps in 2020.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Each IBG will be commanded by a Major General rank officer. Statement 2 is correct: Each IBG will comprise over 5,000 troops with 12-13 units. Statement 3 is incorrect: The concept was test-bedded at IX Corps around 2019, not 2020. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
How many Integrated Battle Groups (IBGs) will be created under the XVII Mountain Strike Corps?
- A.2
- B.3
- C.4✓ Correct Answer
- D.5
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Explanation
According to the article, four IBGs and a fire support group will be created under the XVII Mountain Strike Corps. The fire support group is separate, so the correct number of IBGs is 4. Option D (5) would include the fire support group, which is not an IBG.
What is the primary tactical advantage of Integrated Battle Groups (IBGs) over traditional corps-level formations?
- A.Increased firepower through heavier artillery
- B.Rapid deployment in mountainous areas without waiting for full corps mobilisation✓ Correct Answer
- C.Reduction in overall troop numbers
- D.Integration with the Indian Air Force for joint operations
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Explanation
The article emphasises that IBGs are agile and self-contained, allowing rapid deployment in mountainous terrain, eliminating the wait for the entire corps (up to 1 lakh troops) to mobilise. While other options may be benefits, this is the core advantage explicitly stated.
Which parliamentary body is currently examining the One Nation One Election bills?
- A.High-Level Committee (HLC)
- B.Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Standing Committee on Law and Justice
- D.Election Commission of India
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Explanation
The JPC, chaired by PP Chaudhary, was formed after the bills were introduced in Parliament. The HLC (Ram Nath Kovind) submitted the original report, but scrutiny of the legislation is done by the JPC.
Consider the following statements regarding One Nation One Election:
1. The ONOE bill is based on the recommendations of the High-Level Committee chaired by former President Ram Nath Kovind.
2. The JPC has proposed to completely abolish the anti-defection law to facilitate floor crossings.
3. The target for the first fully synchronised election is around the year 2034.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect - the JPC is considering partial relaxation, not abolition. Statement 3 is correct - under the appointed date mechanism, complete synchronisation is expected by 2034.
How many meetings did the Joint Parliamentary Committee hold as of the date of this article?
- A.12
- B.18✓ Correct Answer
- C.24
- D.30
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions 'The Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) has had 18 meetings' during the interaction. The other options are distractors.
What is the primary objective of the 'German model' of constructive vote of no-confidence being studied by the JPC?
- A.To make no-confidence motions more difficult to move
- B.To ensure that a government can only be removed if an alternative majority government is ready✓ Correct Answer
- C.To allow the President to dissolve the House without advice
- D.To extend the term of the Lok Sabha during a political crisis
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Explanation
The German model pairs a no-confidence motion with a confidence motion for an alternative government. This prevents premature dissolutions that would disrupt the ONOE calendar. The article states the committee is examining this model to find a 'middle path' and avoid destabilisation.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for implementing the rural employment guarantee scheme mentioned in the news?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Rural Development✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Labour and Employment
- D.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
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Explanation
The article mentions the Union Rural Development Ministry notified the draft rules for VB-G RAM G. This ministry oversees rural employment and poverty alleviation programs in India.
Consider the following statements regarding VB-G RAM G:
1. It replaces MGNREGA and shifts from a demand-driven to a supply-driven framework.
2. Under the new scheme, the Centre will bear 100% of the wage bill, similar to MGNREGA.
3. The scheme allows for a blackout period of 60 non-working days during peak agricultural season.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly states VB-G RAM G marks a shift from demand-driven to supply-driven. Statement 2 is incorrect because under VB-G RAM G, states must bear 40% of total expenditure, not 100% Centre funding. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions a blackout period of 60 non-working days during peak agricultural season.
What percentage of total expenditure are states required to bear under the new VB-G RAM G scheme, as opposed to the earlier MGNREGA model?
- A.10%
- B.20%
- C.40%✓ Correct Answer
- D.60%
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Explanation
The article states that under VB-G RAM G, a majority of States must bear 40% of the total expenditure. Under MGNREGA, the Centre bore 100% of the wage bill and states paid only a part of the material bill (about 10% of total budget).
What is the primary concern raised by states regarding the financial model of VB-G RAM G?
- A.The scheme does not guarantee any employment days.
- B.States are required to bear a significantly higher share of the total expenditure compared to MGNREGA.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Centre will not provide any funds for the scheme.
- D.The scheme is only applicable to urban areas.
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Explanation
The article highlights that states like Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, and Jharkhand opposed the shift requiring them to bear 40% of total expenditure, a sharp increase from the ~10% material cost they paid under MGNREGA. This increases the financial burden on state governments.
Which committee's recommendation led to the establishment of the 112 Emergency Response Support System in India?
- A.Justice J S Verma Committee✓ Correct Answer
- B.Justice Leila Seth Committee
- C.Justice Gopal Subramanium Committee
- D.Justice Usha Mehra Committee
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Explanation
The article states that the decision to launch 112 ERSS was based on the recommendation of the expert committee on the 2012 Delhi bus gangrape case, known as the Justice J S Verma Committee, which included Justice Leila Seth and Gopal Subramanium.
Consider the following statements regarding Integrated Battle Groups (IBGs):
1. The first IBGs will be established under the XVII Mountain Strike Corps (MSC) facing China.
2. Each IBG is commanded by a Brigadier-rank officer.
3. IBGs are capable of carrying out both offensive and defensive roles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: IBGs are being created from the XVII MSC. Statement 2 is incorrect: each IBG is commanded by a Major General, not a Brigadier (Brigadier is Chief Operations Officer). Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions IBGs can carry out both offensive and defensive roles. Hence option C is correct.
As per the article, how many states and Union Territories have fully integrated all emergency helpline numbers into the 112 Nationwide Emergency Response System?
- A.3
- B.5✓ Correct Answer
- C.7
- D.10
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that only five states and Union Territories — Delhi, Kerala, Gujarat, Haryana and Lakshadweep — have integrated all emergency helpline numbers into the 112 NERS. The other options are distractors; 16 states have partial integration, and 10 have none.
What is the primary objective of India's MAHASAGAR vision as articulated by PM Modi during his visit to Seychelles?
- A.To counter China's influence in the Indian Ocean region
- B.To make the Indian Ocean an ocean of opportunity based on mutual respect and trust✓ Correct Answer
- C.To establish military bases in Seychelles for power projection
- D.To promote India as the sole maritime security provider in the Indian Ocean
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Explanation
The article quotes PM Modi saying 'Our vision is to make the Indian Ocean an Ocean of Opportunity' and emphasizes partnership based on mutual respect and trust, not size. MAHASAGAR builds on SAGAR and focuses on security, sustainability, and prosperity for all, not dominance or countering any specific country.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for India's statistical system and compiles key economic indicators such as GDP and CPI?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.NITI Aayog
- C.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Prime Minister's Office (PMO)
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Explanation
The article repeatedly mentions MoSPI as the nodal ministry responsible for the statistical system, including GDP, CPI, and surveys. The PMO acted as a catalyst, but MoSPI remains the implementing body.
Consider the following statements about the statistical system reforms discussed in the article:
1. PK Mishra is the Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister of India.
2. The Consumer Expenditure Survey for 2017-18 was junked due to budget constraints.
3. The World Bank was part of the initial meeting on statistical reforms in January 2020.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: PK Mishra is Principal Secretary to PM Modi. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the survey was junked due to data quality issues, not budget constraints. Statement 3 is correct: the meeting involved MoSPI, NITI Aayog, and the World Bank.
When did the Prime Minister's Office (PMO) start discussions on improving India's statistical system?
- A.January 2020✓ Correct Answer
- B.July 2023
- C.September 2023
- D.2014
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Explanation
As per the article, discussions in the PMO started in January 2020 with a meeting involving MoSPI, NITI Aayog, and the World Bank. The decision for an in-depth analysis was taken in July 2023, and further issues were identified in September 2023.
According to PK Mishra, what is the primary objective of integrating administrative data (like GST data) into the statistical system?
- A.To completely replace traditional household surveys
- B.To serve as a strategic national asset for timely evidence-based decision-making✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce the government's expenditure on data collection
- D.To increase the frequency of GDP releases
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Explanation
The article quotes Mishra: administrative data should become a 'strategic national asset' to help in timely evidence-based decision-making, improve programme design, and enhance service delivery. It is meant to complement surveys, not replace them entirely.
Which international court case established that ships enjoy unrestricted passage through straits used for international navigation during peacetime, provided the transit does not threaten a coastal state's security?
