19 June 2026, Questions & Answers
124 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
124 questions · 0 topics covered · 25 min revision
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This page contains 124 current affairs questions with answers from 19 June 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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124 QsWhich provision of the Constitution was primarily used by the Supreme Court to declare the right to walk on footpaths a fundamental right?
- A.Article 21
- B.Article 19(1)(a)
- C.Article 19(1)(d)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 14
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Explanation
The Supreme Court explicitly relied on Article 19(1)(d) which guarantees the right to move freely throughout the territory of India. While the judgment also referenced Article 19(1)(a), (b), and (c) for associated rights, the primary basis was the right to free movement under Article 19(1)(d).
Consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court declared the right to walk on demarcated footpaths as a fundamental right.
2. The court held that the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 adequately protects the rights of pedestrians.
3. The court directed the government to establish a full-time regulator for implementing the right to walk.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct – the Supreme Court declared the fundamental right to walk on demarcated footpaths. Statement 2 is incorrect – the court said the Motor Vehicles Act was an impediment and undermined pedestrian rights. Statement 3 is correct – the court emphasised the need for a full-time regulator to plan, enforce and implement the right.
What specific incident led to the Supreme Court's judgment on the right to walk?
- A.Death of a 5-year-old boy crushed by a truck while walking to school✓ Correct Answer
- B.A pedestrian hit by a bus on a Delhi footpath
- C.A petition by urban planners about lack of walkways
- D.An accident involving a group of women on a pavement
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the judgment came in a case of the death of a five-year-old boy who was crushed to death by a truck while walking to the neighbourhood school with his father. This tragic incident formed the factual basis for the court's ruling.
What is the primary reason the Supreme Court rejected the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 as sufficient for pedestrian protection?
- A.The Act is outdated and needs repeal
- B.The Act treats 'human' interests as incidental and focuses on vehicles✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Act does not prescribe penalties for drivers
- D.The Act applies only to national highways
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Explanation
The Supreme Court observed that the Motor Vehicles Act is built upon 'vehicle' as the subject, and human interests are merely incidental – something a motor vehicle must avoid violating, 'that's all, and no further'. Hence the Act undermines pedestrian rights and requires a separate statutory framework for walkers.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for releasing the new series of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) data for India?
- A.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- B.Ministry of Finance
- C.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Economic Affairs
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Explanation
As per the article, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) released the new series of national accounts data, including GDP, with a base year of 2022-23. MoSPI is the nodal body for official statistics in India.
Consider the following statements regarding India's recent statistical database upgrades:
1. The new GDP series uses a base year of 2022-23 and incorporates the double-deflator approach.
2. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) base year has been updated to 2022-23.
3. The Producer Price Index (PPI) will replace the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: GDP base year is 2022-23 and uses the double-deflator approach. Statement 2 is incorrect because CPI base year has been updated to 2024, not 2022-23. Statement 3 is correct: the Ministry of Commerce released PPI which will replace WPI in five years.
What is the new base year for the Consumer Price Index (CPI) released by MoSPI?
- A.2022-23
- B.2023-24
- C.2024✓ Correct Answer
- D.2025
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the new CPI series was released with an updated base year of 2024. The 2022-23 base year is for GDP and IIP, while 2024 is specific to CPI.
What is the primary objective of introducing the Producer Price Index (PPI) to replace the Wholesale Price Index (WPI)?
- A.To reduce the frequency of inflation data releases
- B.To include both goods and services in producer price measurement, aligning with international standards✓ Correct Answer
- C.To make WPI data more accurate by using a different base year
- D.To simplify the calculation of GDP deflator by eliminating wholesale prices
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Explanation
The article states that a PPI 'is the standard among developed economies and provides more information about both goods and service price levels at the producer stage.' WPI only covers goods, while PPI covers both goods and services, making it more comprehensive and internationally comparable.
Which international organization is responsible for notifying non-tariff barriers (NTBs) and trade measures among its member countries?
- A.World Bank
- B.International Monetary Fund
- C.World Trade Organization✓ Correct Answer
- D.United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
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Explanation
The article mentions that WTO members submit notifications of NTBs and health-related trade measures. The WTO is the primary international body for regulating trade between nations and ensuring transparency in trade measures.
Consider the following statements regarding non-tariff barriers (NTBs):
1. NTBs include regulations, certifications, licensing rules, and product requirements that goods must meet before entering a market.
2. Since the establishment of the WTO in 1995, average tariff rates among its members have doubled.
3. India's FTA utilisation rate is about 25%, compared with 70%-80% for developed economies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article defines NTBs as regulations, certifications, licensing rules, and product requirements. Statement 2 is incorrect because since the WTO's establishment, average tariff rates have fallen by nearly half, not doubled. Statement 3 is correct as the article states India's FTA utilisation is about 25% compared to 70-80% for developed economies.
According to the article, what percentage of global trade is currently affected by non-tariff barriers (NTBs)?
- A.~50%
- B.~70%
- C.~90%✓ Correct Answer
- D.~95%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that NTBs today affect around 90% of global trade, which represents a sixfold increase over the past three decades. The other options are close distractors.
What is the primary reason for India's low FTA utilisation rate of about 25% as highlighted in the article?
- A.High tariffs imposed by partner countries
- B.Non-tariff barriers making it commercially impractical to claim preferential benefits✓ Correct Answer
- C.Lack of trade agreements with major economies
- D.Weak domestic manufacturing capacity
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Explanation
The article specifically attributes India's low FTA utilisation to NTBs. For example, Indonesian registration requirements restrict Indian pharma exports, and Thai customs procedures force gems and jewellery exporters to reroute shipments. These barriers make claiming FTA benefits commercially impractical, not the lack of agreements or high tariffs.
Which trade union filed the public interest petition on minimum wages for domestic workers that was dismissed by the Supreme Court?
- A.Penn Thozhilalargal Sangam✓ Correct Answer
- B.All India Trade Union Congress
- C.Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh
- D.Centre of Indian Trade Unions
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Explanation
The article mentions that Penn Thozhilalargal Sangam, a trade union of domestic workers, filed a petition on the issue of minimum wages which was disposed of by the Supreme Court.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court verdict on domestic work:
1. The court awarded Rs 30,000 as actual market-based compensation for unpaid domestic work.
2. The verdict acknowledges women's contribution to nation-building through maintaining human capital.
3. A petition filed by domestic workers' unions for minimum wages was simultaneously entertained by the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3
- D.(D) Both 1 and 2
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Rs 30,000 is a notional figure, not actual market compensation. Statement 2 is correct as the judgment highlights women's role in building and nurturing human capital. Statement 3 is incorrect because the domestic workers' petition was dismissed, not entertained.
According to the PLFS data for 2024-25 mentioned in the news, what is the urban female workforce participation rate (for ages 15+)?
- A.45%
- B.26%✓ Correct Answer
- C.73%
- D.47%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the urban workforce participation rate of women (ages 15 plus) was about 26 per cent as per PLFS 2024-25 data. The other options are distractors: 45% is rural female rate, 73% is male participation rate, and 47% is the gender gap in percentage points.
What is a major concern raised by scholars regarding the Supreme Court's use of the term 'homemakers' in its verdict?
- A.It undervalues the monetary worth of domestic work
- B.It may reinforce traditional gendered roles and decelerate women's economic empowerment✓ Correct Answer
- C.It ignores the contribution of male homemakers
- D.It creates legal ambiguity for cash transfer schemes
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Explanation
The article highlights that the terminology of 'homemakers' could reiterate gendered roles at a time when women's higher education share has surpassed males. This could decelerate or reverse positive changes in women's economic status and employment participation.
Which institution issued the ruling recognizing homemakers' domestic care as a distinct head of compensation in motor accident claims?
- A.Supreme Court of India✓ Correct Answer
- B.Delhi High Court
- C.Ministry of Law and Justice
- D.Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal
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Explanation
The ruling was delivered by the Supreme Court of India while hearing a case of a woman killed in a 2001 road accident. The Delhi High Court is mentioned separately for a related case on asset sharing.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's ruling on homemakers:
1. The Court held that loss of domestic care by a homemaker is a distinct category of compensation in motor accident claims.
