23 June 2026, Questions & Answers
180 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
180 questions · 0 topics covered · 36 min revision
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This page contains 180 current affairs questions with answers from 23 June 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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180 QsWhich ministry is primarily responsible for issuing the deportation policy and administering the Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025?
- A.Ministry of External Affairs
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Law and Justice
- D.Ministry of Defence
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Explanation
The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is the nodal ministry for internal security, immigration, and deportation policies. The article mentions MHA's policy notification and standard operating procedures for detection and deportation.
Consider the following statements regarding the Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025:
1. It repeals the Foreigners Act, 1946 and three other colonial-era laws.
2. Section 16 of the Act places the burden of proving Indian citizenship on the individual.
3. The term 'pushback' is statutorily defined under this Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the Act consolidated and repealed four laws including the Foreigners Act, 1946. Statement 2 is correct: Section 16 places the burden on the individual. Statement 3 is incorrect: the term 'pushback' has no statutory definition in Indian law.
According to the West Bengal Chief Minister, how many illegal infiltrators were deported to Bangladesh over the past one month as of June 7, 2026?
- A.4,000
- B.4,800✓ Correct Answer
- C.5,200
- D.6,000
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Explanation
The article states West Bengal CM Suvendu Adhikari said on June 7 that 4,800 'illegal infiltrators' have been deported to Bangladesh over the past one month. This is a specific data point likely to be tested in exams.
What is the primary purpose of the 'holding centres/camps' mandated by the MHA in districts bordering Bangladesh and Myanmar?
- A.To provide shelter and rehabilitation for refugees
- B.To conduct citizenship verification and issue identity documents
- C.To restrict the movement of undocumented migrants pending deportation✓ Correct Answer
- D.To offer temporary education and healthcare to migrant children
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Explanation
The MHA policy mandated holding centres with 10-feet-high barbed wire boundaries to restrict movement of undocumented migrants until they are deported. This is a security and enforcement measure, not a welfare initiative.
Which ministry notified the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Rules, 2026?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of External Affairs
- D.Ministry of Law and Justice
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Explanation
The article states that the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) notified the amendment. MHA regulates foreign donations under FCRA to ensure internal security.
Consider the following statements:
1. FCRA registration is valid for five years, after which the NGO must apply for renewal.
2. The 2026 amendment broadens the definition of 'key functionary' to include only office bearers and directors.
3. NGOs registered under FCRA are required to disclose their social media accounts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: FCRA registration is valid for five years. Statement 2 is incorrect: the amendment broadens the definition beyond office bearers and directors to include trustees, partners, Karta of HUF, and governing body members. Statement 3 is correct: NGOs must mandatorily disclose social media accounts. Hence option C is correct.
As of June 22, 2026, how many FCRA-registered NGOs are active in the country?
- A.18,000
- B.14,456✓ Correct Answer
- C.22,000
- D.10,000
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that as on June 22, there are 14,456 FCRA-registered NGOs active. 18,000 is the approximate number of NGOs whose registrations have been cancelled since 2015. 22,000 crore is the annual foreign contribution amount.
What is the penalty for using foreign funds for purposes not covered under the NGO's FCRA approval?
- A.Up to 30% of the amount misused or ₹1 lakh, whichever is higher✓ Correct Answer
- B.Up to 50% of the amount or ₹2 lakh, whichever is higher
- C.A fixed fine of ₹5 lakh
- D.Cancellation of FCRA registration
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Explanation
The article mentions that using foreign funds for unapproved purposes or areas attracts a penalty of up to 30% of the amount or ₹1 lakh, whichever higher. The other options are not mentioned in the article.
Which ministry/department is primarily responsible for India's trade negotiations with the U.S.?
- A.Ministry of External Affairs
- B.Ministry of Finance
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Home Affairs
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Explanation
The article mentions Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal leading the talks, and the meeting is held at Vanijya Bhawan, the headquarters of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. This ministry handles India's trade negotiations and agreements.
Consider the following statements:
1. The U.S. Supreme Court struck down the 50% tariffs imposed by the Trump administration.
2. The new U.S. tariffs under Section 122 are 10% and will expire on July 24, 2026.
3. India's trade surplus with the U.S. increased in 2025-26 compared to the previous year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the U.S. Supreme Court struck down the sweeping tariffs. Statement 2 is correct as the Trump administration announced 10% tariffs under Section 122 for 150 days, expiring July 24, 2026. Statement 3 is incorrect because India's trade surplus declined to $34.4 billion in 2025-26 from $40.89 billion in 2024-25.
What is the value of India's proposed purchases of U.S. energy, aircraft, and other products over the next five years under the BTA framework?
- A.$250 billion
- B.$500 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$750 billion
- D.$1 trillion
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that New Delhi has expressed intentions to purchase $500 billion of U.S. energy products, aircraft and aircraft parts, precious metals, technology products, and coking coal over the next five years.
What is the primary objective of India's current trade talks with the U.S. in the context of the changed tariff regime?
- A.To increase imports of U.S. agricultural products
- B.To secure a tariff advantage over competitor nations like ASEAN✓ Correct Answer
- C.To finalize a comprehensive free trade agreement covering all sectors
- D.To reduce the bilateral trade deficit with the U.S.
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Explanation
The article highlights that with all countries now facing the same 10% additional levy, India needs to negotiate a favorable tariff edge in the trade pact to regain its comparative advantage over competitors such as ASEAN nations, Sri Lanka, Pakistan, and Bangladesh.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO)?
- A.Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers
- B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Law and Justice
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Explanation
CDSCO is the national regulatory body for drugs and cosmetics functioning under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. It coordinates with state drug control authorities for drug quality enforcement.
Consider the following statements:
1. The recent amendment omitted the word 'syrup' from Entry 13 of Schedule K of the Drugs Rules, 1945.
2. Schedule K of the Drugs Rules, 1945 provides exemptions from certain provisions of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940.
3. The amendment now allows cough syrups to be sold in villages with population less than 1000 without a pharmacy license.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Only 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct - the word 'syrup' was omitted from Entry 13. Statement 2 is correct - Schedule K provides exemptions. Statement 3 is incorrect - the amendment removes the exemption, meaning cough syrups must now be sold only through licensed pharmacies even in small villages.
What was the population threshold in villages below which cough syrups were earlier exempted from retail licensing provisions under Schedule K?
- A.Less than 500
- B.Less than 1,000✓ Correct Answer
- C.Less than 2,000
- D.Less than 5,000
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Explanation
Entry 13 of Schedule K of the Drugs Rules, 1945 earlier permitted cough syrup sale in villages with population less than 1,000 without compliance with certain retail licensing provisions. This exemption has now been removed.
Why do health experts consider the recent amendment to Schedule K 'superficial'?
- A.It will reduce accessibility of cough syrups in rural areas
- B.It focuses on retail regulation rather than manufacturing quality control✓ Correct Answer
- C.It increases the cost of cough syrups for consumers
- D.It applies only to a few states in India
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Explanation
As per the article, experts like Dr. Sargunam called the amendment 'superficial' because the core issue is manufacturing quality and presence of toxic contaminants like DEG, not the point of sale. They emphasized the need for stronger monitoring of raw materials and mandatory quality certification before products reach the market.
Which UK body forecast a 15% decline in long-term trade as a result of Brexit?
- A.Bank of England
- B.Office for Budget Responsibility (OBR)✓ Correct Answer
- C.US National Bureau of Economic Research
- D.UK Treasury
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Explanation
The article states that the OBR, the UK's independent fiscal watchdog, forecast a 15% decline in exports and imports of goods and services as the long-term impact of Brexit on trade.
Consider the following statements regarding the impact of Brexit a decade later:
1. According to Bank of England data, the British economy took a 6% hit after leaving the EU.
2. A recent survey found that 57% of Britons now support leaving the European Union.
3. Six British Prime Ministers resigned without completing their full term after the referendum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Bank of England data shows a 6% economic hit. Statement 2 is incorrect: 57% of Britons consider Brexit a mistake, not that they support it. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions six PMs resigned without completing full term.
According to the article, what percentage of Britons now believe the decision to leave the EU was a mistake?
- A.51.9%
- B.57%✓ Correct Answer
- C.60%
- D.48%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 57% of Britons (as per a recent survey) now consider the decision a mistake. 51.9% is the share that voted to leave in 2016, which is a common confusion point.
What was one major shift in UK immigration patterns after Brexit, as highlighted in the article?
- A.Overall immigration decreased sharply
- B.Shift from EU workers to record non-EU visa grants✓ Correct Answer
- C.Complete halt of all migration from the EU
- D.Increase in illegal migration from EU countries
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Explanation
The article notes that with the end of free movement, the supply of cheap EU labour dried up, and the UK has seen a sharp rise in recruitment of non-EU workers, granting a record number of non-EU visas while continuing to use more than 4,000 EU laws.
Which trust is responsible for managing the Kheer Bhawani Temple in Tulmulla?
- A.Shri Mata Vaishno Devi Shrine Board
- B.Jammu and Kashmir Dharmarth Trust✓ Correct Answer
- C.Archaeological Survey of India
- D.Jammu and Kashmir Tourism Development Corporation
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Explanation
The article states that the Kheer Bhawani Temple is managed by the Jammu and Kashmir Dharmarth Trust, which was established by the Dogra rulers to manage Hindu temples in the region.
Consider the following statements regarding fire safety in India:
1. India needs approximately 1.8 million firefighters based on global standards.
2. The current number of firefighters in India is around 2,00,000.
3. Each state on average is short by 707 fire trucks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) 1 only
- B.(B) 1 and 3 only✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) 2 and 3 only
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: India needs 1.8 million firefighters. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article states current number is around 3,00,000 (not 2,00,000). Statement 3 is correct: each state is short by 707 fire trucks on average.
As per the Indian Express analysis, how many pedestrian deaths were recorded in India in 2024?
- A.13,894
- B.21,000
- C.36,526✓ Correct Answer
- D.45,000
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Explanation
The article mentions that pedestrian deaths surged from 13,894 in 2015 to 36,526 in 2024, an increase of 163%. Option A is the 2015 figure.
What is the primary significance of the Supreme Court recognizing the right to walk on footpaths as a fundamental right?
- A.It will lead to a complete ban on motor vehicles in urban areas.
- B.It will create a legal framework to hold officials accountable for pedestrian infrastructure violations.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It will automatically increase the compensation for all road accident victims.
- D.It will transfer all road infrastructure to local bodies.