- A.Lotus case (France v. Turkey)
- B.Corfu Channel (UK v. Albania)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Anglo-Norwegian Fisheries case
- D.Nicaragua v. United States
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Explanation
The article explicitly references the Corfu Channel case of 1949, which ruled that where a strait connects two parts of the high seas and is used for international navigation, ships enjoy unrestricted passage during peacetime so long as security is not threatened.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Strait of Hormuz is considered an 'international strait' under UNCLOS.
2. Iran has ratified the 1982 UNCLOS and is bound by its transit passage provisions.
3. Iran's 1993 'Law of Marine Areas' allows it to suspend passage of foreign ships and require prior authorisation for warships and vessels carrying harmful substances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article states the Strait of Hormuz is generally considered an 'international strait'. Statement 2 is incorrect: Iran signed but never ratified UNCLOS. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions Iran's 1993 law allows suspension and prior authorisation.
In which year did the International Court of Justice deliver the Corfu Channel judgment?
- A.1945
- B.1949✓ Correct Answer
- C.1952
- D.1960
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the Corfu Channel case was of 1949. Option 1945 is too early; 1952 and 1960 are later and incorrect.
What is the primary legal argument used by Iran to justify charging navigation and environmental fees in the Strait of Hormuz, despite the UNCLOS guarantee of free transit passage?
- A.The Strait is part of Iran's territorial waters and falls under full sovereignty.
- B.Iran has ratified UNCLOS with a reservation allowing such fees.
- C.Iran invokes the 'persistent objector' doctrine and its own municipal law (1993 Law of Marine Areas).✓ Correct Answer
- D.The fees are a form of environmental compensation under the UNFCCC.
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Explanation
The article explains that Iran uses the persistent objector argument because it consistently objected to transit passage as customary law, and its 1993 law allows suspension and prior authorisation. The Strait is not solely Iranian territory (shared with Oman), and Iran has not ratified UNCLOS.
Which UN body issued the report accusing Israel of deliberately targeting children and committing genocide in Gaza?
- A.UN Human Rights Council
- B.UN Independent International Commission of Inquiry on Occupied Palestinian Territory✓ Correct Answer
- C.International Court of Justice
- D.International Criminal Court
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions the 'United Nations Independent International Commission of Inquiry on Occupied Palestinian Territory, headed by former Orissa High Court Chief Justice S Muralidhar' as the body that released the report. The UN Human Rights Council established this Commission, but the Commission itself issued the report.
Consider the following statements:
1. The UN Commission report accused Israel of deliberately targeting children during its military operations in Palestine.
2. The report documented 20,179 Palestinian children killed and 44,143 injured between October 7, 2023 and October 2025.
3. Israel responded to the report by denying all evidence and claiming the soldiers' videos were fake.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the report accused Israel of 'deliberately targeting children'. Statement 2 is correct: those numbers are directly from the article. Statement 3 is incorrect: Israel released an 18-page rebuttal but 'did not deny the evidence' and 'did not claim the soldiers' videos were fake' according to the article. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
According to the UN Commission report, how many Palestinian children were orphaned during the period of investigation?
- A.20,179
- B.44,143
- C.58,000✓ Correct Answer
- D.6,000
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Explanation
The article explicitly states 'left over 58,000 children orphaned, said the report.' 20,179 is the number killed, 44,143 is the number injured, and 6,000 is the number of French nationals serving in Israeli forces mentioned later in the article. The correct figure for orphans is 58,000.
What is the primary recommendation of the UN Commission regarding countries that supply arms to Israel?
- A.Increase arms supply to Israel for self-defense
- B.Cease arms supply to avoid aiding and abetting war crimes✓ Correct Answer
- C.Refer the matter to the UN Security Council
- D.Impose economic sanctions on Israel
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Explanation
The article quotes: 'We are also urging countries that supply arms to Israel – and India exports small arms to Israel – to cease doing so... The supplying country cannot escape the charge of aiding and abetting war crimes.' This makes option B correct. Options A, C, and D are not stated in the article.
Which state government department is primarily responsible for implementing the new EV Policy 2.0 in Delhi?
- A.Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
- B.Transport Department of Delhi Government✓ Correct Answer
- C.Delhi Pollution Control Committee
- D.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
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Explanation
The article mentions Transport Secretary and Commissioner Niharika Rai announcing details of the policy, indicating the Transport Department as the implementing body under the Delhi government. The policy relates to vehicle registration, which falls under state transport departments.
Consider the following statements regarding Delhi's EV Policy 2.0:
1. The policy mandates that all new two-wheelers registered in Delhi after April 2028 must be electric.
2. The policy provides a 50% exemption on road tax and registration charges for strong hybrid vehicles.
3. Owners of BS-IV two-wheelers who scrap them will receive an incentive of ₹10,000.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article clearly states that after March 31, 2028, every new two-wheeler sold in Delhi must be electric. Statement 2 is incorrect: the draft had proposed a 50% exemption for strong hybrids, but the final policy excluded it. Statement 3 is correct: the scrapping incentive for BS-IV or older two-wheelers is ₹10,000.
What percentage of Delhi's total vehicle stock do two-wheelers constitute, according to the article?
- A.46%
- B.67%✓ Correct Answer
- C.33%
- D.80%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'two-wheelers constitute approximately 67% of the total vehicle stock in Delhi'. 46% is the contribution of two- and three-wheelers to vehicular pollution load, while 33% is the contribution of commercial goods vehicles. 80% is the share of N1 category among commercial goods vehicles.
What is the primary environmental objective of Delhi's EV Policy 2.0?
- A.To increase government revenue through higher registration fees on EVs
- B.To promote the manufacturing of electric vehicles in Delhi
- C.To reduce vehicular pollution and make Delhi pollution-free by 2030✓ Correct Answer
- D.To phase out all internal combustion engine vehicles within five years
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Explanation
The article quotes Chief Minister Rekha Gupta describing the policy as a major step towards making Delhi pollution-free by March 31, 2030. The policy targets a rapid transition to EVs in two- and three-wheeler segments, which contribute heavily to pollution. Options A and D are not mentioned; option B is a possible side effect but not the primary objective.
Which Ministry is primarily responsible for implementing the Upper Yamuna River Board agreement mentioned in the news?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of Jal Shakti✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- D.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
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Explanation
The news mentions Union Jal Shakti Minister C.R. Patil was present at the MoU signing, indicating that the Ministry of Jal Shakti is the nodal ministry for the Upper Yamuna River Board and implementation of the agreement.
Consider the following statements:
1. The 1994 MoU on Yamuna water allocation included Uttarakhand from its inception.
2. Rajasthan will receive its water share through an underground pipeline from Hathnikund Barrage during monsoon months.
3. The MoU was signed in the presence of Union Home Minister Amit Shah.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because Uttarakhand was included in the MoU after its creation in 2000, not at its inception in 1994. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions an underground pipeline from Hathnikund Barrage. Statement 3 is correct as Union Home Minister Amit Shah chaired the meeting.
In which year was the original Upper Yamuna River Board agreement signed?
- A.1994✓ Correct Answer
- B.2000
- C.2024
- D.2026
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Explanation
The article clearly states the UYRB agreement was signed in 1994. 2000 is the year Uttarakhand was created and included later. 2024 is when the CMs met to prepare DPR. 2026 is when the MoU was signed to implement the agreement.
What is the primary objective of the MoU between Haryana and Rajasthan?
- A.To construct a new dam on the Yamuna river
- B.To resolve water sharing dispute and provide drinking water to water-stressed districts✓ Correct Answer
- C.To generate hydroelectric power from Yamuna river
- D.To implement the river linking project between Yamuna and Narmada
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that the MoU implements a long-pending water sharing agreement and will provide drinking water to drought-prone districts like Churu, Sikar, Jhunjhunu in Rajasthan. Other options are not mentioned in the news.
Which body issued the detailed implementation guidelines for the three-language policy in schools, effective from 2026–27?
- A.Ministry of Education
- B.National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
- C.Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)✓ Correct Answer
- D.National Education Policy (NEP) Implementation Committee
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Explanation
The article states that the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) released detailed implementation guidelines for the three-language policy in its affiliated schools. NCERT is involved in providing textbooks, but the guidelines were issued by CBSE.