2. The minimum compensation was fixed at ₹30,000 per month, to be revised upward by 15% every three years.
3. The Court observed that caregiving work contributes about 15-17% of the country's GDP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the SC held loss of domestic care as a distinct head. Statement 2 is incorrect: the revision is 10%, not 15% every three years. Statement 3 is correct: caregiving work estimated at 15-17% of GDP.
According to the Supreme Court ruling, what is the minimum monthly compensation for loss of domestic care by a homemaker in motor accident claims?
- A.₹20,000
- B.₹25,000
- C.₹30,000✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹35,000
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Explanation
The SC fixed a floor of ₹30,000 per month, to be revised upward by 10% every three years. The other figures are distractors; ₹30,000 is explicitly stated in the article.
What is the primary criticism of the Supreme Court's ruling on homemakers' compensation, as highlighted in the article?
- A.The compensation amount is too low compared to market wages for domestic workers.
- B.The ruling only compensates after the homemaker's death and does not address financial security during lifetime.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The ruling applies only to motor accident claims and not to other causes of death.
- D.The ruling does not include mental harassment as a component of compensation.
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Explanation
The article argues that a homemaker is worth ₹30,000/month only after being killed by a negligent driver; in her lifetime, she has no asset entitlement or wealth accumulation. Options A and C are valid concerns but not the primary criticism emphasized; option D is not mentioned.
Which international organization officially declared a 'loss of continuity of knowledge' regarding Iran's nuclear programme?
- A.International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)✓ Correct Answer
- B.United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
- C.United Nations General Assembly (UNGA)
- D.World Nuclear Association (WNA)
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Explanation
The article states that 'by late 2025, the International Atomic Energy Agency officially declared that it had suffered a “loss of continuity of knowledge” vis-à-vis Iran’s nuclear programme.' The IAEA is the UN body responsible for nuclear safeguards and monitoring.
Consider the following statements regarding the US-Iran MoU (2026):
1. The MoU contains 14 clauses and provides for a 60-day negotiation period to finalize a comprehensive agreement.
2. The MoU mandates Iran to transfer its enriched uranium stockpile to a third country for safekeeping.
3. The 60-day period can be extended with mutual consent of both parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the MoU is a 14-clause document with a 60-day negotiation window. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article explicitly says 'the MoU evidently does not mandate Iran to transfer its enriched nuclear material to any third country.' Statement 3 is correct: Clause 3 allows both sides to extend the 60-day period with mutual consent. Hence option C is correct.
According to the article, what is the estimated potential annual revenue that Iran and Oman could earn from transit fees if they jointly administer the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.$8-10 billion
- B.$11-13 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$14-16 billion
- D.$5-7 billion
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Explanation
The article states: 'estimated annual revenue could exceed $11-13 billion' from transit passage fees, referencing the Montreux Convention model for Turkish Straits. Other options are close distractors not mentioned in the text.
Why is Clause 2 of the MoU (no interference in internal affairs) considered particularly important from Iran's perspective?
- A.It removes the US rationale for pursuing regime change and resuming military attacks on Iran based on support for protests.✓ Correct Answer
- B.It allows Iran to develop intercontinental ballistic missiles without international opposition.
- C.It ensures that the IAEA can conduct short-notice inspections of all Iranian nuclear facilities.
- D.It automatically unfreezes all Iranian assets held in foreign banks.
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Explanation
The article explains that Trump's earlier rationale for resuming attacks oscillated between 'regime change' and de-nuclearisation. Clause 2 removes the justification for US attacks based on supporting Iranian anti-government protests, which was a key security concern for Tehran.
Which Indian jurist was elected as a Judge of the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS) in June 2026?
- A.Neeru Chadha
- B.Bimal Patel✓ Correct Answer
- C.G.S. Sandhu
- D.S. Ravi Shankar
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Explanation
As per the news, Prof. Dr. Bimal Patel, Vice-Chancellor of Rashtriya Raksha University and member of the UN International Law Commission, was elected as Judge of ITLOS on June 18, 2026. Neeru Chadha is the current Vice-President of ITLOS, but not the newly elected judge.
Consider the following statements regarding the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS):
1. ITLOS was established by the 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
2. The Tribunal is composed of 21 independent members elected by the United Nations General Assembly.
3. Neeru Chadha of India is currently the Vice-President of ITLOS.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: ITLOS was established by UNCLOS (1982). Statement 2 is incorrect: the 21 members are elected by the States Parties to the Convention, not by the UN General Assembly. Statement 3 is correct: Neeru Chadha is the current Vice-President. Hence option C is correct.
In which year was the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) adopted?
- A.1972
- B.1982✓ Correct Answer
- C.1992
- D.2002
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that ITLOS was established by the 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea. The other years are distractors: 1972 (Stockholm Conference), 1992 (Rio Earth Summit), 2002 (World Summit on Sustainable Development).
Which of the following disputes is NOT within the jurisdiction of the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS) as mentioned in the news?
- A.Delimitation of maritime zones
- B.Navigation rights
- C.Conservation of living marine resources
- D.Disputes over international trade tariffs✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
According to the article, ITLOS jurisdiction covers disputes concerning delimitation of maritime zones, navigation, conservation and management of living resources, protection of marine environment, and marine scientific research. Trade tariff disputes fall under the WTO, not ITLOS.
Which strategic waterway is mentioned in the news as being reopened under the US-Iran interim deal?
- A.Suez Canal
- B.Panama Canal
- C.Strait of Hormuz✓ Correct Answer
- D.Strait of Malacca
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the deal aims to reopen the Strait of Hormuz, a critical oil chokepoint in the Persian Gulf, which was closed due to the West Asia war.
Consider the following statements regarding the US-Iran interim deal signed on June 17, 2026:
1. The deal was signed by US President Donald Trump and Iran's President.
2. Iran agreed to increase its enriched uranium stockpile.
3. The US committed to waive oil sanctions immediately upon signing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article says Trump and Iran's President signed. Statement 2 is false: Iran agreed to dilute its enriched uranium, not increase it. Statement 3 is correct: US committed to immediately waive oil sanctions.
What is the amount of the reconstruction fund that the US will facilitate upon reaching a final nuclear agreement with Iran?
- A.$100 billion
- B.$200 billion
- C.$300 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$400 billion
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Explanation
The article mentions that once a final agreement is reached, the US will facilitate the release of a $300 billion reconstruction fund backed by regional nations.
What is the primary objective of the interim deal between the US and Iran?
- A.To end the West Asia war and reopen the Strait of Hormuz✓ Correct Answer
- B.To create a permanent freeze on Iran's nuclear program
- C.To establish a new international nuclear watchdog
- D.To force Iran to abandon all nuclear technology
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Explanation
The article states the interim accord aims to end the West Asia war and pave the way for a broader settlement of Iran's nuclear dispute, with reopening of the Strait of Hormuz as a key immediate outcome.
Which ministry is responsible for the proposed dedicated logistics network for fly ash transportation?
- A.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- B.Ministry of Power
- C.Ministry of Railways✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
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Explanation
The article mentions that the Ministry of Railways, under Railway Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw, is planning this network. Fly ash transportation falls under railways' logistics operations.
Consider the following statements regarding fly ash management:
1. Fly ash is a byproduct generated from thermal power plants.
2. Indian Railways currently transports 340 million tonnes of fly ash annually.
3. Fly ash is used in road construction and cement manufacturing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: fly ash is a byproduct of thermal power plants. Statement 2 is incorrect: current rail transport is only 13 million tonnes, not 340 million. Statement 3 is correct: fly ash is utilized in roads (32%) and cement (27%). Hence option C is correct.
According to NTPC (2025) data, what percentage of fly ash generated in 2024-25 was utilized in road and flyover construction?
- A.27%
- B.32%✓ Correct Answer
- C.14%
- D.11%
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Explanation
The article states that 32% of fly ash was utilized in road and flyover construction, followed by 27% in cement, 14% in bricks, etc. Other options are close distractors from other sectors.
What is the primary environmental benefit of Indian Railways' dedicated fly ash logistics network?
