22 June 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) operates under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution. While it works closely with RBI on currency-related matters, its administrative parent is the Ministry of Consumer Affairs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct - IS 18663:2024 is the Indian Standard for Note Sorting Machines. Statement 2 is correct - BIS certification is mandatory from May 1, 2025. Statement 3 is incorrect - the article states the BIS Central Laboratory in Sahibabad is the ONLY authorized lab, not one of several. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'approximately 95 per cent of this was from non-RBI banks or Non Banking Financial Company'. The other options are close distractors - 90% and 98% are not mentioned, while 85% is a common but incorrect figure.

Explanation

The standard aims to combat fake currency by mandating machines with advanced authentication technology. While speed and cost are secondary, the core objective is to enhance security against counterfeits as highlighted in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023 replaced the erstwhile Indian Evidence Act 1872. The other options are other new criminal law codes but not the evidence act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because Goutam Kundu (1993) held that DNA tests cannot be ordered as a matter of routine. Statement 2 is correct: the burden of proof is on the party denying paternity. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: CP vs AP (2026) upheld the test because existing evidence was insufficient.

Explanation

The article mentions K.S. Puttaswamy (2017) as the case where the Court encoded the right to privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21. 1993 is Goutam Kundu, 2005 is Shri Banarsi Dass, and 2023 is the year of Aparna Ajinkya Firodia.

Explanation

The article states that in CP vs AP (2026), the Court upheld the trial court's direction for a DNA test on the grounds that the disputed question could not be resolved by the existing material record and required scientific determination, applying necessity and proportionality considerations.

Explanation

PMKVY is a flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). NSDC is the implementing agency under this ministry. The other ministries are not involved with this scheme.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: CAG audited three phases of PMKVY from 2015 to 2022. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article states the audit highlighted deficiencies including non-functional biometric attendance devices. Statement 3 is correct: NSDC sent show cause notices to around 20 serving and former employees.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the CAG audited three phases of PMKVY covering an outlay of ₹14,450 crore. The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The notices list specific charges of gross negligence and willful non-compliance, and give employees 15 days to reply. Failure to reply is taken as admission of charges. This is a preliminary step before any further action, including possible referral to investigating agencies if financial misconduct is found. It is not a direct termination or criminal proceeding.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'For decades, the Nuclear Power Corporation of India Ltd (NPCIL) has been the vanguard of India's traditional nuclear establishment.'

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says NTPC signed a non-binding MoU with EDF in April. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Mahi Banswara project is developed through ASHVINI, a joint venture with NPCIL, not a wholly owned subsidiary. Statement 3 is correct: Holtec International's flagship is the SMR-300.

Explanation

The article states: 'secured capacity consent for 2,770 megawatt-electric (MWe) of the proposed 2,800 MWe Mahi Banswara Rajasthan Atomic Power Project.' Thus the proposed target capacity is 2,800 MWe.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that PHWRs are 'increasingly out of sync' with LWRs that dominate globally, and NTPC's plan includes a mix of PHWRs, PWRs, and SMRs. The partnerships specifically bring LWR and SMR technology to India.

Explanation

As per the news article, Qatar and Pakistan issued a joint statement from Lucerne, hailing the negotiations as encouraging progress. Both countries played the role of mediators to facilitate the talks between the US and Iran.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The most concrete outcome was the establishment of a High-Level Committee. Statement 2 is incorrect: The 'de-confliction cell' was for involving Lebanon and ensuring adherence to the ceasefire there, not for the nuclear enrichment dispute. Statement 3 is correct: The committee agreed upon a roadmap to reach a final deal within the 60-day window set by the memorandum.

Explanation

The news article explicitly states that 'The committee has also agreed upon a roadmap aimed at reaching a final deal within the 60-day window set by the memorandum.' The other options are common distractors for international negotiation timelines.

Explanation

The article states the cell is intended to 'ensure adherence to the ceasefire in Lebanon, a provision explicitly required under the first article of the memorandum.' This was a critical point for Iran, with its foreign minister seeing it as the first real test of the agreement.

