17 June 2026, Questions & Answers

164 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

164 questions  ·  0 topics covered  ·  33 min revision

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This page contains 164 current affairs questions with answers from 17 June 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

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17 June 2026, Questions with Answers

164 Qs
Q1.

The leaked 14-point MoU between the US and Iran is a successor to which earlier nuclear agreement from which the US unilaterally withdrew in 2018?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)
  • B.Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START)
  • C.Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The 2015 JCPOA was the landmark nuclear deal between Iran and the P5+1. The US withdrew from it in 2018 under President Trump. The current 2026 MoU is a new framework to replace it.

Source: US-Iran 14-Point MoU: Iran Pledges No Nuke, US to Lift Sanctions, Unfreeze $300 Billion →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding the leaked US-Iran MoU:

1. Iran has pledged never to produce nuclear weapons.

2. The US has committed to lifting all sanctions immediately upon signing the MoU.

3. The final agreement is to be approved through a binding resolution of the UN Security Council.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Iran explicitly pledges to never produce nuclear weapons. Statement 2 is incorrect: The US will lift sanctions on oil, petrochemicals, and banking during the negotiation period, but commits to lifting all sanctions only as part of a final agreement, not immediately. Statement 3 is correct: Both sides have agreed the final deal will be approved by a binding UNSC resolution.

Source: US-Iran 14-Point MoU: Iran Pledges No Nuke, US to Lift Sanctions, Unfreeze $300 Billion →
Q3.

According to the leaked MoU text, what is the proposed timeline for the US and Iran to reach a final nuclear agreement after the MoU is signed?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.30 days
  • B.60 days✓ Correct Answer
  • C.90 days
  • D.120 days
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that once the MoU is signed, negotiations on core issues like Iran's nuclear programme would start, with a goal to reach a final agreement within 60 days, 'extendable by mutual consent'.

Source: US-Iran 14-Point MoU: Iran Pledges No Nuke, US to Lift Sanctions, Unfreeze $300 Billion →
Q4.

What is the primary strategic implication of the US agreeing to lift sanctions on Iranian crude oil and petrochemicals during the negotiation period?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.It will immediately reduce global oil prices by 50%.
  • B.It allows Iran to resume significant oil exports, impacting global energy markets and reducing supply-side pressures.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It grants Iran permanent exemption from all future US sanctions.
  • D.It forces OPEC to dissolve its production quotas.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Iran has one of the world's largest oil reserves. Lifting sanctions on its crude oil sales during negotiations would allow it to re-enter global markets, increasing supply and potentially lowering prices, which has significant geopolitical and economic implications.

Source: US-Iran 14-Point MoU: Iran Pledges No Nuke, US to Lift Sanctions, Unfreeze $300 Billion →
Q5.

Which organisation is responsible for registering beneficiaries under the PM Viksit Bharat Udyog Yojana?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.A. Ministry of Labour and Employment
  • B.B. Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.C. Employees' State Insurance Corporation (ESIC)
  • D.D. National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The scheme specifically mentions that beneficiaries must be registered with the Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO). EPFO is a statutory body under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, but the question asks for the organisation directly responsible for registration, which is EPFO itself.

Source: PM Viksit Bharat Udyog Yojana: ₹1 Lakh Cr Outlay, 3.5 Cr Jobs Target for First-Time Workers →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding the PM Viksit Bharat Udyog Yojana:

1. The scheme provides a total incentive of ₹15,000 to first-time private sector workers, paid in two instalments after 6 and 12 months of employment.

2. Employers are provided a subsidy of ₹3,000 per month for each new employee, irrespective of the employee's salary.

3. The scheme was originally named Employment Related Incentive Scheme and was renamed on August 1, 2025.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: ₹15,000 in two instalments after 6 and 12 months. Statement 2 is incorrect because the employer subsidy of ₹3,000 per month per new employee is not 'irrespective of salary' – it is part of the scheme for job creation, but the article does not mention any unconditional nature; also the employee salary cap is ₹1 lakh, so the subsidy likely applies only for eligible employees. Statement 3 is correct: the scheme was renamed on August 1, 2025. Hence option C is correct.

Source: PM Viksit Bharat Udyog Yojana: ₹1 Lakh Cr Outlay, 3.5 Cr Jobs Target for First-Time Workers →
Q7.

According to the news article, what is the total outlay of the PM Viksit Bharat Udyog Yojana?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.A. ₹50,000 crore
  • B.B. ₹1 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.C. ₹1.5 lakh crore
  • D.D. ₹75,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'an outlay of ₹1 lakh crore' for the scheme. The other figures are plausible distractors often seen in other government schemes.

Source: PM Viksit Bharat Udyog Yojana: ₹1 Lakh Cr Outlay, 3.5 Cr Jobs Target for First-Time Workers →
Q8.

What is the primary objective of the PM Viksit Bharat Udyog Yojana?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.A. To provide free skill training to unemployed youth
  • B.B. To increase job opportunities in the private sector for first-time workers✓ Correct Answer
  • C.C. To give direct cash transfers to all poor families
  • D.D. To promote self-employment through startup loans
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The scheme is specifically designed as a job creation scheme to increase employment opportunities in the private sector for first-time workers, as stated in the article. It provides direct incentives to both workers and employers to encourage formal hiring.

Source: PM Viksit Bharat Udyog Yojana: ₹1 Lakh Cr Outlay, 3.5 Cr Jobs Target for First-Time Workers →
Q9.

Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the anti-defection law?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Sixth Schedule
  • B.Seventh Schedule
  • C.Ninth Schedule
  • D.Tenth Schedule✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Tenth Schedule was added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment in 1985 and contains provisions for disqualification of members on grounds of defection.

Source: Tenth Schedule Merger Loophole: Two-Thirds Rule Exploited; SC Recommends Independent Tribunal for Disqualification →
Q10.

Consider the following statements regarding the merger provision under the Tenth Schedule:

1. The split provision (Paragraph 3) allowing a one-third split was omitted in 2003.

2. Under Paragraph 4, a merger is valid if approved by two-thirds of the political party.

3. The authority to decide disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is vested in the Speaker or Chairman of the House.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Paragraph 3 was omitted in 2003. Statement 2 is incorrect: Paragraph 4 requires approval by two-thirds of the legislature party, not the political party. Statement 3 is correct: The Speaker/Chairman decides disqualification as per the article.

Source: Tenth Schedule Merger Loophole: Two-Thirds Rule Exploited; SC Recommends Independent Tribunal for Disqualification →
Q11.

In which year was the split provision (Paragraph 3) of the Tenth Schedule deleted?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.1985
  • B.2003✓ Correct Answer
  • C.2022
  • D.2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'paragraph 3 was omitted in 2003' to strengthen the anti-defection law.

Source: Tenth Schedule Merger Loophole: Two-Thirds Rule Exploited; SC Recommends Independent Tribunal for Disqualification →
Q12.

What did the Supreme Court recommend in the K.M. Singh case (2020) regarding disqualification under the Tenth Schedule?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To abolish the Tenth Schedule entirely
  • B.To vest the power of disqualification with the Election Commission
  • C.To amend the Constitution and establish an independent tribunal headed by judges✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To delete Paragraph 4 of the Tenth Schedule
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Supreme Court in K.M. Singh case recommended that Parliament amend the Constitution to vest these powers in an independent tribunal headed by judges, to ensure impartiality.

Source: Tenth Schedule Merger Loophole: Two-Thirds Rule Exploited; SC Recommends Independent Tribunal for Disqualification →
Q13.

Which country helped mediate the investment fund deal between the US and Iran?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.India
  • B.Pakistan✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Saudi Arabia
  • D.United Arab Emirates
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that 'Pakistan's foreign ministry, which helped mediate the investment fund deal'. Pakistan acted as a mediator between the US and Iran for this specific fund.

Source: US-Iran Deal Creates $300 Billion Reconstruction Fund with Over Half Committed for Post-War Iran →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding the US-Iran Reconstruction and Development Fund:

1. It is a private investment vehicle, not a government aid program.

2. The fund includes $400 billion in US government compensation for war damages.

3. The fund will only become operational after a final deal is signed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the source said the fund is a 'private investment vehicle' with no government money. Statement 2 is incorrect: Iran originally sought $400 billion compensation, but the US refused; the fund is $300 billion private money, not government compensation. Statement 3 is correct: the article states the fund 'will not be created or become operational until a final and satisfactory deal is concluded'.

Source: US-Iran Deal Creates $300 Billion Reconstruction Fund with Over Half Committed for Post-War Iran →
Q15.

What is the total size of the investment fund outlined in the US-Iran framework agreement?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$200 billion
  • B.$300 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$400 billion
  • D.$500 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states 'A $300 billion private fund designed to trigger investment into Iran'. The $400 billion figure was Iran's original demand for war compensation, not the fund size.

Source: US-Iran Deal Creates $300 Billion Reconstruction Fund with Over Half Committed for Post-War Iran →
Q16.

What is the primary purpose of the Reconstruction and Development Fund as described in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To provide war reparations to Iran from the US government
  • B.To trigger private investment into Iran for post-war reconstruction✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To fund Iran's nuclear programme under international supervision
  • D.To lift all US sanctions against Iran immediately
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article describes the fund as 'designed to trigger investment into Iran' and 'give both sides an economic incentive to conclude a final deal'. It is explicitly not a reconstruction or reparations program and does not involve government money. Sanctions lifting is a separate track.

Source: US-Iran Deal Creates $300 Billion Reconstruction Fund with Over Half Committed for Post-War Iran →
Q17.

Which EU body is responsible for proposing and implementing trade agreements on behalf of the European Union?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.European Parliament
  • B.European Council
  • C.European Commission✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Court of Justice of the European Union
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The European Commission is the executive branch of the EU that proposes legislation, including trade agreements, and manages international trade negotiations. The European Council sets overall political direction, while the Parliament provides democratic oversight and approval.

Source: India-EU Free Trade Agreement to be Signed by End of 2026; Defence Cooperation Stepped Up →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-EU FTA:

1. The India-EU Free Trade Agreement will be signed by the end of 2026.

2. The negotiations for the FTA were concluded at the G7 summit in France.

3. The agreement also includes a commitment to advance the India-Middle East-Europe Corridor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per von der Leyen's announcement. Statement 2 is incorrect because the negotiations were concluded at the India-EU summit in New Delhi in January 2026, not at the G7 summit. Statement 3 is correct as the leaders agreed to advance IMEC.

Source: India-EU Free Trade Agreement to be Signed by End of 2026; Defence Cooperation Stepped Up →
Q19.

By when will the India-EU Free Trade Agreement be signed, as announced by European Commission President Ursula von der Leyen?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.By the end of 2025
  • B.By the end of 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.By mid-2027
  • D.By the end of 2027
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Ursula von der Leyen explicitly stated, "We will sign the Free Trade Agreement by the end of the year," referring to 2026. The other options are close distractors; 2025 is too early, while 2027 is not mentioned in the article.

Source: India-EU Free Trade Agreement to be Signed by End of 2026; Defence Cooperation Stepped Up →
Q20.

What is the primary strategic objective of advancing the India-Middle East-Europe Corridor (IMEC) alongside the FTA?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce trade barriers with the Middle East only
  • B.To create an alternative trade route reducing dependence on China-centric supply chains✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To increase India's exports of agricultural products to Europe
  • D.To replace the existing India-EU trade route through the Suez Canal
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

IMEC is a strategic initiative to build a new connectivity corridor linking India to Europe via the Middle East, reducing reliance on routes through China (BRI) or the Suez Canal. While it may boost exports and offer an alternative route, its core objective is strategic diversification and supply chain resilience.

Source: India-EU Free Trade Agreement to be Signed by End of 2026; Defence Cooperation Stepped Up →
Q21.