- A.Increasing railway freight revenue
- B.Reducing air and water pollution from ash disposal✓ Correct Answer
- C.Creating more railway jobs
- D.Reducing coal consumption in thermal plants
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Explanation
The article highlights that fly ash poses an environmental challenge and that the initiative promotes recycling of industrial waste, reducing pollution. While other benefits exist, the core environmental benefit is pollution reduction by diverting ash from landfills.
Which institution is responsible for setting the federal funds rate in the United States?
- A.US Treasury
- B.Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.International Monetary Fund
- D.World Bank
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Explanation
The FOMC is the monetary policy committee of the US Federal Reserve that decides on the federal funds rate. The US Treasury manages government debt, while IMF and World Bank are international financial institutions.
Consider the following statements regarding the US Fed's June 2026 policy meeting:
1. The FOMC held the federal funds rate steady at 3.50-3.75%.
2. The median estimate for the Fed funds rate by the end of 2026 decreased to 3.4% from 3.8% in March.
3. Nine officials forecast at least one rate hike this year, including six who expected multiple hikes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 1 and 2
- C.(C) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the Fed held rates at 3.50-3.75%. Statement 2 is incorrect: the median estimate increased from 3.4% to 3.8%, not decreased. Statement 3 is correct: the article states nine officials favor at least one hike, six expect multiple.
According to the article, what was the retail inflation rate in the US in May 2026?
- A.3.4%
- B.3.8%
- C.4.2%✓ Correct Answer
- D.4.8%
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Explanation
The article states retail inflation accelerated to 4.2% in May, crossing the 4% level for the first time in 3 years. The other options are near distractors: 3.4% was the March median rate projection, and 3.8% is the new median projection.
What is the primary channel through which higher US interest rates affect Indian markets, as discussed in the article?
- A.Increased foreign direct investment (FDI) inflows
- B.Foreign institutional investor (FII) outflows due to higher US yields✓ Correct Answer
- C.Higher commodity prices due to US demand
- D.Strengthening of the Indian rupee against the dollar
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Explanation
The article explains that higher US yields offer attractive returns for foreign investors, leading them to pull capital out of emerging markets like India. This is evident from FII outflows of $26.7 billion in 2026. The other options are not the primary channel discussed.
Which section of the Information Technology Act, 2000 was used by the government to block Telegram, as upheld by the Delhi High Court?
- A.Section 66A
- B.Section 69A✓ Correct Answer
- C.Section 79
- D.Section 43A
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Explanation
Section 69A empowers the government to block public access to information through any computer resource in the interest of sovereignty, integrity, etc. The Delhi High Court upheld its application to block the entire Telegram platform. Section 66A was struck down by the Supreme Court; Section 79 provides safe harbour to intermediaries; Section 43A deals with compensation for failure to protect data.
Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi High Court judgment on Telegram blocking:
1. The court held that Section 69A of the IT Act can only be used to block specific information, not entire platforms.
2. The court applied the proportionality test from the Anuradha Bhasin judgment.
3. The temporary blocking order was upheld by a review committee on June 18, 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the court explicitly rejected that argument and ruled that Section 69A covers entire applications like Telegram. Statement 2 is correct: the court applied the four-prong proportionality test from Anuradha Bhasin. Statement 3 is correct: the review committee upheld the order on June 18. Hence option C is correct.
Until what date was the temporary blocking of Telegram ordered by the government, as mentioned in the Delhi High Court judgment?
- A.June 20, 2026
- B.June 22, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.June 25, 2026
- D.June 30, 2026
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Explanation
The Delhi High Court noted that the temporary blocking of Telegram under Section 69A was operative only until June 22, 2026. The disablement of the message-editing feature was until June 30, 2026. The other options are close distractors.
What was the primary reason cited by the government for blocking Telegram, as accepted by the Delhi High Court?
- A.Preventing cyberattacks on critical infrastructure
- B.Preventing circulation of exam-related misinformation and purported exam papers for NEET UG 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.Preventing hate speech and communal violence
- D.Preventing foreign interference in Indian elections
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Explanation
The court accepted the government's reasoning that blocking Telegram was necessary to prevent potential grave implications for public order and to prevent commission of cognisable offences arising from circulation of exam-related misinformation and purported exam papers, particularly in light of prior incidents relating to NEET UG 2026. The other options, though plausible, are not mentioned in the article as the primary reason.
Which industry body opposed the Delhi government's proposed ban on new ICE two-wheelers?
- A.Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI)
- B.Society of Indian Automobile Manufacturers (SIAM)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Confederation of Indian Industry (CII)
- D.Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM)
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Explanation
The article clearly mentions that SIAM, the apex industry body for automobile manufacturers, wrote to the government opposing the ICE vehicle mandate, arguing it would undermine consumer welfare and economic stability.
Consider the following statements regarding Delhi's EV Policy 2.0:
1. The policy proposes a complete ban on new petrol two-wheelers from April 2028.
2. Electric two-wheelers currently account for more than 7% of total two-wheeler registrations in Delhi over the last two financial years.
3. The policy also bans CNG autos from January 2028.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the draft policy bans new ICE two-wheelers from April 2028. Statement 2 is correct: electric two-wheelers have accounted for over 7% of registrations in the last two financial years. Statement 3 is incorrect: the ban on CNG autos is from January next year (2027), not 2028.
What is the maximum purchase incentive offered for an electric two-wheeler under Delhi's EV Policy 2.0 in the first year of implementation?
- A.₹10,000 per kWh, capped at ₹20,000
- B.₹10,000 per kWh, capped at ₹30,000✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹6,600 per kWh, capped at ₹20,000
- D.₹3,300 per kWh, capped at ₹10,000
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Explanation
The article specifies that in the first year after notification, buyers will receive an incentive of ₹10,000 per kWh, up to a maximum of ₹30,000. The other options correspond to the second and third year incentives respectively.
What is the primary objective of the Delhi government's proposed two-wheeler electrification mandate?
- A.To reduce dependence on Chinese battery imports
- B.To lower air pollution by electrifying 67% of the city's vehicle stock✓ Correct Answer
- C.To boost domestic automobile manufacturing
- D.To increase government revenue through EV registration fees
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Explanation
The article states that two-wheelers constitute about 67% of the city's total vehicle stock, making their electrification crucial for reducing emissions. While reducing import dependence and boosting manufacturing are potential co-benefits, the core objective is emission reduction.
Which organization is responsible for designing the indigenously built naval ships mentioned in the news?
- A.Indian Navy's Warship Design Bureau✓ Correct Answer
- B.Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE)
- C.Ministry of Defence
- D.Directorate of Naval Design
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Explanation
The article states that the ships were 'designed by the Indian Navy's Warship Design Bureau' and 'constructed by GRSE'. The Warship Design Bureau is the in-house design agency of the Navy, while GRSE is the builder. The Ministry of Defence is the parent ministry but not the designer.
Consider the following statements regarding the three naval ships commissioned:
1. INS Dunagiri is a Project 17A stealth frigate equipped with BrahMos missiles.
2. INS Sanshodhak is a large survey vessel designed for coastal and deep-water hydrographic surveys.
3. INS Agray is an anti-submarine warfare craft designed for deep ocean operations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Dunagiri is a Project 17A frigate with BrahMos missiles. Statement 2 is correct: Sanshodhak is a survey vessel for hydrographic surveys. Statement 3 is incorrect: Agray is designed for 'shallow water' (littoral) operations, not deep ocean. Hence option C is correct.
What is the percentage of indigenous content in the construction of these three naval ships?
- A.70%
- B.75%✓ Correct Answer
- C.80%
- D.85%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states 'indigenous content exceeding 75 per cent'. The other options are close distractors: 70% is below the stated figure, 80% and 85% are higher but not mentioned. Hence 75% is the correct threshold.
What is the primary strategic objective of commissioning these three different types of naval platforms together?
- A.To reduce dependence on foreign shipyards
- B.To demonstrate a balanced approach to capability development across combat, survey, and anti-submarine domains✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase the number of ships in the Indian Navy
- D.To promote employment in the MSME sector
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Explanation
The article mentions the Navy's 'balanced approach to capability development' covering combat (Dunagiri), hydrographic survey (Sanshodhak), and anti-submarine warfare (Agray). While reducing dependence (A), increasing numbers (C), and promoting employment (D) are benefits, the core strategic objective is balanced capability development as stated.