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs handles overseas Indian affairs, including the OCI/PIO/NRI services and migration partnerships. The Skill India International programme is a bilateral initiative under MEA's purview, aimed at diversifying Indian migrant destinations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: India received $135-138 billion in remittances in 2024-25, making it the largest recipient. Statement 2 is incorrect because the UAE is the second largest source (19.2% share) in 2023-24, not the largest. Statement 3 is correct: World Bank projected GCC growth at 1.3% for 2026, downgraded from 4.4%.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that SBI Research reported an 'incremental jump of around 30-35 per cent in remittances from West Asia' in March 2026. This was a risk-averse response due to fear of worsening conflict and potential evacuations.

Explanation

The article explains that remittances compensate for limited formal welfare mechanisms (unemployment protection, health insurance, pensions), making them a 'broad form of informal social insurance'. However, this dependence makes households vulnerable to labour market disruptions in the Gulf, as seen with the current conflict, creating both a strength and a vulnerability.

Explanation

According to the article, Iran set up the Persian Gulf Strait Authority during the war and later announced it as the sole authority for Strait of Hormuz transits.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India's LPG strategy relies heavily on imports through the Strait of Hormuz. Statement 2 is incorrect: UAE is pursuing a 'zero Hormuz dependency' strategy, not reliance. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions India gave up on Chabahar which offered an opportunity to reduce dependence.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The United Arab Emirates is pursuing a "zero Hormuz dependency" strategy by strengthening alternative infrastructure and routes.'

Explanation

The article concludes that 'reducing dependence on the Strait of Hormuz is no longer just an economic goal; it is a strategic necessity' and emphasizes diversifying supply chains and alternative corridors.

Explanation

The MoEFCC is the nodal ministry for environmental protection in India. It is responsible for issuing notifications under the Environment Protection Act, 1986, including the declaration of ESAs. The other options are not directly involved in this process.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Gadgil committee (not Kasturirangan) recommended the entire 129,037 sq km as ESA. The Kasturirangan panel recommended ~60,000 sq km. Statement 2 is correct: The expert committee is headed by Sanjay Kumar. Statement 3 is correct: Gujarat has given consent with a request for minor mineral mining in non-forest areas.

Explanation

The 6th draft notification (2024) proposed 56,825.7 sq km as ESA. The original Kasturirangan panel recommended ~60,000 sq km, and the Gadgil committee recommended 129,037 sq km. 17,340 sq km is the area proposed for Maharashtra alone.

Explanation

The ESA notification aims to protect the Western Ghats' biodiversity by banning new mining, thermal power plants, and red-category industries. It does not ban all activities (e.g., minor mineral mining is allowed in non-forest areas in Gujarat). It is not primarily for tourism or economic development.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that NITI Aayog projects a $250 to $300 billion services-revenue shortfall by 2035 without a nationally coordinated AI talent mission. NITI Aayog is the premier policy think tank of the Government of India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states 'More than 90% of Indian employees already work with generative AI tools'. Statement 2 is correct: India ranks 64th with a 17.6% adoption rate. Statement 3 is incorrect: the TCS-Anthropic partnership gives 50,000 associates access to Claude; the LTM's AI 1000 programme aims to train 1,000+ AI-certified engineers, not the TCS-Anthropic partnership itself.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'a Quess Corp study found an 82.9% shortage in the deeper GenAI skills needed to take models into production.' 70.1% is UAE's AI adoption rate, 90% is the percentage of employees using GenAI tools, and 17.6% is India's overall AI adoption rate.

Explanation

The article warns that U.S. export controls on advanced chips and restrictions on frontier-model access mean 'a workforce trained only to call imported models through an API holds a capability that can be revoked from abroad.' This directly threatens India's technological sovereignty and economic resilience.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Madurai Bench of the Madras High Court, presided by Justice L. Victoria Gowri, allowed the woman to terminate her pregnancy. The other options refer to different courts not involved in this case.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court explicitly stated that compelling an unwanted pregnancy violates Article 21. Statement 2 is incorrect; the medical reports showed she was approximately 15 weeks pregnant, not 18. Statement 3 is correct as the court directed the Dean to undertake medical termination in accordance with the MTP Act, 1971.