Which group of countries held the summit in Evian-les-Bains, France in June 2026?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.G7✓ Correct Answer
  • B.G20
  • C.NATO
  • D.BRICS
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions G7 leaders meeting in Evian-les-Bains. G7 includes Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, UK, and US. G20 is larger, NATO is military alliance, BRICS includes Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa.

Source: G7 Summit 2026: Leaders Back Ukraine, Plan Russia Sanctions, Welcome US-Iran Peace Deal →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding the 2026 G7 Summit:

1. G7 leaders agreed to increase sanctions on Russia.

2. The US-Iran peace deal was signed on the last day of the summit.

3. Discussions on critical minerals aimed at reducing reliance on China.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: leaders agreed to increase sanctions on Russia. Statement 2 is incorrect: the preliminary deal was signed on the eve of the summit (June 16), not the last day. Statement 3 is correct: critical minerals were discussed to reduce dependence on China. Hence option C is correct.

Source: G7 Summit 2026: Leaders Back Ukraine, Plan Russia Sanctions, Welcome US-Iran Peace Deal →
Q23.

What was the EU's trade deficit with China recorded in 2025?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.€300 billion
  • B.€360 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.€400 billion
  • D.€250 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the EU recorded its largest-ever trade deficit with China of over €360 billion in 2025. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Source: G7 Summit 2026: Leaders Back Ukraine, Plan Russia Sanctions, Welcome US-Iran Peace Deal →
Q24.

Why did G7 leaders discuss critical minerals at the 2026 summit?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce dependence on China for energy, defence and technology supply chains✓ Correct Answer
  • B.To increase exports of rare earths to China
  • C.To impose sanctions on Chinese mineral imports
  • D.To negotiate a free trade agreement with China
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that China's export curbs in 2025 highlighted Western reliance on rare earths. G7 aims to diversify supply chains and shield investors from counter-measures, reflecting a strategic push for economic sovereignty.

Source: G7 Summit 2026: Leaders Back Ukraine, Plan Russia Sanctions, Welcome US-Iran Peace Deal →
Q25.

Which species of Plasmodium is responsible for the majority of severe and fatal malaria infections?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Plasmodium vivax
  • B.Plasmodium ovale
  • C.Plasmodium malariae
  • D.Plasmodium falciparum✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

According to the article, P. falciparum remains responsible for most severe and fatal infections. P. vivax is less deadly but causes relapses via hypnozoites.

Source: India's Malaria Cases Drop 68%, Artemisinin Resistance Threatens 2030 Elimination Target →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding drug-resistant malaria:

1. Partial resistance to artemisinin is linked to mutations in the kelch13 (K13) gene of Plasmodium falciparum.

2. Artemisinin-based combination therapies (ACTs) have been discontinued by WHO as first-line treatment due to resistance.

3. India currently accounts for about 1.4% of the global malaria burden.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as K13 mutations are linked to artemisinin resistance. Statement 2 is incorrect — ACTs continue to be recommended by WHO and India's guidelines as first-line treatment. Statement 3 is correct (1.4% global burden). Hence option C is correct.

Source: India's Malaria Cases Drop 68%, Artemisinin Resistance Threatens 2030 Elimination Target →
Q27.

By what percentage did malaria-related deaths in India decline between 2017 and 2023?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.58%
  • B.68%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.78%
  • D.88%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that malaria-related deaths declined by about 68% during the period from 2017 to 2023. The other options are close distractors.

Source: India's Malaria Cases Drop 68%, Artemisinin Resistance Threatens 2030 Elimination Target →
Q28.

Why does Plasmodium vivax pose a unique challenge for malaria elimination despite being less deadly than P. falciparum?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It is resistant to all antimalarial drugs.
  • B.It has a dormant liver stage (hypnozoites) that causes relapses.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It is transmitted by a different mosquito species.
  • D.It cannot be diagnosed by rapid tests.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that P. vivax 'relapses and continues silently seeding transmission' due to hypnozoites. Primaquine is used to target these dormant forms. This makes elimination difficult even if acute infections are treated.

Source: India's Malaria Cases Drop 68%, Artemisinin Resistance Threatens 2030 Elimination Target →
Q29.

Which international agency published the monthly report that revealed OECD oil stocks had fallen to their lowest level since 1990?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.OPEC (Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries)
  • B.IEA (International Energy Agency)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.IMF (International Monetary Fund)
  • D.World Bank
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states the IEA said in its monthly report that OECD oil stocks fell to their lowest level since 1990. OPEC is a producers' cartel, while the IEA represents consumer countries and coordinates emergency stock releases.

Source: OECD Oil Stocks Plunge to Lowest Since 1990; IEA Releases 252 Million Barrels From Emergency Reserves →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding the IEA's report on oil stocks:

1. OECD oil inventories in May 2026 fell to their lowest level since 1990.

2. The total drawdown of OECD oil stocks since the start of the West Asia conflict is 252 million barrels.

3. The IEA expects global oil demand to decline by 1.1 million barrels per day in 2026 compared to 2025.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says inventories fell to the lowest level since 1990. Statement 2 is incorrect: the drawdown since the conflict started is 163 million barrels, not 252 million (252 million is the amount released from emergency stocks as of June 12). Statement 3 is correct: the article states an expected decline of 1.1 million barrels a day compared to 2025 levels.

Source: OECD Oil Stocks Plunge to Lowest Since 1990; IEA Releases 252 Million Barrels From Emergency Reserves →
Q31.

According to the article, what was the total volume of emergency oil stocks the IEA had organised to release to the global market to offset supply disruption?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.163 million barrels
  • B.252 million barrels
  • C.400 million barrels✓ Correct Answer
  • D.500 million barrels
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'the IEA organised coordinated stock releases of 400 million barrels to the global market'. 163 million barrels is the total drawdown since the conflict started, and 252 million barrels is the amount already released as of June 12. 500 million is not mentioned.

Source: OECD Oil Stocks Plunge to Lowest Since 1990; IEA Releases 252 Million Barrels From Emergency Reserves →
Q32.

What was the primary factor leading to the depletion of OECD oil stocks according to the IEA report?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Increase in global oil demand from developing countries
  • B.Decision by OPEC+ to cut production quotas
  • C.Closure of the Strait of Hormuz due to the West Asia conflict disrupting Gulf crude shipments✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Conversion of oil refineries to produce alternative fuels
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly says countries drew down stocks 'to offset the blockage of Gulf crude shipments during the West Asia conflict'. The Strait of Hormuz is a critical chokepoint; its effective closure reduced crude availability, forcing emergency stock releases. Options A, B, and D are not supported by the text.

Source: OECD Oil Stocks Plunge to Lowest Since 1990; IEA Releases 252 Million Barrels From Emergency Reserves →
Q33.

Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the appointment of judges to the Supreme Court?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 124✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Article 217
  • C.Article 226
  • D.Article 32
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 124 of the Indian Constitution establishes the Supreme Court and provides for the appointment of its judges by the President. Article 217 deals with High Court judges, Article 226 with writ jurisdiction of High Courts, and Article 32 with the right to constitutional remedies.

Source: Justice V Mohana Appointed 2nd Woman Directly from Bar to SC, Women Representation at 5.4% →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of judges to the Supreme Court:

1. Justice Indu Malhotra was the first woman judge directly elevated from the Bar to the Supreme Court.

2. Justice V Mohana is the third woman judge to be directly appointed from the Bar to the Supreme Court.

3. Currently, women constitute 5.4% of the judges in the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Justice Indu Malhotra (2018) was the first woman directly from the Bar to the SC. Statement 2 is incorrect: Justice V Mohana is the second such woman judge. Statement 3 is correct: With 2 women out of 37 judges, women's representation is 5.4%.

Source: Justice V Mohana Appointed 2nd Woman Directly from Bar to SC, Women Representation at 5.4% →
Q35.

According to the article, what is the percentage of women judges in the Supreme Court of India after the appointment of Justice V Mohana?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.2.7%
  • B.5.4%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.10.8%
  • D.33.3%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that even with the appointment of Justice Mohana, the percentage of women in the Supreme Court is a woeful 5.4%, with only two women judges out of 37. 33.3% is the proposed target, not the current figure.

Source: Justice V Mohana Appointed 2nd Woman Directly from Bar to SC, Women Representation at 5.4% →
Q36.

What is the primary recommendation made in the article to improve gender representation in the Supreme Court of India?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Increase the retirement age of women judges
  • B.Amend Articles 124 and 217 to mandate gender and caste composition in appointments✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Reserve all future appointments for women until parity is achieved
  • D.Appoint more women judges from the lower judiciary
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly recommends an amendment to Articles 124 and 217 of the Constitution to direct that appointments to the SC and HCs should reflect the gender and caste composition of the country. Until then, it suggests a written policy for 33.3% women on the Court.

Source: Justice V Mohana Appointed 2nd Woman Directly from Bar to SC, Women Representation at 5.4% →
Q37.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for the Indian Statistical Institute (ISI)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Education
  • B.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Science and Technology
  • D.Ministry of Finance
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

ISI is a national institute under the administrative control of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), as established by the ISI Act of 1959.

Source: Draft ISI Bill 2026 Proposes 11-Member Board, AI Mandate to Revive Statistical Institute →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding the Draft ISI Bill 2026:

1. It proposes an 11-member Board of Governance with balanced internal and external representation.

2. It grants administrative and financial autonomy to regional centres in Delhi, Bengaluru, Chennai, and Tezpur.

3. It reduces the student intake of ISI to 550-600 per year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Bill proposes an 11-member Board. Statement 2 is correct: regional centres get real autonomy. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article states ISI currently admits 550-600 students/year; the Bill aims to increase this, not reduce it.

Source: Draft ISI Bill 2026 Proposes 11-Member Board, AI Mandate to Revive Statistical Institute →
Q39.

How many members does the current Governing Council of ISI have, according to the article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.11
  • B.17
  • C.33✓ Correct Answer
  • D.1000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the Governing Council had grown to 33 members, 17 of whom are effectively insiders. The proposed Board has 11 members. The General Body has over 1,000 members.

Source: Draft ISI Bill 2026 Proposes 11-Member Board, AI Mandate to Revive Statistical Institute →
Q40.

What is the primary governance problem that the Draft ISI Bill 2026 aims to solve?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lack of qualified faculty in statistics
  • B.Inadequate funding for research
  • C.A calcified governance structure with a large council and procedural veto blocking reforms✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Decline in student enrollment due to competition from IITs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article identifies governance calcification as the core issue: a 33-member council and 1,000+ member General Body with veto power blocked reform for decades. The Bill addresses this by proposing a compact 11-member Board and body corporate status.

Source: Draft ISI Bill 2026 Proposes 11-Member Board, AI Mandate to Revive Statistical Institute →
Q41.

Which ministry issued the blocking order against Telegram in India over the NEET paper leak investigation?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Testing Agency
  • D.Department of Telecommunications
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) carried out the action under Section 69A of the IT Act at the request of the National Testing Agency (NTA). NTA requested the block, but the final authority to issue the blocking order rested with MeitY.

Source: Telegram Banned Under Section 69A: Two-Track Blocking, IT Rules 2021 & Age-Based Social Media Proposals →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding the legal framework for blocking apps in India:

1. Section 69A of the IT Act empowers the government to block content for reasons of national security and public order.

2. Section 79 of the IT Act grants platforms immunity from all liability for user-generated content without any conditions.

3. Under the IT Rules 2021, messaging apps must enable first-originator tracing to identify the first sender of a message.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct per the article: Section 69A triggers when content threatens national security, sovereignty, etc. Statement 2 is false because Section 79 immunity is conditional (platforms must not initiate/select/modify, and must comply with take-down notices). Statement 3 is correct: IT Rules 2021 require messaging apps to trace the first originator. Hence option C is correct.

Source: Telegram Banned Under Section 69A: Two-Track Blocking, IT Rules 2021 & Age-Based Social Media Proposals →
Q43.