Which office issued the statement regarding the PM-VBRY incentive disbursal?
- A.Ministry of Labour and Employment
- B.Prime Minister's Office✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
According to the article, the statement was issued by the Prime Minister's Office (PMO). The PMO is a key constitutional body that coordinates the work of various ministries and communicates major policy announcements.
Consider the following statements regarding PM-VBRY:
1. The scheme came into effect on August 1, 2025.
2. First-time employees are eligible for an incentive of up to ₹15,000.
3. Employers are eligible for an incentive of up to ₹5,000 per month per additional employee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the scheme came into effect on August 1, 2025. Statement 2 is correct: first-time employees get up to ₹15,000 incentive. Statement 3 is incorrect because the employer incentive is up to ₹3,000 per month per additional employee, not ₹5,000. Hence option C is correct.
How many youth have completed six months in their first job under PM-VBRY?
- A.10 lakh
- B.20 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- C.70 lakh
- D.30 lakh
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Explanation
The Prime Minister stated that approximately 20 lakh young people have completed six months in their first jobs under PM-VBRY. This is a key data point for prelims. The other options are distractors: 10 lakh received incentives, 70 lakh total jobs created.
What is the primary objective of the PM-VBRY scheme?
- A.To provide skill training to unemployed youth
- B.To incentivize creation of formal employment and social security coverage✓ Correct Answer
- C.To provide direct cash transfers to all citizens
- D.To promote entrepreneurship among rural youth
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Explanation
The scheme aims to incentivize job creation and expand formal employment with social security coverage for first-time employees. While skill training and entrepreneurship are related, the core objective is employment generation and formalization as stated in the article.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for conducting the National Family Health Survey (NFHS)?
- A.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
- B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Women and Child Development
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
The NFHS is conducted by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) through the International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS), Mumbai. It is a large-scale survey covering health, nutrition, and population indicators.
Consider the following statements regarding the NFHS-6 report:
1. Stunting among children under five years declined from 35.5% to 29.3%.
2. Wasting levels among children under five showed significant improvement.
3. Only 15% of children aged 6-23 months receive an adequate diet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: stunting declined from 35.5% to 29.3%. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states that wasting levels showed no change, except for severe forms. Statement 3 is correct: only 15% of children 6-23 months receive an adequate diet. Hence option C is correct.
According to the NFHS-6 report, what percentage of children aged 12-23 months are now fully vaccinated?
- A.85%
- B.87%✓ Correct Answer
- C.90%
- D.95%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 87% of children between 12 and 23 months of age are now fully vaccinated. The other options are close distractors: 85% is not mentioned, 90% is the institutional birth rate, and 95% is the rate of mothers visited at least once during antenatal period.
What is the primary reason cited in the article for the persistent undernutrition despite improvements in healthcare access?
- A.Insufficient government funding for nutrition programmes
- B.Weak feeding practices and lack of access to quality diets✓ Correct Answer
- C.High prevalence of infectious diseases among children
- D.Lack of vaccination coverage in rural areas
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Explanation
The article clearly states that gains in child nutrition are due to better healthcare access, immunisation, and sanitation, while feeding practices and access to quality diets remain weak and continue to limit progress. Only 15% of children receive an adequate diet, and early breastfeeding initiation is low.
Which government body is primarily responsible for implementing the prescription-only mandate for syrup-based medicines under the Drugs Rules 1945?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Consumer Affairs
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Explanation
The Union Health Ministry (Ministry of Health and Family Welfare) oversees the Drugs Rules 1945 and is the nodal body for pharmaceutical regulation in India. The other options are not directly related to drug regulation.
Consider the following statements regarding the government’s recent move on syrup-based medicines:
1. The Union Health Ministry removed “syrup” from Schedule K of the Drugs Rules 1945, making prescription mandatory.
2. The move was triggered by contamination of India-made cough syrups with ethylene glycol (EG) and diethylene glycol (DEG) that killed over 300 children since 2022.
3. The American Academy of Pediatrics has endorsed the use of cough suppressants for children under six years of age.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct — the contamination crisis is the direct cause. Statement 3 is incorrect; the American Academy of Pediatrics says cough suppressants are ineffective and may be dangerous for children under six. Hence option C is correct.
According to the article, how many children died globally due to EG/DEG contamination in India-made cough syrups since 2022?
- A.Over 100
- B.Over 200
- C.Over 300✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over 500
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that EG/DEG contamination in India-made cough syrups killed over 300 children across several countries since 2022. The other options are incorrect as they do not match the exact figure.
What is the primary limitation of the government’s new prescription-only mandate for syrup-based medicines, as highlighted in the article?
- A.It increases the cost of medicines for consumers
- B.It fails to address the root cause of manufacturing quality control failures✓ Correct Answer
- C.It reduces access to essential medicines in rural areas
- D.It creates a shortage of syrups in the market
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Explanation
The article argues that the mandate is “defensive rather than reformist” and cannot prevent contaminated products from reaching the market. The core issue is manufacturing quality control, not consumer access. The other options are not the primary limitation discussed.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for negotiating and signing bilateral agreements like the India-Slovakia comprehensive partnership?
- A.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Defence
- D.Ministry of Home Affairs
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Explanation
The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) handles India's foreign policy, diplomatic relations, and bilateral agreements with other countries. While other ministries may be involved in specific sectors, the MEA leads the negotiation and signing of comprehensive partnerships.
Consider the following statements regarding PM Modi's visit to France and Slovakia:
1. PM Modi attended the G7 Summit in Evian-Les-Bains as a guest country.
2. India and Slovakia signed 15 agreements to expand bilateral cooperation.
3. PM Modi's visit to Slovakia was the first by an Indian Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: India was invited as a guest country to the G7 Summit in Evian-Les-Bains. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article mentions 11 agreements, not 15. Statement 3 is correct: the visit to Slovakia was the first by an Indian Prime Minister. Hence option C is correct.
How many agreements were signed between India and Slovakia during PM Modi's visit?
- A.9
- B.11✓ Correct Answer
- C.13
- D.15
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that India and Slovakia 'firmed up 11 agreements to expand bilateral cooperation' in areas such as migration, digital technology, and defence. The other options are close distractors.
What is the primary diplomatic significance of PM Modi's visit to Slovakia?
- A.To sign a defence alliance with Slovakia
- B.To establish a free trade agreement with the European Union
- C.To elevate bilateral ties to a comprehensive partnership for the first time✓ Correct Answer
- D.To mediate in the Russia-Ukraine conflict
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Explanation
The article highlights that India and Slovakia elevated their ties to a comprehensive partnership and signed 11 agreements. This was the first PM-level visit, marking a strategic deepening of relations. Defence alliance or EU trade deal are not mentioned, and while Ukraine was discussed at G7, it was not the primary purpose of the Slovakia visit.
Which ministry/department is primarily responsible for the collection of direct taxes in India?
- A.Ministry of Finance (Department of Revenue)✓ Correct Answer
- B.Ministry of Corporate Affairs
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
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Explanation
The Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance oversees direct tax collection through the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT). The Ministry of Corporate Affairs handles company law and regulation, not tax collection.
Consider the following statements regarding the direct tax mop-up data released in June 2026:
1. Net direct tax collection grew by 14.64% to over ₹5.21 lakh crore till June 17.
2. Securities Transaction Tax (STT) collection grew by 45% to ₹18,856 crore.
3. Corporate advance tax collection grew by 13%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: net direct tax grew 14.64% to ₹5.21 lakh crore. Statement 2 is correct: STT grew 45% to ₹18,856 crore. Statement 3 is incorrect: corporate advance tax grew by 16%, not 13% (13% is the growth for non-corporate advance tax). Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
According to the government data released on June 18, 2026, what was the growth rate of net corporate tax collection till June 17?
- A.14.64%
- B.22%✓ Correct Answer
- C.15.30%
- D.12.46%
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'Net corporate tax collection rose 22% to ₹2.08 lakh crore'. Option A (14.64%) is net overall direct tax growth. Option C (15.30%) is overall advance tax growth. Option D (12.46%) is gross direct tax growth.