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Explanation
The Supreme Court stated that a law would be crucial to holding officials and departments accountable for addressing violations of pedestrian rights. The judgment does not ban vehicles or automatically increase compensation; it establishes the right and calls for a law.
Which ministry is responsible for administering the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA)?
- A.Ministry of External Affairs
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.Ministry of Law and Justice
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Explanation
The article states that the Union Home Ministry issued the gazette notification amending FCRA rules. The FCRA is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs, which oversees foreign contributions to ensure they do not threaten internal security.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent FCRA rule amendments:
1. NGOs must choose their purposes from a predefined list specified in the Schedule appended to the rules.
2. Proselytisation is completely banned under the amended FCRA rules.
3. NGOs receiving foreign funds must disclose their social media accounts in their applications.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: every application shall mention purposes chosen from the Schedule. Statement 2 is incorrect: proselytisation is excluded only from certain categories (religious education, documentation of faith traditions, preservation of indigenous beliefs), not completely banned. Statement 3 is correct: NGOs must provide details of their social media accounts in applications for registration or renewal.
What is the minimum amount of foreign contribution that an NGO must have spent on its chosen activities over the last two financial years to renew its registration under the amended FCRA rules?
- A.Rs 5 lakh
- B.Rs 10 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- C.Rs 15 lakh
- D.Rs 20 lakh
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'the government has introduced a minimum spending limit of Rs 10 lakh of foreign contribution on its chosen activities over the last two financial years' for renewal or to avoid cancellation. The other options are plausible distractors.
What is the primary objective of the new requirement that NGOs must specify their exact purpose and state/UT of operation in their FCRA registration application?
- A.To streamline administrative processes within the Home Ministry
- B.To enhance transparency and accountability in the use of foreign funds✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce the overall number of NGOs in the country
- D.To promote religious activities through foreign contributions
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Explanation
The article states that the amendments tighten accountability for how NGOs receive and use foreign money. Requiring specific purposes and area of operation ensures that foreign contributions are used for declared objectives, preventing diversion and enhancing oversight. Options A and C are secondary or unintended; D is not supported by the text.
Which institution publishes the bulletin on monetary policy transmission mentioned in the news?
- A.Reserve Bank of India✓ Correct Answer
- B.Securities and Exchange Board of India
- C.NITI Aayog
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The article refers to the Reserve Bank of India's (RBI) bulletin released on June 22, 2026. RBI is the central bank responsible for monetary policy in India.
Consider the following statements:
1. RBI increased the repo rate by 250 bps between May 2022 and January 2025.
2. During the easing cycle (Feb 2025-Apr 2026), the weighted average deposit rate on fresh deposits increased by 85 bps.
3. Credit growth in May 2026 stood at 17.7%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: repo rate increased 250 bps from May 2022 to Jan 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: during the easing cycle, WADR on fresh deposits dipped 85 bps, not increased. Statement 3 is correct: credit growth was 17.7% in May 2026. Hence option C.
What was the increase in weighted average lending rates during the rate hike cycle (May 2022-Jan 2025)?
- A.182 bps✓ Correct Answer
- B.259 bps
- C.85 bps
- D.250 bps
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Explanation
The article states that weighted average lending rates overall increased 182 bps during rate hikes. 259 bps is the increase in deposit rates, 85 bps is the rate cut amount, and 250 bps is the repo rate hike.
What is the primary concern highlighted by the widening gap between credit growth (17.7%) and deposit growth (12.2%) in May 2026?
- A.Inflationary pressure due to excess credit
- B.Liquidity stress for banks as deposits lag credit✓ Correct Answer
- C.Reduced export competitiveness
- D.Fiscal deficit increase
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Explanation
When credit grows faster than deposits, banks face a funding gap, potentially leading to liquidity stress. This may force banks to raise deposit rates or slow lending. The article highlights the widening wedge as a concern for financial stability.
Which committee in the Constituent Assembly was responsible for discussing fundamental rights and the right to vote?
- A.Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas✓ Correct Answer
- B.Drafting Committee
- C.Union Powers Committee
- D.Provincial Constitution Committee
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Explanation
The article mentions that the Constituent Assembly set up an Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas under the Chairmanship of Sardar Patel. This committee discussed the matter of making voting a fundamental right.
Consider the following statements regarding the right to vote in India:
1. The Supreme Court has held that the right to vote is a fundamental right.
2. The right to contest elections is also a statutory right, not a fundamental right.
3. Both the right to vote and the right to contest elections are purely statutory in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Supreme Court has held that the right to vote is NOT a fundamental right - it is statutory. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct as the article states both are statutory in nature. Hence option C is correct.
On which date did the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights convene to discuss the matter of making voting a fundamental right?
- A.April 21, 1947✓ Correct Answer
- B.April 21, 1946
- C.April 21, 1948
- D.April 21, 1949
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Explanation
The article specifically states that the committee convened on the morning of April 21, 1947, in the Council Chamber of the Council House (now Old Parliament House).
What is the primary implication of declaring the right to vote a fundamental right?
- A.It would allow the government to alter voting rules through ordinary legislation
- B.It would make the right to vote justiciable and enforceable by courts✓ Correct Answer
- C.It would eliminate the need for an Election Commission
- D.It would allow states to set their own voting qualifications
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Explanation
The article explains that Ambedkar argued that if voting is a fundamental right, then the legislature and executive cannot alter it. It would be justiciable and enforceable by courts. Currently, it is a statutory right that can be modified by ordinary legislation.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for negotiating and implementing India's trade agreements like the India-UK CETA?
- A.Ministry of External Affairs
- B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.Ministry of Textiles
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Explanation
The article is written by the Union Minister of Commerce and Industry, indicating that this ministry leads trade agreement negotiations. The Ministry of External Affairs handles diplomatic relations, while Finance deals with tariffs and revenue, but Commerce and Industry is the nodal ministry for FTAs.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-UK CETA:
1. The agreement eliminates tariffs on about 99% of tariff lines, covering almost 100% of trade value.
2. Dairy products and cereals are included in the tariff elimination to boost exports.
3. The Double Contribution Convention will benefit over 75,000 Indian professionals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because dairy, cereals, millets, apples, oats and cooking oils are explicitly excluded to protect domestic farmers. Statement 3 is correct: the Double Contribution Convention benefits over 75,000 Indian professionals and 900 companies.
What percentage of tariff lines are eliminated under the India-UK CETA?
- A.90%
- B.95%
- C.99%✓ Correct Answer
- D.100%
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Explanation
The article states that CETA will 'immediately eliminate tariffs on about 99 per cent of tariff lines'. The other options are close distractors: 100% is not accurate because sensitive sectors are excluded, and 90% or 95% are not mentioned.
What is the primary objective of the Double Contribution Convention included in the India-UK CETA?
- A.To increase tax revenue for both countries
- B.To exempt Indian workers from paying social security contributions in the UK during temporary assignments✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce tariffs on goods traded between India and the UK
- D.To allow unlimited mobility for Indian professionals in the UK
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Explanation
The article explains that the Double Contribution Convention exempts Indian workers and employers from making dual social-security contributions in the UK during temporary assignments, ensuring continued coverage in India. It does not affect tariffs or provide unlimited mobility.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for implementing crop insurance schemes like the one mentioned in the article?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Rural Development
- D.Ministry of Food Processing Industries
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Explanation
Crop insurance schemes, including the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY), are implemented under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The article mentions expediting crop surveys and insurance payments, which fall under this ministry's purview.
Consider the following statements:
1. The article states that the southwest monsoon rainfall was 42.8% below normal by June 22, 2026.
2. El Niño is forecast to be 'very strong' during August-September 2026.
3. The last two strong-to-very strong El Niño events in 2023-24 and 2015-16 produced drought years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions 42.8% deficit. Statement 2 is incorrect: the forecast says El Niño will be 'strong' during August-September and 'very strong' over October-January. Statement 3 is correct: the article explicitly mentions that the last two such events (2023-24 and 2015-16) produced drought years.
According to the article, by what date did the cumulative all-India rainfall stand at 42.8% below normal?
- A.June 15, 2026
- B.June 21, 2026
- C.June 22, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- D.June 30, 2026
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'cumulative all-India rainfall this season (June-September) till June 22 being 42.8 per cent below the normal average for this period.' The other options are close distractors based on other dates mentioned in the passage.
What is the primary reason the article recommends keeping the import window open for farm produce instead of imposing export bans?
- A.To increase government revenue through import tariffs
- B.To prevent food inflation spikes by ensuring adequate supply✓ Correct Answer
- C.To support domestic farmers by reducing competition
- D.To comply with WTO agreements on agricultural trade
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Explanation
The article argues that keeping imports open is preferable to knee-jerk export bans/restrictions because it helps manage supply-side pressures and prevents food inflation. The context is that El Niño threatens crop yields, and maintaining supply via imports can stabilise prices.
Which organization published the 'Children's Climate Risk Report 2026'?
- A.World Health Organization (WHO)
- B.United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF)✓ Correct Answer
- C.United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
- D.World Meteorological Organization (WMO)
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Explanation
The report is specifically published by UNICEF, as mentioned in the article. The other options are UN agencies but not responsible for this report. UNICEF focuses on child welfare and climate risks to children.
Consider the following statements regarding the UNICEF Children's Climate Risk Report 2026:
1. India ranks first in the multi-hazard exposure score for children.
2. India has the highest exposure to extreme heat among all countries.
3. About 55% of Indian children are exposed to at least three of the eight climate hazards.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: India ranks fifth in multi-hazard exposure score, not first. Statement 2 is correct: India scores 10/10 in extreme heat exposure, the highest. Statement 3 is correct: the article states 55% of Indian children are exposed to at least three hazards. Hence option C.
According to the UNICEF report, what percentage of children in India are exposed to air pollution?
- A.90%
- B.95%
- C.99%✓ Correct Answer
- D.100%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states 'almost 99% of children are exposed to air pollution' in India. The other options are close distractors; 100% is not accurate as it is 'almost 99%'.
What does the UNICEF report suggest as a key indicator for a nation's capacity to tackle climate risks faced by children?
- A.GDP growth rate
- B.Child vulnerability score based on the status of child-critical social systems✓ Correct Answer
- C.Number of climate laws enacted
- D.International climate finance received
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Explanation
The report recommends 'examining the status of child-critical social systems and services' as an indicator of capacity. The child vulnerability score (0-10) reflects that. GDP or number of laws are not primary indicators used in the report.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for the ship recycling sector in India?
- A.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- B.Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Steel
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Explanation
The Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW) oversees the ship recycling sector, as highlighted in the article where Union Minister Sarbananda Sonowal commented on the achievement. The ministry introduced the Recycling of Ships Act, 2019 and other policy measures.