According to the news article, how many active users does Telegram have in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.500 million
  • B.150 million✓ Correct Answer
  • C.200 million
  • D.100 million
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Telegram has an estimated 150 million users in India, second only to WhatsApp which has over 500 million. This data point is directly testable in prelims.

Source: Telegram Banned Under Section 69A: Two-Track Blocking, IT Rules 2021 & Age-Based Social Media Proposals →
Q44.

What was the primary reason cited by the MeitY for blocking Telegram until June 22, 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Telegram failed to appoint a Grievance Officer under IT Rules 2021
  • B.Telegram was non-responsive in aiding the NEET paper leak investigation✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Telegram was used to spread misinformation about government policies
  • D.Telegram violated data localization requirements
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that MeitY blocked Telegram at NTA's request citing its alleged 'non-responsiveness' in aiding the investigation into the May 3 NEET paper leak. The action was also to curb false claims about the June 21 re-test paper. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Source: Telegram Banned Under Section 69A: Two-Track Blocking, IT Rules 2021 & Age-Based Social Media Proposals →
Q45.

Which ministry is responsible for issuing blocking orders under Section 69A of the Information Technology Act, 2000?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • D.Ministry of Communications
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Section 69A of the IT Act empowers the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) to issue blocking orders in the interest of national security, sovereignty, or public order. The Home Ministry-led Sahyog portal operates under Section 79(3)(b) for direct blocking orders.

Source: G7 Summit: PM Modi Flags Trust Deficit; India-UK FTA Steel Quota Row; Telegram Banned Over NEET Leak →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding the G7:

1. The G7 is a formal grouping of seven advanced economies with a permanent secretariat.

2. India is a regular invitee to the G7 summits and has attended 13 times.

3. The G7 countries together represent about 40% of global GDP.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the G7 is an informal grouping with no legal existence, permanent secretariat, or binding decisions. Statement 2 is correct as India has been invited 13 times, with PM Modi attending 7 in a row since 2019. Statement 3 is correct as G7 countries represent 40% of global GDP and 10% of the world's population.

Source: G7 Summit: PM Modi Flags Trust Deficit; India-UK FTA Steel Quota Row; Telegram Banned Over NEET Leak →
Q47.

What is the estimated number of Telegram users in India as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.50 million
  • B.100 million
  • C.150 million✓ Correct Answer
  • D.200 million
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Telegram has an estimated 150 million users in India, making it the second most popular messaging app after WhatsApp (over 500 million users). This data point is important for understanding the scale of the ban's impact.

Source: G7 Summit: PM Modi Flags Trust Deficit; India-UK FTA Steel Quota Row; Telegram Banned Over NEET Leak →
Q48.

What is the primary objective of the Multi-Lane Free Flow (MLFF) tolling system being implemented by NHAI?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase toll revenue by reducing exemptions
  • B.To eliminate the need for FASTag and RFID technology
  • C.To enable barrier-less toll collection without vehicles stopping✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To replace all toll plazas with manual collection booths
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The MLFF system uses high-performance RFID readers and ANPR cameras to read FASTag and Vehicle Registration Numbers, deducting toll automatically without boom barriers. This reduces congestion, fuel consumption, and travel time. It is currently operational at Choryasi (Gujarat) and Mundka-Bakkarwala (Delhi).

Source: G7 Summit: PM Modi Flags Trust Deficit; India-UK FTA Steel Quota Row; Telegram Banned Over NEET Leak →
Q49.

Which organization is the executive body of the European Union that is leading the FTA negotiations with India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.European Council
  • B.European Parliament
  • C.European Commission✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Council of the European Union
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The European Commission is the EU's executive arm, responsible for proposing and implementing legislation, including trade negotiations. The European Council sets overall political direction, while the Parliament and Council of Ministers approve legislation.

Source: EU-India FTA to be Signed by End of 2026, IMEC Corridor & Strategic Partnership Accelerated →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-EU Free Trade Agreement:

1. The FTA negotiations were concluded at the 16th India-EU Summit held in January 2026.

2. The FTA will be signed by the end of 2026, as per the European Commission President.

3. The FTA is primarily focused on security and defence cooperation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the 16th India-EU Summit in January 2026 concluded the FTA negotiations. Statement 2 is correct: the signing is scheduled for end of 2026. Statement 3 is incorrect because the FTA is primarily about trade and investment, while security and defence cooperation is a separate area mentioned alongside.

Source: EU-India FTA to be Signed by End of 2026, IMEC Corridor & Strategic Partnership Accelerated →
Q51.

By what year is the India-EU Free Trade Agreement scheduled to be signed?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.2025
  • B.2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.2027
  • D.2028
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The European Commission President explicitly stated that the FTA will be signed by the end of 2026. The other options are close distractors: 2025 is too early (negotiations concluded in early 2026), while 2027 and 2028 are later than the announced timeline.

Source: EU-India FTA to be Signed by End of 2026, IMEC Corridor & Strategic Partnership Accelerated →
Q52.

What is the primary strategic objective of the India-EU Free Trade Agreement in the current geopolitical context?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase military cooperation between India and the EU
  • B.To diversify global supply chains and reduce dependence on China✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To establish a common currency for India and the EU
  • D.To create a single market for agricultural products
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions 'diversification of supply chains, particularly in the current turbulent geopolitical context' as a key objective. The FTA aims to reduce reliance on single sources (like China) by opening up alternative trade and investment routes, especially through the IMEC corridor.

Source: EU-India FTA to be Signed by End of 2026, IMEC Corridor & Strategic Partnership Accelerated →
Q53.

Which strait, critical for global oil shipments, is mentioned in the U.S.-Iran deal as being opened unconditionally?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Strait of Malacca
  • B.Strait of Hormuz✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Strait of Gibraltar
  • D.Strait of Bab-el-Mandeb
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the deal 'opens up Hormuz Strait unconditionally'. The Strait of Hormuz is a key geopolitical choke point between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman.

Source: U.S.-Iran Ceasefire Deal Opens Hormuz Strait, Lifts Oil Sanctions Under 60-Day Nuclear Talks →
Q54.

Consider the following statements regarding the U.S.-Iran deal discussed in the article:

1. The deal commits Iran not to produce nuclear weapons and lifts Iranian oil sanctions.

2. Negotiations to suspend Iran's nuclear enrichment will take place over a period of 90 days.

3. The deal is described as a repackaged version of the Obama-era 2016 Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the deal 'halts the war... lifts Iranian oil sanctions... commits Iran not to produce nuclear weapons'. Statement 2 is incorrect: negotiations are over '60 days', not 90. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article says negotiations will occur 'without being dubbed a repackaged Obama-era 2016 JCPOA'.

Source: U.S.-Iran Ceasefire Deal Opens Hormuz Strait, Lifts Oil Sanctions Under 60-Day Nuclear Talks →
Q55.

According to the article, over what time period will negotiations to commit Iran to suspend nuclear enrichment take place?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.30 days
  • B.60 days✓ Correct Answer
  • C.90 days
  • D.120 days
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically mentions: 'Negotiations to commit Iran to suspend nuclear enrichment... will take place over 60 days.' This is a precise data point for factual recall.

Source: U.S.-Iran Ceasefire Deal Opens Hormuz Strait, Lifts Oil Sanctions Under 60-Day Nuclear Talks →
Q56.

What is a key lesson for Gulf countries, as highlighted by the article, following the Iran war and the collapse of U.S. deterrence?

MediumUPSC
  • A.To increase their dependence on the U.S. security umbrella.
  • B.To forge a regional security architecture that brings Iran into the fold.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To accelerate bilateral Abraham Accords with Israel.
  • D.To reduce their involvement in global groupings like BRICS.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'After the collapse of deterrence against Iran, no Gulf country is secure unless it forges a regional security architecture bringing Iran into the fold.' This is the primary implication drawn, contrasting with Europe's mistake of expanding NATO without including Russia.

Source: U.S.-Iran Ceasefire Deal Opens Hormuz Strait, Lifts Oil Sanctions Under 60-Day Nuclear Talks →
Q57.

Which regional intergovernmental union, mentioned as influencing U.S. thinking in the negotiations, consists of six Arab states?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Arab League
  • B.Organization of Islamic Cooperation
  • C.Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Arab Maghreb Union
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the states of the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) significantly influence the thinking at the White House. The GCC is a political and economic union of Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates.

Source: U.S.-Iran MoU Signed on June 14 for 60-Day Ceasefire, $100 Billion Frozen Assets & Hormuz Sovereignty Key Issues →
Q58.

Consider the following statements regarding the U.S.-Iran deal as discussed in the article:

1. The Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was adopted on June 14, 2026, for a cessation of hostilities and a 60-day negotiation period.

2. A key deal-breaker issue for Iran is its demand for the release of over $100 billion in frozen assets.

3. The article suggests that Iran's capacity to block the Strait of Hormuz is seen by some as a more potent deterrence than nuclear ambiguity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's opening. Statement 2 is incorrect; the release of frozen assets is a negotiation point, but the article identifies Iran's nuclear enrichment and sovereignty over the Strait of Hormuz as the 'deal breakers'. Statement 3 is correct, as mentioned in the section 'A more defiant Iran'.

Source: U.S.-Iran MoU Signed on June 14 for 60-Day Ceasefire, $100 Billion Frozen Assets & Hormuz Sovereignty Key Issues →
Q59.

According to the article, what is the estimated direct cumulative cost of Iran's nuclear program?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.$50 billion
  • B.$100 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$200 billion
  • D.$300 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'Its direct cumulative costs are estimated at $100 billion'. The $300 billion figure mentioned elsewhere refers to a proposed reconstruction fund.

Source: U.S.-Iran MoU Signed on June 14 for 60-Day Ceasefire, $100 Billion Frozen Assets & Hormuz Sovereignty Key Issues →
Q60.

What is a primary geopolitical implication of the U.S.-Iran conflicts, as analyzed in the article, for the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) states?

MediumUPSC
  • A.They will strengthen their collective military alliance with the U.S.
  • B.They are likely to reassess their geostrategic alignments and may accommodate Iran individually.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.They will unanimously support a renewed nuclear deal (JCPOA) with Iran.
  • D.They will shift their economic dependence entirely to China and Russia.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the U.S. failure to protect GCC states from Iranian retaliation and its flawed war planning have 'seriously undermined America's credibility as a security provider for the GCC'. Consequently, 'They are likely to reassess their geostrategic alignments... forcing them to accommodate and appease Iran individually.'

Source: U.S.-Iran MoU Signed on June 14 for 60-Day Ceasefire, $100 Billion Frozen Assets & Hormuz Sovereignty Key Issues →
Q61.

Which of the following landmark legislations is credited with restructuring the Indian power sector, as mentioned in the context of its evolution?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Electricity (Supply) Act, 1948
  • B.The Energy Conservation Act, 2001
  • C.The Electricity Act, 2003✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The National Electricity Policy, 2005
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the power sector evolved significantly after the passage of the Electricity Act in 2003. This act is the cornerstone of power sector reforms in India, introducing competition and regulatory oversight.

Source: India's Power Demand Hits 270 GW Peak, Focus Shifts to Quality & Reliability with RDSS and 2047 Target of 4,000 kWh per Capita →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding India's power sector as discussed in the article:

1. The national grid recently managed a peak demand exceeding 270 GW, which is more than 10% higher than the previous year's peak.

2. The Revamped Distribution Sector Scheme (RDSS) allocates a larger share of its funds for smart metering than for loss reduction infrastructure works.

3. The Draft National Electricity Policy 2026 proposes extending the monitoring of reliability indices like SAIDI and SAIFI to the transformer and low-tension network level.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; RDSS allocates 54% for loss reduction and 46% for smart metering. Statement 3 is correct as the article suggests these indices should be extended to the transformer and low-tension network level for accurate consumer experience assessment.

Source: India's Power Demand Hits 270 GW Peak, Focus Shifts to Quality & Reliability with RDSS and 2047 Target of 4,000 kWh per Capita →
Q63.