What does the strong growth in advance tax payments primarily indicate about the economy?
- A.A decline in government borrowing
- B.Improved corporate profitability and business confidence✓ Correct Answer
- C.A reduction in the fiscal deficit
- D.Higher consumption demand in the rural sector
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Explanation
The article quotes experts stating that strong advance tax growth 'indicated a reversal trend from the tepid growth... a forward indicator of potential business confidence' and that the corporate sector is doing well. Options A and C are possible outcomes but not the primary indicator. Option D is not supported by the data, which focuses on corporate and non-corporate tax, not rural consumption.
Which ministry/department is primarily responsible for controlling the allocation framework for mineral blocks in India?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Coal and Mines✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
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Explanation
The article mentions that the central government, through the Ministry of Mines (under Ministry of Coal and Mines), controls the allocation framework and approvals for certain mineral blocks. The Finance Ministry deals with fiscal matters, not mineral allocation.
Consider the following statements regarding the Maharashtra government's request for iron ore mines in Gadchiroli:
1. The state seeks transfer of six iron ore mines to the Maharashtra State Mining Corporation (MSMC).
2. The Centre has rejected the request citing the need for competitive auctioning.
3. The project aims to produce 50 million tonnes of iron ore by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article clearly states the request for six mines to MSMC. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Union Minister was positive about the demand, not rejecting it. Statement 3 is correct: the CM mentioned a target of 50 million tonnes from these mines by 2030. Hence option C is correct.
How many iron ore mines is the Maharashtra government seeking to get mining rights for in Gadchiroli?
- A.Four
- B.Six✓ Correct Answer
- C.Eight
- D.Ten
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Explanation
The article title and content repeatedly mention 'six iron ore mines'. The other options are plausible distractors, but the correct number is six as per the news.
What is the primary objective of the Maharashtra government's proposal to allocate iron ore mines to the state corporation instead of auctioning them?
- A.To increase revenue from mineral royalties
- B.To expedite mineral production and lower steel costs✓ Correct Answer
- C.To bypass environmental clearances
- D.To centralize mineral distribution under the Centre
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Explanation
The article quotes CM Fadnavis arguing that state corporations can operationalize mines faster and that auctioned mines often fail due to high premiums, making them unviable. The goal is to boost production and produce steel at lower cost than China. Revenue generation is secondary; environmental clearances are still required, and the proposal seeks state control, not centralization.
Which international organization is mentioned in the article as being invited to inspect Iran's nuclear sites?
- A.United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
- B.International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.World Trade Organization (WTO)
- D.World Health Organization (WHO)
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Explanation
The article states that a Trump administration envoy told US lawmakers that Iran would invite the IAEA to inspect its nuclear sites. The IAEA is the global nuclear watchdog responsible for verifying compliance with nuclear non-proliferation treaties.
Consider the following statements:
1. Iran's Supreme Leader Mojtaba Khamenei publicly endorsed direct negotiations with the US.
2. Khamenei had consistently supported direct talks with the US since 2025.
3. The MoU was signed by US President Donald Trump and Iranian President Masoud Pezeshkian.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as Khamenei endorsed direct US talks. Statement 2 is incorrect because as recently as February 2025, he had dismissed direct negotiations as 'not intelligent, wise, nor honourable'. Statement 3 is correct as the MoU was signed by Trump and Pezeshkian.
According to the article, how many barrels of oil passed through the Strait of Hormuz after the US Navy lifted its blockade?
- A.10.5 million barrels
- B.12.5 million barrels✓ Correct Answer
- C.15.2 million barrels
- D.11.5 million barrels
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'more than 12.5 million barrels of oil passed through the Strait of Hormuz overnight'. This was the highest volume recorded since the war began in late February.
What is the primary significance of the Strait of Hormuz reopening as mentioned in the news?
- A.It allows for increased tourism between Iran and Gulf states.
- B.It facilitates the highest volume of oil transit since the war began, impacting global energy markets.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It enables the US Navy to establish a permanent base in the region.
- D.It allows Iran to export agricultural products more efficiently.
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Explanation
The article highlights that the reopening allowed over 12.5 million barrels of oil to pass, the highest volume since the war started. The Strait of Hormuz is a critical chokepoint for global oil supply, so its reopening directly affects global energy prices and supply chains.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for deploying officers and implementing the VB-G RAM G Act?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Rural Development✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Home Affairs
- D.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Ministry of Rural Development will deploy over 100 area officers for the VB-G RAM G rollout. This ministry oversees rural employment and development programs.
Consider the following statements regarding VB-G RAM G:
1. The Act will be implemented from July 1, 2026.
2. All states and Union Territories have notified their state schemes under the framework.
3. The Act uses tools like Viksit Gram Panchayat Plans (VGPPs) and GIS-based planning.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the rollout is from July 1. Statement 2 is incorrect: only six states/UTs have notified their schemes, not all. Statement 3 is correct: VGPPs and GIS-based planning are mentioned as tools under the Act. Hence option C.
What percentage of active workers have completed e-KYC under the VB-G RAM G framework?
- A.90%
- B.93%✓ Correct Answer
- C.95%
- D.97%
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Explanation
The article states that nearly 93% of active workers have completed e-KYC. The other options are close distractors (90%, 95%, 97%) but the exact figure is 93%.
What is the primary objective of the VB-G RAM G Act as described in the news?
- A.To provide free education in rural areas
- B.To transform rural employment by linking wage employment with livelihood promotion and climate resilience✓ Correct Answer
- C.To build highways and expressways in rural areas
- D.To provide health insurance to all rural workers
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Act seeks to transform rural employment by linking guaranteed wage employment with livelihood promotion, climate resilience, rural infrastructure creation, and technology-based governance. This goes beyond simple wage guarantee.
Which agency/agencies are being empowered by the Kerala government to handle land acquisition processes under the 'Land Reforms 2.0' policy?
- A.Kerala State Remote Sensing and Environment Centre (KSREC)
- B.Kerala Industrial Infrastructure Development Corporation (KINFRA) and INKEL✓ Correct Answer
- C.Kerala State Pollution Control Board
- D.Kerala State Land Bank Authority
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'Government agencies such as KINFRA and INKEL would be empowered to handle land acquisition processes.' KSREC is responsible for K-GIS, not land acquisition.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Kerala government will formulate a comprehensive 'land management policy' to address structural challenges in freeing up land for industrial projects.
2. The budget allocates ₹17.5 crore for the Revenue Department and ₹76.7 crore for the Survey Department.
3. A commission will be constituted to study the requirements of forming new districts and taluks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the CM announced a 'land management policy'. Statement 2 is incorrect: the budget allocates ₹76.7 crore for Revenue Dept and ₹17.5 crore for Survey Dept – the amounts are swapped in the statement. Statement 3 is correct as per the article.
What is the total budget allocation for the Survey Department under the Kerala Budget 2026-27, as per the news?
- A.₹17.5 crore✓ Correct Answer
- B.₹76.7 crore
- C.₹7.65 crore
- D.₹1.75 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions 'An allocation of ₹17.5 crore has been made in the Budget for activities of the Survey Department.' The other option (₹76.7 crore) is the Revenue Department allocation.
What is the primary objective of the 'Kerala Geo-Spatial Governance Platform' (K-GIS) announced in the budget?
- A.To enable online payment of land taxes
- B.To support regional spatial governance and disaster management activities✓ Correct Answer
- C.To digitise all land records for public access
- D.To monitor agricultural crop yields using satellite imagery
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Explanation
The article states that K-GIS will 'support regional spatial governance activities in the State' and that a drone lab will collect high-resolution data for disaster management. The other options are plausible but not directly mentioned.
Which of the following is a key reform proposed by the New Education Policy 2020 as mentioned in the article?
- A.Introduction of 5+3+3+4 curricular structure
- B.Flexible subject selection across streams✓ Correct Answer
- C.Compulsory vocational education from Class 6
- D.Teacher training reforms
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that a core reform of NEP 2020 was the introduction of flexible subject selection to replace rigid stream selection in Sciences, Commerce, and Humanities.
