25 June 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The Supreme Court in SaveLIFE Foundation & Anr. vs Union of India & Ors. (2026) held that the right to trauma care is an integral part of the right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution. Article 14 deals with equality, Article 19 with freedom, and Article 32 with the right to constitutional remedies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Court ruled that the right extends from the site of injury to definitive hospital treatment. Statement 2 is incorrect: Parmanand Katara (1989) recognized the duty of doctors to render emergency aid, while it was Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samiti (1996) that read access to emergency care into Article 21. Statement 3 is correct: the Court directed integration of all emergency numbers into helpline 112 within three months.

Explanation

The Law Commission's 201st Report estimated that half (50%) of road-crash fatalities could be prevented with timely care. The other options are close distractors: 30% is the NITI Aayog-AIIMS estimate of deaths linked to emergency response delays, not the Law Commission estimate.

Explanation

The judgment's core significance is that it provides a constitutional mandate and judicial oversight to create a uniform, enforceable trauma-care framework. The Court did not alter the constitutional division of powers (State List remains), nor did it create a new central authority. It provided judicial backing to existing frameworks and mandated compliance with timelines monitored by the Attorney General and the Court.

Explanation

The Ministry of Commerce and Industry, through its Department of Commerce, is the nodal agency for India's international trade negotiations, including Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) like CETA. The External Affairs Ministry handles diplomatic relations, but trade deals are led by Commerce.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the implementation date is July 15, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: DCC stands for Double Contribution Convention, which deals with social security contributions (pension, health), not double taxation (which is handled by Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements - DTAA). Statement 3 is correct: Goyal will meet Peter Kyle.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the India-UK CETA and its companion DCC will be implemented on July 15, 2026. June 25-27 are the dates of the Commerce Minister's visit to review preparedness, not the implementation date.

Explanation

The DCC (Double Contribution Convention) addresses the issue of 'double contribution' to social security systems. Indian professionals working in the UK often had to contribute to both India's and the UK's social security schemes. The DCC ensures they are covered under only one system, reducing their financial burden and making Indian workers more competitive.

Explanation

The Maharashtra RTI (Amendment) Rules, 2026 are framed under the powers delegated by the central Right to Information Act, 2005. State governments can make rules for procedural implementation of the RTI Act within their jurisdiction.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the rules triple application fees and introduce new fees for appeals. Statement 2 is correct: the rules mandate one RTI query per single subject with a 150-word limit. Statement 3 is incorrect: the rules actually remove the shield of anonymity by requiring mandatory identity disclosure, which activists argue harms whistleblowers.

Explanation

The amended rules mandate that one RTI query should pertain to a single subject and should limit its word count to 150 words. This is a key restrictive provision challenged by activists as it makes complex information requests practically impossible.

Explanation

Activists argue that many RTI activists face threats, intimidation, and even loss of life. Automatic abatement upon death could permanently extinguish proceedings related to sensitive information, denying substantive rights on procedural grounds and potentially discouraging transparency efforts.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the Atal Pension Yojana as a contributory pension scheme that assumes sustained contributions, which is difficult for informal workers with volatile incomes. NSAP is a non-contributory social assistance programme. The other options are unrelated.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India's TFR is 1.9, below 2.1. Statement 2 is correct: Urban fertility 1.5 is lower than US (1.6) and Japan (1.3? Actually Japan is 1.3, so 1.5 is higher than Japan? The article says 'lower than US (1.6) and Japan (1.3)?' Check: It says Delhi 1.2 lower than Japan 1.3, but urban 1.5 is higher than Japan 1.3? The article states 'Delhi’s fertility rate stands at an ultra-low of 1.2, while Kerala, Tamil Nadu and West Bengal are at 1.3. These levels are lower than those in the United States (1.6), Finland (1.4), and Japan (1.3).' So it refers to those states, not urban overall. However statement says urban fertility is 1.5 which is lower than US (1.6) but higher than Japan (1.3) and Finland (1.4). So it is not lower than all three. The statement is ambiguous; but the article compares specific states, not urban India. Therefore statement 2 is partially correct but may be considered incorrect by exam standards. Let's re-evaluate: The article: 'Delhi’s fertility rate... These levels are lower than those in the United States (1.6), Finland (1.4), and Japan (1.3).' So it's about Delhi, Kerala, TN, WB levels (1.2-1.3) that are lower than those countries. Urban India as a whole (1.5) is not mentioned in that comparison. So statement 2 is false. Only statement 1 is correct. Correct option should be A. Let's adjust. Also statement 3: Bihar has highest fertility (2.9), not lowest. So only 1 correct. Let's correct the question.

