24 June 2026, Questions & Answers
152 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
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This page contains 152 current affairs questions with answers from 24 June 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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152 QsWhich ministry is primarily responsible for the high-level meeting on the El Nino situation and the preparation of District Agriculture Contingency Plans?
- A.Ministry of Rural Development
- B.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- D.Ministry of Water Resources
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Explanation
The article mentions Union Agriculture Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan chaired the meeting, and the plans are prepared by ICAR, which is under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Centre identified 315 districts as potentially affected by weak monsoon conditions.
2. All 111 high-priority districts have irrigation coverage below 20%.
3. The meeting was attended by experts from ICAR and officials of IMD.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per article: 315 districts identified as potentially affected. Statement 2 is incorrect: high-priority districts have irrigation coverage below 25%, not 20%. Statement 3 is correct: ICAR experts and IMD officials attended the meeting.
How many districts have been categorised as high priority due to poor irrigation facilities?
- A.315
- B.111✓ Correct Answer
- C.76
- D.128
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Explanation
The article clearly states that 111 districts are high priority with irrigation coverage below 25%. 315 is the total vulnerable, 76 medium priority, and 128 low priority.
What is the primary objective of the contingency plans being prepared for the vulnerable districts?
- A.To reduce government fiscal deficit through subsidy cuts
- B.To minimise the impact of weak monsoon on agriculture and safeguard farmers' livelihoods✓ Correct Answer
- C.To promote export of agricultural commodities
- D.To increase crop insurance premiums
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Explanation
The article explicitly says the government is implementing scientific planning and field-level interventions to 'minimise the impact and safeguard farmers’ livelihoods'. Options A, C, D are not mentioned.
Which provision of the US Trade Act of 1974 is being used to impose new tariffs on India and other countries?
- A.Section 301✓ Correct Answer
- B.Section 122
- C.IEEPA
- D.Section 232
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Explanation
The article states that the US is moving to a new tariff architecture under Section 301 of the US Trade Act of 1974, which allows the President to impose tariffs on countries engaged in unfair trade practices. IEEPA was used earlier but struck down by the Supreme Court. Section 122 is a temporary provision expiring July 24. Section 232 relates to national security imports.
Consider the following statements:
1. The US Supreme Court struck down reciprocal tariffs imposed under IEEPA.
2. India's export surplus with the US increased in May 2026 compared to May 2025.
3. The US has already signed trade deals with the EU, Japan, South Korea, and several ASEAN countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the US Supreme Court struck down the IEEPA-based reciprocal tariffs. Statement 2 is false: the surplus declined from $5.02B to $2.94B. Statement 3 is correct: the US has sealed deals with the EU, Japan, South Korea, and ASEAN countries. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the article, what was India's export surplus with the US in May 2026?
- A.$5.02 billion
- B.$2.94 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$4.17 billion
- D.$7.65 billion
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Explanation
The article states that India's export surplus slipped over 40% from $5.02 billion in May 2025 to $2.94 billion in May 2026. The other options are distractors: $4.17 billion was FPI net inflow in February 2026, and $7.65 billion was net FDI inflows for the full year 2025-26.
What is India's primary concern regarding the proposed trade deal with the US?
- A.Surge in US agricultural imports due to higher government subsidies✓ Correct Answer
- B.Increased exports of Indian tech products to the US
- C.Decline in US foreign direct investment inflows
- D.Loss of market access for Indian petroleum products
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that India is primarily worried about a surge in US agricultural products which receive far higher government support compared to incentives in India. This concern was echoed by Rakesh Tikait of BKU. The other options are not stated as primary concerns; tech exports and petroleum products are discussed but not as India's main worry.
Which High Court delivered the judgment that a shared auto-rickshaw is not a 'workplace' under the PoSH Act?
- A.Supreme Court of India
- B.Bombay High Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.Delhi High Court
- D.Madras High Court
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Explanation
The Bombay High Court, in its June 22, 2026 order, ruled that a shared auto-rickshaw used for commuting is not a 'workplace' under Section 2(o) of the PoSH Act. The Division Bench comprised Justice Firdosh P. Pooniwalla and Justice Suman Shyam.
Consider the following statements regarding the Bombay High Court's ruling on the PoSH Act:
1. The court held that a shared auto-rickshaw used for commuting to work qualifies as a 'workplace' under Section 2(o) of the PoSH Act.
2. The court set aside the ICC order against an SBI employee for lack of jurisdiction.
3. The court ruled that the ICC must first determine whether an incident occurred at a 'workplace' before conducting an inquiry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the court held that a shared auto is NOT a 'workplace' under Section 2(o). Statement 2 is correct as the court set aside the ICC order. Statement 3 is correct as the court opined that the ICC must first ascertain whether the incident occurred at a 'workplace' to have jurisdiction.
On which date did the Bombay High Court pass the order regarding the shared auto not being a 'workplace' under the PoSH Act?
- A.June 24, 2026
- B.June 22, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.June 20, 2026
- D.June 18, 2026
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Explanation
The Bombay High Court passed the order on June 22, 2026. The article was published on June 24, 2026, but the order date is specifically mentioned as June 22.
What is the primary implication of the Bombay High Court's ruling for Internal Complaints Committees (ICCs) under the PoSH Act?
- A.ICCs can now investigate any complaint of sexual harassment regardless of location.
- B.ICCs must first verify if the alleged incident occurred at a 'workplace' as defined under Section 2(o) before assuming jurisdiction.✓ Correct Answer
- C.ICCs are no longer required to follow the PoSH Act procedures.
- D.ICCs can only investigate complaints filed by employees of the same organization.
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Explanation
The court clarified that the ICC must first ascertain whether an alleged incident occurred at a 'workplace' under Section 2(o) of the PoSH Act. Only an affirmative answer grants the ICC jurisdiction to conduct a further inquiry. This prevents overreach by ICCs into incidents outside the workplace.
Which Indian regulatory body granted approval to Wockhardt's ZAYNICH for use in India on May 27, 2026?
- A.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
- B.Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
- D.World Health Organization (WHO)
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Explanation
The article states that ZAYNICH received approval from the Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) on May 27, 2026, alongside US FDA approval on May 30, 2026. DCGI is the national regulatory authority for pharmaceuticals in India.
Consider the following statements regarding Wockhardt's antibiotic ZAYNICH:
1. ZAYNICH is a novel oral antibiotic primarily effective against Gram-positive bacteria.
2. The drug was developed at Wockhardt's research centre in Pune, Maharashtra.
3. The US FDA approved ZAYNICH in May 2026 for treating complicated urinary tract infections caused by Gram-negative bacteria.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) Both 1 and 3
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: ZAYNICH is an intravenous (IV) antibiotic, not oral, and targets Gram-negative bacteria (not Gram-positive). Statement 2 is incorrect: the research centre is in Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar, Maharashtra, not Pune. Statement 3 is correct: US FDA approval was granted on May 30, 2026 for complicated UTIs due to Gram-negative bacteria.
According to the article, what is the estimated annual number of deaths in India from all multidrug-resistant infections (not just UTIs)?
- A.100,000
- B.200,000
- C.300,000✓ Correct Answer
- D.500,000
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Across all multidrug-resistant infections, not just UTIs, around 300,000 people die every year.' This is a key data point for understanding the AMR burden in India.
What is the key advantage of ZAYNICH over the existing drug colistin for treating multidrug-resistant Gram-negative infections?
- A.It can be taken orally, avoiding hospitalisation.
- B.It is cheaper and widely available in pharmacies.
- C.It causes less kidney damage compared to colistin.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It is effective against Gram-positive bacteria as well.
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Explanation
The article quotes Dr. Khorakiwala saying that doctors are 'forced to use older drugs such as colistin, which can damage the kidneys.' ZAYNICH offers a safer option without such compromises. Colistin is known for nephrotoxicity; ZAYNICH is a novel beta-lactam enhancer with a better safety profile.
Which institution introduced the US Dollar-Rupee forex swap facility for FCNR(B) deposits?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Securities and Exchange Board of India
- C.Reserve Bank of India✓ Correct Answer
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued the circular dated 8 June 2026 introducing the swap scheme for FCNR(B) deposits. The RBI is the central banking authority responsible for monetary policy and foreign exchange management.
Consider the following statements:
1. FCNR(B) deposits are fixed-term deposits designed for Non-Resident Indians, Persons of Indian Origin, and Overseas Citizens of India.
2. Under the new swap scheme, banks can swap both the principal and interest component of the deposits with RBI.
3. Banks are exempted from maintaining Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) on these deposits.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as FCNR(B) deposits are fixed-term deposits for NRIs, PIOs, and OCIs. Statement 2 is incorrect — the article explicitly states the swap covers only the principal amount, not the interest component. Statement 3 is correct: under the framework, banks are exempted from CRR and SLR. Hence option C is correct.
According to the article, what is the expected amount of additional foreign capital inflow from the new FCNR(B) swap scheme?