According to the article, what is the approximate target for India's per capita electricity consumption by the year 2047?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.1,600 kWh
  • B.2,500 kWh
  • C.3,000 kWh
  • D.4,000 kWh✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the 2047 target of approximately 4,000 kWh of per capita electricity consumption, a significant leap from the current level of 1,600 kWh.

Source: India's Power Demand Hits 270 GW Peak, Focus Shifts to Quality & Reliability with RDSS and 2047 Target of 4,000 kWh per Capita →
Q64.

What is identified as a core challenge for Distribution Companies (DISCOMs) that restricts their ability to invest in system upgrades, according to the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lack of technological know-how for smart grids
  • B.Inadequate power generation capacity
  • C.Persistently high Aggregate Technical and Commercial (AT&C) losses✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Over-reliance on variable renewable energy sources
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that high AT&C losses (exceeding 20% in many states) are a key constraint for DISCOMs, restricting their ability to invest in critical upgrades like automated monitoring and timely transformer replacement, thus perpetuating poor service.

Source: India's Power Demand Hits 270 GW Peak, Focus Shifts to Quality & Reliability with RDSS and 2047 Target of 4,000 kWh per Capita →
Q65.

The Strait of Hormuz, a critical chokepoint mentioned in the news, connects which two bodies of water?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Persian Gulf and the Red Sea
  • B.The Gulf of Oman and the Persian Gulf✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Arabian Sea and the Gulf of Aden
  • D.The Mediterranean Sea and the Gulf of Suez
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow channel linking the Gulf of Oman (to the south and east) with the Persian Gulf (to the west). It is a vital global oil transit route, as mentioned in the article regarding blockades.

Source: U.S.-Iran MoU Ends 100-Day War, Lifts Hormuz Blockade, Paves Way for Nuclear Talks After February 28 Offensive →
Q66.

Consider the following statements regarding the U.S.-Iran agreement discussed in the news:

1. The Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was signed after more than 100 days of conflict.

2. The primary objective of the U.S.-Israel war launched in February 2026 was solely to destroy Iran's nuclear facilities.

3. The agreement includes immediate discussions on lifting all Western sanctions on Iran.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the war lasted 'more than 100 days' and ended with an MoU on June 15. Statement 2 is incorrect: The objectives were broader, including regime change, destroying missile capabilities, and ending support for non-state actors. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article says core issues like 'western sanctions' would be discussed in the next phase of negotiations, not immediately.

Source: U.S.-Iran MoU Ends 100-Day War, Lifts Hormuz Blockade, Paves Way for Nuclear Talks After February 28 Offensive →
Q67.

According to the article, on which date did the U.S. and Israel launch their war on Iran?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.January 15, 2026
  • B.February 28, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.March 10, 2026
  • D.April 1, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Israel and the U.S. launched their war on Iran on February 28'. The other dates are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Source: U.S.-Iran MoU Ends 100-Day War, Lifts Hormuz Blockade, Paves Way for Nuclear Talks After February 28 Offensive →
Q68.

What, according to the analysis in the article, was the fundamental strategic mistake made by the U.S. and Israel regarding Iran?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Overestimating the military strength of their regional allies.
  • B.Believing that there was a military solution to the Iranian nuclear issue.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Failing to impose a comprehensive naval blockade from the start.
  • D.Neglecting to involve European powers in the diplomatic process early on.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly states: 'His biggest strategic mistake... was his belief, shared by Israel, that "there was a military solution to the Iranian nuclear issue".' This underestimation of Iran's resolve led to the stalemate and forced a diplomatic turn.

Source: U.S.-Iran MoU Ends 100-Day War, Lifts Hormuz Blockade, Paves Way for Nuclear Talks After February 28 Offensive →
Q69.

Which of the following bodies is primarily responsible for the planning and development of land in Delhi, as mentioned in the context of slum rehabilitation?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Delhi Urban Shelter Improvement Board (DUSIB)
  • B.Delhi Development Authority (DDA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Municipal Corporation of Delhi (MCD)
  • D.New Delhi Municipal Council (NDMC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that 376 slums are on government land under DDA jurisdiction. The DDA is the premier planning authority for Delhi established under the Delhi Development Act, making it the correct answer.

Source: Delhi Slum and JJ Cluster Rehabilitation Policy 2026 Finalized with Jan 1, 2025 Eligibility Cut-off to Benefit 4 Lakh Families →
Q70.

Consider the following statements regarding the new slum rehabilitation policy for Delhi:

1. The policy mandates floating tenders for at least five Public-Private Partnership projects every month.

2. The eligibility cut-off date for rehabilitation under the policy is January 1, 2026.

3. The policy is expected to benefit approximately four lakh families living in Jhuggi Jhopdi clusters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'Shah said the Delhi government should float tenders for at least five public-private partnership-based rehabilitation projects every month.' Statement 2 is incorrect; the cut-off date is January 1, 2025, not 2026. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned: 'expected to benefit around four lakh families.' Hence, option C is correct.

Source: Delhi Slum and JJ Cluster Rehabilitation Policy 2026 Finalized with Jan 1, 2025 Eligibility Cut-off to Benefit 4 Lakh Families →
Q71.

According to the article, what is the total number of slums in Delhi under the jurisdiction of the Delhi Urban Shelter Improvement Board (DUSIB)?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.376
  • B.299✓ Correct Answer
  • C.675
  • D.50
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'Of these, 376 are on government land and come under the DDA jurisdiction, while 299 come under DUSIB’s jurisdiction.' Therefore, 299 slums are under DUSIB. 675 is the total number of slums, 376 are under DDA, and 50 is the number of additional clusters for which project documents are to be prepared.

Source: Delhi Slum and JJ Cluster Rehabilitation Policy 2026 Finalized with Jan 1, 2025 Eligibility Cut-off to Benefit 4 Lakh Families →
Q72.

What was identified as a key reason for the failure of previous slum rehabilitation attempts in Delhi, as per the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lack of political will from the central government
  • B.Opposition from the residents of JJ clusters
  • C.Absence of a legal framework for rehabilitation
  • D.Lack of viability gap funding for the projects✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions in its last sentence: 'previous attempts in this direction failed due to lack of viability gap funding for the projects...' This is a direct factual extraction from the provided content, making it the correct answer.

Source: Delhi Slum and JJ Cluster Rehabilitation Policy 2026 Finalized with Jan 1, 2025 Eligibility Cut-off to Benefit 4 Lakh Families →
Q73.

Which country's social media policy model is the UK planning to adopt for its under-16 ban?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.United States
  • B.Australia✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Singapore
  • D.Germany
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As stated in the article, the UK government plans to use the same model for a social media ban as Australia. This involves restricting account creation for those under 16 rather than a blanket content ban.

Source: UK Announces Under-16 Social Media Ban by Spring 2027, Following Australia's Age-Limit Model →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding the UK's proposed social media ban:

1. It is a complete ban preventing under-16s from accessing any content on platforms like YouTube.

2. The ban will cover messaging services like WhatsApp and Signal.

3. The policy is scheduled to be implemented by Spring 2027.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) 2 and 3 only
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect; the expert clarifies it is an 'age-limit' on account creation, not a content ban. Children can still watch videos. Statement 2 is incorrect as the government statement explicitly excludes messaging services. Statement 3 is correct as per the announcement date of June 15.

Source: UK Announces Under-16 Social Media Ban by Spring 2027, Following Australia's Age-Limit Model →
Q75.

According to a survey mentioned in the article, what percentage of children in Australia were reportedly still on social media after a similar ban?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.50%
  • B.60%
  • C.70%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.80%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article cites a survey noting that 70% of children in Australia are still on social media post-ban, highlighting implementation challenges. The remaining 30% being off is presented as a positive outcome.

Source: UK Announces Under-16 Social Media Ban by Spring 2027, Following Australia's Age-Limit Model →
Q76.

What is the primary rationale, as explained by the expert, for advocating an age limit on social media for children?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To increase government control over digital content.
  • B.To limit the contractual relationship between platforms and children, preventing inappropriate targeting.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To boost the market for child-specific educational apps.
  • D.To reduce internet bandwidth consumption by minors.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The expert, Ravi Iyer, explains that the age limit restricts the 'contractual relationship' where companies target children with algorithms, notifications, and personalized experiences, which may be inappropriate. It is framed as a protective measure, not a content control one.

Source: UK Announces Under-16 Social Media Ban by Spring 2027, Following Australia's Age-Limit Model →
Q77.

Which government think tank published the 'Composite Water Management Index (CWMI)' report mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.NITI Aayog✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Planning Commission
  • C.Ministry of Jal Shakti
  • D.Central Water Commission
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Composite Water Management Index (CWMI) is a flagship report published by NITI Aayog, the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, to assess water management across states.

Source: NITI Aayog's CWMI Warns of Urban Water Crisis; Mihir Shah Committee Flags Supply-Focus Policy Gap →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the urban water crisis discussed in the article:

1. The Mihir Shah Committee pointed out that India's water policy has historically focused on augmenting supplies with little attention to demand-side management.

2. The Atal Bhujal Yojana is a state-sponsored scheme focused on efficient water use in urban industries.

3. NITI Aayog's Composite Water Management Index (CWMI) report had warned of a dire water situation as early as 2018.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's mention of the Mihir Shah Committee's findings. Statement 2 is incorrect; Atal Bhujal Yojana is a central sector scheme focused on groundwater management in agriculture, not specifically urban industries. Statement 3 is correct as the article cites the 2018 CWMI report warning.

Source: NITI Aayog's CWMI Warns of Urban Water Crisis; Mihir Shah Committee Flags Supply-Focus Policy Gap →
Q79.

According to the article, in which year did the Mihir Shah Committee submit its observations on India's water policy?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.2014
  • B.2016✓ Correct Answer
  • C.2018
  • D.2020
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "In 2016, the Mihir Shah Committee had pointed out..." This is a direct factual recall from the provided content.

Source: NITI Aayog's CWMI Warns of Urban Water Crisis; Mihir Shah Committee Flags Supply-Focus Policy Gap →
Q80.

What is the primary critique of the conventional approach to urban water management, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It over-invests in rainwater harvesting at the expense of dam construction.
  • B.It treats each water crisis as an isolated event without addressing structural causes.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It prioritizes industrial water needs over agricultural and domestic requirements.
  • D.It relies too heavily on international funding and technological imports.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: "The problem, however, is that municipal and state-level authorities treat every crisis as an isolated event and very little has been done to address the structural reasons for water shortfall..." This is the core critique presented.

Source: NITI Aayog's CWMI Warns of Urban Water Crisis; Mihir Shah Committee Flags Supply-Focus Policy Gap →
Q81.

Which organization is primarily responsible for implementing the Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana (PMVBRY)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.NITI Aayog
  • D.Ministry of Rural Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the EPFO's regional offices are organizing events to disburse incentives under PMVBRY, indicating EPFO is the implementing agency. EPFO is a statutory body under the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

Source: PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana Launched: ₹2,400 Cr Incentives for New Employees & Employers →
Q82.

Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana (PMVBRY):

1. The scheme provides financial incentives only to first-time employees.

2. Employers can receive up to ₹3,000 per month for each additional job created.

3. The scheme was launched by the Prime Minister on June 19, 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the scheme provides incentives to both first-time employees AND employers. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions up to ₹3,000 per month for employers. Statement 3 is correct as the launch was on June 19, 2026.

Source: PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana Launched: ₹2,400 Cr Incentives for New Employees & Employers →
Q83.

What is the total amount of incentives disbursed at the launch of the PMVBRY scheme?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹2,000 crore
  • B.₹2,400 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹3,000 crore
  • D.₹15,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Prime Minister would launch the disbursal of PMVBRY incentives to the tune of ₹2,400 crore. The other options are distractors: ₹15,000 is the per-employee incentive, not the total disbursal.

Source: PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana Launched: ₹2,400 Cr Incentives for New Employees & Employers →
Q84.