Explanation

The article clearly states 'Delhi’s fertility rate stands at an ultra-low of 1.2'. This is lower than the US (1.6), Finland (1.4), and Japan (1.3). The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article points out that 'since most workers spend their lives in informal or semi-formal work, old-age income security remains largely outside formal employment contracts.' This makes contributory pension schemes like Atal Pension Yojana difficult to sustain. The other options are not discussed in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Agriculture Ministry's extant contingency plans reflect the need for adjustable sowing windows and alternative seed varieties. This ministry oversees agricultural policy and farmer support schemes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: deficit increased from 35% to 43%. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article says the Indian Ocean Dipole 'currently cannot offer a buffer', meaning it is not in a favourable phase. Statement 3 is correct: reservoir storage is 30.4% of capacity compared to 25.1% during previous El Niño years.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that central India faces a deficit of 63%. The other options are distractors: 35% and 43% are the nationwide deficits (old and new), while 5% is the surplus in northwest India.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that a new authority would coordinate inter-state water use and cropping changes based on extended El Niño forecasts, eliminating the 'cropping governance currently fragmented between the Agriculture and Jal Shakti Ministries, and the IMD.'

Explanation

The Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal ministry for India’s trade negotiations. As per the article, Union Minister Piyush Goyal, from the Commerce and Industry ministry, led the discussions with USTR Jamieson Greer.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The US delegation was led by USTR Jamieson Greer. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article states that a comprehensive BTA is a longer-term goal and an interim agreement is expected in 15 days, not that it was signed immediately. Statement 3 is correct: Core elements reviewed include digital trade, supply chain resilience, and non-tariff barriers.

Explanation

The article quotes an industry source saying that India and the US have in principle agreed to the deal and expect the signing within the next 15 days.

Explanation

Ajay Srivastava cautioned that the deal could be one-sided and that even a signed agreement would not protect India from future US trade actions (e.g., Section 301 investigations), as seen with Germany and Vietnam.

Explanation

The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas is responsible for exploration, production, refining, and import of crude oil, natural gas, and petroleum products. The article discusses India's crude oil, LPG, and LNG imports, which fall under this ministry's purview.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly states 'one-fifth of the world's energy supplies pass' through the Strait. Statement 2 is correct as Iran announced plans for a maritime fee and US Secretary of State Marco Rubio declared no country can charge tolls on an international waterway. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article argues the Strait is 'unlikely to return to its pre-war status' and a return to business-as-usual could take 'weeks, if not months'.

Explanation

The article clearly states 'one-fifth of the world's energy supplies pass' through the Strait of Hormuz. The other options are common distractors for such global chokepoint statistics.

Explanation

The article states that Iran's de facto control, its ability to close the Strait in response to perceived threats, and its adoption of inexpensive technologies (anti-ship missiles, drones, speedboats, mines) make a return to pre-war status unlikely. Options C and D are mentioned as longer-term scenarios, not the primary reason for the current assessment.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central banking institution that regulates the banking sector in India. It issued the pilot scheme amending its 2017 circular on limiting customer liability for unauthorized electronic banking transactions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the pilot offers 85% compensation for losses up to ₹50,000, one-time lifetime, capped at ₹25,000. Statement 2 is incorrect: RBI pays 75% of the compensation, while the customer's bank and beneficiary bank share the remaining 25%. Statement 3 is correct: the article states customers who ignore fraud warnings are not eligible.

Explanation

For losses up to ₹50,000, the compensation is 85% of the loss, but capped at ₹25,000. For a ₹50,000 loss, 85% would be ₹42,500, but the cap limits it to ₹25,000. The article states that for any amount from ₹29,412 till ₹50,000, customers receive a flat ₹25,000.

Explanation

The pilot aims to protect customers from 'fraudulent electronic banking transactions' where they are tricked (e.g., OTP theft) or coerced (e.g., digital arrest) into authorizing payments. It covers a gap in the earlier 2017 framework that only addressed unauthorized transactions. Option B is incorrect because the compensation is shared (RBI + banks), and banks are not fully liable.

Explanation

Article 44 is a Directive Principle of State Policy that states the State shall endeavour to secure a uniform civil code for all citizens. It is not a Fundamental Right, which distinguishes it from Articles 14 and 21.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: UCC seeks to replace religion-based personal laws with common secular laws. Statement 2 is correct: The BJP has implemented UCC in Uttarakhand, Gujarat, and Assam, and now proposes it in West Bengal. Statement 3 is incorrect: The All India Muslim Personal Law Board opposes UCC, calling it an infringement on minority rights.

Explanation

The article states that the BJP has already implemented UCC in Uttarakhand, Gujarat, and Assam. West Bengal is proposing to bring the Bill in the current Assembly session, meaning it has not yet been implemented there.

Explanation

Article 44 of the Constitution directs the State to endeavour to secure a uniform civil code for all citizens. It is a Directive Principle, not a Fundamental Right, and aims at national integration and gender justice, not economic equality or religious enforcement.