- A.$30-40 billion
- B.$50-70 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$70-100 billion
- D.$10-20 billion
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Explanation
The article states: 'Experts believe the steps announced may attract an additional $50 billion to $70 billion in foreign capital into Indian markets'. The other options are distractors; $30-40 billion is too low, $70-100 billion exceeds the estimate, and $10-20 billion is also below the range.
What is the primary objective of the RBI fully bearing the hedging cost on FCNR(B) deposits?
- A.To reduce banks' operational costs
- B.To make FCNR(B) deposits more attractive and attract foreign capital✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase interest rates on domestic deposits
- D.To reduce gold imports
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Explanation
By absorbing the hedging burden, the RBI makes FCNR(B) deposits a more attractive source of overseas funding for lenders, thereby attracting additional foreign capital inflows to stabilise the rupee and boost reserves. The article links this to expected inflows of $50-70 billion.
Which international organization coordinated with Oman to establish temporary maritime corridors in the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.International Labour Organization (ILO)
- B.International Maritime Organization (IMO)✓ Correct Answer
- C.United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
- D.International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)
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Explanation
The article states that 'In coordination with the International Maritime Organization, Oman established temporary maritime corridors.' The IMO is the UN specialized agency responsible for maritime safety and security, making this the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Hormuz shipping situation:
1. The existing Traffic Separation Scheme in the Strait of Hormuz was adopted in 1968.
2. Oman will impose tolls on vessels using the temporary shipping routes.
3. Under the interim US-Iran agreement, commercial vessels can transit without charge for 60 days.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article mentions the scheme was adopted by the UN's shipping agency in 1968. Statement 2 is incorrect: Oman explicitly said 'no tolls would be imposed' on transiting vessels. Statement 3 is correct: The interim US-Iran agreement provides for free transit for 60 days. Hence option C is correct.
According to the article, what fraction of global oil and liquefied natural gas supplies normally transit through the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.One-tenth
- B.One-fifth✓ Correct Answer
- C.One-third
- D.One-half
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Explanation
The article states the Strait of Hormuz is 'a vital route for roughly a fifth of global oil and liquefied natural gas supplies'. One-fifth is approximately 20%. The other options are plausible distractors but do not match the exact figure mentioned.
What is the primary reason Oman established temporary shipping routes in the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.To impose tolls on vessels transiting the strait
- B.To ensure safe departure of vessels amid heightened security risks✓ Correct Answer
- C.To block Iranian vessels from using the waterway
- D.To comply with a UN Security Council resolution
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Explanation
The article says Oman established the corridors 'to help ships leave the area safely amid heightened security risks' due to the US-Israel war against Iran. No tolls were imposed, and blocking vessels or UN resolutions were not mentioned. The primary objective was safety.
Which ministry is responsible for releasing the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
- D.Ministry of Labour and Employment
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Explanation
The Ministry of Commerce and Industry releases the WPI data. The new series with base year 2022-23 was announced by this ministry, as mentioned in the article. The Ministry of Finance handles fiscal policy, while Statistics and Programme Implementation oversees CPI and other surveys.
Consider the following statements regarding the US-Iran peace agreement:
1. The MoU was signed on June 15, 2026.
2. The deal immediately imposes new oil sanctions on Iran.
3. Israel opposed the agreement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the MoU was signed on June 15, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: the US committed to immediately waive oil sanctions, not impose new ones. Statement 3 is correct: Israel opposed the deal firmly, causing a rift with Washington.
What was the wholesale inflation rate in India for May 2026, as per the new WPI series?
- A.8.5%
- B.9.2%
- C.9.7%✓ Correct Answer
- D.10.1%
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Explanation
The article states that wholesale inflation rose to 9.7% in May 2026, driven by crude oil, natural gas, and mineral oils. This is the highest since at least April 2024, when the new base year series began.
What is the primary objective of the Kerala Revised Budget 2026-27 as presented by the new government?
- A.To reduce fiscal deficit through immediate spending cuts
- B.To revitalise the state economy through fiscal reforms and infrastructure projects✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase public debt to boost consumption
- D.To privatize state-owned enterprises
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Explanation
Chief Minister V.D. Satheesan outlined fiscal reforms, infrastructure projects, and welfare measures to revive the economy, criticizing the previous government's debt trap. The budget includes increased expenditure and aims to address the revenue deficit.
Which ministry/department is primarily responsible for administering the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA)?
- A.Ministry of External Affairs
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.Ministry of Law and Justice
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Explanation
The FCRA is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs, as clearly stated in the article. The Home Ministry issued the notifications and oversees foreign funding of NGOs.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent FCRA amendments:
1. The new rules require NGOs to specify their purposes from a government-notified schedule of 105 permissible activities.
2. The amendments allow foreign nationals in key management positions to receive FCRA registration without restrictions.
3. Proselytisation is explicitly excluded from permitted religious activities under the new rules.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct – registration now requires selecting from a 105-activity schedule. Statement 2 is incorrect – the rules restrict organisations with foreign nationals in key positions from ordinarily receiving registration. Statement 3 is correct – proselytisation is specifically barred. Hence option C is correct.
According to the new FCRA notification, what is the penalty for utilising foreign contribution in speculative investments (e.g., stock market)?
- A.₹1 lakh or 5% of the amount invested, whichever is higher
- B.₹1 lakh or 30% of the amount invested, whichever is higher✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹2 lakh or 30% of the amount invested, whichever is higher
- D.₹1 lakh or 40% of the amount invested, whichever is higher
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Explanation
The second notification under Section 41(1) of FCRA specifies that speculative investment violation attracts a penalty of ₹1 lakh or 30% of the amount invested, whichever is higher. Option A is the penalty for administrative expense breach (5%), not investments.
What is the primary objective of the recent amendments to the FCRA rules?
- A.To increase the flow of foreign funds to NGOs in India
- B.To strengthen oversight and prevent misuse of foreign contributions for unauthorised purposes including conversion✓ Correct Answer
- C.To deregulate the NGO sector and reduce government intervention
- D.To promote foreign investment in charitable organisations
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Explanation
The article states the government's rationale is to strengthen oversight, plug compliance gaps, and better track fund utilisation. The explicit bar on proselytisation and the tighter registration and reporting requirements aim to prevent diversion of funds to conversion and other unauthorised activities.
Which international organization estimated that approximately 20,000 mariners and 2,000 ships were stranded in the Persian Gulf during the conflict?
- A.World Trade Organization (WTO)
- B.International Maritime Organization (IMO)✓ Correct Answer
- C.United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
- D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the International Maritime Organization (IMO) estimated around 20,000 mariners and 2,000 ships of all kinds were stranded in the Gulf. The IMO is the UN specialized agency for maritime safety and shipping regulation.
Consider the following statements regarding the reopening of the Strait of Hormuz:
1. Biofouling from barnacles can increase a ship hull's hydrodynamic drag by 10% to 60%.
2. The Persian Gulf averages around 164 feet in depth and 30°C water temperature, ideal for barnacle growth.
3. According to BIMCO, the entire Strait of Hormuz is now fully navigable after the ceasefire.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article states biofouling increases drag by 10% to 60%. Statement 2 is correct: the Persian Gulf is about 164 ft deep and 30°C warm. Statement 3 is incorrect: BIMCO's safety officer said the central part of the strait is still mined and unnavigable, with only narrow inshore zones near Oman and Iran reportedly clear.
According to Saudi Aramco CEO Amin Nasser, how many tankers were stuck inside the Persian Gulf as of mid-May 2026?
- A.240 tankers
- B.400 tankers
- C.600 tankers✓ Correct Answer
- D.2,000 tankers
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Explanation
The article states Saudi Aramco CEO Amin Nasser reported more than 600 tankers were stuck inside the Persian Gulf as of mid-May 2026. The 240 figure refers to tankers waiting just outside the strait. The 2,000 figure was the IMO's estimate for total ships of all kinds stranded.
What is the primary unexpected logistical challenge that has delayed the reopening of the Strait of Hormuz after the ceasefire?
- A.Iran's new registration requirements for shipping companies
- B.Minesweeping operations needed to clear the central channel
- C.Biofouling from marine organisms on stationary ship hulls✓ Correct Answer
- D.Insurance negotiations for war-risk coverage
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Explanation
While all options are mentioned as hurdles, the article frames biofouling as the 'slower, stranger obstacle' that few expected. Barnacles and other marine life accumulated on hulls during months of anchorage, requiring scuba divers to manually clean each vessel before it can safely transit.
Which organisation led the captive-breeding and release programme of the Long-billed Vulture mentioned in the news?