Consider the following statements regarding CBSE's three-language policy guidelines:
1. Current Class 10 (2025-26 batch) students are exempt from studying a third language.
2. Class 9 students in 2026-27 will have to appear for a CBSE Board examination in the third language (R3).
3. Students studying two non-native languages (e.g., English and French) are allowed a one-time relaxation to continue both and add one Bhartiya Bhasha as R3.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article explicitly says 'The existing Class 10 batch will continue under the old two-language system'. Statement 2 is incorrect: Class 9 students' third language will be assessed through internal school-based assessment only, not a CBSE Board exam. Statement 3 is correct: the guidelines provide a special one-time relaxation for students studying two non-native languages – they can continue both and add one Bhartiya Bhasha as R3. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.
How many Bhartiya Bhashas have NCERT prepared dedicated R3 textbooks for Class 6 as per the new three-language policy?
- A.15
- B.18
- C.22✓ Correct Answer
- D.25
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions 'NCERT has already prepared dedicated R3 textbooks for Class 6 in 22 scheduled Bhartiya Bhashas, which is available at ncert.nic.in'. The other numbers are distractors; 22 corresponds to the number of Eighth Schedule languages.
What is the primary objective behind CBSE's three-language policy guidelines as derived from the article?
- A.To reduce the number of languages taught in schools to simplify the curriculum
- B.To ensure that every student learns at least two Bhartiya Bhashas (native Indian languages) along with a third language✓ Correct Answer
- C.To make English compulsory as a third language for all students
- D.To increase the number of foreign language options available in schools
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Explanation
The article repeatedly emphasises that the policy requires at least two of the three languages to be Bhartiya Bhashas, and that a non-native language can be taken only if the other two are already Indian. This is the core objective – promoting native Indian languages. Option C is wrong because English is optional as a non-native third language; it is not compulsory. Option A and D are not supported by the article.
Which body constituted the High-Level Committee on Non-Financial Regulatory Reforms (HLC-NFRR) chaired by Rajiv Gauba?
- A.Prime Minister's Office (PMO)
- B.Cabinet Secretariat✓ Correct Answer
- C.NITI Aayog
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The Cabinet Secretariat constituted the High-Level Committee on Non-Financial Regulatory Reforms (HLC-NFRR) under Gauba on August 19, 2025.' The PMO, NITI Aayog, and Ministry of Finance are not mentioned as the constituting body.
Consider the following statements regarding the deregulation meeting chaired by PM Modi:
1. The meeting was held on Tuesday, June 30, 2026, following PM Modi's return from an official visit to Seychelles.
2. The High-Level Committee on Non-Financial Regulatory Reforms is a financial regulatory committee.
3. Each central secretary was allocated a five-minute window to brief the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article says PM concludes his official visit to Seychelles Monday and heads into the briefing on Tuesday. Statement 2 is incorrect: the committee is 'non-financial' regulatory reforms, not financial. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article states each secretary gets a strict three-minute window, not five.
On which date was the High-Level Committee on Non-Financial Regulatory Reforms constituted?
- A.May 21, 2026
- B.August 19, 2025✓ Correct Answer
- C.June 29, 2026
- D.August 19, 2024
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Explanation
The article states: 'The Cabinet Secretariat constituted the High-Level Committee on Non-Financial Regulatory Reforms (HLC-NFRR) under Gauba on August 19, 2025.' The other dates are distractors: May 21 is the joint meeting, June 29 is the article publication, and August 19, 2024 is not mentioned.
What is the primary objective of the deregulation push discussed in the meeting?
- A.To increase government revenue through higher taxes
- B.To improve ease of doing business and ease of living✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce the number of central secretaries
- D.To implement the recommendations of the Finance Commission
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Explanation
The article repeatedly mentions that the deregulation reforms aim to improve 'ease of doing business' and 'ease of living.' Revenue generation, secretarial reduction, or Finance Commission are not the focus. The goal is to create a trust-based regulatory framework for the 21st century.
Which central act has a similar provision of preventive detention for up to 12 months without trial, as mentioned in the West Bengal Bill?
- A.Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967
- B.National Security Act, 1980✓ Correct Answer
- C.Preventive Detention Act, 1950
- D.Maintenance of Internal Security Act, 1971
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Bill's preventive detention provision is similar to the National Security Act, 1980, which allows detention for up to 12 months without trial to maintain public order.
Consider the following statements regarding the West Bengal Public Safety and Control of Anti-Social Activities Bill, 2026:
1. The Bill empowers a police officer not below the rank of DIG to issue externment orders.
2. The definition of 'goonda' includes any person charge-sheeted under Section 111 or 112 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
3. The Bill makes harbouring persons against whom detention orders have been issued a non-cognisable offence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the Bill allows a police officer of rank DIG or above to issue externment orders. Statement 2 is correct: one of the definitions of 'goonda' is a person charge-sheeted under BNS sections 111 or 112. Statement 3 is incorrect: the Bill criminalises harbouring such persons, but the article does not specify it as non-cognisable; it says offences under the Bill are proposed to be cognisable and non-bailable.
According to the West Bengal Bill, what is the maximum period for which a person can be barred from entering a specified district or area?
- A.6 months
- B.1 year✓ Correct Answer
- C.2 years
- D.Indefinite
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Explanation
The article states that the order can prohibit a person from entering or returning to a specified area for a period not exceeding one year.
What is the primary civil liberty concern raised by the West Bengal Bill?
- A.Increased taxation on anti-social elements
- B.Detention without trial for up to 12 months✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ban on political gatherings
- D.Restriction on media reporting
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Explanation
The Bill allows preventive detention for up to 12 months without formal charges or trial, which raises concerns about violation of personal liberty and due process, similar to the NSA.
Which strait is mentioned in the article as the world’s most important energy shipping route?
- A.Strait of Hormuz✓ Correct Answer
- B.Strait of Malacca
- C.Suez Canal
- D.Bab el-Mandeb
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Strait of Hormuz is the world’s most important energy shipping route. The other options are other significant maritime chokepoints but not mentioned in this news.
Consider the following statements:
1. The 14-point memorandum of understanding was signed on 17 June 2026.
2. Iran struck a US military installation in Kuwait causing damage to a residential building.
3. A Qatari national died from shrapnel aboard a vessel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the MOU was signed on 17 June. Statement 2 is incorrect – the article says Iran launched missiles at US bases in Kuwait but Kuwait intercepted them, no damage reported; damage in Bahrain was to a residential building but not to a US installation. Statement 3 is correct: a Qatari national died due to shrapnel aboard a vessel.
How many points does the memorandum of understanding (MOU) mentioned in the article contain?
- A.10
- B.12
- C.14✓ Correct Answer
- D.16
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Explanation
The article refers to a '14-point memorandum of understanding' signed on 17 June. The other numbers are distractors not mentioned in the article.
What was the primary objective of the 14-point MOU signed between the US and Iran?
- A.To halt fighting and reopen the Strait of Hormuz✓ Correct Answer
- B.To establish a permanent peace treaty between the US and Iran
- C.To impose sanctions on Iran’s nuclear programme
- D.To mediate between Israel and Lebanon
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Explanation
The article states the MOU was 'originally designed to halt fighting that the US and Israel began on February 28, and to reopen the Strait of Hormuz while negotiations continued on Iran’s nuclear programme and other outstanding issues.' Option B is wrong because it is an interim accord, not permanent. Options C and D are not the primary objective.
Which authority is responsible for the development of the new industrial hub in Hathras?
- A.Noida Authority
- B.YEIDA✓ Correct Answer
- C.UP State Industrial Development Corporation
- D.Greater Noida Authority
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Explanation
Yamuna Expressway Industrial Development Authority (YEIDA) is the nodal agency under the Uttar Pradesh government, and the project is part of its Master Plan 2041.
Consider the following statements:
1. The proposed Hathras Urban Centre is one of four major urban nodes planned by YEIDA.
2. The project covers 10,000 hectares across 50 villages.
3. The master plan proposes dedicated industrial clusters for food processing, dairy, glass beads, and brass jewellery.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per article: 'one of four major urban nodes planned by YEIDA'. Statement 2 is incorrect: the area is 4,000 hectares (10,000 acres), not 10,000 hectares. Statement 3 is correct: article lists food processing, dairy, glass beads, brass jewellery as industrial clusters.
What is the total number of registered MSME units in Hathras's existing industrial base?
- A.5,000
- B.10,000✓ Correct Answer
- C.15,000
- D.20,000
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Explanation
The article explicitly states 'more than 10,000 registered MSME units' in Hathras's existing industrial base.
What is the primary objective of linking the Hathras industrial hub to the Noida International Airport?