What is the primary objective of the PMVBRY scheme?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To provide skill training to unemployed youth
  • B.To incentivize formal employment generation for first-time workers✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To provide direct cash transfers to all rural households
  • D.To subsidize raw materials for small industries
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the scheme guarantees incentives for both first-time employees and employers creating additional jobs, directly aiming to boost formal employment. Options A, C, and D describe other government programs not related to PMVBRY.

Source: PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana Launched: ₹2,400 Cr Incentives for New Employees & Employers →
Q85.

What is the full form of IMPACT proposed by PM Modi at the G7 Summit 2026?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.International Mobilisation Partnership for Accelerating Connectivity and Trade✓ Correct Answer
  • B.International Mobility Partnership for Accelerating Connectivity and Trade
  • C.India-Middle East Partnership for Accelerating Connectivity and Trade
  • D.Integrated Mobilisation Partnership for Accelerating Connectivity and Trade
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that PM Modi suggested the acronym IMPACT for 'International Mobilisation Partnership for Accelerating Connectivity and Trade'. The other options are distractors with slight wording changes.

Source: G7 Summit 2026: PM Modi Proposes Global Skills Partnership, IMPACT for Global South Connectivity →
Q86.

Consider the following statements regarding the G7 Summit 2026:

1. The summit was held in Evian-les-Bains, France.

2. PM Modi proposed the Global Skills Partnership to harness young talent from the Global South for ageing G7 societies.

3. The IMEC project was announced at the G7 Summit in 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the photo caption confirms the summit location as Evian-les-Bains, France. Statement 2 is correct: the article states PM Modi called for a Global Skills Partnership to harness young talent while many societies were ageing. Statement 3 is incorrect: IMEC was announced at the G20 Summit in New Delhi in September 2023, not at the G7 Summit.

Source: G7 Summit 2026: PM Modi Proposes Global Skills Partnership, IMPACT for Global South Connectivity →
Q87.

In which year was the India-Middle East-Europe Corridor (IMEC) announced?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2022
  • B.2023✓ Correct Answer
  • C.2024
  • D.2025
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions that the IMEC project was announced in September 2023 at the G20 Summit in New Delhi. The other options are distractors; 2022 is too early, 2024 and 2025 are after the announcement.

Source: G7 Summit 2026: PM Modi Proposes Global Skills Partnership, IMPACT for Global South Connectivity →
Q88.

What is the primary objective of the Global Skills Partnership proposed by PM Modi?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce illegal migration by promoting tourism between G7 and Global South
  • B.To harness the young talent from the Global South for ageing societies in G7 countries✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To increase remittance flows from G7 to Global South by 50%
  • D.To create a common labour market between G7 and all developing nations
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'India and countries of the Global South has young talent while many societies were ageing, the Prime Minister said, as he called for a “Global Skills Partnership” which would harness this complementarily.' Options A, C, and D are not mentioned in the article.

Source: G7 Summit 2026: PM Modi Proposes Global Skills Partnership, IMPACT for Global South Connectivity →
Q89.

Which state agency conducted the sting operation 'Operation Food Safety' mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
  • B.Vigilance and Anti-Corruption Bureau (VACB), Kerala✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Enforcement Directorate (ED)
  • D.Income Tax Department
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The news explicitly states that the Kerala VACB, directed by DGP Manoj Abraham, conducted the sting operation. VACB is a state-level anti-corruption body. CBI (central), ED (financial crimes), and IT (tax) are different agencies.

Source: VACB Sting 'Operation Food Safety' Exposes 30% Diversion of NFSA Grains in Kerala →
Q90.

Consider the following statements regarding the VACB sting operation:

1. The operation was named 'Operation Food Security' and targeted 14 NFSA godowns and 54 ration shops.

2. The investigation revealed that an estimated 30% of subsidised food grains were diverted to black markets, poultry farms, and hotels.

3. Investigators found that biometric authentication systems (E-POS) were fully operational and not tampered with.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The operation was titled 'Operation Food Safety' (note: 'Food Safety' not 'Security') and targeted 14 godowns and 54 shops. Statement 2 is correct: 30% diversion estimate is mentioned. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article explicitly states that the biometric E-POS machines were tampered with and OTPs misused, not fully operational.

Source: VACB Sting 'Operation Food Safety' Exposes 30% Diversion of NFSA Grains in Kerala →
Q91.

According to the article, what percentage of government-subsidised food grains is estimated to be illegally diverted by the racket?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.20%
  • B.25%
  • C.30%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.35%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'an estimated 30% of government-subsidised grains and food staples failed to reach the intended beneficiaries'. The other options are plausible distractors but not supported by the text.

Source: VACB Sting 'Operation Food Safety' Exposes 30% Diversion of NFSA Grains in Kerala →
Q92.

What is the primary objective of the 'Operation Food Safety' sting operation conducted by the VACB?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To test the efficiency of the Public Distribution System in Kerala
  • B.To expose corruption and illegal diversion of subsidised food grains under the NFSA✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To track the transportation of food grains across state borders
  • D.To improve nutritional outcomes for ration card holders
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The operation involved setting up a sting to catch officials diverting subsidised grains to black markets. It was a targeted anti-corruption measure, not a general efficiency check (option A), transportation tracking (C), or nutritional improvement (D).

Source: VACB Sting 'Operation Food Safety' Exposes 30% Diversion of NFSA Grains in Kerala →
Q93.

Which body is primarily responsible for promoting Bengaluru's startup ecosystem as per the GSER 2026 report?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.NITI Aayog
  • B.Karnataka Digital Economy Mission (KDEM)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Startup India
  • D.Ministry of Electronics and IT
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions KDEM as the body overseeing the startup ecosystem in Karnataka, with its Chairman B V Naidu commenting on the report. KDEM is a state-level mission under the Karnataka government, distinct from national bodies like Startup India or NITI Aayog.

Source: Bengaluru Ranks 15th in Global Startup Ecosystem, Scores 9/10 in R&D Ahead of Silicon Valley →
Q94.

Consider the following statements regarding the Global Startup Ecosystem Report (GSER) 2026:

1. Bengaluru scored 9/10 in performance and R&D, ahead of Silicon Valley.

2. Bengaluru's talent and experience score was 4/10, with a perfect 10/10 on cost efficiency of software engineer salaries.

3. The global average number of unicorns is 30, which Bengaluru has surpassed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Bengaluru scored 9/10 in performance and R&D, ahead of Silicon Valley. Statement 2 is partially correct: talent score was 4/10, but cost efficiency of software engineer salaries was 10/10 - the statement says 'perfect 10/10' which is correct for that specific sub-factor. Statement 3 is incorrect: global average number of unicorns is 11, not 30. Bengaluru has 30 unicorns, which is above the global average. Hence option C (Both 1 and 3) is correct.

Source: Bengaluru Ranks 15th in Global Startup Ecosystem, Scores 9/10 in R&D Ahead of Silicon Valley →
Q95.

What was the total VC funding that flowed into Bengaluru-based startups between 2021 and 2025, as per the GSER 2026 report?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$39 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • B.$46 billion
  • C.$79 billion
  • D.$153 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'The total VC funding that flowed in between 2021 and 2025 amounted to $39 billion.' $46 billion is the exit amount for the same period, $79 billion is total VC funding since 2010, and $153 billion is the ecosystem value. These are common distractors.

Source: Bengaluru Ranks 15th in Global Startup Ecosystem, Scores 9/10 in R&D Ahead of Silicon Valley →
Q96.

What is the primary objective of the Karnataka Digital Economy Mission (KDEM) as highlighted in the news?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To provide direct funding to startups
  • B.To promote digital economy and startup ecosystem in Karnataka✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To regulate AI-native clusters in Asia
  • D.To conduct the Global Startup Ecosystem Report
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

KDEM is a state government mission focused on promoting digital economy, startups, and technology investments in Karnataka. It does not directly fund startups (that's for venture capital), nor does it regulate AI clusters or conduct GSER. The article mentions KDEM's role in supporting the startup ecosystem through programs like KATALYST and LEAP.

Source: Bengaluru Ranks 15th in Global Startup Ecosystem, Scores 9/10 in R&D Ahead of Silicon Valley →
Q97.

Which department under the Ministry of Education is primarily responsible for overseeing the NTA and implementing the reforms recommended by the parliamentary committee?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Department of School Education and Literacy
  • B.Department of Higher Education✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Department of Technical Education
  • D.Department of Educational Research and Training
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions that the Department of Higher Education responded to the committee's observations on finances and stated that NTA does not receive government funding. This department oversees higher education and autonomous bodies like NTA.

Source: Parliamentary Panel Flags NTA's ₹448 Cr Surplus, Recommends Strengthening Exam Infrastructure →
Q98.

Consider the following statements regarding the NTA's financial surplus and the parliamentary committee's recommendations:

1. The NTA generated a surplus of about ₹448 crore over the past six years.

2. The committee recommended that the surplus be transferred to the Consolidated Fund of India.

3. The committee suggested creating a nationwide list of blacklisted firms involved in examination administration.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: surplus of nearly ₹448 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect; the committee recommended using the surplus to strengthen NTA's in-house capabilities and vendor oversight, not to transfer to the Consolidated Fund. Statement 3 is correct: the panel recommended a nationwide list of blacklisted firms to prevent them from securing contracts elsewhere.

Source: Parliamentary Panel Flags NTA's ₹448 Cr Surplus, Recommends Strengthening Exam Infrastructure →
Q99.

What was the total revenue collected by the NTA from conducting examinations over the six-year period covered in the parliamentary report?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹3,064.77 crore
  • B.₹3,512.98 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹448 crore
  • D.₹74.5 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that NTA collected an estimated ₹3,512.98 crore. ₹3,064.77 crore is the expenditure, ₹448 crore is the surplus, and ₹74.5 crore is the average annual surplus. Option B is the correct revenue figure.

Source: Parliamentary Panel Flags NTA's ₹448 Cr Surplus, Recommends Strengthening Exam Infrastructure →
Q100.

What is the primary objective of the parliamentary committee's recommendation to use NTA's surplus funds?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce examination fees for students
  • B.To build in-house capabilities for conducting examinations and strengthen vendor monitoring✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To distribute the surplus as dividends to the Ministry of Education
  • D.To fund construction of new NTA regional offices across states
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The committee reiterated its earlier recommendation that the accumulated corpus should be utilised to build the agency’s in-house capabilities for conducting examinations or to strengthen regulatory and monitoring mechanisms overseeing vendors. Options A, C, and D are not mentioned in the article.

Source: Parliamentary Panel Flags NTA's ₹448 Cr Surplus, Recommends Strengthening Exam Infrastructure →
Q101.

Which parliamentary committee submitted the 381st Action Taken Report recommending a review of CUET UG's MCQ format?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Parliamentary Standing Committee on Finance
  • B.Parliamentary Standing Committee on Education, Women, Children, Youth and Sports✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Parliamentary Standing Committee on Home Affairs
  • D.Parliamentary Standing Committee on Human Resource Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The report was submitted by the Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committee on Education, Women, Children, Youth and Sports, headed by Rajya Sabha MP Digvijaya Singh. It is the 381st Action Taken Report, a follow-up on the 364th Report on Demands for Grants for 2025-26.

Source: Parliamentary Panel's 381st Report Flags CUET UG MCQs Unsuitable for Humanities →
Q102.

Consider the following statements regarding the parliamentary panel's report on CUET UG:

1. The committee recommends scrapping CUET and replacing it with board-based admissions.

2. The CUET exam currently offers 37 subjects, reduced from 63 subjects initially.

3. The government has stated that CUET results were announced more than three weeks earlier than in 2024.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the committee does NOT recommend scrapping CUET but calls for reworking its design. Statement 2 is correct: subjects were trimmed from 63 to 37. Statement 3 is correct: the government noted that results in the last session were announced more than three weeks earlier than in 2024.