- A.Wildlife Institute of India (WII)
- B.Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS)✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA)
- D.Zoological Survey of India (ZSI)
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions BNHS Director Kishor Rithe and senior field biologist Bhaskar Das. BNHS is the nodal body for the vulture conservation programme in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the captive-bred vulture X67:
1. X67 was a five-year-old female Long-billed Vulture released from Melghat Tiger Reserve in January 2026.
2. The vulture was fitted with a blue leg ring where the letter 'M' indicates Maharashtra as the release site.
3. The journey of 3,334 km was completed in 27 days without any stopovers in protected areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: X67 is a five-year-old female Long-billed Vulture released on Jan 2, 2026 from Melghat. Statement 2 is correct: blue leg ring colour indicates India, and 'M' stands for Maharashtra. Statement 3 is incorrect because the vulture made temporary roosting stops at Satpura TR, Bhopal region, and Kuno NP – it did use protected areas as stopovers.
How many captive-bred vultures were released along with X67 from Melghat Tiger Reserve on January 2, 2026?
- A.10
- B.15✓ Correct Answer
- C.20
- D.25
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Explanation
The article states that 'X67 was among 15 captive-bred vultures released on January 2, 2026' from the Somthana Range of Melghat Tiger Reserve.
What is the primary ecological significance of X67's journey as highlighted by conservationists?
- A.It proves that vultures can fly over 3,000 km non-stop.
- B.It shows that vultures prefer tiger reserves and protected areas as corridors because of available carrion from wild carnivores.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It demonstrates that captive-bred vultures cannot survive without supplementary feeding.
- D.It indicates that vultures avoid human-dominated landscapes entirely.
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Explanation
BNHS Director Kishor Rithe said the route indicates vultures prefer the network of tiger reserves where carrion remains available due to a healthy population of wild carnivores. This underscores the role of protected areas not just for predators but also for scavengers.
Which Act is the primary legislation for protecting children from sexual offences in India?
- A.A) Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971
- B.B) Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012✓ Correct Answer
- C.C) Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015
- D.D) Indian Penal Code, 1860
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Explanation
The POCSO Act, 2012, specifically addresses sexual offences against children. The MTP Act deals with pregnancy termination, the Juvenile Justice Act focuses on care and protection, and the IPC covers general sexual offences but not with the specificity of POCSO.
Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka High Court order:
1. The victim was a 15-year-old minor who had been repeatedly sexually assaulted.
2. The pregnancy was terminated at 24 weeks of gestation as per standard MTP Act limits.
3. The court ordered a statewide audit of compliance with child protection protocols.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the girl was 15 years old and was repeatedly assaulted. Statement 2 is incorrect - the pregnancy was terminated at 29 weeks, exceeding the 24-week limit. Statement 3 is correct - the court ordered a statewide compliance audit by the Director, Women and Child Development.
What is the maximum gestation period ordinarily permitted for termination of pregnancy under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act?
- A.20 weeks
- B.24 weeks✓ Correct Answer
- C.29 weeks
- D.32 weeks
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Explanation
The MTP Act ordinarily permits termination up to 24 weeks of gestation (subject to conditions). Beyond 24 weeks, a medical board approval is needed for specific categories like rape survivors. In this case, the court allowed termination at 29 weeks based on medical board opinion.
What is the primary objective of the statewide compliance audit ordered by the Karnataka High Court?
- A.A) To punish the police officers who filed the FIR
- B.B) To ensure immediate care, counselling, and access to statutory entitlements for minor victims of sexual assault✓ Correct Answer
- C.C) To amend the POCSO Act
- D.D) To increase the number of convictions under the MTP Act
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Explanation
The court directed the audit to examine whether mechanisms for timely intervention, medical and psychological assistance, and entitlements under law are being provided. The focus is on victim welfare, not punishment or legislation amendment.
Which ministry/department is primarily responsible for implementing the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Rural Development✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- D.Ministry of Labour and Employment
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Explanation
MGNREGA is a rural development initiative aimed at providing employment in rural areas. It is implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development at the central level.
Consider the following statements regarding the Madras High Court judgment on MGNREGA:
1. The court held that long service under MGNREGA confers a right to permanent employment.
2. The court suggested deploying MGNREGA workers in agriculture to address labour shortages.
3. The judgment noted that welfare schemes must evolve with technological advancements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the court explicitly ruled that long service does not confer a right to permanent employment. Statement 2 is correct as the court urged policymakers to explore deploying labour in agriculture. Statement 3 is correct as the court emphasised that welfare schemes must evolve with technology.
Under MGNREGA, how many days of guaranteed unskilled manual employment is provided to a rural household in a financial year?
- A.50 days
- B.75 days
- C.100 days✓ Correct Answer
- D.120 days
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Explanation
MGNREGA guarantees 100 days of employment per rural household per financial year. This is a key fact from the article, which mentions the scheme was launched to provide guaranteed employment for 100 days.
What was the core constitutional principle cited by the Madras High Court for rejecting the claim for regularisation?
- A.Right to livelihood under Article 21
- B.Equal opportunity in public employment under Article 14✓ Correct Answer
- C.Freedom of profession under Article 19(1)(g)
- D.Right to education under Article 21A
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Explanation
The court held that appointments to public posts must follow a duly constituted recruitment process to uphold the guarantee of equal opportunity enshrined under Article 14. The judgment distinguished between scheme engagement and public service, and did not rely on Article 21, 19(1)(g), or 21A.
Which organization published the QS World Future Skills Index 2027?
- A.QS Quacquarelli Symonds✓ Correct Answer
- B.World Economic Forum
- C.International Monetary Fund
- D.United Nations Development Programme
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Explanation
The report was released by QS Quacquarelli Symonds, a global higher education analytics firm. Other options are international bodies but not responsible for this index.
Consider the following statements regarding India's performance in the QS World Future Skills Index 2027:
1. India scored a perfect 100 on the Economic Capacity sub-indicator.
2. India ranks 73rd overall in the index.
3. India has the world's largest IT services workforce.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: India achieved a perfect 100 on Economic Capacity. Statement 2 is incorrect: India ranks 13th overall, not 73rd (73rd is the Human Capital Index rank). Statement 3 is correct: India has the largest IT services workforce (5.8 million professionals). Hence option C is correct.
According to the QS World Future Skills Index 2027, what is India's overall score out of 100?
- A.85.7
- B.89.4✓ Correct Answer
- C.93.3
- D.96.0
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Explanation
India's overall score is 89.4. The other options are sub-indicator scores: 85.7 (Academic Readiness), 93.3 (Economic Transformation), and 96.0 (Future of Work). The question tests precise recollection of the overall score.
What does the QS report identify as the primary threat to India's AI-driven economic growth?
- A.Lack of foreign direct investment in technology
- B.Widening mismatch between graduate quality and employer demands✓ Correct Answer
- C.High unemployment rate among IT professionals
- D.Inadequate internet infrastructure in rural areas
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Explanation
The report flags that India's median graduate quality is not keeping pace with employer needs in AI, digital, and green sectors, despite high graduate volume. This skills gap threatens the $500 billion AI opportunity. Other options are not identified as primary threats in the article.
Which ministry/department is primarily responsible for releasing the Index of Eight Core Industries?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
- D.Reserve Bank of India
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Explanation
The Index of Eight Core Industries is released by the Office of the Economic Adviser, which functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The other options are not directly responsible for this specific index.
Consider the following statements regarding the economic data discussed in the article:
1. The Index of Eight Core Industries grew by 0.5% in May 2026, which was the lowest growth recorded in the last 21 months.
2. Domestic GST revenue contracted by 2.6% in May 2026, but the government argues this is partly due to a one-time windfall received in May 2025.
3. Fertilizer sector output in May 2026 contracted more sharply than it did two months earlier.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: the article says 0.5% is the second-lowest in 21 months, not the lowest. Statement 2 correctly notes the 2.6% contraction and the government's one-time windfall explanation. Statement 3 is incorrect: the contraction of -0.9% in May 2026 was much lower than it was even two months earlier, i.e., improvement, not more severe.
According to the article, what was the growth rate of the Index of Eight Core Industries for the entire financial year 2025-26?
- A.0.5%
- B.1.1%✓ Correct Answer
- C.2.6%
- D.3.1%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the index grew by 'an almost equally anaemic 1.1% over the course of the entire financial year 2025-26'. Option A is the May 2026 monthly figure, C is the GST contraction, and D is the 6-month average GST growth.
What does the article identify as the primary cause of the recent economic slowdown, given that merchandise exports hit a record high in May 2026?
- A.Supply-side disruptions due to the West Asia crisis
- B.Low real wage growth combined with rising inflation✓ Correct Answer
- C.Government's one-time windfall transfer in May 2025
- D.Contraction in global demand for Indian goods
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Explanation
The article states that exports are at a record high, ruling out a supply problem or global demand contraction. It explicitly says 'It is a demand problem, as low real wage growth meets rising inflation to squeeze wallets.' The government's windfall explanation is about GST revenue, not the overall slowdown.
Which body conducted the inquiry that found Israel deliberately targeted Palestinian children, resulting in genocide?