- A.To increase tourism in the region
- B.To provide export-oriented infrastructure for manufacturing and logistics✓ Correct Answer
- C.To build a residential satellite town for airport employees
- D.To reduce pollution in Agra
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Explanation
The article states that the location within the airport's catchment area, along with connectivity via Yamuna Expressway, is expected to attract manufacturing and logistics investments. The project aims to build on the existing MSME base and ODOP industries with export-oriented infrastructure.
Which ministry is responsible for releasing the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) data?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- C.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Labour and Employment
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation released the IIP data. This ministry is responsible for compilation and dissemination of economic statistics including IIP, CPI, and GDP estimates.
Consider the following statements regarding the IIP data for May 2026:
1. The overall IIP growth quickened to a five-month high of 5.1%.
2. The electricity and gas supply sector grew at a two-year high due to early monsoon rains.
3. The new IIP series uses the Producer Price Index instead of the Wholesale Price Index.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article attributes the electricity sector growth to a 'delayed monsoon and higher temperatures,' not early monsoon. Statement 3 is correct as the article states that WPI was replaced by PPI. Hence option C is correct.
What was the growth rate of the manufacturing sector in May 2026 according to the IIP data?
- A.4.2%
- B.5.5%✓ Correct Answer
- C.6.1%
- D.7.2%
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the manufacturing sector grew by 5.5% in May 2026. 4.2% was the growth in May last year, 6.1% was the April 2026 figure, and 7.2% is the consumer durables growth rate. These are common distractors.
Why did the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation decide to replace the Wholesale Price Index with the Producer Price Index in the new IIP series?
- A.To align with international best practices and improve inflation measurement
- B.Because WPI was outdated and no longer reflected current production costs
- C.To adopt PPI as a more suitable measure for value-based outputs in the IIP✓ Correct Answer
- D.To simplify the calculation process and reduce data collection costs
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Explanation
The article states that the Ministry decided to discontinue the use of WPI in the measurement of 'some value-based outputs' and adopted PPI 'for the purpose.' Options A and B are not explicitly mentioned in the article, so only C is supported by the given text.
Which educational board issued the revised circular relaxing the three‑language policy for Classes 7, 8, and 9?
- A.NCERT
- B.CBSE✓ Correct Answer
- C.CISCE
- D.NIOS
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Explanation
The article states that the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) issued the revised guidelines. NCERT is a curriculum development body, CISCE is another board, NIOS is for open schooling – only CBSE is directly involved here.
Consider the following statements regarding the CBSE three‑language policy:
1. The relaxation applies to the current batches of Classes 7, 8, and 9.
2. The original May circular required students to take two foreign languages.
3. Under the relaxation, students may continue with two foreign languages and one additional Indian language (Bhartiya Bhasha).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 3
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the relaxation is for current Classes 7,8,9. Statement 2 is incorrect: the original May circular mandated two Indian languages, not foreign languages. Statement 3 is correct: students can keep two foreign languages and add one Indian language. Hence option C is correct.
Which classes are covered by the CBSE three‑language policy relaxation announced on June 29, 2026?
- A.Classes 7 and 8 only
- B.Classes 7, 8, and 9✓ Correct Answer
- C.Classes 9, 10, and 11
- D.Classes 6, 7, and 8
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Explanation
As per the news, the revised guidelines apply to the 'current batches of Classes 7, 8, and 9'. Options A, C, D are incorrect as they exclude or include wrong grades.
What was the primary reason for CBSE to relax the three‑language policy for the current batches?
- A.A legal order from the Supreme Court
- B.Protests from parents of students learning foreign languages✓ Correct Answer
- C.Recommendation from the National Education Policy review committee
- D.Low student performance in Indian language examinations
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that parents of students studying foreign languages (French, German, etc.) protested the abrupt mid‑session switch, leading CBSE to revise its circular. The other options are not mentioned in the news.
Which statutory body under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 is responsible for overseeing tiger conservation in India?
- A.Wildlife Institute of India
- B.National Tiger Conservation Authority✓ Correct Answer
- C.Project Tiger Directorate
- D.Central Zoo Authority
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Explanation
NTCA is the statutory body established under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 for tiger conservation. WII is an autonomous research institute, Project Tiger is a scheme, and Central Zoo Authority deals with zoos.
Consider the following statements:
1. The first tiger reintroduction in India was carried out in Sariska Tiger Reserve in 2008 using tigers from Ranthambore.
2. Satkosia Tiger Reserve recorded zero tigers in 2026 despite a reintroduction programme starting in 2018.
3. The overall tiger population across 12 reserves increased by 658% from 38 to 288 over 16 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1 and 2
- B.(B) Only 2 and 3
- C.(C) Only 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: first reintroduction was in Sariska (2008) from Ranthambore. Statement 2 is correct: Satkosia had zero tigers in 2026 despite starting in 2018. Statement 3 is correct: population increased 658% from 38 to 288.
According to the NTCA-WII report, how many tigers were recorded in the 12 tiger reserves after 16 years of the reintroduction programme?
- A.38
- B.56
- C.288✓ Correct Answer
- D.658
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Explanation
The report states that the current population of tigers across the 12 reserves analysed is 288, which is 658% more than the initial 38. 56 is Sariska's count, 38 is the baseline, and 658% is the percentage increase, not the number.
What was the primary reason for the failure of tiger reintroduction in Satkosia Tiger Reserve according to the NTCA-WII report?
- A.Insufficient forest cover and small protected area
- B.Lack of historical tiger presence
- C.Human-tiger conflict, prey depletion, and lack of social acceptance✓ Correct Answer
- D.Poor genetic diversity of translocated tigers
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Explanation
The report explicitly states that challenges included adaptation difficulties, human-tiger conflict, livestock depredation, and negative local responses. The area had sufficient forest cover and historical tiger presence, and genetics weren't cited as the issue.
Which Chinese ministry imposed the export controls on Japanese entities?
- A.Ministry of Foreign Affairs
- B.Ministry of Commerce✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of National Defense
- D.Ministry of State Security
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Commerce Ministry issued the statement and the control list. The Ministry of Commerce is responsible for export controls and trade regulations in China.
Consider the following statements:
1. China imposed export controls on 40 Japanese entities, all of which are placed on a control list that prohibits any sale of dual-use items.
2. The watch list for dual-use items includes Japanese companies like Mitsui E&S, which requires Chinese exporters to apply for special licences.
3. The Chinese Commerce Ministry stated that the measures are aimed at deterring Japan's remilitarisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Only 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because only 20 entities are on the control list, not all 40. The other 20 are on a watch list with conditional restrictions. Statement 2 is correct: the watch list includes Mitsui E&S and requires licences, risk assessments, and pledges. Statement 3 is correct as per the Chinese Commerce Ministry statement.
How many Japanese entities were placed on the watch list for dual-use items by China?
- A.20✓ Correct Answer
- B.40
- C.60
- D.80
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Explanation
The article clearly states that 20 entities were placed on a watch list, and another 20 on a control list, totalling 40. Option A (20) matches the watch list count. Options B and C are distractors.
What is the primary reason cited by China for imposing these export controls on Japanese entities?
- A.Japan's alleged remilitarisation and pursuit of offensive capabilities✓ Correct Answer
- B.Japan's trade surplus with China
- C.Intellectual property theft by Japanese companies
- D.Japan's refusal to join the Belt and Road Initiative
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Explanation
The Chinese Commerce Ministry statement explicitly said the measures are aimed at deterring Japan's 'reckless pursuit of new militarism.' The article links this to Japan's missile deployments, revised defence documents, and stance on Taiwan. The other options are not mentioned in the article.
Which of the following is a type of memory chip produced by stacking multiple layers of DRAM to achieve high bandwidth for AI systems?
- A.SRAM
- B.NAND Flash
- C.HBM (High-Bandwidth Memory)✓ Correct Answer
- D.EEPROM
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Explanation
The article states that HBM chips are produced by stacking multiple layers of DRAM and are pivotal in the global race to build advanced AI systems. SRAM, NAND Flash, and EEPROM are other types of memory but not mentioned in this context.
Consider the following statements regarding South Korea's AI-chip investment:
1. The total investment announced is over $576 billion.
2. Samsung and SK Hynix will invest 800 trillion won to build two chip fabrication sites each in the Seoul metropolitan area.
3. The plan aims to double DRAM output within five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article says 'over $576 billion'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the new fabrication sites are in the southwestern region, not the Seoul metropolitan area. Statement 3 is correct: the industry minister said the country will double DRAM output within five years. Hence option C is correct.
According to the news, what is the amount Samsung and SK Hynix plan to invest together (in won) with suppliers for new chip fabrication sites?