Explanation

The article mentions that the court was hearing a petition from a 23-year-old woman from Tirunelveli district. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The court explicitly stated that the reproductive choice of an adult woman is entitled to the highest degree of constitutional protection under Article 21. The other rights are not directly invoked in this context. Article 21 has been interpreted by the Supreme Court to include reproductive autonomy and bodily integrity.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Iran and the U.S. concluded the first round of talks with the help of mediators Pakistan and Qatar. A joint Qatar-Pakistan statement was issued at the conclusion of the talks.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the talks were held at the Burgenstock resort in Switzerland. Statement 2 is incorrect: the de-confliction cell was created for Lebanon, not the Strait of Hormuz. A separate 'communication line' was set up for the Strait of Hormuz. Statement 3 is correct: Iran's FM Abbas Araghchi hailed the 'major progress' achieved.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the High Level Committee has 'agreed upon a roadmap towards reaching a final deal within 60 days'. This is a key data point from the joint statement.

Explanation

The article states that the communication line was set up to 'avoid incidents and miscommunication with the aim of safe passage for commercial vessels through the Strait of Hormuz'. This is crucial because the strait is a vital chokepoint for global oil trade.

Explanation

The article states that a joint statement from mediating nations Qatar and Pakistan announced the agreement. No other countries were mentioned as mediators.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the joint statement. Statement 2 is incorrect because talks also covered nuclear issues, Lebanon, and other topics. Statement 3 is correct as stated by Iranian FM Abbas Araghchi.

Explanation

The article states that five vessels passed the strait on Sunday, a sharp drop from 26 ships a day earlier. This data was provided by analytics firm Kpler.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the closure caused the biggest disruption of global energy supplies in history. The strait is a critical chokepoint for oil shipments, and its closure affects global oil prices and energy security.

Explanation

The 'Neighbourhood First' policy was articulated under PM Narendra Modi, prioritising peaceful relations, connectivity, and economic integration with India's immediate neighbours in South Asia. This is directly linked to the news as Bangladesh's recent diplomatic shift challenges this policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions around 8,00,000 Bangladeshis work in Malaysia, making up a third of the country's migrant workforce. Statement 2 is incorrect because UN experts warned of 'continued exploitation, deception, and deepening debt bondage' — not praising either government. Statement 3 is correct as the article quotes Rahman urging for recruitment to be 'transparent, fair and affordable' with a reduction in intermediaries.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the joint press conference was held on Monday, June 22, 2026, and that Rahman arrived on that day for the visit. The other dates are plausible distractors.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Rahman's inaugural trip abroad is bypassing neighbouring India, with whom relations have been strained since the 2024 uprising. By choosing Malaysia (for labour issues) and China (for trade/infrastructure), he signals a realignment away from India, especially given India's continuing shelter of ousted PM Hasina.

Explanation

The article states that Tata Power approached the Karnataka Electricity Regulatory Commission (KERC) for a power distribution licence. CERC is the central regulator for inter-state matters, while APTEL is the appellate body. The Ministry of Power is the policy-making body, not the licensing authority.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions Tata Power aims to serve 1.86 lakh consumers within three years. Statement 2 is correct: accumulated losses rose from ₹17,559 crore to ₹34,980 crore. Statement 3 is correct: agricultural pump sets account for about 24,000 million units, which is nearly 32% of the state's total usage. Hence all three are correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the accumulated losses of the state's Escoms rose to nearly ₹34,980 crore in 2024-25. ₹17,559 crore was the figure for 2022-23; ₹32,211 crore was the borrowing figure for 2022-23; ₹47,993 crore is the borrowing for 2024-25. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

Opponents argue that in a parallel system, private companies like Tata Power would operate alongside Escoms and could cherry-pick urban and high-paying consumers, while state utilities are left with farmers and low-income households. This could undermine welfare schemes and increase the subsidy burden on the government. The other options are not the primary concern highlighted in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the study was co-led by Indonesia and the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC). The other options involve incorrect countries or organizations not mentioned in the report.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the report notes that Southeast Asia has become a hub generating tens of billions of dollars annually. Statement 2 is correct: victims are forced to pay between $3,000 and $20,000 for release. Statement 3 is incorrect because the report mentions victims from various countries including Indonesia, Myanmar, Philippines, and jurisdictions as far away as Africa, not just Southeast Asia.