- A.UN Human Rights Council
- B.International Criminal Court
- C.UN Independent International Commission of Inquiry on the Occupied Palestinian Territory✓ Correct Answer
- D.UN Security Council
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the report was by the 'U.N. Independent International Commission of Inquiry on the Occupied Palestinian Territory, including East Jerusalem, and Israel'. This is an ad hoc commission established by the UN Human Rights Council, not the Council itself or the ICC.
Consider the following statements regarding the UN inquiry report:
1. The report found that 30% of those killed in the Gaza war were children.
2. The report concluded that Israel's actions constituted genocide and war crimes only in Gaza, not in the West Bank.
3. The commission documented an increase in settler violence against Palestinian children in the West Bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the report says around 30% of those killed were children. Statement 2 is incorrect: the report found war crimes in the occupied West Bank as well, including violence by settlers and mistreatment of detained children. Statement 3 is correct: the report found a sharp increase in violence by Israeli settlers against Palestinian children in the West Bank. Hence option C is correct.
According to the UN inquiry report, how many Palestinian children were killed in Gaza between October 7, 2023 and October 7, 2025?
- A.15,000
- B.20,179✓ Correct Answer
- C.25,000
- D.30,000
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Explanation
The article states: 'Between October 7, 2023 and October 7, 2025, at least 20,179 children were killed, around 30% of the overall death toll.' The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the report.
What is the primary significance of the report's finding that Palestinian children were 'deliberately targeted' by Israeli forces?
- A.It proves Israel violated the ceasefire agreement of October 2025.
- B.It establishes genocidal intent under the Genocide Convention.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It shows that Israel's actions were militarily necessary.
- D.It justifies the actions of Hamas as self-defense.
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Explanation
The report explicitly states that deliberate targeting of children is 'a key element establishing genocidal intent by Israeli authorities and security forces to destroy the Palestinian group, in whole or in part, in Gaza.' Genocidal intent is the crucial element distinguishing genocide from other war crimes. The other options are not supported by the report's findings.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for implementing the Ayushman Bharat Health and Wellness Centres scheme?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Rural Development
- D.Ministry of Women and Child Development
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Explanation
The Ayushman Bharat scheme, including Health and Wellness Centres, is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. It aims to strengthen primary healthcare infrastructure in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the Ayushman Bharat Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs):
1. The HWCs were introduced in 2018 as a policy initiative to strengthen health infrastructure.
2. The HWCs completely replaced the existing Sub-Centres, Primary Health Centres, and Community Health Centres with new facilities.
3. The article argues that the 'health and wellness' approach shifted focus from population health outcomes to individual well-being.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: HWCs were introduced in 2018. Statement 2 is incorrect: HWCs did not replace existing institutions but merely added 'Health and Wellness Centre' as a prefix to their names. Statement 3 is correct: the article criticizes the shift from population health to individual well-being.
According to the article, what is the annual budget of the Ayushman Bharat Digital Health Mission (ABDHM)?
- A.₹100 crore
- B.₹200 crore
- C.₹300 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹500 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the ABDHM has an annual budget of around ₹300 crore, questioning its justification in the absence of measurable outcomes. The other options are close distractors.
What is the primary concern raised in the article regarding the shift from population health outcomes to individual well-being in public health policy?
- A.It increases government spending on healthcare infrastructure
- B.It fails to systematically capture unmet health needs of the population✓ Correct Answer
- C.It improves the quality of curative care in public hospitals
- D.It reduces the role of private healthcare providers
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Explanation
The article argues that framing health outcomes in terms of individual well-being risks failing to capture a wide range of unmet health needs that remain significant for the population. It also makes it difficult to measure and improve health systems effectively.
The Strait of Hormuz connects which two bodies of water?
- A.A. Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman✓ Correct Answer
- B.B. Red Sea and Gulf of Aden
- C.C. Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea
- D.D. Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal
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Explanation
The Strait of Hormuz is located between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman, making it a critical chokepoint for oil tankers. This is mentioned in the context of international law regarding free passage, as referred to by US Secretary Rubio in the article.
Consider the following statements regarding the US-Iran interim deal:
1. The deal was reached in Switzerland led by Vice President J.D. Vance.
2. The deal includes a $300 billion unconditional investment fund for Iran.
3. Rubio argued that the complete end of hostilities clause covers Iran's proxy forces.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.A. Only 1
- B.B. Only 2
- C.C. Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.D. All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the talks were held in Switzerland led by VP Vance. Statement 2 is incorrect: the $300 billion fund is conditional on Iran's leadership making a decision to become a country, not unconditional. Statement 3 is correct: Rubio said the MOU's end-of-hostilities clause requires Iran to halt proxy funding. Hence option C is correct.
According to the news, what is the timeline set for concluding negotiations on Iran's nuclear program?
- A.A. 30 days
- B.B. 60 days✓ Correct Answer
- C.C. 90 days
- D.D. 120 days
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Explanation
The article explicitly states 'negotiations on its nuclear program to be concluded in 60 days.' This is a key data point often asked in prelims for international agreements.
Why are Gulf Arab allies, including UAE, Kuwait, and Bahrain, skeptical of the US-Iran interim deal?
- A.A. Because the deal imposes sanctions on Iran
- B.B. Because the deal does not cover Iran's missile program, proxy support, or nuclear issue✓ Correct Answer
- C.C. Because the deal opens the Strait of Hormuz to tolls
- D.D. Because the deal requires Gulf states to fund Iran
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Explanation
The article states that Gulf allies have taken a harder line on Iran and are uneasy because the agreement 'does not cover Iran's missile program, its support for proxies and pushes off the nuclear question until later.' The US insists these are covered by the end-of-hostilities clause, but allies remain skeptical.
Which company operates the Barzan local gas supply facility where the explosion occurred?
- A.Qatar Petroleum
- B.QatarEnergy LNG✓ Correct Answer
- C.RasGas
- D.ExxonMobil
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Explanation
The article states that the Barzan facility is operated by QatarEnergy LNG. This is a key static fact about Qatar's energy infrastructure.
Consider the following statements:
1. The explosion killed 13 people, including 12 Indians.
2. The incident occurred at the Ras Laffan Industrial City in Qatar.
3. All 66 injured persons are in critical condition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct (13 total, 12 Indians). Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is false because the article says all injured are in stable condition, not critical. Hence option C is correct.
According to the news, how many people were injured in the Ras Laffan blast?
- A.12
- B.13
- C.66✓ Correct Answer
- D.78
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that 66 people were injured, including Indians. Options 12 and 13 are distractors related to deaths.
What was the primary reason for the phone call between PM Modi and Qatar's Amir?
- A.To discuss energy trade agreements
- B.To express condolences for the blast✓ Correct Answer
- C.To strengthen bilateral ties broadly
- D.To request compensation for victims
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Explanation
The article states that the Amir called Modi to express grief over the deaths of Indian nationals, and Modi thanked him for the condolences. While strengthening ties is a broader outcome, the immediate purpose was condolence.
Which United Nations body adopted the resolution to ensure perpetrators of crimes against peacekeepers face justice?
- A.UN General Assembly
- B.UN Security Council✓ Correct Answer
- C.International Court of Justice
- D.UN Peacebuilding Commission
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Explanation
The UN Security Council is responsible for maintaining international peace and security, and it unanimously adopted the resolution. The General Assembly deals with broader issues but does not adopt binding security resolutions.
Consider the following statements regarding the UN Security Council resolution on peacekeepers:
1. The resolution was adopted unanimously.
2. It authorizes the Secretary-General to prosecute perpetrators of crimes against peacekeepers.
3. Over 150 countries co-sponsored the resolution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the resolution was unanimously adopted. Statement 2 is incorrect: the resolution authorizes the Secretary-General to collect facts and support investigations, not to prosecute directly. Statement 3 is correct: the resolution was co-sponsored by more than 150 countries. Hence option C is correct.
According to the UN peacekeeping department, how many peacekeepers have lost their lives in the line of duty since 1948?
- A.750
- B.1,100✓ Correct Answer
- C.1,500
- D.2,000
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Explanation
The article states that nearly 1,100 peacekeepers have lost their lives since 1948. The other options are close distractors: 750 and 1,500 are not mentioned; 2,000 is too high.
What is the primary objective of the new UN Security Council resolution on peacekeepers?
- A.To increase the number of peacekeeping missions
- B.To ensure perpetrators of crimes against peacekeepers face justice✓ Correct Answer
- C.To provide compensation to families of fallen peacekeepers
- D.To reduce the budget of UN peacekeeping operations
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Explanation
The resolution aims to address the low prosecution rate for attacks on peacekeepers by authorizing fact-collection and supporting investigations. While compensation and mission numbers may be related, the core objective is accountability and justice.
Which of the following straits is a critical chokepoint for global oil trade, as mentioned in the news?
- A.Strait of Malacca
- B.Strait of Hormuz✓ Correct Answer
- C.Bab-el-Mandeb
- D.Suez Canal
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Explanation
The article specifically discusses the Strait of Hormuz, where traffic resumed after Iran lifted its blockade. It is a critical chokepoint for oil transit, with around 125 ships passing daily before the conflict.
Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Hormuz situation:
1. Pre-conflict average daily ship traffic through the strait was 125.
2. Very Large Crude Carrier (VLCC) earnings jumped by over $50,000 from a week ago.
3. War risk insurance for ships increased from 3% to 5% of the vessel's value in the last five days.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions a daily average of 125 ships before conflict. Statement 2 is correct: VLCC earnings rose by over $50,000 from a week ago (to nearly $470,000). Statement 3 is false: war risk insurance actually softened from 5% to 3% of the vessel value. Hence option C is correct.
According to the article, what was the spot hiring rate for a tanker outside the Strait of Hormuz one week ago (June 17, 2026)?
- A.$106,500 per day✓ Correct Answer
- B.$190,500 per day
- C.$470,000 per day
- D.$76,340 per day
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Explanation
The article states that the rate jumped to $190,500 a day from $106,500 a week ago. Therefore the prior week's rate was $106,500 per day. Option B is the current rate, C is the VLCC earnings, and D is the Brent crude price.
Why did oil tanker rates surge despite oil prices falling to near four-month lows?
- A.Because of increased demand for oil from Indian refiners
- B.Due to a shortage of available vessels and many tankers still trapped inside the Gulf✓ Correct Answer
- C.Because war risk insurance premiums rose sharply
- D.Due to the US imposing new sanctions on Iranian oil exports
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Explanation
The article explains that the situation contributed to a shortage of available vessels even as Middle Eastern producers ramped up exports. About 100 tankers were still stuck inside the Gulf with cargoes onboard, creating tight supply. This drove rates up independent of oil price movements.
Which Act was amended by the SHANTI Bill to allow private sector participation in nuclear energy?
- A.Atomic Energy Act, 1962✓ Correct Answer
- B.Electricity Act, 2003
- C.Environment Protection Act, 1986
- D.Nuclear Safety Regulatory Authority Act, 2011
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Explanation
The SHANTI Bill amends the Atomic Energy Act, 1962, which previously restricted nuclear power generation to the public sector. The amendment enables private participation across the nuclear fuel cycle.
Consider the following statements regarding the Adani Group's nuclear energy plan:
1. The group aims to develop 10 GW of nuclear capacity by 2035.
2. The SHANTI Bill was passed in Parliament in June 2026.
3. The group has partnered with Bhutan's Druk Green Power Corporation for 5,000 MW hydropower projects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Adani announced 10 GW nuclear capacity by 2035. Statement 2 is incorrect: the SHANTI Bill was passed in December 2025, not June 2026. Statement 3 is correct: the partnership with Druk Green Power Corporation is for 5,000 MW hydropower. Hence option C.
What was the Adani Group's record capital investment in hard infrastructure during FY 25-26, as mentioned in the article?
- A.₹1 lakh crore
- B.₹1.5 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹2 lakh crore
- D.₹2.5 lakh crore
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Explanation
The article states that in FY 25-26, the group made a record capital investment of more than ₹1.5 lakh crore in hard infrastructure, representing over 30% of India's total new private-sector capital expenditure for the year.
What is the primary objective of the SHANTI Bill as inferred from the article?
- A.To increase government revenue from nuclear energy exports
- B.To unlock private sector participation in nuclear power generation and related activities✓ Correct Answer
- C.To phase out coal-based power plants by 2030
- D.To establish a new regulatory body for nuclear safety
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the SHANTI Bill is expected to unlock private sector participation across a wide spectrum of nuclear activities including power generation, reactor supply, fuel mining, and R&D. This is the core objective of the legislation.
Which ministry is responsible for issuing trade permits for the Lipulekh Pass route?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Defence
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Explanation
The article states that the Ministry of External Affairs has issued 300 permits for trade through Lipulekh Pass. The permit is an orange passport-like booklet. The Intelligence Bureau conducts background checks before issuance.
Consider the following statements:
1. Lipulekh Pass was first closed for trade after the 1962 India-China war.
2. Trade through Lipulekh Pass reopened in 1992 and continued uninterrupted until 2026.
3. The pass is located on the trijunction of India, Nepal, and China.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: trade was suspended after the 1962 war. Statement 2 is incorrect because trade was closed again in 2019 due to pandemic and border tensions, and reopened only in 2026. Statement 3 is correct: the pass is at the trijunction of India, Nepal, and China's Tibet.
What was the value of imports from Tibet through Lipulekh in the last year before the 2019 closure?
- A.Rs 14 crore
- B.Rs 1.9 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.Rs 38 lakh
- D.Rs 20 lakh
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'In 2019, the last year of border trade, imports stood at a mere Rs 1.9 crore'. The high point of trade was in 2004 with imports of Rs 14 crore.
What is the primary strategic significance of reopening the Lipulekh Pass for India?
- A.Boosting tourism in Uttarakhand
- B.Strengthening border presence in an area contested by Nepal✓ Correct Answer
- C.Increasing revenue from customs duties
- D.Promoting cultural exchange with Tibet
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Explanation
The article notes the region is contested by Nepal based on the 1816 Treaty of Sugauli, and that the reopening holds immense strategic value despite low trade volumes. It reinforces Indian sovereignty and presence in the Kalapani-Lipulekh area.
Which of the following was constituted in Delhi to continuously monitor the El Niño impact on agriculture?
- A.Crop Weather Watch Group
- B.El Niño Monitoring Cell✓ Correct Answer
- C.District Agriculture Contingency Plans (DACP)
- D.Kharif Sowing Committee
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that an 'El Niño Monitoring Cell' and a 'Crop Weather Watch Group' were constituted. The question specifically asks for the cell that monitors El Niño impact; hence option B is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the rainfall deficit:
1. Overall rainfall has been 43 per cent below normal so far.
2. Nine states have a deficiency of more than 60 per cent.
3. IMD had predicted 92 per cent rainfall for June.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
All statements are directly from the article: (1) the Minister said 'rainfall has been 43 per cent below normal so far'; (2) 'Nine of these have a deficiency of more than 60 per cent'; (3) 'For June, IMD had predicted 92 per cent rainfall'. Hence option D is correct.
According to the Agriculture Minister, how many districts have irrigation coverage of 25 per cent or less and are designated as high priority?
- A.76
- B.111✓ Correct Answer
- C.128
- D.315
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Explanation
The article quotes the Minister saying '111 districts are of high priority, where the irrigation coverage is less than 25 per cent'. Option A (76) is medium priority, C (128) is low priority, and D (315) is total affected districts.
What is the primary purpose of the 'Crop Weather Watch Group' constituted by the Agriculture Ministry?
- A.To monitor market prices of crops
- B.To analyse monsoon progress, crop sowing, crop conditions, and input supplies✓ Correct Answer
- C.To distribute seeds to farmers in affected districts
- D.To coordinate with state governments on drought relief
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Explanation
The article states that the Group will 'continuously analyse the progress of the monsoon, crop sowing, crop conditions, input supplies, and market signals'. Option B best captures this comprehensive mandate.
Which organization is responsible for slum rehabilitation in Delhi?
- A.Delhi Urban Shelter Improvement Board (DUSIB)✓ Correct Answer
- B.Municipal Corporation of Delhi (MCD)
- C.Delhi Development Authority (DDA)
- D.Delhi Jal Board
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Explanation
As per the article, the decision was taken at the 36th Board Meeting of DUSIB, which is the nodal agency for slum rehabilitation in Delhi.
Consider the following statements:
1. The cut-off date for slum rehabilitation eligibility was revised to January 1, 2025.
2. The decision was taken at the 36th Board Meeting of DUSIB chaired by the Chief Minister.
3. The new policy will provide only housing without any other civic facilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are directly stated in the article. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article mentions that Anganwadi centres, schools, health centres, and playgrounds will be provided in the new colonies.
How many families are expected to benefit from the revised cut-off for slum rehabilitation?
- A.2 lakh families
- B.4-5 lakh families✓ Correct Answer
- C.20 lakh families
- D.1 lakh families
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Explanation
The article states that nearly 20 lakh people (around 4-5 lakh families) living in JJ clusters will benefit. The number of families is 4-5 lakh, while 20 lakh refers to the total population.
What is the primary objective of revising the cut-off date for slum rehabilitation?
- A.To reduce the number of slum dwellers in Delhi
- B.To provide permanent housing with essential civic amenities to eligible families✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase government revenue from slum land
- D.To promote urban migration to Delhi
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Explanation
The article quotes the CM stating that eligible families will be provided multi-storey flats equipped with all essential civic amenities like schools, health centres, and playgrounds. This is the core objective of the policy revision.
Which body approved the new slum rehabilitation policy for Delhi with the revised cut-off date?