- A.576 trillion won
- B.800 trillion won✓ Correct Answer
- C.81 trillion won
- D.5-20 trillion won
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Samsung and SK Hynix will invest 800 trillion won ($518.30 billion) with suppliers to build two new chip fabrication sites each in South Korea's southwest region.' The other options are different amounts mentioned in the article for other components.
What is the primary objective behind South Korea's decision to locate new chip fabrication sites in the southwestern region rather than near Seoul?
- A.To reduce production costs by avoiding high land prices in Seoul
- B.To narrow regional disparities and revive economies beyond the Seoul metropolitan area✓ Correct Answer
- C.To access abundant skilled labour available only in the southwest
- D.To comply with WTO regulations on industrial subsidies
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Explanation
The article states that President Lee's plan aims to align South Korea's AI and chip ambitions with his pledge to narrow regional disparities and revive economies beyond the Seoul metropolitan area. While cost may be a factor, the primary stated objective is regional balance.
Which organization did Deepak Parekh address while presenting his views on banking reforms and housing shortage?
- A.Confederation of Indian Industry (CII)
- B.Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI)
- C.Indian Merchants' Chamber (IMC)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM)
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Explanation
Deepak Parekh delivered the speech at the annual general meeting of the Indian Merchants' Chamber (IMC), as mentioned in the article. IMC is one of the oldest chambers of commerce in India.
Consider the following statements regarding Deepak Parekh's recent speech:
1. He called for further consolidation among public sector banks.
2. He advocated for lowering foreign direct investment limits in public sector banks.
3. He stated that India's corporate bond market needs to double from its current size of 18% of GDP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Parekh called for further consolidation among PSU banks. Statement 2 is incorrect: he advocated for raising, not lowering, FDI limits. Statement 3 is correct: he said the corporate bond market (18% of GDP) needs to double. Hence option C is correct.
According to Deepak Parekh, what is the estimated housing shortage in India over the next five years?
- A.20 million units
- B.30 million units✓ Correct Answer
- C.40 million units
- D.50 million units
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Explanation
The article quotes Parekh: 'India faces a housing shortage estimated at 30 million units just over the next five years.' The annual supply is only around 600,000 units, creating a large gap.
What is the primary implication of Deepak Parekh's suggestion to deepen debt markets through measures like cross-border securitisation and credit default swaps?
- A.To reduce government borrowing costs immediately
- B.To attract foreign investment and diversify the investor base for long-term capital✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase stock market liquidity for retail investors
- D.To lower interest rates on all bank loans
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Explanation
Parekh emphasized the need for a more diversified investor base and deeper markets to meet India's investment requirements. Cross-border securitisation and credit default swaps are tools to attract foreign capital and enhance market depth, not directly to reduce government borrowing or stock liquidity.
Which department is primarily responsible for implementing the Delhi EV Policy 2026?
- A.Delhi Pollution Control Committee
- B.Delhi Transport Department✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- D.Delhi Development Authority
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Explanation
The article states that Niharika Rai, principal secretary and commissioner of Delhi's Transport Department, announced the policy details, indicating the Transport Department is the nodal agency.
Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi EV Policy 2026:
1. The policy provides 100% road tax and registration fee waiver for strong hybrid vehicles up to Rs 30 lakh.
2. Petrol two-wheelers cannot be registered in Delhi after March 31, 2028.
3. The first 1,000 electric N2 trucks purchased within three months of notification will get a waiver of Delhi entry fee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the policy dropped hybrid incentives and only provides 100% waiver for pure EVs. Statement 2 is correct: from April 1, 2028 only electric two-wheelers will be registered. Statement 3 is correct: the policy waives entry fee for the first 1,000 electric N2 trucks bought within three months.
What is the total government investment announced under the Delhi EV Policy 2026 for incentives and charging infrastructure?
- A.Rs 10,000 crore
- B.Rs 12,000 crore
- C.Rs 15,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.Rs 20,000 crore
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Explanation
CM Rekha Gupta stated the government will spend Rs 15,000 crore on incentives and strengthening charging infrastructure. The other options are distractors.
What is the primary objective of mandating that only electric two-wheelers be registered in Delhi from April 2028?
- A.To increase government revenue from registration fees
- B.To reduce vehicular air pollution from the two-wheeler segment✓ Correct Answer
- C.To boost domestic manufacturing of electric motorcycles
- D.To align with central government's FAME III scheme
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Explanation
The article quotes that two- and three-wheelers contribute 46% of vehicular pollution in Delhi. The ban is a direct measure to cut emissions from that segment, with the CM stating the policy aims to reduce air pollution and make Delhi a smart city.
Which organization is responsible for implementing high-speed rail corridor projects in India?
- A.Indian Railways (Ministry of Railways)
- B.National High Speed Rail Corporation Limited (NHSRCL)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL)
- D.National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)
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Explanation
The news explicitly mentions NHSRCL as the corporation inviting bids for design consultancy. NHSRCL is a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) formed for implementing high-speed rail corridors in India, including the Mumbai-Ahmedabad corridor and the new expansion corridors.
Consider the following statements regarding the proposed bullet train corridors:
1. The Bengaluru-Chennai bullet train corridor will have three underground stations: Chennai, Whitefield and Baiyappanahalli.
2. The Delhi-Varanasi bullet train corridor will have two underground stations: Delhi and Varanasi.
3. The total route length of all seven proposed high-speed rail corridors is approximately 4,000 km.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article lists Chennai, Whitefield and Baiyappanahalli as underground stations for the Bengaluru-Chennai corridor. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Delhi-Varanasi corridor has only one underground station at Jewar, not Delhi and Varanasi. Statement 3 is correct: the article states the seven corridors will span around 4,000 route km.
According to the article, what is the length of the mountain tunnel proposed through the Kaundinya Wildlife Sanctuary on the Bengaluru-Chennai bullet train corridor?
- A.3.87 km
- B.14.79 km✓ Correct Answer
- C.15.92 km
- D.34.58 km
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the 14.79-km mountain tunnel through the Kaundinya Wildlife Sanctuary. 3.87 km is the Chennai Terminal approach tunnel, 15.92 km is the Bengaluru Terminal approach tunnel, and 34.58 km is approximately the sum of all three tunnels, not a single tunnel length.
What is the primary objective of NHSRCL adopting standardised design practices from the MAHSR corridor for the new bullet train corridors?
- A.To reduce travel time further by increasing design speed
- B.To expedite construction and ensure cost-effectiveness across multiple corridors✓ Correct Answer
- C.To avoid environmental clearances by using pre-approved designs
- D.To attract foreign investment from Japan and France
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Explanation
The article states that to take up a large volume of work at a fast pace, NHSRCL decided to adopt the best design and construction practices from MAHSR. Standardisation reduces duplication, speeds up procurement, and ensures consistent quality. Reducing travel time (option A) is an outcome, not the objective of standardization. Options C and D are not mentioned.
Which ministry/department is responsible for releasing the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) data in India?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- C.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Labour and Employment
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Explanation
IIP is compiled and released by the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). The article specifically mentions MoSPI as the releasing authority.
Consider the following statements regarding the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) data for May 2026:
1. Overall IIP growth was 5.1%, the fastest in five months, driven by double-digit electricity growth.
2. Manufacturing sector output grew at a higher rate in May (5.5%) compared to April (6.1%).
3. MoSPI replaced the Wholesale Price Index with the Output Producer Price Index to deflate 234 of 463 items in the IIP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1 and 2
- B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Only 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct – IIP grew 5.1% (5-month high) and electricity jumped 11.1%. Statement 2 is incorrect – manufacturing growth actually slowed from 6.1% in April to 5.5% in May. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: MoSPI replaced WPI with OPPI for 234 items.
According to the IIP data for May 2026, what was the growth rate of electricity generation from renewable sources?
- A.8.8%
- B.11.1%
- C.18.0%✓ Correct Answer
- D.20.8%
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'electricity generation from renewable sources jumped 18% while that from non-renewable sources increased by 8.8%, leading to overall electricity production rising by 11.1%'. Option A (8.8%) is non-renewable growth, option B (11.1%) is total electricity, option D (20.8%) is electrical equipment growth.
What is the primary significance of MoSPI replacing the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) with the Output Producer Price Index (OPPI) for IIP deflation?
- A.It reduces the number of items in the IIP basket
- B.It aligns with global best practices and will likely lead to revisions in GDP data✓ Correct Answer
- C.It raises the base year of IIP from 2011-12 to 2022-23
- D.It increases the weight of electricity in the IIP
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Explanation
The article mentions that this change 'has led to material changes in growth across segments such as manufacturing and is also likely to lead to revisions in the GDP data.' Option A is wrong because item count is unchanged (the same 463 items). Option C is about base year change, not deflation change. Option D is not mentioned.