Explanation

The article states that 2,533 Indians were rescued from Cambodia, 2,297 from Lao PDR, and 2,168 from Myanmar, totaling 6,998. Option C is the correct figure for Cambodia. The other options are close distractors for other countries or the total.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the report recommended 'continued monitoring, enhanced regional cooperation, targeted intelligence sharing, and the strengthening of Anti-Money Laundering/Combating the Financing of Terrorism frameworks across member jurisdictions.' The other options are not mentioned in the report.

Explanation

The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare (MoA&FW) is the primary nodal ministry for agricultural policies, including soil health management, crop residue management, and promotion of biochar as a soil amendment. While the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) handles carbon credits and climate change, the core agricultural implementation falls under MoA&FW.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because biochar is made by heating agricultural waste in low-oxygen (not high-oxygen) conditions, a process called pyrolysis. Statement 2 is correct as studies indicate a 10-30% improvement in crop productivity. Statement 3 is correct as per the VM0042 methodology, each tonne of certified biochar generates 2-2.8 tCO2e in carbon credits.

Explanation

The article specifically states that biochar can improve water-holding capacity by 10% to 25%, particularly in soils low in nutrients. Options A and B are close distractors, while option D (15-30%) is for crop productivity, not water-holding capacity.

Explanation

The article states that packaging biochar production into carbon credit markets creates a strong economic incentive for mass adoption, thereby reducing stubble burning. While biochar can reduce fertilizer dependence (option A is partially related), the primary objective is to incentivize farmers to stop burning paddy straw and adopt biochar instead. Option C (export) is not mentioned, and option D (replace all practices) is too absolute.

Explanation

The ESA notification is issued under the Environment Protection Act, 1986, which is administered by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). This ministry oversees environmental regulations and protected area management in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Western Ghats are among India's four biodiversity hotspots (others: Himalayas, Indo-Burma, Sundaland). Statement 2 is incorrect: The Kasturirangan panel recommended about 60,000 sq km as ESA, not the entire area (the Gadgil committee had recommended the entire 129,037 sq km). Statement 3 is correct: The final notification will be under the Environment Protection Act, 1986, giving it legal enforceability.

Explanation

The article states that 'Over 56,000 square km of land in six states are proposed to be demarcated as ESA, based on the 2013 recommendations of a high-level working group led by former ISRO chairman K Kasturirangan.' The 60,000 sq km is the original Kasturirangan estimate, while 129,037 sq km was the Gadgil committee recommendation. 1,600 km is the length of the Western Ghats range.

Explanation

ESA is defined as buffer areas demarcated around protected areas to minimise the negative impact of anthropogenic activities such as mining, hydropower projects, etc. The notification proposes to ban or heavily restrict activities like new mining, thermal power plants, and red-category industries to safeguard the sensitive ecosystem of the Western Ghats.

Explanation

The Supreme Court ruled that the right to walk safely on footpaths is part of Article 19(1)(d) (right to movement) and Article 21 (right to life and liberty).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per CMMP 2020. Statement 2 is incorrect because the index is 0.68 out of 5, not 10. Statement 3 is correct: target is 1,083 km by 2041. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The CMMP noted that only 28% of the city's total road network was covered by footpaths, amounting to 153.6 km. 33% is the share of walking trips, not footpath coverage. 40% is the current completion of the 2041 target.

Explanation

The article states that footpaths must be constructed to segregate motorised and pedestrian traffic. While cycling tracks are also discussed, the core objective mentioned is segregation for safety.

Explanation

The order was passed by Justice Suraj Govindaraj of the Karnataka High Court on June 17, 2026. The court applied the 'best interests' standard after reviewing a medical board report.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the court constituted a medical board that determined the woman lacked capacity. Statement 2 is incorrect: the court explicitly stated the procedure was not for eugenic purposes but for health and hygiene. Statement 3 is correct: the medical board assessed her social age as 5 years 4 months.

Explanation

The medical board reported her permanent disability at 75%, which is a key data point mentioned in the article. The other percentages are distractors not found in the news.

Explanation

The court emphasised that the procedure was intended solely for therapeutic reasons – to prevent repeated infections and maintain hygiene – and not for eugenic or population control purposes. The parents also sought the surgery for her welfare, not to reduce their burden.