Explanation

The article mentions that the NTA conducted NEET-2026 and is the nodal agency for the exam. CBSE previously conducted NEET until 2018; since 2019, NTA has been the conducting body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states 'nearly seven lakh personnel' were involved. Statement 2 is correct: the article discusses unlimited attempts as a structural vulnerability. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article clearly says the qualifying threshold is the 50th percentile, not 40th. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. Option A is 'Only 1', but both 1 and 2 are correct, so none of the options match exactly? Let's re-evaluate: The correct combination should be both 1 and 2, but options only have 'Only 1', 'Only 2', 'Both 1 and 3', 'All three'. Neither option has both 1 and 2. Since statement 2 is correct, option B ('Only 2') is also incomplete. This is a flaw. I will adjust: Make statement 2 incorrect by changing wording (e.g., 'unlimited attempts are beneficial') but that would distort article. Better: I will modify the statements to align with options. Let's make statement 2 incorrect: 'The article argues that unlimited attempts help improve medical education quality.' That would be false. Then only 1 correct. I'll update.

Explanation

The article states that Articles 5–11 of the Constitution and the Citizenship Act, 1955 define who is an Indian citizen. Among the options, the Citizenship Act, 1955 is the primary statute governing acquisition of citizenship, while the Passports Act deals with travel documents.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: MEA clarified this on Passport Seva Divas. Statement 2 is incorrect: Section 20 allows passport issuance even to non-citizens in public interest (e.g., stateless persons). Statement 3 is correct: the Supreme Court in Sarbananda Sonowal (2005) held that the burden of proving citizenship rests on the person asserting it.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that nearly 19 lakh people were left out of the final NRC list in Assam due to documentary inconsistencies, spelling variations, and missing records. The other options are plausible distractors.

Explanation

The article highlights that India’s civil registration system evolved unevenly, and universal birth registration is a recent phenomenon. As a result, for most birth citizens, citizenship is inferred from multiple records rather than a single definitive credential. While NRC was proposed, the underlying issue is weak registration infrastructure.

Explanation

Part XVIII of the Indian Constitution, containing Articles 352 to 360, deals with emergency provisions. It is inspired by the German Weimar constitution, as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the 44th Amendment removed 'internal disturbance'. Statement 2 is incorrect: Financial Emergency has never been imposed in India. Statement 3 is correct: during National Emergency, Parliament can legislate on State List subjects, as stated in the article's 'Do you Know?' section.

Explanation

The article states that the third Emergency was proclaimed on June 25, 1975, on the ground of 'internal disturbance'. The other dates are close distractors; June 25 is the correct date.

Explanation

According to Article 356(1)(b) mentioned in the article, the President may declare that the powers of the Legislature of the State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament. Option A is not automatic; the assembly may be suspended or dissolved. Options C and D are not provided under Article 356.

Explanation

In 2018, US Defence Secretary Jim Mattis renamed US PACOM to US INDOPACOM to reflect the growing significance of the Indian Ocean and India. The recent reversion in 2026 changed it back to US PACOM.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – Hegseth signalled the change on May 30, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect – the NDS does not mention the Quad even once. Statement 3 is correct – the Quad's cooperation areas are maritime security, economic prosperity, critical minerals technology, and disaster response.

Explanation

The article states that Hegseth gave the signal on May 30 at the Shangri-La Dialogue in Singapore. The other dates are close distractors – June 15 is the start of the G-7 summit, January 2026 is when the NDS was released.

Explanation

The article argues that the name change reflects a de-emphasis of the Indo-Pacific construct and India's role, as evidenced by the Quad's diminishing relevance, US-China rapprochement, and US outreach to India's neighbours. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

Article 262 of the Constitution empowers Parliament to provide for the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-state rivers or river valleys. The Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956 was enacted under this Article, and tribunals like the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal are constituted under it.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct — the Mekedatu project is a drinking water-cum-balancing reservoir proposed by Karnataka. Statement 2 is incorrect — the project has no irrigation component; the 67.16 TMC ft refers to impounding capacity, not irrigation. Statement 3 is correct — the SC termed TN's challenge as 'premature' and dismissed the review petition in November 2025.

Explanation

The article states that the Mekedatu project would have a 400 MW (megawatt) hydro power component. The other options are close distractors — 200 MW and 600 MW are common figures for medium hydro projects, while 800 MW is for larger projects.

Explanation

Tamil Nadu, as the lower riparian state, fears that impounding 67.16 TMC ft of water at Mekedatu will reduce the flow of Cauvery waters downstream to its agricultural delta regions. While the project has no irrigation component, any storage upstream can affect water availability for Tamil Nadu, especially during dry years.

Explanation

The news explicitly states that the MoU between ASI and Directorate of Archaeology is for restoration, upgradation and maintenance of archaeological sites declared under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the rules affect over 5.5 lakh teachers. Statement 2 is correct - male teachers may be transferred to a nearby block within the same district excluding their home block. Statement 3 is incorrect because Shanza University is to be set up in Madhubani, not Patna.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Cabinet approved signing of MoU with HUDCO to secure a long-term loan of ₹1,00,000 crore for development of greenfield satellite townships.

Explanation

The news quotes the Cabinet official stating that the setting up of five new private universities will give students opportunity to pursue higher education that will improve the Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in the State.