Which organization organized the event where CJI Surya Kant delivered his speech on safeguarding the rule of law?
- A.Supreme Court of India
- B.International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Assistance✓ Correct Answer
- C.Indian Express
- D.United Nations
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Explanation
The article states that the CJI was addressing an event organized by the International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Assistance (International IDEA) in Sweden. This is the specific organizing body mentioned.
Consider the following statements regarding CJI Surya Kant's speech:
1. He said that judicial review is a power vested in the judiciary, not a duty.
2. He justified the Collegium system as a way to maintain judicial independence from executive influence.
3. He cited the Mahabharata story of King Prahlada to illustrate that justice requires an impartial judge.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the CJI explicitly said judicial review is a duty and responsibility, not merely a power. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct – he used the story of King Prahlada to emphasize judicial impartiality.
On what date was CJI Surya Kant's speech delivered in Sweden?
- A.June 25, 2026
- B.June 29, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.June 30, 2026
- D.July 1, 2026
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Explanation
The article is published on June 29, 2026, and states 'CJI said on Monday' – that Monday corresponds to June 29, 2026. The date is clearly mentioned in the metadata as 2026-06-29.
According to the CJI, what is the most important safeguard to ensure that the Executive and Legislature adhere to constitutional norms?
- A.An active media
- B.A strong opposition
- C.An independent judiciary✓ Correct Answer
- D.Public opinion
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Explanation
The CJI explicitly stated that 'the greatest safeguard to ensuring that these two pillars fulfil their duty lies in an independent Judiciary'. This directly links to the core theme of the speech.
Which board is responsible for regulating water releases from the Tungabhadra dam?
- A.Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal
- B.Cauvery Water Management Authority
- C.Tungabhadra Board✓ Correct Answer
- D.Godavari Water Disputes Tribunal
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Explanation
The Tungabhadra Board was established under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act to manage sharing and releases from the Tungabhadra dam among Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana.
Consider the following statements about the Upper Bhadra project:
1. It is a major lift irrigation scheme under implementation in Karnataka, upstream of the Tungabhadra dam.
2. The Union government included it under the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY).
3. The project has caused concern for Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Centre made a provision of ₹5,300 crore in the 2023-24 budget but later did not include it under any scheme. Statement 3 is correct: Andhra Pradesh and Telangana view it as an irritant.
What was the original storage capacity of the Tungabhadra dam (in thousand million cubic feet)?
- A.133 tmc ft✓ Correct Answer
- B.106 tmc ft
- C.105 tmc ft
- D.100 tmc ft
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Explanation
The article states that the original storage capacity was 133 tmc ft, which has now reduced to about 106 tmc ft due to excessive siltation.
What is the major operational challenge currently faced by the Tungabhadra dam as highlighted in the article?
- A.Lack of spillway gates
- B.Inter-state water disputes
- C.Excessive siltation reducing storage capacity✓ Correct Answer
- D.Inadequate funding for gate replacement
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that siltation has reduced the dam's storage from 133 tmc ft to 106 tmc ft. While gate replacement was needed, the longer-term issue is silt accumulation, which the Centre plans to address across reservoirs.
Which ministry is responsible for the Design Linked Incentive (DLI) scheme mentioned in the news?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Defence
- D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Vision SoC was funded under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology's (Meity) Design Linked Incentive scheme. This is a nodal ministry for semiconductor policies.
Consider the following statements:
1. Mindgrove Technologies is headquartered at IIT Madras Research Park.
2. The MoU is for deploying indigenously designed chips in CCTV cameras only.
3. The Vision SoC is Mindgrove's second chip.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Mindgrove Technologies is headquartered at IIT Madras Research Park. Statement 2 is incorrect: the MoU covers CCTV surveillance cameras and advanced video security systems. Statement 3 is correct: the Vision SoC is its second chip. Hence option C is correct.
What is the funding scheme under which the Vision SoC was developed?
- A.Production Linked Incentive (PLI)
- B.Design Linked Incentive (DLI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Semiconductor Mission
- D.Scheme for Promotion of Manufacturing of Electronic Components (SPECS)
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Explanation
The article clearly mentions that the Vision SoC was funded under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology's (Meity) Design Linked Incentive scheme. PLI is a manufacturing scheme, not for design.
What is the primary objective of the collaboration between Mindgrove and Prama India?
- A.To increase exports of CCTV cameras
- B.To reduce reliance on imported chipsets in security surveillance✓ Correct Answer
- C.To manufacture smartphones using Indian chips
- D.To develop AI-based security software
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Explanation
The article states that the collaboration strengthens efforts to reduce reliance on imported chipsets in sensitive domains such as security and surveillance. This is the core objective, while other options are not mentioned.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for coordinating India's external humanitarian assistance missions like Operation Amistad?
- A.Ministry of Defence
- B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Home Affairs
- D.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
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Explanation
External humanitarian aid and disaster relief missions are coordinated by the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA), often in conjunction with the Ministry of Defence for logistics. The news mentions External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar announcing the arrival of aid, confirming MEA's lead role.
Consider the following statements regarding Operation Amistad:
1. It was launched by India to deliver humanitarian assistance to earthquake-hit Venezuela.
2. The relief supplies were carried by two IAF C-17 Globemaster III aircraft.
3. The total death toll from the earthquakes in Venezuela is 1,430 as per the latest report on June 28, 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Operation Amistad was launched for quake-hit Venezuela. Statement 2 is correct: Two IAF C-17s were used. Statement 3 is correct: The article states the death toll rose to 1,430 on June 28. Hence option D is correct.
What was the total weight of humanitarian aid carried by the IAF C-17 aircraft to Venezuela under Operation Amistad?
- A.55 tonnes
- B.66 tonnes✓ Correct Answer
- C.75 tonnes
- D.80 tonnes
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the aircraft carried 66 tonnes of humanitarian aid. 55, 75, and 80 tonnes are close distractors used to test attention to exact figures.
What does the successful completion of Operation Amistad primarily demonstrate about India's foreign policy approach?
- A.India's ability to project military power in Latin America
- B.India's growing role as a reliable first responder in global humanitarian crises✓ Correct Answer
- C.India's economic investment in Venezuela's oil sector
- D.India's alignment with the United States in Latin American affairs
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Explanation
The article and IAF tweet highlight India's capability as a 'responsible first responder and a reliable humanitarian partner'. The mission was purely humanitarian, not military or economic, and reflects India's soft power diplomacy under the 'Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam' ethos.
Which papal encyclical warns against AI creating a new form of digital slavery?
- A.Laudato Si'
- B.Fratelli Tutti
- C.Magnifica Humanitas✓ Correct Answer
- D.Caritas in Veritate
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Explanation
Pope Leo XIV's encyclical 'Magnifica Humanitas' grounds the crisis in theological human dignity and calls for binding law over AI. The other encyclicals deal with environment, fraternity, and social charity respectively.
Consider the following statements regarding AI governance as discussed in the article:
1. Tharoor argues that AI governance must be merely regulatory and technical.
2. He proposes a rights-based framework that includes strict consent protocols and algorithmic discrimination protections.
3. Platforms should be granted absolute safe-harbour immunities to encourage innovation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 2 correctly reflects Tharoor's first pillar. Statement 1 is false because he argues AI governance cannot remain merely regulatory or technical but must be constitutional. Statement 3 is opposite of his call to remove safe-harbour immunities.
How many foundational pillars does Shashi Tharoor propose for AI governance in India?
- A.Three
- B.Four
- C.Five✓ Correct Answer
- D.Six
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Explanation
Tharoor explicitly outlines five pillars: rights-based framework, democratic accountability, free speech protection, media literacy, and early warning systems. The other options are distractors.
What is the primary objective of the early-warning system proposed by Tharoor?
- A.To block all foreign content on Indian social media
- B.To detect coordinated misinformation operations before they go viral✓ Correct Answer
- C.To censor political dissent during elections
- D.To replace fact-checking networks with government agencies
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Explanation
Tharoor advocates for sophisticated, cross-sector early-warning systems leveraging advanced detection tools and collaboration with fact-checkers and ethical hackers, to neutralise foreign information warfare campaigns.
Which commission was established in 1983 to review Centre-state relations in India?
- A.Sarkaria Commission✓ Correct Answer
- B.Punchhi Commission
- C.Administrative Reforms Commission
- D.Kothari Commission
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Explanation
The Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983 to examine the working of Centre-state relations and suggest improvements. The article mentions its establishment amid the federal transition post-Emergency.