Consider the following statements:
1. India recycled 2.99 million gross tonnes (GT) of ships in 2025, a nearly 60% increase from 2024.
2. The Hong Kong International Convention for the Safe and Environmentally Sound Recycling of Ships was ratified by India in 2025.
3. The government provided ₹53.5 crore in financial assistance to modernize 115 ship recycling yards.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 2.99 million GT recycled, a nearly 60% increase. Statement 2 is incorrect: India ratified the Hong Kong Convention in 2019, not 2025. Statement 3 is correct: ₹53.5 crore was provided to modernize 115 yards. Hence option C is correct.
According to the UNCTAD report cited in the article, what was India's global share in ship recycling in 2025?
- A.25.4%
- B.35.4%✓ Correct Answer
- C.45.4%
- D.55.4%
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Explanation
The article states that India captured 35.4% of the global ship recycling market in 2025. The other options are close distractors, but 35.4% is the exact figure mentioned in the title and the UNCTAD report.
What is the primary objective of the Ship-breaking Credit Note Scheme mentioned in the article?
- A.To provide direct cash subsidies to ship owners for recycling
- B.To incentivize ship owners to recycle vessels in India and use credits for new ships built in Indian yards✓ Correct Answer
- C.To offer tax exemptions to foreign ship owners for using Indian recycling facilities
- D.To fund the modernization of ship recycling yards through credit-linked loans
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Explanation
The article explains that the Ship-breaking Credit Note Scheme offers incentives to ship owners by allowing them to use credits earned from recycling vessels towards the purchase of new ships built in Indian shipyards. This promotes a circular economy and supports domestic shipbuilding.
Which US President is historically associated with the Great Depression, as referenced in the article?
- A.Franklin D. Roosevelt
- B.Herbert Hoover✓ Correct Answer
- C.Woodrow Wilson
- D.Calvin Coolidge
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions Trump's fear of being compared to Herbert Hoover, the US president during the onset of the Great Depression. Franklin D. Roosevelt succeeded Hoover and implemented the New Deal.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. Trump stated that preventing Iran from obtaining a nuclear weapon is more important than avoiding a global economic depression.
2. Trump signed the ceasefire memorandum with Iran solely due to military pressure.
3. Israeli PM Netanyahu intends to keep Israeli troops in southern Lebanon, which may contradict the ceasefire.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as Trump said 'Nuclear weapon supersedes depression.' Statement 2 is incorrect because the article says economic fears (including comparison to Hoover) led him to sign the ceasefire, not solely military pressure. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions Netanyahu's stated intention to keep troops in southern Lebanon, which appears to contradict the ceasefire.
According to the article, what did Trump say 'supersedes depression'?
- A.A trade war
- B.A nuclear weapon✓ Correct Answer
- C.A military strike
- D.A ceasefire violation
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Explanation
Trump's exact quote was 'Nuclear weapon supersedes depression,' meaning the threat of a nuclear-armed Iran is considered more severe than the risk of an economic depression.
What is the primary strategic implication of Trump's statement that the nuclear threat 'supersedes' economic depression?
- A.The US will prioritize economic sanctions over military action.
- B.The US is willing to risk a global recession to prevent Iran from getting nuclear weapons.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The US will immediately withdraw from all trade agreements with Iran.
- D.The US will seek UN approval before any military action.
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Explanation
Trump explicitly stated that the nuclear threat outweighs the risk of depression, indicating a willingness to accept economic fallout (from military strikes) to achieve non-proliferation goals. This is a direct application of his stated hierarchy of threats.
Which ministry/department of the Government of India is primarily responsible for releasing grants-in-aid to states like West Bengal?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of Finance✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Rural Development
- D.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
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Explanation
Grants-in-aid to states are channeled through the Ministry of Finance, based on recommendations of the Finance Commission and under centrally sponsored schemes. The article mentions central grants-in-aid rising sharply, which is a function of the Finance Ministry.
Consider the following statements regarding the West Bengal Budget 2026-27:
1. The revenue deficit as a percentage of GSDP decreased from 2.07% (revised 2025-26) to 1.02%.
2. The fiscal deficit is projected at 3.40% of GSDP, exceeding the FRBM ceiling of 3%.
3. Central grants-in-aid to the state increased by about ₹49,325 crore compared to the revised estimate of 2025-26.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the revenue deficit fell from 2.07% to 1.02% of GSDP. Statement 2 is incorrect: the fiscal deficit is 2.91% of GSDP, which is below the 3% FRBM ceiling. Statement 3 is correct: central grants rose from ₹22,068.85 crore (revised) to ₹71,393.19 crore, an increase of about ₹49,325 crore.
According to the news article, what is the total allocation of the West Bengal Budget for the financial year 2026-27?
- A.₹3.39 lakh crore
- B.₹4.39 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹5.39 lakh crore
- D.₹4.93 lakh crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Finance Minister Swapan Dasgupta announced a total allocation of Rs 4.39 lakh crore for 2026-27. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the news.
What is the primary objective of the sharp increase in central grants-in-aid to West Bengal mentioned in the budget?
- A.To reduce the state's reliance on market borrowings
- B.To boost infrastructure development and social welfare schemes✓ Correct Answer
- C.To compensate for a shortfall in state's own tax revenue
- D.To fund the state's legacy debt repayment
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Explanation
The article mentions that the budget gives impetus to social welfare while looking to boost infrastructure and industrial sector. The central grants flow through schemes like PMAY-G, Gramin Sadak Yojana, Ayushman Bharat, and PM-Kisan, all aimed at welfare and infrastructure. While reducing borrowing may be a side effect, the stated objective is welfare and development.
Which ministry is responsible for notifying Ecologically Sensitive Areas (ESAs) under the Environment Protection Act, 1986?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Law and Justice
- D.Ministry of Science and Technology
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Explanation
The Environment Protection Act, 1986 is administered by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). ESAs are notified by this ministry after considering recommendations from expert committees and state governments.
Consider the following statements regarding the Western Ghats conservation plan:
1. The Kasturirangan panel recommended that the entire Western Ghats be declared as Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) with heavy restrictions on mining and industries.
2. The Gadgil panel identified 1,29,037 sq km as the extent of the Western Ghats and recommended ESA status for the entire area.
3. The latest draft notification (2024) proposes a phased state-wise approach to finalize the ESA demarcation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Kasturirangan panel recommended ESA status for only 60,000 sq km (natural landscape), not the entire Ghats. Statement 2 is correct: The Gadgil panel identified 1,29,037 sq km and proposed ESA for the whole area. Statement 3 is correct: The July 2024 draft notification introduced a phased state-wise or combined notification option.
What was the area of 'natural landscape' that the Kasturirangan panel proposed to be notified as Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA)?
- A.56,825.7 sq km
- B.60,000 sq km✓ Correct Answer
- C.1,29,037 sq km
- D.1,64,280 sq km
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Explanation
The Kasturirangan panel classified 40% of the Western Ghats (60,000 sq km) as 'natural landscape' with high biological richness and proposed it for ESA. The 56,825.7 sq km figure is the reduced area in the latest draft notification after state inputs.
Why are states like Kerala and Karnataka opposing the Western Ghats ESA notification?
- A.They want the entire Ghats to be declared as a national park.
- B.They fear restrictions on agriculture, plantations, and mining will harm their economy.✓ Correct Answer
- C.They demand that the ESA be managed by the central government alone.
- D.They want to replace the Kasturirangan panel with a new committee.
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Explanation
States argue that ESA restrictions on mining, red category industries, and large constructions would adversely affect agriculture (e.g., cardamom, pepper), plantations, and industrial activities. Kerala has sought exclusion of villages in Idukki and Cardamom Hills, while Karnataka has rejected the Kasturirangan recommendations entirely.
Which US legislation provides for investigations into foreign trade practices deemed unfair, as invoked in the ongoing US-India trade dispute?
- A.Section 232 of the Trade Expansion Act
- B.Section 301 of the Trade Act of 1974✓ Correct Answer
- C.Section 201 of the Trade Act of 1974
- D.Section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930
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Explanation
The article mentions that the US is completing its Section 301 investigation against India. Section 301 allows the US to impose tariffs or other restrictions on countries it finds engaging in unfair trade practices. Section 232 deals with national security, Section 201 with safeguard measures, and Section 337 with unfair import practices like IP infringement.
Consider the following statements regarding India-US trade relations:
1. India's trade surplus with the US increased in May 2026 compared to May 2025.
2. India agreed to import about 2.2 million tonnes per annum of LPG from the US.
3. The US Supreme Court declared the 50% duty imposed by the US on India as illegal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: the article clearly states that India's trade surplus declined over 40% to $2.94 billion in May 2026 from $5.02 billion in May 2025. Statement 2 is correct: Indian public sector refiners signed a one-year deal for 2.2 MTPA of US LPG. Statement 3 is correct: the US Supreme Court declared the 50% duty illegal in February 2026.
According to the article, what was the approximate value of India's export surplus with the US in May 2026?
- A.$5.02 billion
- B.$2.94 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$3.50 billion
- D.$4.10 billion
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that India's export surplus slipped to $2.94 billion in May 2026 from $5.02 billion in May 2025. The other options are distractors: $5.02 billion is the May 2025 figure.
What is the primary concern of Indian farm groups regarding the proposed US-India trade deal?
- A.Loss of export markets for Indian cotton
- B.Increased imports of subsidised US agricultural products harming domestic growers✓ Correct Answer
- C.Reduction in Indian farm subsidies mandated by WTO
- D.Higher tariffs on Indian farm exports to the US
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Explanation
Farm groups highlighted that US agricultural subsidies (through the Farm Bill and positive PSE) allow US products to be sold cheaply, and allowing such subsidised imports would destroy domestic production of apples, almonds, walnuts, soybean, cotton, and rubber. They urged India not to commit to farm imports under the trade deal.
Which agency is responsible for conducting the NEET (National Eligibility cum Entrance Test) in India?
- A.Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
- B.National Testing Agency (NTA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.University Grants Commission (UGC)
- D.Medical Council of India (MCI)
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Explanation
NEET is conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA), an autonomous body under the Ministry of Education. CBSE used to conduct it earlier, but since 2019, NTA has been the exam-conducting body.
Consider the following statements regarding the NEET re-examination impersonation racket in Bihar:
1. The racket was uncovered in Lakhisarai district of Bihar, leading to the arrest of 30 people.
2. Biometric verification personnel were found to have facilitated the impersonation by allowing dummy candidates to enter exam halls.