Consider the following statements regarding the implementation of flexible subject choices under NEP 2020:
1. The article states that both government and private schools have fully adopted flexible subject choice under NEP.
2. Some schools allow students to choose a sixth subject outside their stream.
3. Lack of clear implementation guidelines is cited by a principal as a reason for non-implementation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 2
- B.(B) Only 3
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2
- D.(D) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is false because the article says most schools still follow rigid streams. Statement 2 is true: DPS Mathura Road offers a sixth subject like AI or Painting. Statement 3 is true: the retired principal explicitly mentioned lack of implementation guidelines.
In which year was the New Education Policy (NEP) launched, according to the article?
- A.2019
- B.2020✓ Correct Answer
- C.2021
- D.2022
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Explanation
The article repeatedly refers to NEP 2020 and states 'Six years after implementation', placing the launch year as 2020. This aligns with the actual launch of NEP 2020.
What is the primary reason cited in the article for the non-implementation of flexible subject selection in schools?
- A.Shortage of qualified teachers
- B.Lack of funding and clear implementation guidelines✓ Correct Answer
- C.Opposition from student unions
- D.Central government's delay in approving the policy
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Explanation
The retired principal said 'the bigger issue is the lack of clear implementation guidelines' and Nandita Narain said no extra money was allocated. A teacher also noted that schools need time and resources to adapt.
Which body is being overhauled by an expert committee as announced in the Kerala Revised Budget 2026-27?
- A.Kerala State Planning Board
- B.Kerala Infrastructure Investment Fund Board (KIIFB)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Kerala Financial Corporation
- D.Kerala Public Service Commission
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Explanation
The article states that CM Satheesan announced plans to constitute an expert committee to initiate comprehensive structural reforms and overhaul of the Kerala Infrastructure Investment Fund Board (KIIFB), in line with a recommendation in the White Paper on the State's fiscal health.
Consider the following statements regarding the Kerala Revised Budget 2026-27:
1. The minimum support price (MSP) of rubber was enhanced from ₹200 to ₹250.
2. The road tax on electric vehicles priced above ₹40 lakh was reduced from 15% to 10%.
3. The budget allocated ₹600 crore for the Indira Guarantee free-travel scheme for women and transgenders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: MSP of rubber was hiked from ₹200 to ₹250. Statement 2 is incorrect: The road tax on EVs priced above ₹40 lakh was increased from 10% to 15%, not reduced. Statement 3 is correct: ₹600 crore was allocated for the Indira Guarantee free-travel scheme. Hence option C is correct.
According to the Kerala Revised Budget 2026-27, what is the new sales tax rate for alcoholic beverages with alcohol strength between 0.5% v/v and 10% v/v?
- A.100%
- B.120%✓ Correct Answer
- C.150%
- D.175%
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Explanation
The budget fixed the sales tax rate at 120% for alcoholic beverages with alcohol strength ranging from 0.5% v/v to 10% v/v, and 175% for products with alcohol strength above 10% v/v and up to 20% v/v.
What is the primary objective of the 'Land Reforms 2.0' initiative announced in the Kerala Revised Budget?
- A.To redistribute land from landlords to landless farmers
- B.To harness land resources for development projects✓ Correct Answer
- C.To impose a ceiling on agricultural land holdings
- D.To provide free land to industrial units
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Explanation
The article describes Land Reforms 2.0 as an initiative for 'harnessing land resources for development', distinct from the original land reforms focused on tenancy and redistribution. This aims to unlock land for infrastructure and economic projects in the state.
Which country was to host the US-Iran peace talks mentioned in the news?
- A.United States
- B.Iran
- C.Switzerland✓ Correct Answer
- D.United Nations
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Explanation
The article states that Switzerland said the talks would not take place, and the Swiss Foreign Ministry announced the postponement. Switzerland is a neutral country often used for mediation.
Consider the following statements:
1. US Vice President JD Vance was scheduled to travel to Switzerland for the talks.
2. Iran's Supreme Leader rejected the 14-point accord.
3. The 14-point accord extended a ceasefire by at least 60 days.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 3
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Vance and the US delegation had been ready to depart. Statement 2 is false: the Supreme Leader approved the agreement despite reservations. Statement 3 is correct: the accord extended the ceasefire by at least 60 days.
On what date were the US-Iran talks originally planned?
- A.June 18, 2026
- B.June 19, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.June 20, 2026
- D.June 17, 2026
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Explanation
The article's title and content both mention 'talks planned for June 19' and confirm they were off on that date. The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the news.
What is the most likely consequence of the cancellation of US-Iran talks as described in the article?
- A.Immediate resumption of full-scale hostilities
- B.Increased uncertainty about the durability of the ceasefire✓ Correct Answer
- C.Permanent breakdown of diplomatic relations
- D.Swift renegotiation of a new accord
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Explanation
The article states the cancellation 'clouding prospects for lasting truce' and Iran's warning of decisive response. This directly indicates heightened uncertainty, not an automatic return to war or permanent breakdown.
Which international organization is responsible for supervising the downblending of Iran’s uranium stockpile as per the US-Iran MoU?
- A.United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
- B.International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.World Nuclear Association (WNA)
- D.Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)
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Explanation
The MoU explicitly states that downblending will be carried out on site under the supervision of the IAEA. The IAEA is the global nuclear watchdog that verifies compliance with non-proliferation commitments.
Consider the following statements regarding downblending:
1. Downblending is the process of mixing enriched uranium with depleted or natural uranium to reduce the concentration of U-235.
2. The final product of downblending is uranium hexafluoride (UF6), which can be directly enriched again.
3. The IAEA uses thermal ionisation mass spectrometry to verify the U-235 level in the final product.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: downblending mixes enriched uranium with depleted/natural uranium to lower U-235 concentration. Statement 2 is incorrect: the final product is uranium dioxide (UO2), not UF6, and UO2 cannot be directly enriched. Statement 3 is correct: IAEA uses thermal ionisation mass spectrometry at its Seibersdorf lab to confirm U-235 levels to four decimal places.
What is the natural concentration of uranium-235 in uranium ore?
- A.0.72%✓ Correct Answer
- B.3.67%
- C.5.0%
- D.90.0%
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Explanation
The article states that natural concentration of uranium-235 is only 0.72%. The other options are distractors: 3.67% was the enrichment limit under the 2015 Iran deal, 5% is the downblending target, and 90% is weapons-grade enrichment.
Why is the conversion of downblended uranium from UF6 to UO2 considered a critical step in the non-proliferation process?
- A.UO2 is more stable and easier to store than UF6
- B.UO2 cannot be directly enriched and must be converted back to UF6 first✓ Correct Answer
- C.UO2 emits gamma rays that are easier to monitor by satellites
- D.UO2 is the only form accepted by the IAEA for verification
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Explanation
The article explains that uranium in UO2 cannot be enriched directly; it has to be converted to UF6 first in a conversion plant. This adds a significant barrier to re-enrichment, making it harder for Iran to quickly produce weapons-grade material. The emissions from such a plant can also be detected by satellites and ground inspections.
Who presented the Revised Kerala Budget 2026-27 as per the news?
- A.Finance Minister of Kerala
- B.Chief Minister V.D. Satheesan✓ Correct Answer
- C.Governor of Kerala
- D.Speaker of Kerala Legislative Assembly
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the revised budget was presented by Chief Minister V.D. Satheesan. In Kerala, the Chief Minister traditionally presents the budget, which is a unique practice compared to most other states where the Finance Minister presents it.
Consider the following statements regarding Kerala's maritime infrastructure mentioned in the news:
1. Kerala has a coastline of 600 km.
2. The state has 17 major ports and 2 non-major ports.
3. Mission Samudra has an allocation of ₹400 crore.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions a 600-km coastline. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says '17 non-major ports, two major ports' – the numbers are swapped. Statement 3 is correct: Mission Samudra allocation is ₹400 crore. Hence option C is correct.
What is the allocation for the Southern Kerala Economic Corridor as per the Revised Kerala Budget 2026-27?