Source: Parliamentary Panel's 381st Report Flags CUET UG MCQs Unsuitable for Humanities →
Q103.

According to the news article, how many subjects were offered in the CUET UG session after simplification?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.37✓ Correct Answer
  • B.63
  • C.50
  • D.45
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the previous year's session was offered in 37 subjects, down sharply from the 63 subjects on offer when the exam first launched. 63 was the initial number, not the current one.

Source: Parliamentary Panel's 381st Report Flags CUET UG MCQs Unsuitable for Humanities →
Q104.

What is the primary concern raised by the parliamentary panel regarding the use of MCQs in CUET UG for humanities subjects?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.MCQs are too easy for humanities students
  • B.MCQs cannot assess argumentation, interpretation, and original opinion required in humanities✓ Correct Answer
  • C.MCQs lead to higher negative marking in humanities papers
  • D.MCQs are not aligned with the Class 12 NCERT syllabus for humanities
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The panel argues that humanities disciplines are built around independent and subjective thinking. A four-option MCQ format cannot test a student's ability to argue, interpret, and form an original opinion, which are core skills in subjects like political science, philosophy, and literature.

Source: Parliamentary Panel's 381st Report Flags CUET UG MCQs Unsuitable for Humanities →
Q105.

Which constitutional provision directs the state to secure a Uniform Civil Code for citizens?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 21
  • B.Article 44✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 14
  • D.Article 32
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 44 of the Indian Constitution, part of the Directive Principles of State Policy, states that the State shall endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code for citizens throughout the territory of India. It is not a Fundamental Right.

Source: Madhya Pradesh Government to Table UCC Bill in July 2026 Monsoon Session →
Q106.

Consider the following statements regarding the UCC Bill in Madhya Pradesh:

1. The high-level committee is headed by a retired Supreme Court judge.

2. The committee was formed in May 2026.

3. The bill will be tabled in the Monsoon Session starting July 20.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the committee is headed by retired SC judge Justice Ranjana Prasad Desai. Statement 2 is incorrect: the committee was formed in April 2026, not May. Statement 3 is correct: the Monsoon Session is from July 20 to 24. Hence option C is correct.

Source: Madhya Pradesh Government to Table UCC Bill in July 2026 Monsoon Session →
Q107.

What is the deadline (in days) given to the high-level committee to submit the draft UCC Bill to the Madhya Pradesh government?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.30 days
  • B.60 days✓ Correct Answer
  • C.90 days
  • D.120 days
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the six-member committee has been tasked with submitting a draft Bill along with a detailed report within 60 days. Other options are distractors.

Source: Madhya Pradesh Government to Table UCC Bill in July 2026 Monsoon Session →
Q108.

What is the primary objective of introducing the Uniform Civil Code Bill in Madhya Pradesh?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To replace all criminal laws with a uniform code
  • B.To unify personal laws for all citizens across different religions✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To implement a Fundamental Right guaranteed in the Constitution
  • D.To comply with a Supreme Court directive
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Uniform Civil Code aims to replace diverse personal laws based on religion (e.g., Hindu, Muslim, Christian) with a common set of laws governing marriage, divorce, inheritance, etc. It is a Directive Principle (Article 44), not a Fundamental Right, and no SC directive was mentioned.

Source: Madhya Pradesh Government to Table UCC Bill in July 2026 Monsoon Session →
Q109.

Which entity was formed after the abolition of TANGEDCO in 2024 and is responsible for power distribution in Tamil Nadu?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Tamil Nadu Power Generation Corporation Limited (TNPGCL)
  • B.Tamil Nadu Power Distribution Corporation Limited (TNPDCL)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Tamil Nadu Green Energy Corporation Limited (TNGECL)
  • D.Tamil Nadu Transmission Corporation (TANTRANSCO)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

According to the article, TNPDCL is one of the entities formed after the abolition of TANGEDCO in 2024. It handles power distribution. TNPGCL handles generation, TNGECL handles green energy, and TANTRANSCO handles transmission.

Source: TNPDCL Faces ₹2,500 Cr Monthly Shortfall; SC Orders ₹59,000 Cr Regulatory Asset Recovery by 2031 →
Q110.

Consider the following statements regarding Tamil Nadu’s power sector as per the White Paper:

1. TNPDCL faces a persistent monthly structural cash shortfall of ₹2,500 crore.

2. The ACS-ARR gap has widened since the introduction of Multi-Year Tariff (MYT) in 2022-23.

3. The Supreme Court ordered recovery of regulatory assets amounting to ₹59,000 crore by March 2031.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the White Paper states the utility faces a persistent monthly structural cash shortfall of ₹2,500 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article says the gap has narrowed sharply after MYT, not widened. Statement 3 is correct as the Supreme Court ordered recovery of ₹59,000 crore regulatory assets by March 2031.

Source: TNPDCL Faces ₹2,500 Cr Monthly Shortfall; SC Orders ₹59,000 Cr Regulatory Asset Recovery by 2031 →
Q111.

According to the White Paper, what was the annual government support given to the TNEB group in 2025-26?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹20,996 crore
  • B.₹33,478 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹1,45,185 crore
  • D.₹11,800 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that annual support by the government to the TNEB group went up to ₹33,478 crore in 2025-26, a 59.45% increase from ₹20,996 crore in 2021-22. ₹1,45,185 crore is the total support over the last five years, and ₹11,800 crore is the additional annual obligation from the SC order.

Source: TNPDCL Faces ₹2,500 Cr Monthly Shortfall; SC Orders ₹59,000 Cr Regulatory Asset Recovery by 2031 →
Q112.

What is the primary implication of the Supreme Court’s order on regulatory assets for Tamil Nadu?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Consumers or the state government must absorb ₹59,000 crore by March 2031, adding ₹11,800 crore yearly obligation.✓ Correct Answer
  • B.The power utility will become profitable immediately.
  • C.Electricity tariffs will be reduced across all consumer categories.
  • D.The state government will stop providing subsidy to the power sector.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The White Paper explicitly states that the SC order implies the consumers or state government should absorb the regulatory assets of ₹59,000 crore, and this means an additional structured obligation of ₹11,800 crore per year from 2026-27. Other options are not supported by the article.

Source: TNPDCL Faces ₹2,500 Cr Monthly Shortfall; SC Orders ₹59,000 Cr Regulatory Asset Recovery by 2031 →
Q113.

Which strategic waterway is the focus of the 14-point MoU between Iran and the U.S.?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Strait of Malacca
  • B.Strait of Hormuz✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Bab-el-Mandeb
  • D.Suez Canal
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article repeatedly mentions the Strait of Hormuz as the location for shipping and the naval blockade. The MoU specifically addresses transit through this strait. The other options are other major maritime chokepoints but are not mentioned in the news.

Source: 14-Point Iran-U.S. MoU: Strait of Hormuz to Reopen, US Sanctions on Oil to Be Lifted →
Q114.

Consider the following statements regarding the Iran-U.S. MoU:

1. The MoU requires Iran to restore pre-war traffic conditions, including toll-free passage.

2. The U.S. has agreed to lift all unilateral sanctions against Iran.

3. The agreement was signed on June 17, 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article says Iran only committed to 'proportional' traffic, not full pre-war conditions, and has hinted at charging service fees. Statement 2 is correct as it mentions the U.S. agreed to end all unilateral sanctions. Statement 3 is correct because the article is published on June 17, 2026, and the MoU was signed just prior.

Source: 14-Point Iran-U.S. MoU: Strait of Hormuz to Reopen, US Sanctions on Oil to Be Lifted →
Q115.

According to the MoU, within how many days does the U.S. commit to restoring traffic through the Strait of Hormuz?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.15 days
  • B.30 days✓ Correct Answer
  • C.45 days
  • D.60 days
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The U.S. has lifted the Naval blockade and commits to restore to traffic within 30 days.' The other options are not mentioned in the news and serve as distractors.

Source: 14-Point Iran-U.S. MoU: Strait of Hormuz to Reopen, US Sanctions on Oil to Be Lifted →
Q116.

What is a potential consequence of Iran not committing to toll-free passage in the MoU?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Increased global shipping costs for oil✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Faster transit times through the strait
  • C.Decrease in oil prices due to oversupply
  • D.Improved diplomatic relations between Iran and the U.S.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article notes that Iran may charge service fees or tolls, which would raise the cost of shipping oil through the Strait of Hormuz. This directly impacts global oil prices and shipping expenses. The other options are not supported by the article.

Source: 14-Point Iran-U.S. MoU: Strait of Hormuz to Reopen, US Sanctions on Oil to Be Lifted →
Q117.

Which institution conducted the study on human activity driving extreme rainfall in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Delhi✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Indian Institute of Science (IISc) Bangalore
  • C.National Institute of Technology (NIT) Kollam
  • D.Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) Pune
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The study was conducted by researchers from IIT-Delhi and KSMDB College in Kollam. The Centre for Atmospheric Sciences at IIT Delhi was the primary institution involved in this research.

Source: IIT-Delhi Study Finds Human Activity Drives Extreme Rainfall in India’s Monsoon Zone →
Q118.

Consider the following statements:

1. The study used a technique called 'fingerprinting' to separate natural weather cycles from human-caused changes.

2. The study analysed rainfall data from 1905 to 2014.

3. The study found that aerosols from pollution have a warming effect on the atmosphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the study used fingerprinting to identify human-caused changes. Statement 2 is correct: the data analysed was from 1905 to 2014. Statement 3 is incorrect: aerosols from pollution have a cooling effect (they scatter sunlight), not a warming effect. Greenhouse gases cause warming.

Source: IIT-Delhi Study Finds Human Activity Drives Extreme Rainfall in India’s Monsoon Zone →
Q119.

According to the study, which region of India showed the clearest evidence that greenhouse gas forcing is driving extreme precipitation intensification?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.West Central India✓ Correct Answer
  • B.North East India
  • C.Coastal Andhra Pradesh
  • D.Himalayan region
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The study specifically identified West Central India, which includes the core monsoon zone, as showing both observed increases in extreme precipitation and evidence that greenhouse gas forcing is the dominant driver of this intensification.

Source: IIT-Delhi Study Finds Human Activity Drives Extreme Rainfall in India’s Monsoon Zone →
Q120.

What is the primary implication of the study's finding for urban planners in India?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.They should continue using historical rainfall data as the sole basis for flood planning
  • B.They should stop using historical rainfall baselines entirely
  • C.They should adapt to changing statistical characteristics of extreme rainfall as historical data may not predict future risks✓ Correct Answer
  • D.They should focus only on reducing greenhouse gas emissions
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The study warns that the assumption of stationarity in extreme rainfall is no longer appropriate. While historical observations remain essential for understanding local vulnerabilities, they alone may not provide a reliable guide to future risk in a warming climate.

Source: IIT-Delhi Study Finds Human Activity Drives Extreme Rainfall in India’s Monsoon Zone →
Q121.

Which ministry is responsible for issuing the temporary blocking order against Telegram in this news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Communications
  • D.Ministry of Law and Justice
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) is the nodal ministry for IT-related matters including blocking of content under Section 69A of the IT Act. In this case, MeitY convened the meeting and flagged Telegram's shortcomings before the ban.

Source: Centre Bans Telegram After NEET Paper Leak: Govt Flags Limited Search Feature, No IMEI Blocking →
Q122.

Consider the following statements:

1. The government flagged Telegram's limited search feature as a key grievance.

2. Telegram agreed to implement IMEI-level blocking suggested by the government.

3. NTA regularly informed Telegram about operating channels related to exam fraud.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the government flagged the limited search feature. Statement 2 is incorrect because Telegram clarified it does not use IMEI-based identifiers. Statement 3 is correct as NTA flagged that it regularly gave lists to Telegram about operating channels.

Source: Centre Bans Telegram After NEET Paper Leak: Govt Flags Limited Search Feature, No IMEI Blocking →
Q123.