3. All dummy candidates arrested were from professional courses within Bihar only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the arrests happened in Lakhisarai, Bihar. Statement 2 is correct: biometric personnel facilitated the fraud. Statement 3 is incorrect because dummy candidates were from Bihar, Delhi, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Odisha, and Jharkhand, not only Bihar. Hence option C is correct.
According to the news report, how many biometric system personnel (including supervisors) have been named in the NEET re-examination impersonation case in Lakhisarai?
- A.30
- B.18✓ Correct Answer
- C.12
- D.10
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Explanation
The police statement mentioned that 18 biometric system personnel, including supervisors, have been named in the case. 30 is the total number of arrests, which includes dummy candidates, facilitators, and biometric personnel. 12 and 10 are distractors.
What is the primary concern raised by the NEET re-examination impersonation racket in Bihar?
- A.The need for more examination centres in rural areas
- B.The vulnerability of biometric verification systems in high-stakes exams✓ Correct Answer
- C.The demand for reducing the difficulty level of NEET
- D.The requirement for more medical colleges in Bihar
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Explanation
The racket revealed that biometric personnel actively colluded with candidates, indicating that technology alone is insufficient without strict supervision and accountability. This highlights systemic security flaws in examination processes, which can undermine merit-based admissions.
Which organization conducts the Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) in India?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Prime Minister’s Economic Advisory Council
- D.Food and Agriculture Organization
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Explanation
The Household Consumption Expenditure Survey is a flagship survey conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), which operates under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. The PMEAC is an advisory body, and the FAO is a UN agency. Hence option B is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the findings in the article:
1. The Household Consumption Expenditure Survey 2023-24 shows that 20% of the urban population cannot afford two thali meals per day.
2. The youth unemployment rate in 2025 was approximately 10 per cent, which is thrice the unemployment rate for the labour force as a whole.
3. Real wages in India have increased over the past five years, driven by high GDP growth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly states that 20% of the urban population cannot afford two thalis at Rs 30 each per day. Statement 2 is correct because the article says youth unemployment was close to 10% in 2025, which is thrice the overall labour force rate. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article clearly states that real wages have declined over the past five years. Hence option C is correct.
According to the article, what percentage of India's population was unable to afford a healthy diet, based on UN FAO data?
- A.30%
- B.40%
- C.50%✓ Correct Answer
- D.60%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'data from the UN’s Food and Agricultural Organisation on the affordability of a healthy diet, which shows that 50 per cent of India cannot afford one.' The other options are incorrect. The 30% figure refers to the all-India figure for those consuming less than two thali meals a day (after food subsidy). Hence option C is correct.
What is the primary chain of causation identified in the article linking rising food prices to lower employment?
- A.Higher food prices increase profits, leading to more capital-intensive investment and less job creation✓ Correct Answer
- B.Higher food prices lower exports, reducing foreign exchange reserves and causing job losses
- C.Higher food prices force the government to cut subsidies, reducing aggregate demand
- D.Higher food prices attract foreign investment in agriculture, displacing labour
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Explanation
The article explicitly explains the chain: rising food prices decrease real wages, increasing profits. These profits then create demand for relatively capital-intensive goods, which have lower employment-generating impact. The other options are not mentioned in the article. Hence option A is correct.
Which Indian government agency is responsible for facilitating private sector participation in the space sector and organized presentations at the BRICS Heads of Space Agencies meet?
- A.ISRO
- B.IN-SPACe✓ Correct Answer
- C.Department of Space
- D.Antrix Corporation
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Explanation
According to the article, IN-SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre) facilitated presentations by Indian space-tech companies at the BRICS HOSA meet. ISRO is the main space agency, but IN-SPACe is specifically tasked with promoting private sector involvement.
Consider the following statements regarding the BRICS Heads of Space Agencies (HOSA) 2026 meet:
1. The meet was hosted in Bengaluru, India, under India's Chairmanship of BRICS for 2026.
2. The theme of the meet was 'Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability'.
3. The meet finalized the establishment of the BRICS Space Council.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Bengaluru hosted the meet and India is Chair of BRICS for 2026. Statement 2 is correct: the theme is exactly as given. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article states that the Terms of Reference for the proposed BRICS Space Council were discussed, but it was not finalized; it is still a proposal.
How many member countries attended the BRICS Heads of Space Agencies (HOSA) 2026 meet in Bengaluru?
- A.5
- B.9
- C.10
- D.11✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article clearly lists 11 BRICS member countries: Brazil, China, Egypt, Ethiopia, India, Indonesia, Iran, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, and the United Arab Emirates. All attended the HOSA meet. The founding five (BRICS) expanded in 2024 with six new members, making 11.
What is the primary objective of the proposed BRICS Space Council as discussed during the HOSA meet?
- A.To coordinate lunar exploration missions among BRICS nations
- B.To regulate commercial space launches in member countries
- C.To provide an overarching framework for space cooperation among BRICS members✓ Correct Answer
- D.To replace the existing Remote Sensing Satellite Constellation Agreement
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Explanation
The article mentions that the Terms of Reference for the proposed BRICS Space Council were discussed. The council is intended to be a high-level body to coordinate and guide space activities, not just RSSC. Option C aligns with the description. Options A, B, and D are not mentioned in the article.
Which of the following is a critical maritime chokepoint for global oil shipments, mentioned in the context of the U.S.-Iran MoU?
- A.Strait of Malacca
- B.Strait of Hormuz✓ Correct Answer
- C.Suez Canal
- D.Bab-el-Mandeb
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Explanation
The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and is a vital passage for oil tankers. The news specifically highlights NSA Doval welcoming its opening.
Consider the following statements regarding the BRICS grouping:
1. BRICS originally comprised Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa.
2. Indonesia joined BRICS in 2024.
3. BRICS members represent about 40% of the global GDP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: BRICS originally had five members. Statement 2 is incorrect: Indonesia joined in 2025, not 2024. Statement 3 is correct: the article states BRICS represents around 40% of global GDP.
According to the article, what percentage of the global population do the BRICS countries represent?
- A.Around 30%
- B.Around 40%
- C.Around 49.5%✓ Correct Answer
- D.Around 55%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that BRICS members represent 'around 49.5 per cent of the global population'. The other options are close but incorrect.
What is the primary strategic reason for India to welcome the opening of the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.To reduce its dependence on renewable energy
- B.To ensure the safety of its diaspora in West Asia
- C.To enhance its naval presence in the Persian Gulf
- D.To secure stable energy imports and lower geopolitical risk✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
India is a major importer of oil and gas, much of which passes through the Strait of Hormuz. Stability in the strait directly impacts India's energy security and reduces the risk of supply disruptions or price spikes.
Which international organization released the 'Children's Climate Risk Report 2026' mentioned in the news?
- A.World Health Organization (WHO)
- B.United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF)✓ Correct Answer
- C.United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
- D.Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)
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Explanation
The report is titled 'Children's Climate Risk Report 2026' and is published by UNICEF. UNEP and IPCC focus on environment and climate science but not specifically on children. WHO deals with health, not comprehensive climate risk assessment for children.
Consider the following statements regarding the UNICEF Children's Climate Risk Report 2026:
1. India ranks 5th in the multi-hazard exposure score among all countries.
2. India has the highest child vulnerability score globally.
3. About 55% of children in India are exposed to at least three of the eight climate hazards considered.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: India ranks 5th in multi-hazard exposure after Myanmar, Pakistan, Vietnam, and Bangladesh. Statement 2 is incorrect: India's child vulnerability score is 3.44, which is not the highest; countries in Africa like Niger, Chad have higher scores. Statement 3 is correct: 55% of Indian children are exposed to at least three climate hazards. Hence option C.
According to the UNICEF Report 2026, what percentage of children in India are exposed to at least three of the eight climate hazards?
- A.45%
- B.55%✓ Correct Answer
- C.65%
- D.75%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'around 55% of children in India are exposed to at least three of 8 climate hazards considered'. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the report.
What does the UNICEF report suggest as a key indicator of a nation's capacity to tackle climate risks faced by children?
- A.Gross Domestic Product (GDP) per capita
- B.Status of child-critical social systems and services✓ Correct Answer
- C.Number of environmental NGOs operating in the country
- D.Level of military spending on disaster management
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Explanation
The report states that 'examining the status of child-critical social systems and services' is a good indicator of a region or nation's capacity to address climate risks for children. GDP per capita is not directly mentioned. NGOs and military spending are not part of the report's suggested metrics.
Which US institution's ruling on February 20, 2026 voided the reciprocal tariff mechanism that had set India's tariff rate at 18%?
- A.US Congress
- B.US Supreme Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.US Trade Representative
- D.US Department of Commerce
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Explanation
The US Supreme Court, in a 6-3 ruling, held that the statutory authority used for reciprocal tariffs did not authorize the executive to impose such rates; the power belongs to Congress. This ruling voided India's negotiated 18% tariff rate.
Consider the following statements:
1. The India-US trade deal is reported to be 99% complete.
2. The US Supreme Court upheld the reciprocal tariff mechanism, allowing the 18% rate on India to remain.
3. India pledged to purchase $500 billion in American goods as part of the deal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as both India's commerce minister and the US ambassador stated the first tranche is about 99% done. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Supreme Court voided the reciprocal tariff mechanism, not upheld it. Statement 3 is correct as India agreed to buy a reported $500 billion in American goods under the deal.
What was the negotiated US tariff rate on Indian goods under the India-US trade deal before the US Supreme Court ruling?
- A.10%
- B.12.5%
- C.18%✓ Correct Answer
- D.50%
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Explanation
After months of tariffs rising to 50%, Washington cut India's rate to 18% in exchange for an import pledge of $500 billion. However, this rate was subsequently voided by the US Supreme Court ruling on February 20, 2026.
According to the article, what is the primary strategic factor that provides durable ballast for the India-US trade deal beyond tariff numbers?
- A.The G7 summit endorsement
- B.Shared competition with China and reduction of US dependence on Chinese supply chains✓ Correct Answer
- C.The $500 billion import pledge
- D.The agriculture and dairy market access
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that India's strategic value to Washington stems from US-China competition. Tariff numbers are temporary, but the shared vulnerability to Chinese dominance in refining and component nodes of supply chains (critical minerals, electronics, pharmaceuticals, defence) provides the real steady ballast for the partnership.
Which organisation is responsible for coordinating and monitoring the national power grid in India and proposed the repurposing of thermal units into synchronous condensers?