Explanation

As per the article, the Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB) constituted an Expert Committee to examine various FDCs and identify those that are irrational. DTAB is a statutory body under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Ministry prohibited manufacture, sale, and distribution of 16 FDCs with immediate effect. Statement 2 is correct: Dicyclomine + Paracetamol + Clidinium Bromide is listed as number 8 in the banned list. Statement 3 is correct: the article states that DTAB constituted an Expert Committee. Hence all three are correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Union Ministry prohibited the manufacture, sale, and distribution of 16 Fixed Dose Combinations. The list includes 16 specific combinations as detailed in the news.

Explanation

The Ministry statement noted that after reviewing clinical data, the 16 specific combinations offered 'no real therapeutic value' to patients. The DTAB expert committee identified them as irrational and lacking therapeutic justification. This is the core reason for the ban.

Explanation

The Ministry of Education (formerly Ministry of Human Resource Development) is the nodal ministry for implementing NEP 2020 at both school and higher education levels. The UGC is a statutory body under this ministry that coordinates higher education standards.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the VC stated that the real task is not designing policies but ensuring they reach every affiliated college and are implemented in the right spirit. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the article: Mumbai University has 900+ affiliated colleges across 7 districts, and the cluster system comprises 106 clusters coordinated by lead institutions.

Explanation

The article states that against a sanctioned strength of 364 teaching positions, only around 120 faculty members are currently in service. The recruitment process is expected to fill around 136 faculty positions by August 2026.

Explanation

The VC highlighted three benefits: employability focus (two mandatory internships, elective/minor courses in emerging fields), global academic alignment (comparable to 4-year degrees abroad), and greater specialization. The primary objective is enhancing employability through structured internships and skill development.

Explanation

The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, established under Article 148, is the supreme audit institution. It audits accounts of the Union, states, and other public authorities. The Election Commission, Finance Commission, and NITI Aayog have different roles.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the TMC government did not table CAG reports for the last four financial years. Statement 2 is incorrect: UCs must be submitted within one year of grant disbursal, not 60 days. Statement 3 is correct: 11,321 DC bills worth Rs 3,400 crore were pending as of March 2021.

Explanation

The article states that from 2011 to 2020, the CAG flagged non-receipt of utilisation certificates amounting to Rs 2.29 lakh crore. Rs 81,839 crore is the amount for the Panchayat & Rural Development Department alone; Rs 3,400 crore pertains to pending DC bills; Rs 36,850 crore is for School Education Department's pending UCs.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that non-submission of UCs is fraught with the risk of misappropriation, as it cannot be ascertained whether the funds were utilised for the intended purposes. While delayed implementation and loss of funding may also occur, the primary concern highlighted by CAG is misappropriation.

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, the Labour Party's National Executive Committee (NEC) was tasked with setting out the timetable for the leadership contest and transition. This is an internal party body responsible for organizational decisions. The House of Commons and Cabinet are official state institutions, while the Monarch's role is limited to being informed of the decision.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article explicitly states Starmer informed King Charles III on Monday morning before his public address. Statement 2 is correct: Andy Burnham won the Makerfield by-election decisively and announced his candidacy for leader and PM. Statement 3 is incorrect: the deadline is before Parliament reconvenes in September, not before the July 17 recess. The July 17 date is mentioned as a possible swearing-in date if Burnham runs unchallenged.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the resignation was announced on June 22, 2026. June 20 is incorrect. July 9 is the date nominations open for the leadership contest, not the resignation date. September is when Parliament reconvenes, mentioned as a deadline for the new leader to be in place.

Explanation

Starmer's resignation highlights that a PM's legitimacy is tied to party confidence. While a by-election loss was the immediate trigger, the core reason was the parliamentary party's view that he was not the best candidate. Option A is incorrect because the UK has a parliamentary system, not a presidential one. Option C is false as there is no automatic constitutional requirement. Option D is incorrect as the monarch acts on advice and is informed, not decisive.

Explanation

The article states Starmer made his resignation announcement 'outside 10 Downing Street'. Chequers is the official country home, not the primary office. Whitehall is the street housing government departments, and Westminster Abbey is a church.