Consider the following statements regarding the Telugu Ganga project:
1. The agreement was possible only because of the concentration of power during the Emergency.
2. The agreement was signed in 1977 after the Emergency ended.
3. The project is a source of ongoing disputes before the Second Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article states the Emergency provided the exceptional concentration of power to secure compliance. Statement 2 is incorrect: the agreement was in 1976, not 1977. Statement 3 is correct: disputes are ongoing before the Second Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal.
In which year was the Telugu Ganga agreement signed?
- A.1975
- B.1976✓ Correct Answer
- C.1977
- D.1978
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the Telugu Ganga agreement took shape in 1976, under the Emergency.
What was the broader political impact of the Telugu Ganga project in the post-Emergency period?
- A.It strengthened the Centre's control over water resources.
- B.It empowered regional parties to challenge centralisation and assert state autonomy.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It led to the repeal of the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act.
- D.It resolved all water conflicts among the riparian states permanently.
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Explanation
The article explains that after the Emergency, leaders like NTR used the project to build alliances and challenge central dominance, making it a tool for regional assertion.
Which constitutional body is responsible for the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation and revision of electoral rolls for Assembly elections?
- A.State Election Commission
- B.Election Commission of India✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Law and Justice
- D.Supreme Court of India
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Explanation
Under Article 324 of the Constitution, the Election Commission of India has superintendence, direction, and control over the preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to Parliament and State Legislatures. The article specifically mentions this constitutional mandate in the context of SIR.
Consider the following statements regarding the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls in Karnataka:
1. SIR requires existing voters to submit fresh enumeration forms, unlike previous Intensive Revisions.
2. Aadhaar card is accepted as standalone proof of citizenship during SIR verification.
3. The last SIR in Karnataka was conducted in 2002–03.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Only 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states existing electors are being asked to submit fresh enumeration forms for the first time. Statement 2 is false – the ECI clarified that Aadhaar is not sufficient on its own and is not accepted as standalone proof. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the last Intensive Revision of Special Nature in Karnataka was in 2002–03.
According to the article, what percentage of names were deleted from electoral rolls in other states (excluding Kerala) during similar SIR exercises?
- A.5–7%
- B.10–12%✓ Correct Answer
- C.15–18%
- D.20–25%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states 'the pattern from SIR conducted in other States, barring the notable exception of Kerala, shows that around 10-12% of names were deleted from the electoral rolls.' This is a key data point for prelims. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the article.
What is the primary purpose of 'progeny mapping' in the SIR process?
- A.To link voters born after the last SIR (2002) with their parents' electoral records.✓ Correct Answer
- B.To identify duplicate entries by comparing names across districts.
- C.To assign new serial numbers based on family trees.
- D.To verify the address of voters who have migrated within Karnataka.
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Explanation
The article explains that 'progeny mapping' is used for those who were below 18 years of age or were not yet born when Karnataka last underwent SIR in 2002. Officials seek to link present voter records with electoral records of parents or immediate family members to establish continuity. This is a factual application of the concept.
The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is a military alliance primarily focused on:
- A.Economic cooperation among member states
- B.Collective defence and security✓ Correct Answer
- C.Climate change mitigation
- D.Trade liberalisation
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Explanation
NATO's core principle is collective defence under Article 5, meaning an attack on one member is considered an attack on all. This is explicitly stated in the alliance's founding treaty, making it a security-focused organisation.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The meeting between German and US foreign ministers will take place in Washington.
2. The discussion will focus solely on a new burden-sharing arrangement for NATO, excluding Ukraine support.
3. The next NATO summit is scheduled to be held in Ankara.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3
- D.(D) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: German FM Wadephul said he and Mr. Rubio will discuss at a meeting in Washington. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article explicitly says they will discuss 'how we can achieve a new burden-sharing arrangement...and secure stable, long-term support for Ukraine', so Ukraine support is included. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions 'next week's NATO summit in Ankara'. Hence option D is correct.
On which date did German Foreign Minister Johann Wadephul make the statement about the new burden-sharing arrangement?
- A.June 28, 2026
- B.June 29, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.June 30, 2026
- D.July 1, 2026
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Explanation
The article states that Mr. Wadephul said this on Monday, June 29, 2026. The publication date and the update both confirm June 29 as the date of the statement.
According to German Foreign Minister Wadephul, what is the primary objective of the new burden-sharing arrangement and long-term support for Ukraine?
- A.To increase NATO's military budget
- B.To make Moscow realise it must end the war and negotiate✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce US financial contributions to NATO
- D.To expand NATO membership to new countries
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Explanation
The article quotes Wadephul saying the support will 'make Moscow realise that it is finally time to end the killing in Ukraine and come to the negotiating table'. This directly states the goal of pressuring Russia toward peace negotiations.
Which High Court issued the order prohibiting media from using terms like 'mastermind' and 'kingpin' for an accused until proven guilty?
- A.Supreme Court of India
- B.Patna High Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.Delhi High Court
- D.Bombay High Court
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Explanation
The Patna High Court, presided over by Justice Ansul, issued the order on June 24, 2026, in a petition filed by Rishu Shree. The court directed all media platforms to refrain from using guilt-imputing language before a judicial determination of guilt.
Consider the following statements regarding the Patna High Court's order on media reporting:
1. The court imposed a complete gag on media reporting of the case.
2. The court directed that media cannot use expressions like 'mastermind', 'scamster', or 'kingpin' that imply guilt.
3. The order applies only to print and electronic media, not to social media platforms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the court explicitly stated it was not in favour of a media gag and allowed factual reporting. Statement 2 is correct as the court prohibited guilt-imputing expressions. Statement 3 is incorrect because the order applies to all platforms including print, electronic, digital, and social media.
On which date did the Patna High Court issue the order restricting media from using guilt-imputing language for accused persons?
- A.June 29, 2026
- B.June 24, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.April 30, 2025
- D.May 27, 2026
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Explanation
The Patna High Court passed the order on June 24, 2026. June 29, 2026 is the publication date of the article. April 30, 2025 is the date of FIR registration, and May 27, 2026 is the date of the petitioner's arrest.
What is the primary constitutional balance that the Patna High Court sought to maintain through its order?
- A.Balance between Centre-State relations
- B.Balance between freedom of press and right to a fair trial✓ Correct Answer
- C.Balance between executive and judiciary
- D.Balance between fundamental rights and directive principles
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Explanation
The court balanced the freedom of the press under Article 19(1)(a) with the accused's right to a fair trial under Article 21. It allowed factual reporting but prohibited language that pre-judges guilt, thereby preventing 'trial by media' while upholding press freedom.
Which IIT hosts the Centre for Technology Alternatives for Rural Areas (CTARA) that launched the M.Tech in Technology and Development?
- A.IIT Delhi
- B.IIT Bombay✓ Correct Answer
- C.IIT Madras
- D.IIT Hyderabad
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that CTARA is at IIT Bombay, established in 1985 as a research hub and later launching its M.Tech in 2007. IIT Delhi, Madras, and Hyderabad run other interdisciplinary programs but not CTARA.
Consider the following statements regarding the cross-disciplinary M.Tech programs mentioned in the article:
1. The M.Tech in Medical Device Innovation at IIT Hyderabad admits only engineering graduates.
2. Students at IIT Hyderabad undergo clinical immersion at partner hospitals immediately upon starting the program.
3. The M.Tech in Mobility Engineering at IISc Bangalore is solely anchored in Mechanical Engineering.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3
- D.(D) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is wrong: the program admits engineering graduates AND medical graduates (MBBS, Ayurveda, Homeopathy). Statement 2 is correct: clinical immersion is a central feature at partner hospitals. Statement 3 is correct: the M.Tech in Mobility Engineering is anchored in Mechanical Engineering but also integrates other fields.
According to the article, what percentage of India's medical devices are imported?
- A.60%
- B.70%
- C.80%✓ Correct Answer
- D.90%
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Explanation
The article mentions that India relies on importing nearly 80% of its medical devices, which motivated IIT Hyderabad to start the Center for Healthcare Entrepreneurship and the M.Tech in Medical Device Innovation.
What is the primary purpose of the mandatory two-month village stay for CTARA M.Tech students?
- A.To collect data for academic research papers
- B.To understand local conditions and cultural barriers before proposing technology solutions✓ Correct Answer
- C.To promote government schemes among villagers
- D.To test prototypes in rural markets
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Explanation
The article narrates Priyanka Gorade's experience: she faced language barriers and realized that technology solutions must consider local beliefs and ground realities. The purpose is to sensitize engineers to social and cultural contexts, not just to collect data or sell products.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for implementing the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan?