- A.Delhi Urban Shelter Improvement Board (DUSIB)✓ Correct Answer
- B.Delhi Development Authority (DDA)
- C.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
- D.Delhi Municipal Corporation (MCD)
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Explanation
The article states that the decision was taken at a Delhi Urban Shelter Improvement Board meeting chaired by Chief Minister Rekha Gupta. DUSIB is the nodal body responsible for slum rehabilitation in Delhi.
Consider the following statements regarding the new slum rehabilitation policy:
1. The policy revised the cut-off date from January 1, 2015 to January 1, 2025.
2. The policy was approved directly by the Chief Minister of Delhi.
3. The government is considering provisions to include members of the same family living in separate units within a slum structure, subject to payment of charges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: revised cut-off date is January 1, 2025 instead of January 1, 2015. Statement 2 is incorrect because the decision was taken at the DUSIB meeting chaired by the CM, not solely approved by the CM. Statement 3 is correct: the government is considering including family members in separate units with charges.
What is the revised cut-off date under the new Delhi slum rehabilitation policy?
- A.January 1, 2015
- B.January 1, 2025✓ Correct Answer
- C.January 1, 2026
- D.January 1, 2020
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the revised cut-off date is January 1, 2025, replacing the earlier cut-off of January 1, 2015. Option A is the old cut-off, C is the policy year but not the cut-off, D is not mentioned.
What is the primary objective of the 'Jahan Jhuggi Wahan Makkan' scheme mentioned in the article?
- A.To provide rental housing in peripheral areas
- B.To rehabilitate slum dwellers within or near their existing settlements✓ Correct Answer
- C.To construct high-rise apartments in central Delhi
- D.To offer financial compensation in lieu of housing
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Explanation
The article mentions that efforts would be made to rehabilitate beneficiaries within or near their existing settlements in line with the Delhi government's Jahan Jhuggi Wahan Makkan scheme. This approach minimizes displacement and social disruption.
Which Indian statutory body outlined the roadmap targeting 100 GW of pumped storage capacity by 2035-36?
- A.Central Electricity Authority (CEA)✓ Correct Answer
- B.Central Water Commission (CWC)
- C.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE)
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the CEA outlined the roadmap targeting 100 GW of pumped storage capacity by 2035-36. The CEA is a statutory body under the Ministry of Power responsible for power sector planning.
Consider the following statements:
1. The 2026 Global Hydropower Outlook was released by the International Hydropower Association (IHA).
2. India's Siang Upper Multipurpose Project (11,000 MW) is located in the state of Assam.
3. Global pumped storage capacity surpassed 200 GW in 2025, with a record 11.7 GW added.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The IHA released the 2026 Global Hydropower Outlook. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Siang Upper Multipurpose Project is in Arunachal Pradesh, not Assam. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions that pumped storage capacity surpassed 200 GW globally and a record 11.7 GW was added in 2025.
According to the 2026 Global Hydropower Outlook, what was India's total installed hydropower capacity as of 2025?
- A.54,361 MW
- B.56,336 MW✓ Correct Answer
- C.60,000 MW
- D.100,000 MW
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Explanation
The article states that India had the highest installed capacity in Central and South Asia with 56,336 MW. The distractor 54,361 MW is Russia's installed capacity, while 60,000 MW is the capacity of China's Yarlung Zangbo project.
What is the primary strategic objective of India's proposed Siang Upper Multipurpose Project in Arunachal Pradesh?
- A.To generate the largest amount of hydroelectricity in Asia
- B.To serve as a defensive countermeasure against China's upstream Yarlung Zangbo project✓ Correct Answer
- C.To export electricity to neighboring Southeast Asian countries
- D.To provide irrigation water for agricultural lands in Assam
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that India justifies the Siang mega-dam as a strategic buffer to regulate water flow, prevent sudden Chinese water diversions, and mitigate downstream flood risks, acting as a defensive countermeasure against China's Yarlung Zangbo project.
Which international agency is responsible for inspecting nuclear enrichment sites to prevent weapons proliferation?
- A.United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
- B.International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)
- D.World Nuclear Association (WNA)
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Explanation
The IAEA is the UN's nuclear watchdog that conducts inspections and safeguards to ensure nuclear materials are not diverted for weapons purposes. The UNSC can impose sanctions but does not conduct inspections. The NSG is a supplier group, not an inspection body.
Consider the following statements:
1. Iran is the only country in the world to have enriched uranium to 60% purity without a weapons program.
2. The IAEA has been blocked from visiting Iranian enrichment sites since the 2025 Israel-Iran war.
3. The US-Iran interim deal requires Iran's uranium stockpile to be 'downblended' from highly enriched levels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: Iran is the only country enriching to 60% without a weapons program. Statement 2 is correct: the IAEA has been blocked since the 2025 war. Statement 3 is correct: the deal calls for 'downblending' of Iran's stockpile. Hence all three are correct.
According to the article, to what purity level has Iran enriched its uranium?
- A.20%
- B.60%✓ Correct Answer
- C.90%
- D.3.67%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states Iran has enriched uranium to 60% purity. 20% is considered high-enriched but not weapons-grade; 90% is weapons-grade; 3.67% is typical for power reactors. The 60% level is a key concern as it is a short step from weapons-grade.
What is the primary purpose of IAEA inspections under the US-Iran interim deal?
- A.To impose economic sanctions on Iran
- B.To verify and supervise the downblending of Iran's enriched uranium✓ Correct Answer
- C.To dismantle all Iranian nuclear facilities
- D.To provide Iran with nuclear technology for power generation
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Explanation
The article states that inspections are key for the deal, which calls for Iran's stockpile of uranium to be 'downblended' from highly enriched levels. Sanctions and dismantlement are not mentioned; providing technology is contrary to the deal's purpose.
Which international framework requires India to submit the First Biennial Transparency Report (BTR1)?
- A.Kyoto Protocol
- B.United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Montreal Protocol
- D.Paris Agreement (only)
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Explanation
BTRs are submitted under the Enhanced Transparency Framework of the Paris Agreement, which operates under the UNFCCC. While the Paris Agreement mandates BTRs, the UNFCCC is the overarching body. The article mentions submission to UNFCCC.
Consider the following statements regarding India’s industrial emissions and mitigation policies:
1. According to India’s BTR1, fuel consumption in manufacturing and construction accounts for 13% of total national emissions.
2. The Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS) focuses on reducing specific energy consumption across 13 energy-intensive industries.
3. Over 40% of emissions from manufacturing and construction in 2020 came from ‘non-specific industries’ not explicitly covered by PAT or CCTS.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per BTR1 data. Statement 2 is incorrect: CCTS focuses on reducing emission intensity (not specific energy consumption) for nine sectors; PAT focuses on specific energy consumption for 13 industries. Statement 3 is correct: the article states that non-specific industries accounted for more than 40% of manufacturing/construction emissions and are outside PAT and CCTS scope.
According to the article, what percentage of India’s total national emissions in 2022 came from the industrial sector?
- A.13%
- B.9%
- C.Over 20%✓ Correct Answer
- D.40%
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Explanation
The article states ‘over 20% of India’s total emissions stemmed directly from the industrial sector’. The 13% and 9% are sub-components of that 20% (fuel consumption and industrial processes respectively). 40% refers to the share of manufacturing emissions from non-specific industries.
Why is the existence of a large ‘non-specific industries’ category in India’s emission inventory considered a major policy gap?
- A.Because these industries are more polluting than the identified heavy industries
- B.Because they are not covered by the existing mitigation schemes (PAT and CCTS) and thus escape emission reduction mandates✓ Correct Answer
- C.Because they are located only in rural areas and are difficult to monitor
- D.Because they are all MSMEs that cause negligible emissions
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that these industries ‘effectively fall outside the primary scope of both PAT and CCTS’ and are ‘not subject to the same energy efficiency mandates or emission-reduction targets’. The other options are not supported by the article.
Which regulatory body in India is responsible for issuing pilot licences and overseeing civil aviation safety?
- A.Airports Authority of India (AAI)
- B.Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Civil Aviation
- D.Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS)
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Explanation
The DGCA is the statutory regulatory body for civil aviation in India. It is responsible for issuing pilot licences, regulating air safety, and enforcing civil aviation regulations. The other options have different roles: AAI manages airports, the Ministry formulates policy, and BCAS focuses on security.
Consider the following statements regarding the proposed Multi-Crew Pilot Licence (MPL) in India:
1. The MPL route proposes greater reliance on simulators to reduce training timelines.
2. The draft proposal recommends a minimum of 150 hours of actual aircraft flying.
3. The MPL is already used by some international airlines like Qatar Airways for co-pilot hires.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the MPL proposal shifts training emphasis to structured simulation. Statement 2 is incorrect: the draft proposes 100-120 hours, while 150 hours is the demand by the Association of Flight Training Organisations. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions MPL is used by Qatar Airways and easyJet for co-pilot hires.
According to the report, what is the number of pilots per narrowbody plane for IndiGo, compared to the global average?