Explanation

Statement 1 is false: the article says economic parameters improved (strongest G7 growth, inflation at target). Statement 2 is correct: Burnham won 55% vote. Statement 3 is correct: over 120 MPs revolted, forcing welfare cuts to be walked back.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'net favourability numbers have been in the -40 to -45 range'. This metric indicates the difference between positive and negative ratings, not absolute approval percentage.

Explanation

The article states that 'Britain has been no exception to the higher levels of political polarization seen world over' and mentions general public frustration and impatience for change. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the PCPNDT Act was introduced in 1994 in response to a decline in child sex ratio.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Act prohibits disclosure of foetal sex. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Act requires prior registration for any ultrasound machine purchase, irrespective of intended use. Statement 3 is correct because the Act treats movement of a machine outside a registered facility as a serious offence, making community use illegal.

Explanation

The article mentions 'nearly 70% of the population resides' in rural areas, underscoring the need for community-based diagnostic services.

Explanation

The authors argue that high-frequency linear probes used for cancer detection cannot determine foetal sex, so an amendment should allow community-based use of such probes, while maintaining restrictions on sex-determination capabilities.

Explanation

The article refers to the 12th, 13th, and 16th Finance Commission periods, showing a decline in Tamil Nadu’s share of central tax devolution. The Finance Commission (Article 280) is the constitutional body responsible for recommending the distribution of tax proceeds between the Union and states.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: SOTR/GSDP fell from 7.92% to 5.45%. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article clearly says the decline is spread across all major tax heads including GST, petroleum VAT, state excise, stamp duty, and motor vehicle tax. Statement 3 is correct: 87% of revenue receipts are pre-committed as per the white paper. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly compares Tamil Nadu’s GST collection (₹72,008 crore) with Karnataka (₹87,256 crore) and Gujarat (₹80,823 crore), stating that both had higher collections. Option B provides the exact figure for Karnataka. The other states were not mentioned in the comparison.

Explanation

The article describes the ‘scissors effect’ as the interaction between rising debt stock and a shrinking working-age population, leading to a widening gap between the state’s ability to generate revenue and its growing expenditure needs (especially social expenditure for the elderly). This is a demographic and fiscal trap.

Explanation

The article states that General Kevin Schneider is the Pacific Air Forces Commander, overseeing all U.S. Air Force personnel and assets across the Indo-Pacific region. This is a key static fact for understanding U.S. military structure in the region.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article (both arrived on June 21 for a three-day visit). Statement 2 is incorrect because discussions also covered defence, security, and regional issues, not just economic cooperation. Statement 3 is correct as the embassy used that exact phrase.

Explanation

The article states both officials arrived on June 21 for a three-day visit ending June 24. So the duration is 3 days.

Explanation

The article highlights that the visits occur amid growing geopolitical competition in the Indian Ocean, where China has expanded its investments and maritime footprint. The U.S. seeks to deepen engagement with Sri Lanka as part of its Indo-Pacific strategy, which is widely seen as a counter to China's influence.

Explanation

The UGC Grants (Graded Autonomy) Regulations empower the UGC to classify universities into Category-I, II, and III based on accreditation. NAAC conducts the assessment but does not grant the status. AICTE handles technical education, and the Ministry of Education is the parent ministry but not the direct granting body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states 'among 157 Deemed to be Universities... only 26 institutions have earned Category-I status'. Statement 2 is incorrect: S-VYASA, Bengaluru, was the first, and St. Aloysius is the second. Statement 3 is correct: Category-I universities are exempted from several routine regulatory approvals and inspections as per the UGC regulations.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'among 1,292 universities in the country only about 45 universities have earned Category-I status'. Option A (26) is the number of deemed universities with Category-I, not all universities. Options C and D are the total counts of deemed and all universities respectively.

Explanation

The article highlights that Category-I universities 'can introduce new academic programmes, departments, schools, centres... without requiring prior approval from the UGC'. Other options are not mentioned: student intake limits apply to international students only; NAAC still assesses; fee structure is not discussed in the context of autonomy.