- A.Central Electricity Authority (CEA)
- B.Power Grid Corporation of India (PGCIL)
- C.Grid Controller of India (Grid India)✓ Correct Answer
- D.National Load Despatch Centre (NLDC)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Grid India identified the nine thermal units and proposed their conversion. Grid India is the apex body for real-time power grid management in India, operating under the Ministry of Power.
Consider the following statements:
1. Synchronous condensers generate active electricity to support the grid during fluctuations.
2. The proposed repurposing includes both coal- and gas-based thermal units.
3. The Champa-Kurukshetra HVDC link tripping in June 2024 caused a load reduction of about 16.5 GW in the Northern Region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: synchronous condensers do not generate active power; they spin freely to provide reactive power, inertia, and voltage support. Statement 2 is correct: the shortlisted units include eight coal/lignite and one gas-based. Statement 3 is correct: the article notes the June 2024 grid event caused 16.5 GW load reduction in the Northern Region.
How many thermal power units were identified by Grid India for possible conversion into synchronous condensers, and what is their combined capacity?
- A.7 units, 1.5 GW
- B.9 units, 1.8 GW✓ Correct Answer
- C.10 units, 2.0 GW
- D.12 units, 2.5 GW
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Explanation
The article specifies that Grid India identified nine thermal power units with a combined capacity of about 1.8 GW. The other options are close distractors but differ from the exact numbers.
What is the primary benefit of converting underutilised thermal plants into synchronous condensers, as highlighted in the news?
- A.Increasing electricity generation capacity using existing infrastructure
- B.Providing reactive power and inertia support to stabilise the grid with high renewable penetration✓ Correct Answer
- C.Reducing carbon emissions by switching from coal to gas
- D.Enhancing transmission capacity through new HVDC links
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Explanation
The article emphasises that synchronous condensers do not generate electricity but provide essential reliability services like inertia, voltage support, and reactive power, which are critical as inverter-based renewables reduce system strength and inertia. Options A, C, and D are not the primary purpose described.
Mohammad Bagher Ghalibaf, who made the statement about the Strait of Hormuz, is the Parliament Speaker of which country?
- A.Iraq
- B.Iran✓ Correct Answer
- C.Saudi Arabia
- D.Turkey
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Explanation
The article identifies Mohammad Bagher Ghalibaf as Iran’s Parliament Speaker. He made the statement in an interview to Iran's state media Press TV.
Consider the following statements regarding the US-Iran talks:
1. The first round resulted in a 60-day roadmap for a final agreement.
2. The US formally agreed to unfreeze Iranian assets for purchases of US wheat, corn and soy.
3. The talks established a direct communication line for the Strait of Hormuz.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions a '60-day road map for a final agreement'. Statement 2 is incorrect: US VP Vance only suggested the possibility, not a formal agreement. Statement 3 is correct: a 'direct communication line for the Strait of Hormuz' was part of the outcomes.
What is the duration of the roadmap agreed upon by the US and Iran for a final agreement?
- A.30 days
- B.60 days✓ Correct Answer
- C.90 days
- D.120 days
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'Both sides have agreed to a 60-day road map for a final agreement'. The other options are common distractors used in exam questions.
What was one of the economic outcomes of the US-Iran talks mentioned in the article?
- A.Full normalization of trade relations
- B.Release of frozen Iranian funds and easing of oil sanctions✓ Correct Answer
- C.Iran's complete withdrawal from Lebanon
- D.Establishment of a US naval base in the Persian Gulf
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Explanation
The article states that 'release of frozen Iranian funds and easing of oil sanctions were the outcomes of the recently-concluded discussions'. Options A, C, D are not mentioned in the article.
Which Indian government agency collects and publishes data on crude oil imports?
- A.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
- B.Directorate General of Commercial Intelligence and Statistics (DGCIS)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell (PPAC)
- D.Indian Oil Corporation (IOC)
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions DGCIS as the source for India's import data of 530,000 tonnes of Iranian oil in April 2026. DGCIS is the nodal agency under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry for trade statistics.
Consider the following statements regarding the US sanctions waiver for Iranian oil:
1. The US issued a 60-day waiver allowing production, delivery, and sale of Iranian oil, petroleum products, and petrochemicals.
2. The waiver also removes all financial sector sanctions on Iran, allowing unrestricted dollar-denominated payments.
3. Indian refiners had not imported any Iranian oil since May 2019 before the April 2026 waiver.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the waiver covers oil, petroleum products, and petrochemicals. Statement 2 is incorrect because the waiver does not remove financial sector sanctions; only payments are allowed in dollar-denominated funds but banking restrictions remain. Statement 3 is correct: India had not imported Iranian oil since May 2019 until the April 2026 waiver.
According to the article, what was the quantity of Iranian crude oil imported by India in April 2026?
- A.270,000 tonnes
- B.530,000 tonnes✓ Correct Answer
- C.1.2 million tonnes
- D.2.2 million tonnes
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Explanation
The article states: 'India imported about 530,000 tonnes of Iranian oil in April, as per data from DGCIS.' The other options are distractors; 270,000 tonnes is not mentioned, 1.2 million and 2.2 million are not related.
What is the primary challenge faced by Indian refiners in resuming imports of Iranian oil under the current US waiver?
- A.Technical incompatibility of Iranian crude with Indian refineries
- B.Lack of shipping vessels due to naval blockade
- C.Payment restrictions due to ongoing financial sector sanctions on Iran✓ Correct Answer
- D.High pricing of Iranian oil compared to other suppliers
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Explanation
The article highlights that while the waiver allows oil exports, financial sector sanctions remain, creating payment and banking hurdles. Refinery executives and analysts note that payment mechanisms and reputational concerns are key constraints. Technical compatibility and pricing are secondary considerations.
Which US department issued the temporary 60-day waiver authorizing Iranian oil sales as part of the Switzerland talks framework?
- A.Department of State
- B.Department of Defense
- C.Department of the Treasury✓ Correct Answer
- D.Department of Energy
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Explanation
The article states that US Treasury Secretary Scott Bessent said Washington issued a temporary 60-day waiver authorizing Iranian oil sales. The Treasury Department is responsible for implementing and waiving economic sanctions.
Consider the following statements regarding the US-Iran talks in Switzerland:
1. Iran's chief negotiator claimed that arrangements for the release of $12 billion in frozen assets had been finalized.
2. US Vice President JD Vance fully confirmed the $12 billion figure and said a final agreement had been reached.
3. The US issued a temporary 60-day sanctions waiver allowing Iran to sell oil at market prices in US dollars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as Ghalibaf said the release was finalized. Statement 2 is incorrect because Vance acknowledged the issue but stopped short of confirming the $12 billion figure and said no final agreement had been reached. Statement 3 is correct as per Treasury Secretary Bessent's announcement.
According to Iranian media reports, what was the total amount of frozen funds Tehran was pushing to be released?
- A.$12 billion
- B.$24 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$36 billion
- D.$60 billion
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Explanation
The article states that Iranian media had previously reported that Tehran was pushing for a total of $24 billion in frozen funds to be released — $12 billion immediately upon signing an agreement, with another $12 billion to follow within 60 days.
What is the primary strategic significance of the Strait of Hormuz in the context of this US-Iran agreement?
- A.It is the location of the US-Iran talks in Switzerland.
- B.It is a critical chokepoint for global oil shipments, and Iran agreed to ensure open transit through it.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It is the site of a new US military base established under the agreement.
- D.It is the area where the frozen Iranian assets are physically held.
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Explanation
The article mentions that as part of the talks framework, Tehran pledged open transit through the Strait of Hormuz. The Strait is a narrow waterway through which a significant portion of the world's oil passes, making it a key strategic chokepoint for global energy security.
Which consumer commission passed the order in the Ayushman Bharat refund case?
- A.National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC)
- B.Haryana District Consumer Commission, Charkhi Dadri✓ Correct Answer
- C.Supreme Court of India
- D.Haryana High Court
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Explanation
The article states that the Haryana District Consumer Commission of Charkhi Dadri passed the order. It is a district-level consumer commission under the Consumer Protection Act, not the national commission or a court.
Consider the following statements:
1. The complainant was the wife of the deceased Ayushman beneficiary.
2. The hospital claimed its empanelment was restricted to cardiology and cardio-thoracic surgery.
3. The Commission held that the treatment of the deceased fell outside the scope of the MoU's definition of medical treatment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the complainant was the wife of the beneficiary. Statement 2 is correct: the hospital argued its empanelment was only for cardiology and cardio-thoracic surgery. Statement 3 is incorrect: the Commission held that the treatment squarely fell within the broad definition of medical treatment under Clause 13 of the MoU.
What was the exact refund amount ordered by the Commission to be paid to the widow?
- A.Rs 5.5 lakh
- B.Rs 5 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- C.Rs 7.25 lakh
- D.Rs 5.6 lakh
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Commission directed the hospital to refund Rs 5 lakh to the woman. The compensation and litigation costs were additional. The refund amount alone was Rs 5 lakh, while the total relief including compensation and costs was Rs 5.6 lakh (or reported as Rs 5.5 lakh in the headline).
What is the primary objective of the Ayushman Bharat scheme as emphasized in the Commission's order?
- A.To provide free treatment to all citizens above 60 years
- B.To provide financial protection and cashless treatment to eligible economically vulnerable beneficiaries✓ Correct Answer
- C.To cover only hospitalization expenses up to Rs 10 lakh
- D.To provide treatment only in public hospitals
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Explanation
The Commission explicitly stated: 'The object of the Ayushman Bharat Scheme is to provide financial protection and cashless treatment to eligible beneficiaries.' This is the core objective of the scheme as mentioned in the article.
Which international organization is the 'UN watchdog' mentioned in the news regarding Iran's nuclear sites?
- A.United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
- B.International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.World Health Organization (WHO)
- D.United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
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Explanation
The article refers to the IAEA as the UN nuclear watchdog responsible for inspections. The IAEA verifies compliance with the NPT, which Iran is a signatory to.
Consider the following statements regarding the Iran-IAEA dispute:
1. Iran suspended cooperation with the IAEA in July 2025 after the agency failed to condemn US-Israeli strikes.
2. The US bombed nuclear facilities at Fordow and Natanz but not at Isfahan.
3. Talks between Iran and the US in Switzerland were mediated by Pakistan and Qatar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Iran's parliament passed a law suspending IAEA cooperation in July 2025 due to the agency's failure to condemn the strikes. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article states that US bombed three nuclear facilities at Fordow, Natanz, and Isfahan. Statement 3 is correct: the talks were mediated by Pakistan and Qatar in Switzerland.