- A.7.6 pilots; global average ~10✓ Correct Answer
- B.8.2 pilots; global average ~11
- C.6.5 pilots; global average ~9
- D.9.0 pilots; global average ~12
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that IndiGo has just 7.6 pilots per narrowbody plane, well below the global average of around 10. This data point highlights the severity of the pilot shortage in India's largest airline.
What is the primary objective of the proposed simulator-heavy Multi-Crew Pilot Licence (MPL) route?
- A.To reduce the cost of flight training for individual pilots
- B.To shorten the training timeline and address the acute pilot shortage in India✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase the number of flying hours in real aircraft for better hands-on experience
- D.To align Indian pilot licensing with international standards set by ICAO
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Explanation
The article states that the MPL route 'may shorten timeline for cadets' and is proposed to 'reduce manpower shortages'. While cost reduction and international alignment may be secondary benefits, the core objective is to expedite pilot production to meet the demand-supply gap.
Which regulatory body issued the suo motu tariff order in 2014 for Tamil Nadu's power sector?
- A.Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC)
- B.Tamil Nadu Electricity Regulatory Commission (TNERC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Appellate Tribunal for Electricity (APTEL)
- D.Ministry of Power, Government of India
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions that the 2014 tariff revision was done via a 'suo motu' tariff order by the Tamil Nadu Electricity Regulatory Commission (TNERC). CERC deals with inter-state matters, while APTEL is an appellate body.
Consider the following statements regarding Tamil Nadu's power sector restructuring:
1. The original Tamil Nadu Electricity Board (TNEB) was formed in July 1957.
2. TANGEDCO was split into three new entities in 2024: TNPGCL, TNPDCL, and TNGECL.
3. TANTRANSCO was created in 2024 along with the three new entities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: TNEB was formed in July 1957. Statement 2 is correct: TANGEDCO was split in 2024 into TNPGCL, TNPDCL, and TNGECL. Statement 3 is incorrect: TANTRANSCO was created earlier in November 2010, not in 2024.
According to the White Paper on Tamil Nadu's public finances, what was the accumulated debt of select major state public sector undertakings as on March 31, 2026?
- A.₹2.55 lakh crore
- B.₹3.18 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹3.50 lakh crore
- D.₹2.80 lakh crore
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Explanation
The White Paper provisionally puts the accumulated debt of select major SPSUs at ₹3.18 lakh crore. 2.55 lakh is the number of employees, not debt. The other options are plausible distractors not mentioned in the article.
What is the primary reason for the persistent financial stress of Tamil Nadu's power distribution company (TNPDCL) as highlighted in the article?
- A.High employee salaries and pension costs
- B.Free electricity policies and infrequent tariff revisions✓ Correct Answer
- C.Excessive investment in renewable energy projects
- D.Lack of modern technology in power transmission
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the policy of free electricity to farmers and other categories, combined with only occasional tariff hikes, has eroded the fiscal autonomy of the discom. High salaries, renewable investments, or transmission technology are not cited as primary causes.
Which treaty forms the basis of Nepal's territorial claim over Lipulekh, Kalapani, and Limpiyadhura?
- A.Treaty of Sugauli (1816)✓ Correct Answer
- B.Treaty of Versailles (1919)
- C.Treaty of Amritsar (1846)
- D.Treaty of Paris (1763)
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Explanation
The Treaty of Sugauli, signed between the British East India Company and Nepal after the Anglo-Nepalese War, defined the boundary along the Kali River. The interpretation of this treaty is the basis of Nepal's claim over Kalapani, Lipulekh, and Limpiyadhura. The other options are unrelated to this Himalayan boundary dispute.
Consider the following statements:
1. Lipulekh Pass is located in Uttarakhand's Pithoragarh district and serves as a tri-junction of India, Nepal, and China.
2. The pass was closed in 2019 due to the pandemic and India-China border skirmishes, and reopened only for trade in 2026, not for pilgrimage.
3. Before 2019, the last recorded trade values were imports of Rs 1.9 crore and exports of Rs 1.25 crore.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Lipulekh Pass is in Pithoragarh, Uttarakhand, at the tri-junction. Statement 2 is incorrect because the reopening in 2026 includes both trade and the Mansarovar Yatra (pilgrimage) as mentioned in the article. Statement 3 is correct as per the data: 2019 imports Rs 1.9 Cr, exports Rs 1.25 Cr. Hence option C is correct.
What is the approximate altitude of the Lipulekh Pass at its highest point?
- A.15,000 ft
- B.17,000 ft✓ Correct Answer
- C.19,000 ft
- D.21,000 ft
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Lipulekh Pass reaches 17,000 ft at its highest point. The other options are common high-altitude figures used as distractors. 15,000 ft is close but incorrect; 19,000 ft and 21,000 ft are heights of other Himalayan passes like Khardung La.
What is the primary strategic significance of the Lipulekh Pass reopening for India?
- A.To increase bilateral trade volumes significantly with China
- B.To strengthen India's territorial claim over the region against Nepal
- C.To revive the Mansarovar Yatra and maintain traditional trans-Himalayan trade links✓ Correct Answer
- D.To establish a military outpost at the tri-junction
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Explanation
While trade volumes are small (Rs 1.9 Cr imports), the pass is historically important for pilgrimage (Mansarovar Yatra) and has cultural/sentimental value for border communities. The reopening also has geopolitical weight, but its primary stated purpose is to resume the yatra and trade. Option B is related but the article highlights the yatra and trade as the immediate objectives.
Which US government department issued the sanctions waiver allowing Iranian oil imports?
- A.US Department of State
- B.US Department of the Treasury✓ Correct Answer
- C.US Department of Commerce
- D.US Department of Energy
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Explanation
The article states that the US Department of the Treasury issued the waiver on June 22, 2026. The Treasury Department's Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) administers and enforces economic sanctions against Iran.
Consider the following statements regarding the US sanctions waiver on Iranian oil:
1. The waiver allows production, delivery, and sale of Iranian oil, petroleum products, and petrochemicals till August 21, 2026.
2. The waiver also removes all US financial sector sanctions on Iran, making payments easier.
3. India imported 530,000 tonnes of Iranian crude in April 2026 under a previous waiver.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the waiver covers oil, petroleum products, and petrochemicals till August 21. Statement 2 is incorrect: the waiver does NOT remove financial sector sanctions on Iran, which remain a key hurdle. Statement 3 is correct: India imported 530,000 tonnes (3% of total) in April 2026 under a previous month-long waiver.
What was India's peak annual import of Iranian crude oil, and in which financial year did it occur?
- A.22.1 million tonnes in 2009-10
- B.27.1 million tonnes in 2016-17✓ Correct Answer
- C.23.9 million tonnes in 2017-18
- D.13.6 million tonnes in 2015-16
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Explanation
The article states that India imported 27.1 million tonnes of Iranian oil in 2016-17, making Iran the third-largest source of India's oil imports, accounting for 12.6% of total crude imports. This was the peak under the Iran nuclear deal era.
Why are Indian refiners expected to be cautious about importing Iranian crude despite the US waiver?
- A.Iranian crude is of lower quality compared to Saudi or UAE crude
- B.Payment mechanisms remain complicated as Iranian banks are still under US sanctions✓ Correct Answer
- C.India has completely stopped using crude oil for energy generation
- D.The waiver does not allow dollar-denominated payments
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Explanation
The article highlights that while the waiver covers oil exports, Iranian banks remain heavily sanctioned, creating payment, documentation, and settlement hurdles. Refiners' compliance departments are cautious, and the waiver's short duration adds uncertainty. Option D is incorrect because the waiver does allow dollar-denominated payments.
Which Indian ministry is primarily responsible for negotiating bilateral trade agreements like the India-US BTA?
- A.Ministry of External Affairs
- B.Ministry of Finance
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Textiles
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Explanation
The Ministry of Commerce and Industry, under the Department of Commerce, handles trade negotiations and agreements. The Minister mentioned in the article is Piyush Goyal, who heads this ministry.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-US trade talks:
1. U.S. Trade Representative Jamieson Greer visited Delhi for a two-day trade meeting.
2. The Bilateral Trade Agreement (BTA) was finalized during the visit.
3. The interim agreement was originally scheduled for completion by April-May 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states Greer concluded a two-day visit. Statement 2 is incorrect because the talks noted progress but no deal was finalized. Statement 3 is correct: the interim agreement was to be completed by April-May 2026. Hence option C is correct.
When was the India-US Bilateral Trade Agreement (BTA) first announced?
- A.February 2024
- B.February 2025✓ Correct Answer
- C.February 2026
- D.June 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the BTA was announced in February 2025. The interim framework was signed in February 2026, and the recent visit was in June 2026. Option B is correct.
What is the primary purpose of the interim trade agreement between India and the US?
- A.To replace the Bilateral Trade Agreement entirely
- B.To serve as a milestone toward a comprehensive BTA✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase tariffs on bilateral trade
- D.To reduce diplomatic engagement
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Explanation
The article describes the interim agreement as 'an important milestone toward a comprehensive BTA'. It is not a replacement but a stepping stone. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as the interim deal aims to liberalize trade, not increase tariffs or reduce engagement.