On which date was the temporary blocking order issued against Telegram by the Centre?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.June 3, 2026
  • B.June 5, 2026
  • C.June 16, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • D.June 17, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the temporary blocking order was issued by the Centre against Telegram on June 16, 2026. The meeting with Telegram was held on June 3, and Telegram responded via email on June 5.

Source: Centre Bans Telegram After NEET Paper Leak: Govt Flags Limited Search Feature, No IMEI Blocking →
Q124.

What is the primary reason cited by Telegram for rejecting the outright blocking or banning of particular keywords?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Technical limitations of their platform architecture
  • B.Such terms may also be used in legitimate contexts✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Lack of government guidelines on keyword blocking
  • D.Potential violation of user privacy laws
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Telegram argued that outright blocking of keywords is not appropriate because terms like 'NEET leaked paper' could be used legitimately by students, educational stakeholders, media, and in news reporting. This highlights the challenge of balancing content moderation with freedom of expression.

Source: Centre Bans Telegram After NEET Paper Leak: Govt Flags Limited Search Feature, No IMEI Blocking →
Q125.

Which institution conducted the study titled 'Behaviour Change Approaches to Tackle Stubble Burning at Scale'?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
  • B.Council on Energy, Environment and Water (CEEW)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Punjab Agricultural University (PAU)
  • D.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the study was conducted by the Council on Energy, Environment and Water (CEEW), a non-profit policy research institution. ISRO conducted a separate 2025 study on satellite detection limitations, but is not the author of this specific study.

Source: CEEW Study: 31% Farmers Partially Burn Stubble; Behaviour Change Strategy Needed →
Q126.

Consider the following statements regarding the CEEW study on stubble burning:

1. 63% of surveyed farmers have completely stopped burning crop residue.

2. 31% of surveyed farmers continue to partially burn their fields.

3. Among farmers who still burn, 67% cited pest attack prevention as a key reason.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The study says 63% moved away from *complete* burning, but this includes those who still partially burn (31%). Only 6% still do complete burning. Statement 2 is correct: 31% partially burn. Statement 3 is correct: 67% of those who still burn (partially or completely) cite pest attack prevention.

Source: CEEW Study: 31% Farmers Partially Burn Stubble; Behaviour Change Strategy Needed →
Q127.

According to the CEEW study, what percentage of surveyed farmers were unaware of the Punjab government's Unnat Kisan app?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.63%
  • B.78%
  • C.86%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.67%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The study found that 86% of surveyed farmers had never heard of the Unnat Kisan app, which is meant to support machinery rentals. This indicates a significant gap in promoting digital public infrastructure linked to CRM adoption. 78% were unaware of CRM training schedules, which is a different data point.

Source: CEEW Study: 31% Farmers Partially Burn Stubble; Behaviour Change Strategy Needed →
Q128.

What is the primary strategic shift recommended by the CEEW study to tackle stubble burning more effectively?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Increasing the penalty for stubble burning
  • B.Shifting from generic IEC to a targeted Behaviour Change Communication (BCC) strategy✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Providing free CRM machinery to all farmers
  • D.Banning paddy cultivation in Punjab
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The study explicitly recommends building on existing IEC activities but shifting towards a dedicated 'Behaviour Change Communication' strategy. This involves treating farmers as distinct groups (e.g., partial burners) and using targeted messaging, peer testimonials, and technical reassurance to address specific fears like pest attacks and machine reliability.

Source: CEEW Study: 31% Farmers Partially Burn Stubble; Behaviour Change Strategy Needed →
Q129.

Which international waterway, through which 1/5 of the world's oil and natural gas passes, was effectively shut by Iran during the conflict?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Suez Canal
  • B.Strait of Hormuz✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Bab-el-Mandeb
  • D.Malacca Strait
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow chokepoint between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman. The article states that Iran effectively shut the Strait of Hormuz for the duration of the war, bottling up merchant ships that carry 1/5 of the world's oil and natural gas supply.

Source: US-Iran War: Military Degradation Achieved but Nuclear & Regime Change Goals Unmet →
Q130.

Consider the following statements regarding the US-led campaign against Iran:

1. Iran's missile production capacity was set back by years, with roughly one-third of its missile arsenal destroyed.

2. Iran's nuclear breakout time has been extended to over two years as a result of the strikes.

3. The Strait of Hormuz remained open throughout the conflict due to US naval superiority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states roughly one-third of Iran's missile arsenal was destroyed and production set back by years. Statement 2 is incorrect: US intelligence still puts Iran under a year from a bomb, the same estimate as before the strikes. Statement 3 is incorrect: Iran effectively shut the Strait of Hormuz for the length of the war.

Source: US-Iran War: Military Degradation Achieved but Nuclear & Regime Change Goals Unmet →
Q131.

According to the Reuters analysis, what percentage of Iran's air defences were knocked out during the US-Israel military campaign?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.72%
  • B.82%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.92%
  • D.62%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifies that 82% of Iran's air defences were knocked out. The other percentage options are close distractors (72%, 92%, 62%) that a student might confuse with other data points in the news, such as naval ships destroyed or missiles intercepted.

Source: US-Iran War: Military Degradation Achieved but Nuclear & Regime Change Goals Unmet →
Q132.

What does the failure to achieve 'regime change' in Iran despite the killing of Supreme Leader Khamenei indicate about the nature of the Islamic Republic's political system?

MediumUPSC
  • A.The system is entirely dependent on a single leader
  • B.The system has deep-rooted institutional structures beyond individual leadership✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The US lacked the military capability to target leadership
  • D.Iran's proxies successfully defended the government
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that while Ayatollah Khamenei was killed and succeeded by his son, the 'Islamic Republic's political system remains intact' and 'the core structure of Iran's theocratic government remains in place'. This shows regime change failed because the system's institutions (Guardian Council, Assembly of Experts, Revolutionary Guards, etc.) survived beyond the single leader.

Source: US-Iran War: Military Degradation Achieved but Nuclear & Regime Change Goals Unmet →
Q133.

Which ministry released the second Bonn Challenge progress report for India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
  • B.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Rural Development
  • D.Ministry of Earth Sciences
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the report was released by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

Source: India Restores 21.7 Mha Degraded Land Under Bonn Challenge (2011-2020); Telangana Leads →
Q134.

Consider the following statements regarding India's Bonn Challenge progress:

1. India's first Bonn Challenge progress report (2011-2017) showed 9.8 million hectares of land restored.

2. India's revised target under the Bonn Challenge is to restore 26 million hectares by 2030.

3. Telangana restored the highest land area through mangrove restoration.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct (revised target announced at UNCCD COP14, 2019). Statement 3 is incorrect because Telangana's restoration was primarily through agroforestry (3.6 Mha), not mangrove restoration.

Source: India Restores 21.7 Mha Degraded Land Under Bonn Challenge (2011-2020); Telangana Leads →
Q135.

According to the report, how many million man-days of employment were generated by the restoration efforts?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1,124.51 million
  • B.1,224.51 million✓ Correct Answer
  • C.1,324.51 million
  • D.1,424.51 million
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that restoration efforts generated 1,224.51 million man-days of jobs. The other options are close distractors.

Source: India Restores 21.7 Mha Degraded Land Under Bonn Challenge (2011-2020); Telangana Leads →
Q136.

What is the primary objective of the Bonn Challenge?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce greenhouse gas emissions through carbon trading
  • B.To restore degraded and deforested landscapes globally by 2020 and 2030✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To promote renewable energy in developing countries
  • D.To combat desertification through afforestation alone
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article defines the Bonn Challenge as a global initiative to restore 150 million hectares by 2020 and 350 million hectares by 2030. Option D is too narrow as Bonn Challenge includes restoration beyond afforestation (e.g., natural regeneration, agroforestry).

Source: India Restores 21.7 Mha Degraded Land Under Bonn Challenge (2011-2020); Telangana Leads →
Q137.

Which body approved the pilot project to outsource management of Community Health Centres in Madhya Pradesh?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • B.Madhya Pradesh Cabinet✓ Correct Answer
  • C.NITI Aayog
  • D.State Health Department
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the decision was approved by the Cabinet chaired by Chief Minister Mohan Yadav. The Cabinet is the approving body for the pilot project in the state.

Source: Madhya Pradesh Approves 5-Year Pilot to Outsource 18 CHCs Management to Private Sector Amid 75% Specialist Vacancy →
Q138.

Consider the following statements:

1. The pilot project covers 18 Community Health Centres in three districts.

2. Under the model, the private entity will provide medicines and infrastructure.

3. State-wide, nearly three out of four specialist doctor posts are vacant.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the pilot covers 18 CHCs in Rewa, Guna, Dewas. Statement 2 is incorrect because the government will continue to provide medicines and infrastructure, not the private entity. Statement 3 is correct as the article says 3,948 out of 5,443 specialist posts are vacant (72.5%), i.e., nearly three out of four.

Source: Madhya Pradesh Approves 5-Year Pilot to Outsource 18 CHCs Management to Private Sector Amid 75% Specialist Vacancy →
Q139.

What is the total number of sanctioned specialist positions in Madhya Pradesh's 327 operational Community Health Centres?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.1,320✓ Correct Answer
  • B.5,443
  • C.6,513
  • D.1,495
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states: 'of the 1,320 sanctioned specialist positions in the state's 327 operational CHCs, just 113 are filled'. 5,443 is the total specialist posts across the state, 6,513 is for general medical officers, and 1,495 is the number of filled specialist posts statewide.

Source: Madhya Pradesh Approves 5-Year Pilot to Outsource 18 CHCs Management to Private Sector Amid 75% Specialist Vacancy →
Q140.

What is the primary objective of the pilot project announced by Madhya Pradesh?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.To reduce government spending on healthcare
  • B.To improve access to specialist healthcare in underserved rural areas✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To privatize the entire health system of Madhya Pradesh
  • D.To increase the number of medical colleges
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the move is to improve access to healthcare in underserved areas where large vacancies have made it difficult to provide specialist care. It is a targeted PPP pilot, not a full privatization or cost-cutting measure, and does not involve medical colleges.

Source: Madhya Pradesh Approves 5-Year Pilot to Outsource 18 CHCs Management to Private Sector Amid 75% Specialist Vacancy →
Q141.

Which US president established the original US Pacific Command on January 1, 1947?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Harry S. Truman✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Dwight D. Eisenhower
  • C.Franklin D. Roosevelt
  • D.Donald Trump
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the command was originally established on January 1, 1947 by President Harry S. Truman. It became one of the oldest and largest unified combatant commands.

Source: US Department of War Reverts Indo-Pacific Command to Pacific Command (June 16, 2026) →
Q142.

Consider the following statements regarding the US Pacific Command:

1. The command was originally established in 1947 as Pacific Command.

2. The name was changed to Indo-Pacific Command in 2016 under President Obama.

3. The decision to revert the name was announced by US Defense Secretary Pete Hegseth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the command was established on January 1, 1947 by President Truman. Statement 2 is incorrect because the name change to Indo-Pacific occurred in 2018 under President Donald Trump, not 2016 under Obama. Statement 3 is correct because Defense Secretary Pete Hegseth tweeted 'U.S. Pacific Command…is back.' Hence option C is correct.

Source: US Department of War Reverts Indo-Pacific Command to Pacific Command (June 16, 2026) →
Q143.

On what date did the US Department of War announce the reversion of the command name from Indo-Pacific to Pacific?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.June 16, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • B.June 17, 2026
  • C.January 1, 1947
  • D.June 16, 2018
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the US government announced on June 16 that the US Indo-Pacific Command will officially restore its name to US Pacific Command. The press release was issued on that date.

Source: US Department of War Reverts Indo-Pacific Command to Pacific Command (June 16, 2026) →
Q144.

What was the primary reason cited by the US Department of War for reverting the name of the command?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To honour the command's deep historical roots and foster pride among service members✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Because of strained diplomatic relations with India
  • C.To align with a new National Defence Strategy
  • D.Due to budget cuts and command restructuring
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes the press release that the reversion was to 'honour its deep historical roots, which foster a sense of pride among all who serve in the Pacific.' Strategic considerations or bilateral tensions were not cited as reasons.