What was the duration of the war between Israel and Iran that the United States later joined, as mentioned in the article?
- A.10 days
- B.12 days✓ Correct Answer
- C.14 days
- D.20 days
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Explanation
The article explicitly states 'a 12-day war between Israel and Iran, which the United States later joined' in June 2025. This data point is directly testable in a prelims question.
What is the primary reason cited by Iran for denying IAEA access to the bombed nuclear sites?
- A.Iran has withdrawn from the Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)
- B.Security concerns and the IAEA's failure to condemn the strikes✓ Correct Answer
- C.The IAEA refused to inspect new enrichment facilities
- D.US pressure to limit international inspections
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Explanation
According to the article, Iran cited security concerns and criticized the IAEA for not condemning the Israeli-American strikes. Iran also noted that the September 2025 agreement on cooperation did not apply to bombed sites. Option A is false; Iran remains an NPT member.
Under which ministry does NAFED primarily function?
- A.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- B.Ministry of Cooperation✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
- D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
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Explanation
The article mentions Union Cooperation Minister Amit Shah directing NAFED, indicating NAFED is under the Ministry of Cooperation. After the creation of the Ministry of Cooperation in 2021, NAFED was moved under its purview.
Consider the following statements regarding the directive on direct procurement:
1. NAFED's turnover in FY25 was ₹30,000 crore.
2. The two-year deadline applies to direct procurement of all agricultural commodities.
3. NAFED launched a digital auction platform called Nafex.in.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as NAFED's annual turnover reached ₹30,000 crore in FY25. Statement 2 is incorrect because the two-year deadline is specifically for direct procurement of pulses and oilseeds, not all commodities. Statement 3 is correct as Nafex.in was launched for transparent auctioning.
According to the news, how many million tonnes of edible oils does India import annually?
- A.6-7 million tonnes
- B.15-16 million tonnes✓ Correct Answer
- C.20-25 million tonnes
- D.10-12 million tonnes
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that India imports 15-16 million tonnes of edible oils annually. The option 6-7 million tonnes refers to pulses imports, not edible oils.
What is the primary objective of the directive to NAFED and NCCF to directly procure pulses and oilseeds from farmers?
- A.To increase NAFED's turnover to ₹50,000 crore
- B.To reduce India's import dependence on pulses and edible oils✓ Correct Answer
- C.To eliminate all middlemen from the agricultural supply chain
- D.To increase the Minimum Support Price for pulses and oilseeds
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Explanation
The article highlights that India imports 6-7 million tonnes of pulses and 15-16 million tonnes of edible oils annually. Direct procurement aims to boost domestic production and reduce this import bill. While increasing turnover and eliminating middlemen are related goals, the core objective is self-reliance.
Which constitutional body tabled the report on Kerala's State Finances for 2024-25?
- A.Comptroller and Auditor General of India✓ Correct Answer
- B.Finance Commission
- C.NITI Aayog
- D.Reserve Bank of India
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Explanation
The news mentions the CAG report on State Finances tabled in the Assembly. The CAG is the constitutional audit authority under Article 148.
Consider the following statements regarding Kerala's borrowings in 2024-25:
1. 86% of total borrowings went towards repayment of earlier borrowings.
2. Net capital expenditure from borrowings was ₹27,997.23 crore.
3. The State's overall liabilities grew from ₹3.02 lakh crore in 2020-21 to ₹4.46 lakh crore in 2024-25.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct (86% repayment). Statement 2 is incorrect: ₹27,997.23 crore was revenue expenditure from borrowings, not capital expenditure. Statement 3 is correct as per the article. Hence option C.
What percentage of Kerala's total borrowings in 2024-25 was spent on revenue expenditure?
- A.5%
- B.9%✓ Correct Answer
- C.12%
- D.86%
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Explanation
The article states that ₹27,997.23 crore (9%) of total borrowings went towards revenue expenditure. 5% was capital expenditure, 86% was repayment. Hence option B.
According to the CAG report and the White Paper, what is the primary consequence of using borrowings predominantly for repayment and committed expenditure?
- A.Increased capital asset creation
- B.Higher fiscal deficit in the short term
- C.Weakened growth-generating capacity of debt✓ Correct Answer
- D.Increase in revenue receipts
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Explanation
The White Paper explicitly states that when borrowings finance committed expenditure rather than productive asset creation, the growth-generating capacity of debt weakens, leading to a structurally fragile fiscal dynamic. Options A and D are false; B is not the primary implication mentioned.
Which journal published the study on extreme heat stress mentioned in the news?
- A.Nature Climate Change✓ Correct Answer
- B.The Lancet Planetary Health
- C.Science
- D.Nature
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the study was published in the journal Nature Climate Change. This is a key static fact for prelims.
Consider the following statements:
1. The study analysed a global dataset of human heat stress from 1950 to 2024.
2. The 10 warmest days have warmed faster than the 10 warmest nights.
3. Subtropical regions now experience up to 50 additional days of strong to extreme heat stress compared to the 1970s.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the study analysed data from 1950 to 2024. Statement 2 is incorrect: nights have warmed faster (0.32°C/decade) than days (0.27°C/decade). Statement 3 is correct: subtropical regions experience up to 50 additional days of strong to extreme heat stress.
According to the study, what percentage of the global population currently experiences at least 90 days of strong heat stress annually?
- A.55%
- B.60%
- C.70%✓ Correct Answer
- D.80%
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Explanation
The study states that in the current climate, 70% of the global population experiences at least 90 days of strong heat stress annually, up from 55% in the 1970s.
What does the Universal Thermal Climate Index (UTCI) primarily measure?
- A.Heat stress based on temperature, humidity, wind, and radiation✓ Correct Answer
- B.Air quality index for particulate matter
- C.Agricultural productivity under climate change
- D.Water scarcity risk in urban areas
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Explanation
The UTCI is a 'feels-like' temperature index that models the human body's response to environmental factors, including temperature, humidity, wind, and radiation. It is used to assess heat stress on individuals.
The 15th India-UK Executive Steering Group (ESG) meeting is a forum under which ministry primarily responsible for defence cooperation?
- A.Ministry of External Affairs
- B.Ministry of Defence✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Home Affairs
- D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
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Explanation
The Executive Steering Group (ESG) is a military-to-military dialogue mechanism involving the Indian Army and the British Army. The article mentions the ESG meeting was held at the Ministry of Defence, London, indicating its primary responsibility falls under the defence ministries of both countries.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent India-UK Executive Steering Group (ESG) meeting:
1. The 15th India-UK ESG meeting was held in the United Kingdom from June 17-19, 2026.
2. The meeting solely focused on finalizing a comprehensive trade deal between the two countries.
3. The discussions included visits to the UK Trials & Experimental Group and MBDA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the 15th ESG was held in the UK from June 17-19. Statement 2 is incorrect; the comprehensive trade deal was mentioned as a separate parallel development by the Foreign Ministers, not the focus of the ESG. Statement 3 is correct as the post mentioned visits to the UK Trials & Experimental Group and MBDA.
Which edition of the India-United Kingdom Executive Steering Group (ESG) meeting was held in June 2026?
- A.12th
- B.13th
- C.14th
- D.15th✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the '15th India-United Kingdom Executive Steering Group (ESG) was held in the U.K. from June 17-19.' The other options are close distractors representing earlier iterations of the meeting.
What is the primary strategic objective of the 'robust roadmap' charted during the 15th India-UK ESG meeting?
- A.To finalize a tariff-free trade agreement
- B.To enhance multi-tiered military cooperation and interoperability✓ Correct Answer
- C.To negotiate a new civilian nuclear energy pact
- D.To establish a joint space research mission
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the ESG meeting focused on 'advancing multi-tiered military cooperation through enhanced interoperability, bilateral joint exercises and training'. While a trade deal and other pacts form the broader context, the core objective of the defence roadmap is deeper military collaboration.
Which constitutional body is responsible for auditing the accounts of state governments and submitting reports to the Governor?
- A.Finance Commission
- B.Comptroller and Auditor General✓ Correct Answer
- C.NITI Aayog
- D.Election Commission
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Explanation
The CAG, under Article 148 of the Constitution, audits the accounts of the Union and States. Its reports are laid before the state legislature. The other bodies have different functions: Finance Commission deals with revenue sharing, NITI Aayog with policy, Election Commission with elections.
Consider the following statements:
1. Kerala's revenue arrears as on March 31, 2025 stood at ₹41,188.44 crore.
2. The arrears accounted for 50% of the state's own revenue for 2024-25.
3. The CAG report on state finances was tabled in the Kerala Assembly on June 23, 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the CAG report confirmed arrears of ₹41,188.44 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect: the actual percentage is 44.23% of state own revenue, not 50%. Statement 3 is correct: the report was tabled on Tuesday, June 23, 2026. Hence only 1 and 3 are correct.
According to the CAG report, what amount of revenue arrears remained unrecovered for more than five years?
- A.₹12,951.77 crore✓ Correct Answer
- B.₹16,699.41 crore
- C.₹18,907.56 crore
- D.₹30,308.52 crore
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Explanation
The CAG report specified that of the total arrears, ₹12,951.77 crore has not been recovered for more than five years. Option B (₹16,699.41 crore) is the arrears in recovery of principal of loans from state PSEs. Option C is the GST component. Option D is the total arrears for the previous fiscal (March 2024).
Which of the following factors did the CAG identify as contributing to subdued revenue growth for Kerala?
- A.Inefficiencies in assessment only
- B.Undervaluation and limited enforcement only
- C.Low user charges and poor cost recovery
- D.All of the above✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The CAG report explicitly mentioned 'inefficiencies in assessment, undervaluation and limited enforcement mechanisms' as well as 'under-realised non-tax revenues with low user charges, poor cost recovery' as factors impeding fiscal space. Hence all options are correct.
Which constitutional body is responsible for auditing the finances of state governments and submitting reports to the Governor?
- A.Finance Commission
- B.Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)✓ Correct Answer
- C.NITI Aayog
- D.Election Commission of India
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Explanation
Under Article 151, CAG audits state finances and submits reports to the Governor, who tables them in the state legislature. The Finance Commission deals with tax distribution, NITI Aayog is a policy think tank, and Election Commission conducts elections.