Explanation

The DGCA is the statutory body regulating civil aviation in India. It grants DOA to organisations that meet the design capability standards. The ePlane Company received DOA from DGCA in May 2023, becoming the first private company in India to do so.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the prototype is designated PT-01. Statement 2 is incorrect: the e200X is designed as one airframe serving passenger air taxi, urban cargo carrier, and air ambulance markets. Statement 3 is correct: the company expects propeller TC by end of 2026.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that in May 2023, the company received the DOA from the DGCA, making it the first private company in India to receive this approval.

Explanation

The article states that a full-scale airframe establishes what simulation cannot—it validates manufacturability, tooling, supply chain, and physical integration. This stage separates designing an aircraft from being able to test one. It does not grant TC or immediate commercial operations.

Explanation

The news specifically discusses the EU's planned methane monitoring and verification regulation for oil and gas imports. The other bodies are relevant to energy or climate but not the direct source of the regulation in question.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the regulation will require methane monitoring and verification from next year. Statement 2 is incorrect: 11 EU countries have asked for a delay, showing dissent. Statement 3 is correct: the commission has drafted plans to waive penalties for non-compliant companies.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'Eleven EU governments including Italy, the Czech Republic, the Netherlands and Poland, have separately asked Brussels to delay the rules by three years.'

Explanation

U.S. Energy Secretary Chris Wright warned that the 'crazy' regulations will make it impossible to import LNG, putting EU countries at 'meaningful risk of blackouts or heating struggles this coming winter.'

Explanation

MGNREGA is a centrally sponsored scheme under the administrative control of the Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India. The news article mentions the Union Rural Development Minister, confirming this linkage.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because VB-G RAM G is a state government scheme implemented by Karnataka, not a central scheme. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: the state will spend ₹3,806 crore of the total ₹5,709 crore. Statement 3 is correct: the current wage is ₹375/day, and the minister said it is imperative to increase it due to revised minimum wages in the state.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that '826 villages in Karnataka are facing water shortage owing to deficit rainfall.' The figure 1,000 refers to villages that faced problems last year, 53.53 lakh is the number of e-Swathu properties issued, and 5,928 is the total number of villages in the state as mentioned.

Explanation

The minister said the scheme is being implemented 'considering the welfare of rural people, women and the downtrodden despite it creating burden on the State exchequer.' Options related to reducing central burden or increasing wage to ₹500 are not mentioned. Option D is not implied.

Explanation

Grid India is the apex body for power grid management under the Ministry of Power. It coordinates real-time grid operations and issues advisories for resource adequacy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Grid India's advisory was issued June 10, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: only 5 GW of gas capacity is currently available, not 10 GW. Statement 3 is correct: as per IGX data, spot purchases were 13,92,500 MMBtu in June 1-23, 2026.

Explanation

The average spot gas price rose from Rs 1,046 per MMBtu in May 2025 to Rs 1,857 per MMBtu in May 2026, an increase of 77.5%. 43.5% was the increase in April 2026, and 340.4% is the rise in spot purchase volume.

Explanation

Below-normal monsoon forecasts force hydro operators to conserve reservoir water for irrigation, reducing their ability to provide flexible peak-hour generation. Together with reduced gas availability from West Asia disruptions, this increases reliance on gas-based plants.

Explanation

The India Meteorological Department (IMD) is under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), Government of India. This ministry oversees weather forecasting, climate monitoring, and oceanographic research.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as per the article: El Niño emerged in early June but its impact on the Indian monsoon comes with a lag, and it was NOT the main reason for the June deficit. The main reasons were weak monsoon currents and the unfavourable phase of MJO. Statement 2 is correct: MJO is a moving system of winds and clouds. Statement 3 is correct: IMD expects the favourable part of MJO over India around the first week of July.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The four-month long rainy season accounts for about 75% of India's annual rainfall.' This water is critical for irrigation, groundwater recharge, and hydropower.

Explanation

The article mentions that while land under irrigation has not changed substantially, improvements include better groundwater due to rainwater harvesting works under rural employment schemes, and the emergence of solar and wind electricity reducing reliance on hydropower, which preserves reservoir storage. Option A is incorrect as the article says land under irrigation has 'not changed substantially'. Option C and D are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) is designated by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change under the Environment Protection Act, 1986. This act provides the legal framework for restricting activities in ecologically fragile areas to protect the environment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Western Ghats are indeed one of the world's eight 'hottest hotspots' of biological diversity. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Palakkad Gap is a break in the mountain chain, not a continuous stretch. Statement 3 is correct: the Godavari, Krishna, and Cauvery (along with Periyar) originate in the Western Ghats.

Explanation

The Kasturirangan Committee proposed declaring 60,000 sq km, which is roughly 37% of the Western Ghats, as an Ecologically Sensitive Area. The other options are distractors: 25% is too low, 50% and 60% are higher than the actual proposal.