Explanation

The article states that medical colleges seeking to convert diploma seats to degree seats must submit applications to the Medical Assessment and Rating Board (MARB) via an online portal. MARB is the board under NMC that handles assessment, rating, and course permissions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the 2026-27 session is the last year for admissions to PG diploma courses. Statement 2 is correct: from 2027-28, no fresh admissions and courses cease. Statement 3 is incorrect because the decision follows the Post-Graduate Medical Education Regulations (PGMER) 2023, not the NMC Act 2019 directly.

Explanation

The NMC notification clearly states that the 2026-27 academic session will be the last year in which students can be admitted to postgraduate diploma courses. From 2027-28 onwards, no fresh admissions will be allowed.

Explanation

The NMC notification states the move is aimed at standardising postgraduate medical education, improving the quality and recognition of specialist training, and aligning qualifications with current educational standards. It also helps institutions make better use of existing infrastructure and faculty resources.

Explanation

The JCPOA included a detailed verification system administered by the IAEA, as mentioned in the article. The UNSC endorsed the deal but did not administer verification. OPEC and WHO are unrelated to nuclear safeguards.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the summit was the first round of direct US-Iran talks. Statement 2 is incorrect: unlike the JCPOA, this agreement is bilateral between US and Iran, not involving P5+1 or IAEA. Statement 3 is correct: a Lebanon de-confliction cell was established. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the two sides agreed on a '60-day road map for a final agreement'. The other options are distractors; no other timeline is mentioned.

Explanation

The article highlights that the framework is bilateral without IAEA-style verification, has no clear compliance procedures, and excludes key stakeholders like Israel, making it vulnerable to independent military actions. Options A, C, and D are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The Annapurna Yojana is a state-level scheme targeting women aged 25-60 with monthly financial assistance. State-level women-centric schemes are typically implemented by the state’s Department of Women and Child Development. The central Ministry of Finance or Rural Development is not directly responsible for a state budget scheme.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: 33% reservation in state government jobs was announced. Statement 2 is incorrect: the monthly assistance is ₹3,000, not ₹5,000. Statement 3 is correct: two all-women battalions named after Matangini Hazra and Rani Shiromani will be established in the SRPF. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Annapurna Yojana has been launched with a massive outlay of ₹36,000 crore. ₹21,000 crore is the allocation for the one-time support to unmarried girl students, ₹550 crore is for free bus travel, and ₹50,000 is the per-student amount, not the total outlay.

Explanation

Finance Minister Swapan Dasgupta emphasised formalisation of unpaid domestic labour as a vital economic driver. The policy aims to turn everyday cooking skills into paid, productive activity with minimal investment, leveraging existing home infrastructure. Revenue generation or competition with platforms are not stated objectives.

Explanation

Article 115 of the Constitution of India deals with supplementary, additional or excess grants. It allows the government to present supplementary demands when the amount authorized by the Appropriation Act is insufficient or when a need arises for additional expenditure not provided in the budget.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states it is the highest since the Mahayuti government assumed office. Statement 2 is incorrect because the supplementary demand proposes a provision of Rs 20,552 crore, but the total scheme cost is Rs 36,585 crore, as stated by CM Fadnavis. Statement 3 is correct as per the article (outstanding debt estimated at Rs 11.02 lakh crore in 2026-27). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions that during the Budget Session earlier this year, supplementary demands stood at Rs 11,995.33 crore. The other options are from other sessions: Rs 57,509.71 crore (June 2025), Rs 75,286.37 crore (Winter Session 2025), and Rs 97,706.40 crore (current monsoon session).

Explanation

The article highlights that the supplementary demands come against a backdrop of strained fiscal situation, with a projected revenue deficit of Rs 40,552 crore and fiscal deficit of Rs 1,50,491 crore. The state's outstanding debt is rising from Rs 9.73 lakh crore to Rs 11.02 lakh crore, indicating growing fiscal stress. The large supplementary demands for routine expenditure (farm loan waivers, power sector bailouts) rather than capital investment worsen this situation.

Explanation

MACT is established under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 specifically to adjudicate claims for compensation arising from motor accidents. It is a civil tribunal, not a criminal court or regulatory body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the claim was filed by the husband and two daughters. Statement 2 is incorrect – the Tribunal rejected the insurer's objection regarding the driver's licence. Statement 3 is correct as the ruling mentions '40 per cent towards future prospects'. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The Tribunal assessed the homemaker's notional income at ₹15,000 per month. The other options are distractors – ₹10,000 and ₹12,000 are lower estimates sometimes used in such cases, while ₹20,000 is closer to some urban minimum wages but not applicable here.