Consider the following statements regarding the CAG report on Kerala State Finances 2024-25:
1. The total actual off-budget borrowings by KIIFB and KSSPL together amounted to ₹13,653.01 crore.
2. Kerala reported borrowings of ₹8,089.92 crore to the Centre for the fiscal year.
3. CAG recommended that the state disclose off-budget borrowings in the Budget and to the Union government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2 and 3
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: actual total borrowings were ₹13,653.01 crore (KIIFB ₹8,089.92 cr + KSSPL ₹5,563.09 cr). Statement 2 is incorrect: only ₹983.09 crore (by KSSPL) was reported to the Centre, not ₹8,089.92 crore. Statement 3 is correct: CAG recommended disclosure in Budget and to the Union government.
According to the CAG report, what was the total actual off-budget borrowing by Kerala's KIIFB and KSSPL for the fiscal year 2024-25?
- A.₹12,669.92 crore
- B.₹13,653.01 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹8,089.92 crore
- D.₹5,563.09 crore
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Explanation
The CAG report stated that actual borrowings were ₹8,089.92 crore (KIIFB) + ₹5,563.09 crore (KSSPL) = ₹13,653.01 crore. Option A (₹12,669.92 crore) is the variation amount, not total borrowings. Options C and D are individual entity amounts.
Why does the CAG consider KIIFB and KSSPL borrowings as direct debt of the state rather than contingent liabilities?
- A.Because these entities are private companies not owned by the state
- B.Because the state's budgetary allocations are used to repay their liabilities✓ Correct Answer
- C.Because the borrowings are approved by the Union government
- D.Because the entities have sufficient revenue base to service their debt
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Explanation
The CAG argues that since budgetary allocations are used for repayment, these entities lack a sufficient revenue base to service their debt, making the borrowings a direct state liability. This contrasts with the state's claim of them being 'contingent liabilities'.
Which constitutional provision is related to the Uniform Civil Code?
- A.Article 14
- B.Article 21
- C.Article 44✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 368
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Explanation
Article 44 of the Indian Constitution, under Directive Principles of State Policy, states that the State shall endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code for all citizens. It is a non-justiciable directive.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Maharashtra government has formed a committee headed by a retired High Court judge to prepare a draft of the Uniform Civil Code.
2. The Union government has completely banned all forms of triple talaq under the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019.
3. The Minister of State (Home) Yogesh Kadam informed that the UCC will be implemented after receiving the committee's report.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because only instant triple talaq (talaq-e-biddat) is banned, not all forms. Statement 3 is correct as the minister said UCC will be implemented after the committee's report. Hence option C is correct.
According to the information provided by Minister Yogesh Kadam, how many triple talaq cases were registered in Maharashtra in 2025?
- A.42 cases
- B.39 cases✓ Correct Answer
- C.95 cases
- D.152 cases
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Explanation
The minister stated that in 2025, around 39 cases of triple talaq were registered, leading to 95 arrests. Option A (42) was the figure for 2024. Options C and D are arrest numbers.
What is the primary objective of Maharashtra's proposed Uniform Civil Code as stated in the article?
- A.To ban polygamy only among Muslim communities
- B.To replace all religious personal laws with a common code applicable to every individual irrespective of religion✓ Correct Answer
- C.To override central laws on marriage and divorce
- D.To provide financial assistance to women affected by triple talaq
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Explanation
The minister clearly stated that the UCC will be applicable to every individual irrespective of religion and will include a ban on polygamy. It is not limited to Muslims nor does it override central laws entirely - it aims for uniform personal laws.
Which Act contains the provision that prohibits subjecting persons with disabilities to medical procedures leading to infertility without free and informed consent?
- A.Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971
- B.Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016✓ Correct Answer
- C.Mental Healthcare Act, 2017
- D.Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005
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Explanation
Section 10 of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, explicitly prohibits any medical procedure that leads to infertility without the free and informed consent of the person with disability. The MTP Act deals with abortion, not sterilization. The other options are unrelated to this specific safeguard.
Consider the following statements regarding reproductive autonomy of women with intellectual disabilities:
1. In Suchita Srivastava v. Chandigarh Administration (2009), the Supreme Court held that the state could not force an abortion on a woman with mild intellectual disability without her consent.
2. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 allows guardian consent for abortion in cases of intellectual disability.
3. In Z v. State of Bihar (2017), the Supreme Court awarded compensation to the woman because the hospital’s insistence on third-party consent led to delay beyond the legal abortion limit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the SC ruled that the woman's desire to keep the child outweighed the state's assumption. Statement 2 is incorrect: the MTP Act allows guardian consent for ‘mental illness’ but NOT for ‘intellectual disability’ – own consent is required. Statement 3 is correct: the SC criticized the hospital and awarded compensation because the delay forced the woman to carry to term. Hence option C is correct.
In which year was the landmark Supreme Court judgment in Suchita Srivastava v. Chandigarh Administration delivered?
- A.2009✓ Correct Answer
- B.2017
- C.2023
- D.2024
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Explanation
The article mentions the Suchita Srivastava case as a 2009 Supreme Court judgment. 2017 is the year of Z v. State of Bihar, 2023 is Dr. Narendra Gupta v. UOI, and 2024 is the Gujarat High Court case. Therefore, option A (2009) is correct.
What is the primary legal challenge that courts face when deciding hysterectomy cases for women with severe intellectual disabilities?
- A.Lack of availability of medical facilities for the procedure
- B.The woman's inability to give free and informed consent, requiring the court to apply the parens patriae doctrine✓ Correct Answer
- C.Opposition from the woman's family members to any surgical procedure
- D.High cost of the surgery leading to financial burden on the state
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Explanation
The article explains that when a woman lacks cognitive capacity to understand the procedure – a common scenario in severe intellectual disability – she cannot give informed consent as required under Section 10 of the RPwD Act. Therefore, doctors and caregivers must approach court, which then applies the parens patriae doctrine to decide based on the woman's best interests. The other options are not mentioned as primary challenges in the article.
Which country is the primary supplier of defensive weapons to Israel according to US Vice President JD Vance?
- A.United States✓ Correct Answer
- B.Russia
- C.Germany
- D.France
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Explanation
JD Vance stated at a press conference that two-thirds of the defensive weapons protecting Israel were US-made and funded by American tax dollars, indicating the US is the primary supplier.
Consider the following statements:
1. Netanyahu called for Israel to become less dependent on US military support.
2. US Vice President JD Vance criticized Israeli officials, saying 'Trump was Israel's only ally left in the world.'
3. The US and Israel have begun talks on a new 5-year security cooperation framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Netanyahu said 'We need our own independent weapons-production system.' Statement 2 is correct: Vance lashed out at Israeli critics saying the quote. Statement 3 is incorrect: the framework is for 10 years, not 5 years, as per the Times of Israel report.
According to US Vice President JD Vance, what proportion of Israel's defensive weapons are US-made?
- A.One-third
- B.Two-thirds✓ Correct Answer
- C.One-half
- D.Three-quarters
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Explanation
JD Vance explicitly stated that two-thirds of the defensive weapons that have protected Israel were US-made and funded by American tax dollars, making 'two-thirds' the correct data point.
What is the primary reason behind Netanyahu's call for independent weapons production?
- A.To reduce Israel's defense budget
- B.To limit US influence on Israel's military operations due to the Iran deal✓ Correct Answer
- C.To establish a domestic arms export industry
- D.To respond to Hezbollah attacks on northern Israel
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Explanation
The article states Israeli officials have expressed concern that Washington could pressure Israel to scale back military operations against Iran-backed groups, especially Hezbollah, as the US advances the Iran deal. Netanyahu's push for self-reliance aims to counter that pressure.
Which shipbuilding company under the Ministry of Defence built the three vessels commissioned at the Kolkata ceremony?
- A.Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited
- B.Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers✓ Correct Answer
- C.Cochin Shipyard Limited
- D.Hindustan Shipyard Limited
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions GRSE as a long-standing and trusted partner of the Indian Navy and the builder of these vessels.
Consider the following statements:
1. INS Dunagiri is the fifth warship under the Project 17A frigate programme and was built in about 33% less time than previous frigates.
2. INS Sanshodhak is the fourth anti-submarine warfare shallow water craft of the Arnala class.
3. The tri-commissioning ceremony in Kolkata was the second such event in 17 months.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because INS Sanshodhak is a hydrographic survey vessel of the Sandhayak class, not an ASW craft of Arnala class. Statement 3 is correct: the article states this is the second tri-commissioning in 17 months. Hence option B is correct.
According to the Navy Chief, how much less time did it take to build INS Dunagiri compared to vessels under the previous frigate programme?
- A.25%
- B.30%
- C.33%✓ Correct Answer
- D.40%
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Explanation
The article states that INS Dunagiri was built in about 33 per cent less time than vessels under the previous frigate programme.
What is the primary purpose of INS Sanshodhak as mentioned in the news?
- A.Anti-submarine warfare operations
- B.Hydrographic survey and mapping✓ Correct Answer
- C.Air defence of naval fleets
- D.Amphibious assault operations
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Explanation
The article describes INS Sanshodhak as the fourth hydrographic survey vessel of the Sandhayak class with advanced hydrographic equipment to support Blue Economy and partner nations.
Which two leaders signed the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) that includes the $300 billion reconstruction fund for Iran?
- A.US President Donald Trump and Iranian President Masoud Pezeshkian✓ Correct Answer
- B.US President Joe Biden and Iranian President Ebrahim Raisi
- C.US Secretary of State and Iranian Foreign Minister
- D.US Vice President JD Vance and Iranian President Hassan Rouhani
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the MoU was signed by US President Donald Trump and Iranian President Masoud Pezeshkian. This is a static fact about the signatories of an international agreement, commonly asked in prelims under International Relations.
Consider the following statements regarding the $300 billion Iran reconstruction fund:
1. The fund is part of a Memorandum of Understanding signed between the US and Iran.
2. The fund will be financed entirely by US taxpayer dollars according to the agreement.
3. The fund is to be separate from discussions on sanctions relief and frozen Iranian assets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the MoU includes the fund. Statement 2 is incorrect: the administration insists no taxpayer money will be used; the fund is privately financed. Statement 3 is correct per Reuters that the fund will contain no government money and remain separate from sanctions relief discussions. Hence option C.
What was the approximate amount of frozen Iranian assets released under the 2015 Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA), as mentioned in the article?
- A.$300 billion
- B.$55 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$100 billion
- D.$200 billion
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Explanation
The article states 'the JCPOA involved the release of approximately $55 billion in frozen Iranian assets.' This is a direct numerical fact. The distractor $300 billion is the proposed fund amount, not the JCPOA release.
According to the article, what is the intended primary source of funding for the $300 billion reconstruction fund for Iran?