Explanation

The Kasturirangan Committee proposed banning mining, polluting industries, thermal power plants, and large constructions in the ESA to protect the Western Ghats' fragile ecosystem. The proposal explicitly stated that ESAs would not harm farm livelihoods, so option B is incorrect. Options A and D are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) carried out the AI-based de-duplication exercise for the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2026. UPSC is a constitutional body under Article 315 responsible for civil services recruitment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says UPSC carried out AI de-duplication at the Prelims stage for the first time. Statement 2 is incorrect because previously checks were done at the interview stage, not Mains. Statement 3 is incorrect because Aadhaar authentication was optional; 94% opted for it, not mandatory. Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Explanation

The article states that 569 applications were rejected at the Prelims stage. 69 refers to Indian Forest Service exam rejections. 133 is the number of cancellations due to category change checks who had crossed attempt limits. 43,497 is the number of candidates found with social category changes. So 569 is the correct figure for CSE 2026 rejections.

Explanation

The article explicitly links the initiative to the Puja Khedkar case (2024) where she appeared despite exhausting attempts by changing identity. The UPSC chairman stated 'Technology must serve the cause of fairness.' The primary objective is to detect fraud, not reduce numbers or comply with court orders. Paper saving is not mentioned.

Explanation

The Ministry of Commerce and Industry, headed by Minister Piyush Goyal, leads trade negotiations including the BTA with the United States. The article mentions Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal's meetings with USTR Greer, confirming this.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'On February 7, the U.S. and India announced the framework for an interim agreement...' Statement 2 is incorrect because the article says India will eliminate or reduce tariffs on 'a wide range' of US food and agricultural products, not all. Statement 3 is correct: Mr. Greer concluded his two-day visit on June 24.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'In Kashmir, 15 lakh families are associated with the apple trade and generate ₹30,000 crore annually.' The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article emphasizes structural inequality: U.S. apple orchards average 100 acres with yields of 50-80 tonnes per hectare, whereas Indian orchards average 1-2 acres with yields of 6-7 tonnes per hectare. Tariff elimination would expose Indian farmers to unfair competition, not necessarily due to GM (option A) or government policy changes (options C and D).

Explanation

The article repeatedly mentions 'Section 301 of the Trade Act' as the legal basis for the two investigations (excess capacity and forced labour) launched by the USTR against India and other countries.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the interim deal framework was signed in February 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: the flat 10% tariff was imposed under the Trade Act of 1974, not specifically Section 301 (the article says 'under the Trade Act of 1974'). Statement 3 is correct: the U.S. Court of International Trade deemed these tariffs illegal, though an appeals court later stayed that order.

Explanation

The article states: 'the U.S. government in early June proposed to levy a tariff of 12.5% on imports from 54 countries, including India, as they have failed to impose and effectively enforce prohibitions on the import of goods produced using forced labour.'

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that 'key sticking points being India’s reluctance to open up its agricultural and dairy sectors' along with 'its decision to buy oil from Russia'. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) developed the new Social Science textbook 'Understanding Society: India and Beyond' and added the Emergency section for the first time as per the news article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Emergency was imposed under Article 352 on grounds of 'internal disturbance' (later changed to 'armed rebellion' by the 44th Amendment). Statement 2 is incorrect: while most fundamental rights were suspended, Articles 20 and 21 (right to life and personal liberty) remained. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions Jayaprakash Narayan mobilising students and citizens against the Emergency.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the textbook notes India had over 96.8 crore registered voters in 2024. This is used to underline the scale of India's democratic system.

Explanation

The article mentions that the inclusion comes as the country observed 50 years since the Emergency, flags it as a major challenge to democracy, and introduces 'Democracy and You' to help students connect with democratic processes. Thus all three options are correct.

Explanation

The article mentions the National Medical Commission (NMC) as the regulator that decided to phase out PG diploma courses. The NMC replaced the Medical Council of India in 2020 under the NMC Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says 2026-27 will be the last admission year. Statement 2 is incorrect: diploma courses last two years, not three. Statement 3 is correct: conversion requires MARB's process. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'From 2027–28 onwards, no fresh admissions will be permitted, and the courses will cease to function.' The 2026-27 session is the last for admissions, not the prohibition year.

Explanation

The article states the NMC aims to 'standardise postgraduate medical education; enhance quality and recognition of specialist training; align qualifications with contemporary educational standards.' While rural specialist availability is a concern, the primary objective is standardization.

Explanation

The International Olympic Committee (IOC) is the supreme authority of the Olympic Movement and announced the 'Fit for the Future Olympian Grant'. FIFA handles football, WHO handles health, UN is a global political body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is false because the grant is for every Olympian, not just medal winners. Statement 3 is correct; the grant begins with the 2026 Winter Olympics. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states the grant is USD 10,000 per athlete. Other options are distractors; $5,000 is half the amount, $15,000 and $20,000 are higher.

Explanation

According to the article, the grant is intended 'to support their sporting career or career transition'. It is not prize money, not limited to medal winners, and does not specifically cover travel.