Explanation

The Tribunal observed that a wife puts her 'heart, soul and sweat' into serving her family 24 hours a day, seven days a week, which cannot be equated to a maid's services. This reasoning recognizes the qualitative and quantitative difference in unpaid domestic work.

Explanation

The article states that the Department of Women and Child Development and Social Welfare got the maximum allocation of ₹52,308 crore in the Bengal budget.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct: DA was hiked by 20% (additional) making total 38%, effective October 1. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 1 lakh vacancies are total government posts, not just teachers; teachers are 50,000. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

Chief Minister Suvendu Adhikari said the budget has a total outlay of ₹4.38 lakh crore. ₹8.15 lakh crore is the debt inherited from the previous government, not the budget outlay.

Explanation

Finance Minister Swapan Dasgupta said the state needs to improve investment climate by reducing 'cost of doing business' and will bring a law to safeguard businesses from 'syndicate charges' and other informal extortions. This was a key BJP campaign promise against the previous Trinamool Congress regime's alleged syndicate raj.

Explanation

The gazette notification dated June 19, 2026 was issued by the Ministry of Railways, exercising powers under the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026. The Ministry of Railways is the nodal ministry for the Railways Act, 1989 and all railway-related regulations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Section 165(1) prescribes a minimum fine of ₹10,000. Statement 2 is incorrect: imprisonment is no longer a direct punishment for the primary offence under the new provision. Statement 3 is correct: under Section 165(2), default of payment can lead to imprisonment up to one year. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The new Section 165(1) substituted by the Jan Vishwas Act, 2026 states that the penalty 'shall not be less than ten thousand rupees'. The earlier maximum fine was ₹1,000 under the old provision. The other options are distractors.

Explanation

The article states that the step is part of efforts to enhance passenger safety and security. Prohibited goods like gas cylinders and petrol are common causes of train fires, and higher penalties aim to deter such dangerous behaviour. Revenue generation is not the primary goal.

Explanation

The Central Motor Vehicles Rules fall under the purview of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. The article mentions the Centre proposed amendments to these rules to recognize E85 and E100 fuels, confirming the ministry's responsibility.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: mandatory E20-compatible vehicle production began in April 2023. Statement 2 is correct: the Centre exempted 22-30% ethanol blends from excise duty on June 10, 2026. Statement 3 is incorrect: SIAM reported a mileage reduction of 2-4% (not 4-5%); the 4-5% figure was given by mechanics, not SIAM.

Explanation

The article quotes SIAM Executive Director P K Banerjee stating that vehicle testing found a mileage reduction of around 2 to 4 percent, depending on the vehicle. The 4-5% figure was reported by mechanics from Pune, not SIAM.

Explanation

Vehicle owners in the article express fears that higher ethanol blends will further reduce mileage, cause starting trouble, and require more frequent maintenance. Older non-E20-compliant vehicles are especially vulnerable. The government's excise duty exemption is meant to encourage blending, but owners worry about the impact on their existing vehicles.

Explanation

The article states that Iran agreed to 'permit International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) inspectors into their country.' The IAEA is the UN body mandated to verify nuclear non-proliferation. The other options are unrelated to nuclear inspections.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the licence excludes North Korea, Cuba, and Crimea. Statement 2 is incorrect: India stopped buying Iranian oil after 2019 sanctions; the 14% figure was from 2009. Statement 3 is correct: Iran agreed to free transit in the Strait of Hormuz.

Explanation

The article states: 'India imported 2.6 million barrels per day of oil from Moscow, which is nearly a total of 54 percent of total crude imports for the period.' Options 34% and 44% are close distractors but the exact figure is 54%.

Explanation

The article highlights India's heavy reliance on Russian oil (54% of imports) and that Iran was a former supplier. Resuming Iranian imports would diversify energy sources, hedge against supply disruptions, and possibly lower costs. Options A, C, and D are not supported as primary benefits in the article—the waiver is temporary and focused on crude oil, not permanent exemptions.