- A.₹200 crore
- B.₹400 crore
- C.₹50 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹100 crore
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'An amount of ₹50 crore has been earmarked for the project' (Southern Kerala Economic Corridor). ₹200 crore is for the aviation hub, and ₹400 crore is for Mission Samudra. These amounts are common distractors.
What is the primary objective of the 'Port City' vision outlined in the Kerala Budget?
- A.To increase state revenue through higher port taxes and tariffs
- B.To transform Kerala into a leading maritime and logistics hub by integrating ports with transport networks and developing green bunkering✓ Correct Answer
- C.To build new major ports to compete with Chennai and Mumbai
- D.To reduce dependence on inland waterways and focus only on sea ports
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Explanation
The budget aims to 'harness the integrated strengths of the State’s 600-km coastline, 17 non-major ports, two major ports, and ... road, rail, sea, and inland waterway networks' to create a unified Port City. It also mentions developing Vizhinjam for green bunkering and establishing a shipbuilding hub. Options A and C are not mentioned; option D contradicts the plan to develop water transport.
Which Act contains Section 69A, which empowers the government to block public access to information in computer resources?
- A.Indian Penal Code, 1860
- B.Information Technology Act, 2000✓ Correct Answer
- C.Right to Information Act, 2005
- D.Indian Evidence Act, 1872
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Explanation
Section 69A is part of the Information Technology Act, 2000. It allows the government to issue directions to block public access to information for reasons of sovereignty, security, public order, etc. The other options are unrelated Acts.
Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi High Court’s ruling on the Telegram ban:
1. The court upheld the government’s interpretation that “information” under Section 69A of the IT Act includes software and programmes.
2. The court said the government failed to provide reasons for invoking emergency powers.
3. The ban was imposed to protect the integrity of the NEET-UG re-exam scheduled for June 21, 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the court endorsed the government’s interpretation that “information” includes software and programmes. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court found that the government followed proper procedure and gave reasons for invoking emergency powers. Statement 3 is correct as the ban was specifically aimed at protecting the NEET-UG re-exam scheduled for June 21, 2026.
What was the date for the NEET-UG re-exam that led to the temporary ban on Telegram being upheld?
- A.June 19, 2026
- B.June 21, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.June 23, 2026
- D.June 26, 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions “the critical period preceding the June 21 re-test” as the reason for the government’s intervention. The ban was to ensure the integrity of this exam. The other dates are distractors – June 19 is the date of the court ruling itself.
What was the primary reason cited by the government for imposing a platform-level ban on Telegram rather than targeted content removal?
- A.To reduce the cost of monitoring individual channels
- B.Because operators were routinely creating mirror channels and backup groups after enforcement action✓ Correct Answer
- C.To set a precedent for future examination security
- D.Because Telegram refused to cooperate with law enforcement agencies
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Explanation
The court noted that fraudulent networks were creating mirror channels, backup groups, and successor accounts after enforcement actions, making targeted removals ineffective. Therefore, the government concluded that “nothing short of a platform-level measure” would protect the exam’s integrity. This rationale was upheld by the court.
Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) quota in India?
- A.101st Amendment Act, 2016
- B.102nd Amendment Act, 2018
- C.103rd Amendment Act, 2019✓ Correct Answer
- D.104th Amendment Act, 2020
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Explanation
The 103rd Constitutional Amendment introduced 10% reservation in education and public employment for EWS from the general category. Article 15(6) and 16(6) were added. The other options relate to GST (101st), NCT Delhi (102nd), or extension of SC/ST reservation (104th).
Consider the following statements regarding the EWS quota in UPSC Civil Services Examination 2025:
1. The EWS quota provides 10% reservation in education and government jobs for candidates from the General Category who meet income and asset criteria.
2. The current annual income limit to qualify as EWS is ₹10 lakh.
3. UPSC publicly discloses the number of EWS candidates at each stage of the examination.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 10% reservation for General Category not eligible for SC/ST/OBC and meeting prescribed income/asset limits. Statement 2 is incorrect: the income limit is ₹8 lakh, not ₹10 lakh. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article states UPSC does not disclose stage-wise EWS candidate numbers.
According to the Indian Express investigation, how many of the 104 EWS-selected candidates in UPSC 2025 had attended prominent coaching institutes?
- A.At least 46
- B.At least 67✓ Correct Answer
- C.At least 84
- D.At least 28
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Explanation
The investigation states that 'at least 67 attended some of India’s most prominent coaching institutes'. The other options represent different findings: 84 had formal coaching (broader category), 46 studied in private schools, 28 came from business families.
What is the primary implication of the investigation's findings regarding the EWS quota in UPSC?
- A.The quota is being fully utilized by the most economically disadvantaged candidates.
- B.A significant number of quota beneficiaries may not be economically disadvantaged as intended by the policy.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The income limit should be immediately reduced to ₹5 lakh.
- D.UPSC should increase the number of EWS seats to 200.
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Explanation
The investigation found that many EWS selectees had access to expensive coaching, private schooling, and came from business families, indicating that the current criteria may allow relatively affluent families to benefit. This challenges the policy's objective of helping the genuinely poor. Options A, C, and D are either contradicted or not suggested by the article.
Which organization acts as the Secretariat of the Bonn Challenge?
- A.International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)✓ Correct Answer
- B.United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
- C.World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF)
- D.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that IUCN acts as the Secretariat of the Bonn Challenge. The Bonn Challenge was launched through the efforts of the Government of Germany and IUCN, which also hosts the Secretariat.
Consider the following statements regarding India's land restoration under the Bonn Challenge:
1. India restored 21.7 million hectares of degraded and deforested land between 2011 and 2020.
2. India's revised pledge of 26 million hectares by 2030 was announced at the UNFCCC COP26 in Glasgow.
3. Telangana topped the list of states with 4.18 million hectares restored, driven by agroforestry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the second progress report states India restored 21.7 million hectares. Statement 2 is incorrect: the revised pledge was announced at UNCCD COP14 in India in 2019, not UNFCCC COP26. Statement 3 is correct: Telangana topped the list with 4.18 million hectares, driven by an agroforestry push of over 3.6 million hectares.
What was the Bonn Challenge's restoration target by the year 2020?
- A.100 million hectares
- B.150 million hectares✓ Correct Answer
- C.350 million hectares
- D.500 million hectares
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Explanation
The Bonn Challenge commits to restoring 150 million hectares by 2020, with an additional target of 350 million hectares by 2030. The article clearly states these figures. The other options are distractors: 100M ha not mentioned, 350M ha is the 2030 target, 500M ha is not a Bonn Challenge target.
What is the primary objective of the Bonn Challenge?
- A.To combat desertification through large-scale afforestation of arid regions
- B.To restore degraded and deforested landscapes globally through Forest Landscape Restoration✓ Correct Answer
- C.To promote renewable energy in developing countries
- D.To reduce carbon emissions from deforestation by 50% by 2030
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Explanation
The article describes the Bonn Challenge as a commitment to restoring degraded and deforested landscapes, promoting Forest Landscape Restoration (FLR) which prioritises biodiversity conservation and human livelihoods. While afforestation is part of FLR, the broader goal is landscape restoration. Options C and D are not objectives of the Bonn Challenge.
Which US military command announced the lifting of the maritime blockade on Iranian ports?
- A.U.S. Central Command (CENTCOM)✓ Correct Answer
- B.U.S. Pacific Command (PACOM)
- C.U.S. European Command (EUCOM)
- D.U.S. Africa Command (AFRICOM)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Announcing the decision on X, the U.S. Central Command (CENTCOM) said'. CENTCOM is responsible for US military operations in the Middle East, which includes the Strait of Hormuz region.
Consider the following statements:
1. The US lifted its blockade on maritime traffic to Iranian ports after a peace deal.
2. All US naval ships have left the region following the lifting of the blockade.
3. The peace deal was signed on the sidelines of the G7 Summit 2026 in France.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as CENTCOM announced the lifting of the blockade. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article says 'Our great Naval Ships will remain in the general area'. Statement 3 is correct as the peace deal was signed on the sidelines of the G7 Summit 2026 in France. Hence option C is correct.
Where was the US-Iran peace deal signed according to the article?