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, Monsoon Mission is a national programme launched by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) with the vision to develop state-of-the-art dynamical prediction systems for the monsoon rainfall in different time scales.

Explanation

All statements are correct as per the article: The northeast monsoon occurs from October to December, is also called the winter monsoon/retreating monsoon, and Tamil Nadu receives nearly 48% (443.3 mm) of its annual rainfall during those months.

Explanation

The article states: 'The country’s Long Period Average is 880 mm.' This average is calculated over a 50-year period and used as the benchmark for forecasting quantitative rainfall for the monsoon season.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'About 64% of India's population depends on agriculture for livelihood, and agriculture in turn depends on adequate and timely monsoon rainfall. A good monsoon raises farm output, aids GDP growth, and drives rural consumption.' This explains why the monsoon is considered the lifeline of the economy.

Explanation

The case was heard by Justice Susmita Phukan Khaund of the Gauhati High Court. The court has jurisdiction over Nagaland. Option A is incorrect because the Supreme Court was not involved. Option C does not exist as a separate High Court; Nagaland falls under Gauhati High Court. Option D is another High Court unrelated to the case.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – the court set aside the proclamation of 12.08.2025. Statement 2 is incorrect – the court did not affirm the council's authority to summon; it found that the proclamation infringed fundamental rights. Statement 3 is correct – the court cited Article 19(1)(a) (freedom of speech) and Article 21 (right to life with dignity). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states the proclamation was published on August 12, 2025. Option A is the date of the first article by the principal. Option B is the date the Literature Board responded. Option D is the date of the court's judgment (June 23, 2026) but the proclamation itself was in 2025.

Explanation

The court explicitly held that the proclamation infringed the petitioner's right to liberty and right to live with dignity under Article 21, as well as his freedom of expression under Article 19(1)(a). It did not rule on historical accuracy (A), nor did it base its decision on lack of jurisdiction (B) – the council had authority but could not violate fundamental rights. The court also rejected the argument that the petitioner should have exhausted appellate remedies (D) because the proclamation was egregiously unconstitutional.

Explanation

The Top500 list, mentioned in the article, is the standard ranking of the world's fastest supercomputers, updated every June and November.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: LineShine uses only standard microprocessors, not GPUs. Statement 2 is correct: El Capitan has topped the list since November 2024. Statement 3 is correct: China had not topped since 2017. Hence all three are correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that LineShine's test results were more than 20% faster than those of El Capitan.

Explanation

Jack Dongarra, the Top500 organizer, stated that LineShine's CPU-only design 'could point to a better way to blend artificial intelligence with traditional scientific tasks,' as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article is about the Tamil Nadu Electricity Minister R. Nirmalkumar releasing a White Paper on the status of Tamil Nadu's electricity department. Hence, it pertains to Tamil Nadu.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the total debt of the four corporations is ₹2.47 lakh crore. Statement 2 is incorrect because the generation capacity includes thermal, hydro, and gas-based power, not nuclear. Statement 3 is correct as per the comparison of substation commissioning under different regimes.

Explanation

The article mentions a manpower shortfall of nearly 45% against the sanctioned strength of 1,40,635 employees, with 65,921 vacancies. Hence, 45% is the correct figure.

Explanation

The minister stated that the White Paper was presented to show that the 2022 tariff revision, which led to a spike in charges, benefited neither the electricity department nor consumers due to high expenditure on power purchase agreements.

Explanation

The Union Health Ministry is the nodal ministry for the Drugs Rules, 1945, and has notified the amendments to expand Schedule H2. The Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers handles pharmaceuticals through the Department of Pharmaceuticals, but drug regulations fall under Health Ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the amendment covering all those categories. Statement 2 is incorrect because antimicrobials get a later deadline (July 1, 2028) while vaccines, NDPS, and anti-cancer drugs come into force from July 1, 2027. Statement 3 is correct as the QR code shall contain the listed details.

Explanation

The phased timeline states that provisions relating to vaccines, NDPS drugs, and anti-cancer medicines come into force from July 1, 2027. Antimicrobials have a later deadline of July 1, 2028. April 8, 2026, is the publication date of the Jan Vishwas Act, not the QR code implementation.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the measure will contribute to the national fight against AMR by enabling better identification and monitoring of counterfeit antimicrobials. It is not about cost reduction, exports, or revenue generation.

Explanation

The article specifies that the Union Jal Shakti Ministry is working on the special dredging programme. It is the nodal ministry for water resources and river development in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Centre will provide technical support, states implement. Statement 2 is incorrect: Tungabhadra dam is in Karnataka, near the border of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article and photo caption.

Explanation

The article states that many dams have lost more than 15% of their storage capacity because of silt accumulation. The other options are common distractors.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Dredging reservoirs is an important step not only for improving water availability, but also for strengthening irrigation security in command areas dependent on ageing reservoirs.' Other options are not mentioned.