Which state government issued the notification amending the Right to Information Rules in June 2026?
- A.Government of Karnataka
- B.Government of Maharashtra✓ Correct Answer
- C.Government of Gujarat
- D.Government of Tamil Nadu
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions that the Maharashtra government issued a notification amending the Maharashtra Right to Information Rules, 2026. This is a direct fact from the news.
Consider the following statements regarding the Maharashtra RTI Rules amendments:
1. The amendments introduced higher fees for filing RTI applications.
2. The amendments made Aadhaar card mandatory for filing RTI applications.
3. Anna Hazare has threatened an indefinite hunger strike from July 5 if the amendments are not withdrawn.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions higher fees. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article mentions a 'photo ID requirement', not specifically Aadhaar. Statement 3 is correct as Anna Hazare threatened a hunger strike from July 5. Hence option C is correct.
From what date has Anna Hazare threatened to begin his indefinite hunger strike?
- A.June 24, 2026
- B.July 5, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.June 18, 2026
- D.July 1, 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Anna Hazare has threatened to go on an indefinite hunger strike from July 5 if the government does not withdraw the amendments. The other dates are distractors from the article.
What is the primary concern raised by activists regarding the Maharashtra RTI Rules amendments?
- A.The amendments will increase government revenue through higher fees.
- B.The amendments will create barriers for citizens to access information, undermining transparency.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The amendments will make the RTI process more efficient and faster.
- D.The amendments will reduce the workload of public information officers.
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Explanation
Activists argue that higher fees, mandatory photo ID, and restrictions on applications will deter ordinary citizens, especially the poor, from filing RTI applications. This undermines the core objective of the RTI Act, which is to promote transparency and accountability.
Which High Court recently ruled that a vehicle not provided by the employer does not qualify as a 'workplace' under the POSH Act?
- A.Delhi High Court
- B.Bombay High Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.Rajasthan High Court
- D.Supreme Court of India
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Explanation
In a judgment dated June 16, 2026, the Bombay High Court set aside ICC findings against an SBI employee for an incident during travel, holding that transportation not provided by the employer does not fall under the definition of 'workplace' under Section 2(o)(v) of the POSH Act.
Consider the following statements regarding the definition of 'workplace' under the POSH Act:
1. The definition under Section 2(o) includes any department, organisation, undertaking, establishment, enterprise, institution, office, branch or unit established by the government.
2. 'Workplace' does not include any private sector organisation or venture.
3. The definition includes any place visited by the employee arising out of or during the course of employment, including transportation provided by the employer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per Section 2(o)(i) of the POSH Act. Statement 2 is incorrect because Section 2(o)(ii) explicitly includes any private sector organisation or a private venture, enterprise, institution, establishment, society, trust, NGO, unit or service provider. Statement 3 is correct as per Section 2(o)(v) of the Act which includes employer-provided transportation.
Under which section of the POSH Act is the definition of 'workplace' provided?
- A.Section 2(m)
- B.Section 2(o)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Section 4
- D.Section 2(n)
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Explanation
Section 2(o) of the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013, defines the term 'workplace'. It includes multiple sub-clauses covering government/private organizations, any place visited during employment, employer-provided transportation, and dwelling places for domestic help.
What is the primary purpose of the 'extended workplace' concept introduced in the POSH Act as compared to the Vishaka Guidelines?
- A.To limit the scope of workplace to only government offices
- B.To ensure that sexual harassment is addressed even when it occurs outside the traditional office set-up, such as during work travel or at home for domestic help✓ Correct Answer
- C.To exclude digital and remote workspaces from the definition
- D.To reduce the liability of employers in cases of sexual harassment
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Explanation
While the Vishaka Guidelines were confined to traditional office set-ups, the POSH Act introduced the concept of an 'extended workplace' to recognize that sexual harassment may not be limited to the primary place of employment. This includes employer-provided transportation, any place visited during employment, and dwelling places for domestic help, thereby expanding the protection.
Which statutory body recommended the recent ban on 16 Fixed-Dose Combination (FDC) drugs in India?
- A.Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)
- B.Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
- D.National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA)
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Explanation
The article states that the expert committee under DTAB conducted the review and made recommendations that led to the ban. CDSCO is the central drug authority but the review body specifically mentioned is DTAB.
Consider the following statements regarding Fixed-Dose Combinations (FDCs):
1. FDCs always provide better therapeutic outcomes than individual drugs.
2. Irrational FDCs may increase the risk of antimicrobial resistance.
3. The latest ban of 16 FDCs was imposed under Section 26A of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the article highlights that many FDCs are irrational and do not translate to better outcomes. Statement 2 is correct: doctors caution that irrational combinations can increase antimicrobial resistance. Statement 3 is correct: the ban was under Section 26A.
How many Fixed-Dose Combination (FDC) drugs were banned by the Indian government in September 2018 based on the DTAB review?
- A.344
- B.328✓ Correct Answer
- C.156
- D.16
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Explanation
The article mentions that based on DTAB recommendations, the government re-imposed bans on 328 FDCs and restricted six others in September 2018. 344 were banned in 2016, 156 in 2024, and 16 in 2026.
What is the primary public health objective behind banning irrational Fixed-Dose Combinations (FDCs)?
- A.To reduce the cost of medicines in the market
- B.To promote the use of single-drug formulations only
- C.To prevent adverse drug reactions and combat antimicrobial resistance✓ Correct Answer
- D.To encourage pharmaceutical companies to develop newer combinations
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Explanation
Doctors in the article emphasize that irrational FDCs increase chances of adverse reactions, inappropriate antibiotic use, and antimicrobial resistance. Patient safety and evidence-based treatment are the main goals, not cost reduction or banning all combinations.
Which French ministry confirmed the Ebola virus case in the patient returning from Congo?
- A.Ministry of Defense
- B.Ministry of Health✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Foreign Affairs
- D.Ministry of Interior
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the French Ministry of Health announced the positive case. This tests knowledge of which government body handles public health announcements in France.
Consider the following statements:
1. The patient in France is in critical condition.
2. The Bundibugyo virus has no approved vaccines or treatments.
3. The outbreak in Congo was declared on May 15, 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is false because the article says the patient is in stable condition, not critical. Statement 2 is correct: the Bundibugyo virus does not yet have any vaccines or treatment. Statement 3 is correct: the outbreak was declared on May 15, 2026. Hence option C is correct.
According to the Congolese Health Ministry, how many confirmed Ebola cases have been reported as of June 24, 2026?
- A.1,094✓ Correct Answer
- B.1,204
- C.994
- D.1,194
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Congolese Health Ministry reported 1,094 confirmed cases of Ebola. The other options are close distractors that might appear in similar reports.
What is a major challenge in controlling the current Ebola outbreak in Congo as highlighted in the article?
- A.Lack of funding from WHO
- B.The virus strain lacks vaccines and treatments✓ Correct Answer
- C.The patient in France refuses isolation
- D.The outbreak has already peaked
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Bundibugyo virus does not yet have any vaccines or treatment, complicating containment efforts. The other options are not mentioned or contradicted by the article.
Which regulatory body requires insurance coverage for egg donors for a minimum period of 12 months under the ART Act?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- D.National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA)
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Explanation
The ART Act and Rules stipulate that egg donors must be covered by insurance for 12 months from an insurance company or agent recognised by IRDAI.
Consider the following statements regarding consent forms under the ART Act:
1. Form 6 authorises a clinic to provide IVF treatment and allows the patient to withdraw consent until the gametes/embryos have been used.
2. Form 8 is used for intrauterine insemination with the husband's semen only.
3. Form 13 records consent to donate eggs and waives the donor's rights on the resulting child.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per Form 6 description in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because Form 8 is for donor semen, while Form 7 is for husband's semen. Statement 3 is correct as per Form 13 details in the article.
On which date did the Delhi court dismiss the hospital's petition challenging the magistrate's order for criminal prosecution in the embryo mix-up case?
- A.May 14, 2026
- B.June 5, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.June 24, 2026
- D.March 14, 2026
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Explanation
According to the article, on June 5, 2026, the court dismissed the hospital's petition. May 14 is the date on which the clinic claims the couple gave consent. June 24 is the publication date.
What is the primary legal purpose of Form 6 under the ART Act as described in the article?
- A.To donate sperm or eggs to a fertility clinic
- B.To authorise a specific clinic to provide IVF treatment and consent to procedures✓ Correct Answer
- C.To freeze embryos through cryopreservation for future use
- D.To give consent for intrauterine insemination with donor semen
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Explanation
The article states that Form 6 is signed to authorise a clinic to provide IVF treatment. It includes consent for procedures, drugs, and anaesthetics as may be necessary. Other options refer to Form 8, Form 9, and Form 13 respectively.
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