- A.Ministry of Women and Child Development
- B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Education
- D.Ministry of Rural Development
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Explanation
The article repeatedly refers to the 'Health Ministry' leading the revised AMB programme. The scheme falls under the ambit of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, which oversees national health programmes including nutrition interventions.
Consider the following statements regarding the revised Anaemia Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan:
1. Low birth weight newborns (0-6 months) have been added as a new priority beneficiary group.
2. Haemoglobin testing records for children will be captured through the JANANI portal.
3. The programme now emphasises a lifecycle approach covering pre-conception, pregnancy, lactation, and beyond.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 3
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: low birth weight newborns are a new beneficiary group. Statement 2 is incorrect: JANANI captures data for pregnant women; children's data goes through RBSK and U-WIN portals. Statement 3 is correct: the article highlights a comprehensive lifecycle approach to prevent anaemia at every stage.
According to the Health Ministry estimates mentioned in the article, what is the prevalence of anaemia among children aged 6-59 months?
- A.67.1%✓ Correct Answer
- B.59.1%
- C.52.2%
- D.31.1%
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Explanation
The article specifically states that anaemia affects about 67.1% of children aged 6–59 months. The other options are for adolescent girls (59.1%), women (52.2%), and adolescent boys (31.1%) respectively.
What is the primary objective behind the revised Anaemia Mukt Bharat programme's lifecycle approach?
- A.To distribute iron-folic acid tablets to all age groups equally
- B.To break the intergenerational cycle of anaemia by intervening at every life stage from pre-conception onward✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce the cost of anaemia treatment through digital monitoring
- D.To replace all nutritional interventions with medical treatment
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that anaemia creates an intergenerational cycle and that breaking it requires interventions at every stage rather than waiting until pregnancy. The lifecycle approach aims to prevent anaemia before it starts, improving maternal and child health outcomes.
Which international legal instrument is referred to as the 'Constitution of the Oceans'?
- A.UN Charter
- B.United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Geneva Conventions
- D.San Remo Manual on International Law Applicable to Armed Conflicts at Sea
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Explanation
The article explicitly calls UNCLOS the 'Constitution of the Oceans'. It defines maritime zones and navigational rights, including transit passage. Even non-parties (like the U.S.) are bound by its customary law provisions.
Consider the following statements regarding the legal protection of neutral merchant vessels:
1. Under IHL, neutral merchant vessels are generally protected from attack unless they become military objectives.
2. The traditional view of military objectives treats all oil tankers as lawful targets because oil generates revenue for belligerents.
3. The San Remo Manual permits attacks on neutral merchant ships reasonably believed to be carrying contraband or breaching a blockade, after warning.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: IHL protects civilians and civilian objects at sea. Statement 2 is incorrect – the traditional view holds that commercial exports do not become military objectives merely because they generate revenue; the oil must make an effective contribution to military action. Statement 3 is correct: the San Remo Manual (para 67) lists contraband and blockade as grounds for attack after warning.
How many Indian seafarers were killed in the U.S. Hellfire missile strikes on the merchant tanker Settebello?
- A.1
- B.2
- C.3✓ Correct Answer
- D.4
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that three Indians – the chief engineer, an engine fitter, and a deck cadet – were killed aboard the Settebello. Other tankers (Marivex and Jalveer) had no casualties.
What legal remedy is available to India for the deaths of its seafarers caused by the U.S. attacks on neutral merchant vessels?
- A.Filing a case at the International Criminal Court (ICC)
- B.Invoking the doctrine of diplomatic protection✓ Correct Answer
- C.Imposing economic sanctions under UN Security Council resolution
- D.Requesting an advisory opinion from the International Court of Justice (ICJ)
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Explanation
The article states that under the doctrine of diplomatic protection, India has standing to espouse claims arising from injuries to its citizens caused by an internationally wrongful act. This allows India to demand explanations, compensation, and an independent investigation. Other options are not mentioned or not the primary remedy.
Which board issued the circular relaxing the three-language policy for Classes 7, 8, and 9?
- A.National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
- B.Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Education (MoE)
- D.University Grants Commission (UGC)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that CBSE issued the circular and press statement. NCERT is responsible for curriculum and textbooks, but CBSE is the examination board that implements the policy for its affiliated schools.
Consider the following statements regarding CBSE's relaxed three-language policy:
1. The current batch of Class 10 (2026-27) is exempted and will continue with the old two-language system.
2. For the current Class 9 batch, the third language (R3) will be assessed through a CBSE board examination.
3. Children with Special Needs (CwSN) are exempted from the compulsory third language requirement under the RPwD Act, 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article says the current batch of Class 10 will not have to follow the new language policy. Statement 2 is incorrect: for Class 9 (current batch), the third language will be assessed by the school through internal school-based assessment only, not by CBSE board examination. Statement 3 is correct: exemptions for CwSN are granted as per the RPwD Act, 2016.
How many scheduled Bhartiya Bhashas (native Indian languages) are mentioned for which NCERT has made dedicated R3 textbooks available for Class 6?
- A.18
- B.22✓ Correct Answer
- C.14
- D.8
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Explanation
The article states: 'The dedicated R3 textbooks for Class 6 in 22 Scheduled Bhartiya Bhashas are being made available on www.ncert.nic.in'. The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists 22 scheduled languages.
What is the primary reason cited by CBSE for granting this one-time relaxation to current batches of Classes 7, 8, and 9?
- A.To reduce the workload of teachers in CBSE-affiliated schools
- B.To protect student interests and ensure a smooth transition to NEP 2020✓ Correct Answer
- C.To allow schools to focus only on foreign language training
- D.To align with the demands of foreign universities
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Explanation
CBSE stated that these guidelines are issued to align with NEP 2020 while protecting student interests. The relaxation addresses the disruption faced by students who had already taken two foreign languages and were asked to switch mid-session. The board emphasized 'joyful, meaningful language learning, not on examination.'
Which government body approved the new electric vehicle policy with a ₹15,000-crore budget?
- A.Delhi Transport Commissioner
- B.Delhi Cabinet✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
The article explicitly states 'Delhi Cabinet approves new EV policy'. The Delhi Cabinet is the executive decision-making body of the Delhi government, responsible for approving major policies.
Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi EV policy:
1. The policy will remain effective from July 1, 2026 to March 31, 2030.
2. Purchase incentives for two-wheelers are ₹50,000 in the first year, ₹40,000 in the second year, and ₹30,000 in the third year.
3. A dedicated online portal will be developed for applicants to apply for EV-related incentives.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the policy is effective July 1, 2026 to March 31, 2030. Statement 2 is incorrect: the purchase incentives for two-wheelers are ₹30,000 in the first year, ₹20,000 in the second, and ₹10,000 in the third (the amounts given are for three-wheelers). Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions a dedicated online portal will be developed. Hence option C is correct.
According to the Delhi EV policy, what is the purchase incentive for a three-wheeler in the first year?
- A.₹30,000
- B.₹40,000
- C.₹50,000✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹60,000
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article specifies purchase incentives for three-wheelers: ₹50,000 in the first year, ₹40,000 in the second, and ₹30,000 in the third. ₹30,000 is the first year incentive for two-wheelers, not three-wheelers. ₹40,000 is the second year incentive for three-wheelers. ₹60,000 is not mentioned.
What is the primary objective of the Delhi EV policy's focus on commercial goods vehicles, two-wheelers, and three-wheelers?
- A.To increase government revenue through EV registration fees
- B.To reduce air pollution from the most polluting vehicle segments✓ Correct Answer
- C.To promote foreign investment in EV manufacturing in Delhi
- D.To provide employment in the EV charging infrastructure sector
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Explanation
The article states that 33% of pollution is from commercial goods vehicles and 46% from two-wheelers and three-wheelers. The policy specifically targets these segments to convert them to EV, directly aiming to reduce pollution. Revenue, foreign investment, and employment are secondary benefits, not the primary objective highlighted.
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What are the important current affairs questions for 29 June 2026?▼
This page contains 156 current affairs questions from 29 June 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 29 June 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
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Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
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- Q151. many scheduled Bhartiya Bhashas (native Indian languages) are …
- Q152. is the primary reason cited by CBSE for granting this one-time…
- Q153. government body approved the new electric vehicle policy with …
- Q154. Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi EV polic…
- Q155. According to the Delhi EV policy, what is the purchase incenti…
- Q156. is the primary objective of the Delhi EV policy's focus on com…