Explanation

The Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR), which conducts anti-dumping investigations, operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The Finance Ministry imposes the final duty based on DGTR's recommendation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the probe involves four other countries besides China: Korea, Singapore, the US, and Thailand. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: the Finance Ministry takes the final decision to impose duties. Statement 3 is correct as Vinati Organics filed the application for antioxidants from China, Korea, and Singapore.

Explanation

The article states that China overtook the US to become India's largest trading partner in 2025-26, with bilateral trade reaching $151.1 billion. The trade deficit was $112.6 billion, while India's imports from China were $131.63 billion.

Explanation

The article explains that anti-dumping duties are aimed at ensuring fair trading practices and creating a level playing field for domestic producers. They are imposed when dumped imports cause material injury to domestic industries, not for revenue generation or retaliation.

Explanation

The Tungabhadra Board oversees the inter-state project and regulates water supplies to Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana as per the directions of the Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Tunga (147 km) and Bhadra (178 km) rise in the Western Ghats. Statement 2 is correct: the dam was commissioned in the early 1950s and all 33 crest gates were replaced and dedicated on June 25, 2026. Statement 3 is incorrect: the ratio is 65:35, not 75:25.

Explanation

The article states the project irrigates more than 16.38 lakh acres, including 9.26 lakh acres in Karnataka, 6.25 lakh acres in Andhra Pradesh, and 87,000 acres in Telangana.

Explanation

Andhra Pradesh has objected to the Upper Bhadra Project, a lift irrigation scheme upstream of the reservoir, arguing it could impound water meant for downstream canals serving Anantapur, Kadapa, and Kurnool districts, affecting supplies.

Explanation

The MTP Act, 1971 is the primary legislation regulating abortion in India. It specifies the gestational limits and conditions under which pregnancy can be terminated. The other acts are related but not directly governing termination of pregnancy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the MTP Act does not provide for termination beyond 24 weeks; the court used its extraordinary constitutional jurisdiction. Statements 2 and 3 are directly from the article: AIIMS to preserve tissue for DNA testing, and Delhi government to bear expenses.

Explanation

The article states the pregnancy was approximately 26-28 weeks and the court specifically permitted termination of the 28-week pregnancy. 24 weeks is the statutory limit under MTP Act, not the actual gestational age in this case.

Explanation

The court explicitly stated that in rape cases, grave mental injury and trauma is inflicted upon the mind of the minor, which justifies invoking extraordinary constitutional jurisdiction to allow termination beyond the statutory limit. The other options were not the primary reason cited.

Explanation

As per the article, the Tungabhadra Board, based on recommendations of technical committees, decided to replace all the spillway crest gates rather than just restoring the damaged one.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – Gate No. 19 was washed away on August 10, 2024. Statement 2 is incorrect – the stop-log gate was installed within 7 days (not 10) i.e., by August 17, 2024. Statement 3 is correct – the reservoir was holding 71.35 tmcft on that day.

Explanation

The article states that the complete replacement of all 33 crest gates was completed at a cost of about ₹51 crore.

Explanation

The article says the rehabilitation exercise is expected to significantly strengthen the structural safety and operational reliability of the Tungabhadra reservoir, thereby extending its functional life by another 50 years.

Explanation

The article states that the order was issued by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) on June 24, 2026. The MHA deals with internal security and administrative matters, including protocol and ranking of dignitaries.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as mentioned in the article: 'first politician to serve in this position.' Statement 2 is incorrect: visas were halted for 'nearly two years,' not three. Statement 3 is incorrect: he presented credentials to President Mohammed Shahabuddin, not the Prime Minister.

Explanation

The article quotes Trivedi: 'Visa applications can be submitted starting June 28.' June 25 is the date he assumed office, June 12 is his arrival date, and July 1 is a distractor.

Explanation

The article highlights the political transition in Bangladesh (from Hasina to Yunus interim to BNP's Tarique Rahman). Sending a senior politician as envoy indicates India's intention to build high-level political relationships with the new government to stabilize bilateral ties.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Bangladesh and China agreed to strengthen cooperation on the management of the Teesta and other rivers. The Teesta River is a key transboundary river flowing from India into Bangladesh.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: PM Tarique Rahman visited Beijing in June 2026 and sought Chinese assistance. Statement 2 is correct: the Ganges Water Treaty was signed in 1996 for 30 years, due to expire in 2026. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions that China has shown interest in developing the Teesta River project near India's sensitive Siliguri Corridor. Hence all three are correct.

Explanation

The article states that the Ganges Water Treaty, signed in 1996 for 30 years, 'is due to expire this year' - the article is dated June 25, 2026, so the expiry is in 2026. Option 2024 refers to the year India offered technical assistance, not the treaty expiry.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the Teesta project is located 'near India's sensitive Siliguri Corridor connecting the mainland with the northeastern States.' This makes Chinese involvement a security concern for India, as the corridor is strategically vital.