- A.Direct US government aid
- B.International financial institutions like the IMF
- C.Private-sector investors from multiple regions✓ Correct Answer
- D.Contributions from Arab states only
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Explanation
Reuters reported that the fund is envisioned as a privately financed investment vehicle with no government money, and more than half of the funding has been pledged by private-sector participants from multiple regions. Option A is explicitly denied, B and D are not mentioned as primary sources.
Which international organization is responsible for nuclear inspections, as mentioned in the article?
- A.International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)✓ Correct Answer
- B.Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
- C.World Trade Organization (WTO)
- D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
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Explanation
The article mentions that Iran denied inviting IAEA inspectors. The IAEA is the UN body that verifies compliance with nuclear non-proliferation through inspections.
Consider the following statements:
1. Trump said Iran accepted nuclear inspections long into the future.
2. Iran confirmed its agreement to invite IAEA inspectors.
3. The US Treasury released $300 billion in escrow for Iran to buy food and medical supplies from America.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Trump claimed Iran agreed to inspections. Statement 2 is incorrect: Iran's foreign ministry denied any discussion on inspections. Statement 3 is correct: US Treasury released $300 billion escrow for humanitarian purchases from the US.
For how many days did the United States waive sanctions on Iran according to the article?
- A.30 days
- B.60 days✓ Correct Answer
- C.90 days
- D.120 days
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Explanation
The US Treasury Secretary announced a temporary 60-day waiver on Iranian oil sanctions until August 21. 30, 90, and 120 days are plausible distractors but the article specifically states 60 days.
What is the primary purpose of the $300 billion escrow account announced by the US Treasury?
- A.To fund Iran's military programs
- B.To buy food and medical supplies exclusively from America✓ Correct Answer
- C.To pay for reconstruction of nuclear sites destroyed by US and Israel
- D.To compensate US companies for lost business
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Explanation
Trump stated the escrow will be used to buy food, wheat, corn, and soybeans from the US due to a humanitarian crisis. This ensures funds are spent in America and not diverted for military or nuclear purposes.
The Forest Advisory Committee (FAC) that recommended in-principle forest diversion for the Kirthai-II project functions under which ministry?
- A.Ministry of Power
- B.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Water Resources
- D.Ministry of Tribal Affairs
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Explanation
The Forest Advisory Committee is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) that advises on forest land diversion proposals under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980.
Consider the following statements regarding the Kirthai-II hydroelectric project:
1. It is a run-of-the-river project with an approved capacity of 820 MW.
2. The project will be implemented solely by the National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC).
3. The project site is located in Padder tehsil of Kishtwar district, Jammu and Kashmir.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Kirthai-II is a run-of-the-river project and its capacity was reduced to 820 MW from 930 MW. Statement 2 is incorrect: the project is implemented by Chenab Valley Power Projects Ltd, a joint venture of NHPC and J&K State Power Development Corporation. Statement 3 is correct: the project location is in Padder tehsil, Kishtwar district.
According to the article, how many trees are expected to be felled for the Kirthai-II hydroelectric project?
- A.7,823
- B.8,237
- C.8,723✓ Correct Answer
- D.9,230
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Explanation
As per the FAC minutes, the project site features dense forest and 8,723 trees will be felled. The other options are numerical distractors derived from the digits of the correct number.
Why did the Jammu and Kashmir administration dispense with the requirement for cumulative impact assessment and carrying capacity for the Indus, Chenab, and Jhelum basins?
- A.Because environmental clearance for these basins was already granted in 2021
- B.Due to the strategic nature of these rivers and the need to fully utilise their water resources✓ Correct Answer
- C.Because the World Bank waived this requirement under the Indus Water Treaty
- D.To reduce compliance costs for all future projects in the region
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Explanation
The article states that the J&K administration dispensed with the requirement in view of the strategic nature of these rivers and the need to fully utilise their waters, especially after the suspension of the Indus Water Treaty.
Which house of the UK Parliament is directly elected?
- A.House of Commons✓ Correct Answer
- B.House of Lords
- C.Both House of Commons and House of Lords
- D.Neither
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Explanation
The House of Commons comprises 650 elected members. The House of Lords is not elected; its members include life peers, bishops, and hereditary peers. This is a standard static fact for comparative polity.
Consider the following statements:
1. The UK Prime Minister serves a fixed term of five years.
2. In the UK, the Speaker renounces party affiliation upon election to ensure impartiality.
3. India's Constitution limits the power of Parliament to legislate, while the UK Parliament has supreme legal authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: the 5-year term applies to the parliamentary term, not the individual PM. Statement 2 is correct: the UK Speaker renounces party affiliation. Statement 3 is correct: India follows constitutional supremacy, UK follows parliamentary sovereignty. Hence option C is correct.
How many Prime Ministers has the United Kingdom had since 2016?
- A.5
- B.6
- C.7✓ Correct Answer
- D.8
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Explanation
The article states that the UK will have officially had seven Prime Ministers over the course of a decade, with no PM coming close to completing their term since 2016. This includes Keir Starmer and his immediate predecessors.
Which of the following is a unique feature of the Indian parliamentary system not found in the UK?
- A.Zero Hour✓ Correct Answer
- B.Question Hour
- C.Speaker election
- D.Party whip
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that India's parliamentary sessions feature Zero Hour, where members can raise urgent matters without prior notice. The UK has no direct equivalent. Question Hour and party whip exist in both systems, and Speaker election procedures differ but are not unique to India.
Silicosis, mentioned in the article as a health risk for construction workers, primarily affects which organ?
- A.Lungs✓ Correct Answer
- B.Skin
- C.Liver
- D.Kidneys
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Explanation
The article explicitly states silicosis is a lung disease. It is caused by inhalation of crystalline silica dust and leads to progressive pulmonary fibrosis.
Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi Building and Construction Workers Health Scheme:
1. The scheme provides health cover up to Rs 10 lakh per family.
2. The scheme covers only registered workers, not their family members.
3. Beneficiaries will receive annual health check-ups for workers and their spouses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: each family is entitled to up to Rs 10 lakh. Statement 2 is incorrect: the scheme covers the worker's family (spouse, children, parents). Statement 3 is correct: annual health check-ups for workers and spouses are included. Hence option C is correct.
What is the total number of beneficiaries (workers and families) expected to be covered under the Delhi Building and Construction Workers Health Scheme?
- A.2.70 lakh
- B.10 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- C.200 lakh
- D.5 lakh
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Explanation
The article states the scheme is expected to cover nearly 10 lakh beneficiaries in the city in total. 2.70 lakh is the number of registered workers, not total beneficiaries. Hence 10 lakh is correct.
What is the primary objective of the Delhi Building and Construction Workers Health Scheme as stated in the article?
- A.To increase government revenue through cess collection
- B.To strengthen social security for construction workers✓ Correct Answer
- C.To promote private hospitals in Delhi
- D.To reduce air pollution from construction sites
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Explanation
The article clearly states the scheme aims at 'strengthening social security for construction workers' by providing comprehensive health protection. Other options are not mentioned or are secondary at best.
Which Indian ministry is primarily responsible for coordinating the bilateral visit of the External Affairs Minister to a foreign country?
- A.Ministry of Defence
- B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Home Affairs
- D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
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Explanation
The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) handles India's foreign relations and coordination of high-level visits. In this article, EAM Jaishankar's visit to Mongolia falls under MEA's purview.
Consider the following statements regarding India-Mongolia relations as described in the article:
1. Jaishankar met Mongolian President Khurelsukh Ukhnaa and conveyed greetings from President Murmu and PM Modi.
2. The oil refinery project is the least important development project between India and Mongolia.
3. India and Mongolia discussed cooperation in the International Solar Alliance and the International Big Cat Alliance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article says Jaishankar greeted the President. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article calls the Oil Refinery the 'most important project'. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions both alliances. Hence option C.
What is the name of the largest Buddhist monastery in Mongolia that Jaishankar visited during his trip?
- A.Gandan Monastery✓ Correct Answer
- B.Erdene Zuu Monastery
- C.Gandantegchinlen Monastery
- D.Tovkhon Monastery
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Explanation
The article mentions Jaishankar met Khamba Nomun Khan Geshe Lharampa D. Javzandorj, Chief Abbot of Gandan Monastery, which is the largest Buddhist place of worship in Mongolia.
Why does India consider Mongolia a 'third neighbour' and 'spiritual partner' as mentioned in the article?
- A.Mongolia is a geographically distant country with no shared border, but strong Buddhist cultural ties.✓ Correct Answer
- B.Mongolia is India's immediate neighbour to the north with close political ties.
- C.Mongolia is a member of the G20 and a major economic partner of India.
- D.Mongolia has a large Indian diaspora and is a key trading partner in Central Asia.
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Explanation
Mongolia follows a 'Third Neighbour' policy to engage with countries beyond China and Russia. India shares deep Buddhist heritage, making it a 'spiritual partner'. This alignment was emphasized in Jaishankar's meetings.
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What are the important current affairs questions for 23 June 2026?▼
This page contains 180 current affairs questions from 23 June 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 23 June 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
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Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
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Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
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- Q157. two leaders signed the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) that …
- Q158. Consider the following statements regarding the $300 billion I…
- Q159. was the approximate amount of frozen Iranian assets released u…
- Q160. According to the article, what is the intended primary source …
- Q161. international organization is responsible for nuclear inspecti…
- Q162. Consider the following statements: 1. Trump said Iran accepte…
- Q163. For how many days did the United States waive sanctions on Ira…
- Q164. is the primary purpose of the $300 billion escrow account anno…
- Q165. The Forest Advisory Committee (FAC) that recommended in-princi…
- Q166. Consider the following statements regarding the Kirthai-II hyd…
- Q167. According to the article, how many trees are expected to be fe…
- Q168. Why did the Jammu and Kashmir administration dispense with the…
- Q169. house of the UK Parliament is directly elected?
- Q170. Consider the following statements: 1. The UK Prime Minister s…
- Q171. many Prime Ministers has the United Kingdom had since 2016?
- Q172. of the following is a unique feature of the Indian parliamenta…
- Q173. Silicosis, mentioned in the article as a health risk for const…
- Q174. Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi Building…
- Q175. is the total number of beneficiaries (workers and families) ex…
- Q176. is the primary objective of the Delhi Building and Constructio…
- Q177. Indian ministry is primarily responsible for coordinating the …
- Q178. Consider the following statements regarding India-Mongolia rel…
- Q179. is the name of the largest Buddhist monastery in Mongolia that…
- Q180. Why does India consider Mongolia a 'third neighbour' and 'spir…