- A.At the G7 Summit 2026 in France✓ Correct Answer
- B.At the United Nations Headquarters in New York
- C.At the White House in Washington
- D.At the Strait of Hormuz
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Explanation
The article states: 'the United States and Iran signed a landmark peace deal on the sidelines of the G7 Summit 2026 in France'. This is a direct factual detail. The other options are plausible distractors but not supported by the article.
According to the CENTCOM statement, why will US naval ships remain in the area after the blockade is lifted?
- A.To ensure compliance with the peace agreement✓ Correct Answer
- B.To patrol against Somali pirates
- C.To protect Israeli oil tankers
- D.To monitor military exercises by Iran
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Explanation
The article quotes CENTCOM: 'Our great Naval Ships will remain in the general area to make sure that all aspects of the agreement are adhered to, obeyed and in full force and effect.' Compliance monitoring is the stated purpose, not piracy or other reasons.
Related Current Affairs Resources
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For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
- Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
- Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
- Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.
Frequently Asked Questions
What are the important current affairs questions for 19 June 2026?▼
This page contains 124 current affairs questions from 19 June 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 19 June 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
- Q1. provision of the Constitution was primarily used by the Suprem…
- Q2. Consider the following statements: 1. The Supreme Court decla…
- Q3. specific incident led to the Supreme Court's judgment on the r…
- Q4. is the primary reason the Supreme Court rejected the Motor Veh…
- Q5. ministry is primarily responsible for releasing the new series…
- Q6. Consider the following statements regarding India's recent sta…
- Q7. is the new base year for the Consumer Price Index (CPI) releas…
- Q8. is the primary objective of introducing the Producer Price Ind…
- Q9. international organization is responsible for notifying non-ta…
- Q10. Consider the following statements regarding non-tariff barrier…
- Q11. According to the article, what percentage of global trade is c…
- Q12. is the primary reason for India's low FTA utilisation rate of …
- Q13. trade union filed the public interest petition on minimum wage…
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
- Q15. According to the PLFS data for 2024-25 mentioned in the news, …
- Q16. is a major concern raised by scholars regarding the Supreme Co…
- Q17. institution issued the ruling recognizing homemakers' domestic…
- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q19. According to the Supreme Court ruling, what is the minimum mon…
- Q20. is the primary criticism of the Supreme Court's ruling on home…
- Q21. international organization officially declared a 'loss of cont…
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the US-Iran MoU (2…
- Q23. According to the article, what is the estimated potential annu…
- Q24. Why is Clause 2 of the MoU (no interference in internal affair…
- Q25. Indian jurist was elected as a Judge of the International Trib…
- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the International …
- Q27. In which year was the United Nations Convention on the Law of …
- Q28. of the following disputes is NOT within the jurisdiction of th…
- Q29. strategic waterway is mentioned in the news as being reopened …
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the US-Iran interi…
- Q31. is the amount of the reconstruction fund that the US will faci…
- Q32. is the primary objective of the interim deal between the US an…
- Q33. ministry is responsible for the proposed dedicated logistics n…
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding fly ash management…
- Q35. According to NTPC (2025) data, what percentage of fly ash gene…
- Q36. is the primary environmental benefit of Indian Railways' dedic…
- Q37. institution is responsible for setting the federal funds rate …
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the US Fed's June …
- Q39. According to the article, what was the retail inflation rate i…
- Q40. is the primary channel through which higher US interest rates …
- Q41. section of the Information Technology Act, 2000 was used by th…
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi High Cou…
- Q43. Until what date was the temporary blocking of Telegram ordered…
- Q44. was the primary reason cited by the government for blocking Te…
- Q45. industry body opposed the Delhi government's proposed ban on n…
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding Delhi's EV Policy …
- Q47. is the maximum purchase incentive offered for an electric two-…
- Q48. is the primary objective of the Delhi government's proposed tw…
- Q49. organization is responsible for designing the indigenously bui…
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the three naval sh…
- Q51. is the percentage of indigenous content in the construction of…
- Q52. is the primary strategic objective of commissioning these thre…
- Q53. office issued the statement regarding the PM-VBRY incentive di…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding PM-VBRY: 1. The s…
- Q55. many youth have completed six months in their first job under …
- Q56. is the primary objective of the PM-VBRY scheme?
- Q57. ministry is primarily responsible for conducting the National …
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the NFHS-6 report:…
- Q59. According to the NFHS-6 report, what percentage of children ag…
- Q60. is the primary reason cited in the article for the persistent …
- Q61. government body is primarily responsible for implementing the …
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the government’s r…
- Q63. According to the article, how many children died globally due …
- Q64. is the primary limitation of the government’s new prescription…
- Q65. ministry is primarily responsible for negotiating and signing …
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding PM Modi's visit to…
- Q67. many agreements were signed between India and Slovakia during …
- Q68. is the primary diplomatic significance of PM Modi's visit to S…
- Q69. ministry/department is primarily responsible for the collectio…
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the direct tax mop…
- Q71. According to the government data released on June 18, 2026, wh…
- Q72. does the strong growth in advance tax payments primarily indic…
- Q73. ministry/department is primarily responsible for controlling t…
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the Maharashtra go…
- Q75. many iron ore mines is the Maharashtra government seeking to g…
- Q76. is the primary objective of the Maharashtra government's propo…
- Q77. international organization is mentioned in the article as bein…
- Q78. Consider the following statements: 1. Iran's Supreme Leader M…
- Q79. According to the article, how many barrels of oil passed throu…
- Q80. is the primary significance of the Strait of Hormuz reopening …
- Q81. ministry is primarily responsible for deploying officers and i…
- Q82. Consider the following statements regarding VB-G RAM G: 1. Th…
- Q83. percentage of active workers have completed e-KYC under the VB…
- Q84. is the primary objective of the VB-G RAM G Act as described in…
- Q85. agency/agencies are being empowered by the Kerala government t…
- Q86. Consider the following statements: 1. The Kerala government w…
- Q87. is the total budget allocation for the Survey Department under…
- Q88. is the primary objective of the 'Kerala Geo-Spatial Governance…
- Q89. of the following is a key reform proposed by the New Education…
- Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the implementation…
- Q91. In which year was the New Education Policy (NEP) launched, acc…
- Q92. is the primary reason cited in the article for the non-impleme…
- Q93. body is being overhauled by an expert committee as announced i…
- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the Kerala Revised…
- Q95. According to the Kerala Revised Budget 2026-27, what is the ne…
- Q96. is the primary objective of the 'Land Reforms 2.0' initiative …
- Q97. country was to host the US-Iran peace talks mentioned in the n…
- Q98. Consider the following statements: 1. US Vice President JD Va…
- Q99. On what date were the US-Iran talks originally planned?
- Q100. is the most likely consequence of the cancellation of US-Iran …
- Q101. international organization is responsible for supervising the …
- Q102. Consider the following statements regarding downblending: 1. …
- Q103. is the natural concentration of uranium-235 in uranium ore?
- Q104. Why is the conversion of downblended uranium from UF6 to UO2 c…
- Q105. presented the Revised Kerala Budget 2026-27 as per the news?
- Q106. Consider the following statements regarding Kerala's maritime …
- Q107. is the allocation for the Southern Kerala Economic Corridor as…
- Q108. is the primary objective of the 'Port City' vision outlined in…
- Q109. Act contains Section 69A, which empowers the government to blo…
- Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi High Cou…
- Q111. was the date for the NEET-UG re-exam that led to the temporary…
- Q112. was the primary reason cited by the government for imposing a …
- Q113. Constitutional Amendment introduced the Economically Weaker Se…
- Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the EWS quota in U…
- Q115. According to the Indian Express investigation, how many of the…
- Q116. is the primary implication of the investigation's findings reg…
- Q117. organization acts as the Secretariat of the Bonn Challenge?
- Q118. Consider the following statements regarding India's land resto…
- Q119. was the Bonn Challenge's restoration target by the year 2020?
- Q120. is the primary objective of the Bonn Challenge?
- Q121. US military command announced the lifting of the maritime bloc…
- Q122. Consider the following statements: 1. The US lifted its block…
- Q123. was the US-Iran peace deal signed according to the article?
- Q124. According to the CENTCOM statement, why will US naval ships re…