Explanation

The article states that Omani authorities released a map of a route coordinated with the International Maritime Organisation, a UN agency responsible for marine safety. The IMO regulates international shipping routes and safety protocols.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says roughly 20% of the world's crude oil and LNG normally transits through the strait. Statement 2 is incorrect: Iran plans to impose fees but the US has rejected them, and the MOU provides free transit for 60 days. Statement 3 is correct: at its narrowest the strait is about 30 km wide.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'roughly 20 percent of the world’s crude oil and liquified natural gas normally transits' through the Strait of Hormuz. The other percentages are close distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article indicates Iran plans to impose fees while the US argues the strait is an international waterway. The context of the Iran-US war and negotiations shows the fee is a tool for Iran to exert authority over the strait, not primarily for revenue or environmental reasons.

Explanation

The framework was notified by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) as per the news article. It is the central bank responsible for regulating digital payments and customer protection in banking.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states complaint must be lodged within 5 calendar days. Statement 2 is incorrect: compensation is 85% of the net loss (after recovery), not gross loss. Statement 3 is correct: for fraud less than ₹29,412, victim's bank contributes 10% of the compensation for domestic EBTs.

Explanation

The article specifies that compensation is 85% of net loss or ₹25,000, whichever is less. Hence the maximum compensation is ₹25,000. Option A is the threshold for lower compensation bracket, C is the maximum loss covered, D is 85% of ₹50,000 which is not the cap.

Explanation

By making the beneficiary bank partly liable, the framework encourages all banks handling the transaction to implement stronger fraud detection. This is a deterrent against fraud and promotes systemic security. While it also reduces RBI's burden, the primary objective is to involve all parties in fraud prevention.

Explanation

The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) was established under Section 10 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, with the specific mandate to regulate false or misleading advertisements and protect consumer rights. FSSAI sets food standards; BIS sets product standards; NCDRC is a consumer dispute redressal forum at national level.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states Bectors admitted 87% atta content. Statement 2 is incorrect: CCPA explicitly held that technical compliance is no 'safe harbour' for deceptive advertising. Statement 3 is incorrect: CCPA said disclaimers on the back do not cure the misleading nature of front-of-pack claims. Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Explanation

During the proceedings, the company admitted that the actual wheat flour (atta) content in the bread was only 87%, not the claimed 100%. FSSAI minimum for whole wheat bread is 75%, but that does not justify a '100%' claim.

Explanation

The CCPA noted that the traditional doctrine of caveat emptor (let the buyer beware) has transformed with the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, shifting the burden to caveat venditor (let the seller beware). This places responsibility on sellers to ensure truthful marketing.

Explanation

The judgment was delivered by the Karnataka High Court on June 15, 2026, as mentioned in the article. The petitioner had earlier approached the Karnataka State Administrative Tribunal which rejected her plea. The High Court set aside that order.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the HC ruling. Statement 2 is incorrect; the amendment was made on April 9, 2021, not 2022. Statement 3 is correct because the court allowed the petition and directed the state government to consider her case under Rules 4(1)(b), 5, and 6 of the 1996 Rules.

Explanation

The article states that the state government amended the Rules on April 9, 2021. The other dates are from the case timeline: father's death on February 25, 2014; application on December 27, 2014; and judgment on June 15, 2026.

Explanation

The judgment upholds the principle that married daughters should not be discriminated against based on marital status. The court applied the beneficial amendment to an old application, rejecting the government's argument that only post-amendment applications qualify. This promotes gender justice in government employment policies.

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs handles foreign visits and diplomacy. As per the article, 'the MEA said on Thursday' about the visit, confirming its role.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct from the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article mentions 'two ships of the Indian Navy' (not one). Statement 3 is correct as the article states Modi will address the National Assembly. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that PM Modi will participate as Guest of Honour in the Golden Jubilee celebrations of Seychelles' National Day, which is the 50th anniversary.

Explanation

The article highlights participation of defence assets to reaffirm 'strong and enduring friendship' and commitment to enhance bilateral relationship. This demonstrates deepening defence ties and cooperation in Indian Ocean security, not base establishment or peacekeeping.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that IIT-Kanpur's Airawat Research Foundation (ARF), a non-profit set up under Section 8, has been building the AI-based system under a pilot initiative. IIT-Delhi, CEEW, and DPCC are mentioned in other contexts but are not the piloting body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the CEEW report noted that the current DSS predicts 'very poor and above' episodes more than ~80% of the time in recent winters. Statement 2 is incorrect: the CEEW report recommended updating the emission inventory every two to three years, not five. Statement 3 is correct: the new system aims to generate forecasts and advisories 48 to 72 hours in advance.

Explanation

The article quotes the CEEW report as recommending 'a framework in place to update the EI every two to three years'. Options A, C, and D are distractors; the report specifically suggested a 2-3 year cycle to improve forecast accuracy.

Explanation

The article states that the improved forecasts are meant to directly affect the staged curbs under GRAP. By providing 48-72 hour advance advisories and more granular data, the system aims to make the response more effective and less disruptive. Options A, C, and D are not supported by the article.