Source: US Department of War Reverts Indo-Pacific Command to Pacific Command (June 16, 2026) →
Q145.

Which ministry/department is primarily responsible for the implementation of the Delhi Slum and JJ Cluster Rehabilitation and Relocation Policy, 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
  • B.Delhi Urban Development Department✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Delhi Development Authority (DDA)
  • D.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions Delhi Urban Development Minister Ashish Sood as the key official, indicating that the Delhi Urban Development Department is the nodal body for the policy. DDA is involved but as an implementing agency, not the primary ministry. The policy is state-specific, not under the central ministry directly.

Source: Delhi Slum Rehabilitation Policy 2026: Cut-Off Extended to 2025, 20 Lakh People Eligible →
Q146.

Consider the following statements regarding the new Delhi slum policy:

1. The cut-off date for eligibility has been extended from January 1, 2015 to January 1, 2025.

2. The policy covers all slum dwellers in Delhi irrespective of the date of their slum's existence.

3. Under the PPP model, private developers recover costs by commercial development of part of the slum land.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2 and 3
  • C.(C) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the cut-off was extended to Jan 1, 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: the policy covers only those slums that existed as on Jan 1, 2025 – not all slums regardless of date. Statement 3 is correct: PPP model uses free sale component on part of land to recover costs.

Source: Delhi Slum Rehabilitation Policy 2026: Cut-Off Extended to 2025, 20 Lakh People Eligible →
Q147.

According to the article, what is the total number of families expected to benefit from the new Delhi Slum Policy, 2026?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.2 lakh families
  • B.3 lakh families
  • C.4 lakh families✓ Correct Answer
  • D.5 lakh families
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'four lakh families, or almost 20 lakh people' will benefit. Options A, B, D are distractors – 2 lakh is too low, 5 lakh is not mentioned.

Source: Delhi Slum Rehabilitation Policy 2026: Cut-Off Extended to 2025, 20 Lakh People Eligible →
Q148.

What is the primary reason for extending the cut-off date from 2015 to 2025 in the new slum policy?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce the financial burden on the government by making fewer people eligible
  • B.To eliminate disputes over eligibility that led to resistance and court cases✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To encourage slum dwellers to move to peripheral areas
  • D.To align with the central government's Smart Cities Mission
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article notes that earlier, half the families in a slum were eligible and half not, causing resistance and litigation. The new policy makes everyone eligible, aiming for smoother relocation. Not about reducing burden or encouraging outward move. No mention of Smart Cities.

Source: Delhi Slum Rehabilitation Policy 2026: Cut-Off Extended to 2025, 20 Lakh People Eligible →
Q149.

Which ministry's Additional Secretary attended the Gujarat SEZs Outreach Programme and explained the features of the Viksit Gujarat Industrial Policy 2026?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of External Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Home Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Ajay Bhadoo, Additional Secretary in the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, attended the event and explained the policy's features. The Ministry of Commerce and Industry oversees SEZs and trade promotion.

Source: India's Exports Reach $863.11 Billion Despite West Asia Crisis, US Tariffs; SEZs Key →
Q150.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. India's exports in 2025-26 were $863.11 billion.

2. The US tariffs were the only challenge faced by India's exports during 2025-26.

3. Gujarat's Compound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) was around 10%.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions exports of $863.11 billion. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article also mentions the West Asia crisis as a challenge, not just US tariffs. Statement 3 is correct as the Industries Commissioner stated that CAGR was around 10%.

Source: India's Exports Reach $863.11 Billion Despite West Asia Crisis, US Tariffs; SEZs Key →
Q151.

What is the minimum investment required for a project to be classified as 'ultra-mega' under the Viksit Gujarat Industrial Policy 2026, according to the news?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹5,000 crore
  • B.₹10,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹15,000 crore
  • D.₹20,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The news explicitly states that the ultra-mega category requires an investment of ₹10,000 crore and creation of 3,000 jobs. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Source: India's Exports Reach $863.11 Billion Despite West Asia Crisis, US Tariffs; SEZs Key →
Q152.

What is the primary objective of the 'Choose Your Incentive' scheme launched under the Viksit Gujarat Industrial Policy 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce government expenditure on subsidies
  • B.To provide greater flexibility and support for new entrepreneurs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To incentivize only ultra-mega investments
  • D.To replace all existing SEZ benefits
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that 'Choose Your Incentive' aims to provide greater flexibility and support for new entrepreneurs. It is part of the new policy's features, not about reducing expenditure or replacing SEZ benefits.

Source: India's Exports Reach $863.11 Billion Despite West Asia Crisis, US Tariffs; SEZs Key →
Q153.

Which is India's top atomic energy regulatory body responsible for licensing SMRs?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.NPCIL
  • B.Atomic Energy Regulatory Board✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Department of Atomic Energy
  • D.Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'the country's nuclear regulator — the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board'. NPCIL is the operating company, DAE is the administrative department, and BARC is a research centre. Therefore, AERB is correct.

Source: AERB Denies Special Licensing Relaxations for 30-300 MWe SMRs Under SHANTI Act →
Q154.

Consider the following statements regarding SMR licensing in India:

1. The AERB will maintain the same safety requirements for SMRs as for large nuclear reactors.

2. The SHANTI Act allows private companies to set up nuclear facilities without any license.

3. The regulator will only grant license if the company has a technology provider agreement for design support and training.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says 'maintain the same rigorous safety and licensing requirements'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the SHANTI Act still requires a license from the Central Government and safety authorisation by AERB. Statement 3 is correct: the 'regulator views design support... as a precondition' for license. Hence option C is correct.

Source: AERB Denies Special Licensing Relaxations for 30-300 MWe SMRs Under SHANTI Act →
Q155.

When did the SHANTI Act receive the President's assent?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.December 21, 2024
  • B.December 21, 2025✓ Correct Answer
  • C.January 21, 2026
  • D.June 17, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states 'The SHANTI Act, which received the assent of President on December 21, 2025'. Option A is a year earlier, C is a later month, and D is the publication date of the article. Therefore B is correct.

Source: AERB Denies Special Licensing Relaxations for 30-300 MWe SMRs Under SHANTI Act →
Q156.

What is the primary reason for AERB not granting special regulatory relaxations for SMRs?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.SMRs are not yet commercially viable
  • B.Most domestic private entrants lack experience in operating nuclear facilities✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The SHANTI Act prohibits any relaxations
  • D.SMRs have lower capacity than large reactors
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article says 'most prospective domestic entrants in the sector lack experience in operating nuclear facilities' as the reason for stringent requirements. Option A is not mentioned; C is incorrect because the Act does not prohibit relaxations; D is a factual characteristic but not the reason for licensing policy. Hence B is correct.

Source: AERB Denies Special Licensing Relaxations for 30-300 MWe SMRs Under SHANTI Act →
Q157.

Which US law created the H-1B visa category?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Immigration and Nationality Act of 1952
  • B.Immigration Act of 1990✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Affordable Care Act of 2010
  • D.Child Labour Tax Law of 1922
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The H-1B visa was created by the Immigration Act of 1990, which carved out a distinct classification for highly educated professionals within the broader framework of the Immigration and Nationality Act of 1952.

Source: US Court Strikes Down Trump's $100,000 H-1B Fee as Unlawful Tax →
Q158.

Consider the following statements regarding the US court ruling on the H-1B fee:

1. The court classified the $100,000 charge as a 'penalty' because it was designed to prohibit H-1B hiring.

2. The President relied on Sections 212(f) and 215(a) of the Immigration and Nationality Act to impose the fee.

3. The ruling was based on the principle that only Congress can levy taxes under Article I, Section 8 of the US Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the court classified the fee as a 'tax', not a 'penalty', because H-1B hiring is lawful. Statement 2 is correct: Trump cited Sections 212(f) and 215(a) of the INA. Statement 3 is correct: the court held that only Congress has the power to tax under Article I, Section 8.

Source: US Court Strikes Down Trump's $100,000 H-1B Fee as Unlawful Tax →
Q159.

What percentage of H-1B visa approvals are accounted for by Indian nationals?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Approximately 50%
  • B.Approximately 60%
  • C.Approximately 70%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Approximately 80%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Indians account for roughly 70% of H-1B visa approvals, followed by Chinese nationals at about 12%. This data point is crucial for understanding the impact of US immigration policies on India.

Source: US Court Strikes Down Trump's $100,000 H-1B Fee as Unlawful Tax →
Q160.

What was the primary legal reason the US District Court struck down the $100,000 H-1B fee?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The fee violated the H-1B visa cap limits set by Congress
  • B.The fee was an unlawful tax that the President could not impose without Congressional delegation✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The fee discriminated against Indian nationals unfairly
  • D.The fee violated international trade agreements
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court held that the $100,000 charge was a tax, not a penalty, and the President lacked authority under the INA to impose it. Only Congress possesses the constitutional power to levy taxes under Article I, Section 8, unless clearly delegated.

Source: US Court Strikes Down Trump's $100,000 H-1B Fee as Unlawful Tax →
Q161.

Which of the following bodies is primarily responsible for the planning and development of land in Delhi, as mentioned in the context of the new slum rehabilitation policy?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Municipal Corporation of Delhi (MCD)
  • B.Delhi Development Authority (DDA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA)
  • D.National Capital Region Planning Board (NCRPB)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions the Delhi Development Authority (DDA) in conjunction with the Delhi Urban Shelter Improvement Board (DUSIB) as the bodies directed to issue tenders for rehabilitation projects. DDA is the statutory planning and development authority for Delhi established under the Delhi Development Act, 1957.

Source: Delhi Slum Rehabilitation Policy 2026: Eligibility Cut-off Shifted to Jan 1, 2025 to Benefit 4 Lakh Families →
Q162.

Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi Slum and JJ Cluster Rehabilitation and Relocation Policy, 2026:

1. It replaces the earlier slum rehabilitation policy of Delhi which had a cut-off date of January 1, 2015.

2. The new policy mandates that rehabilitation colonies should consist solely of housing units to maximize the number of beneficiaries.

3. The policy aims to benefit approximately four lakh families living in Jhuggi-Jhopri clusters in Delhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the new policy replaces the 2015 policy. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly states that the Union Home Minister said rehabilitation colonies should NOT be limited to housing units alone and must include community facilities. Statement 3 is correct as the policy aims to benefit four lakh families.

Source: Delhi Slum Rehabilitation Policy 2026: Eligibility Cut-off Shifted to Jan 1, 2025 to Benefit 4 Lakh Families →
Q163.

According to the new Delhi Slum Rehabilitation Policy 2026, what is the revised eligibility cut-off date for residents of JJ clusters?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.January 1, 2015
  • B.January 1, 2020
  • C.January 1, 2025✓ Correct Answer
  • D.January 1, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that under the new policy, the eligibility cut-off date is shifted to January 1, 2025, from the earlier cut-off of January 1, 2015. This is a key factual data point from the news.

Source: Delhi Slum Rehabilitation Policy 2026: Eligibility Cut-off Shifted to Jan 1, 2025 to Benefit 4 Lakh Families →
Q164.

What is a significant feature of the implementation strategy for the new Delhi slum rehabilitation policy as directed by the Union Home Minister?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Exclusive funding and execution by the Central Government.
  • B.Execution solely by the Delhi Urban Shelter Improvement Board (DUSIB).
  • C.Use of the Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model for project rollout.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Prioritizing rehabilitation only for clusters established before 2000.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Union Home Minister asked the Delhi government to roll out at least five rehabilitation projects every month under the public-private partnership (PPP) model. This indicates the chosen implementation strategy involves collaboration between the public and private sectors.

Source: Delhi Slum Rehabilitation Policy 2026: Eligibility Cut-off Shifted to Jan 1, 2025 to Benefit 4 Lakh Families →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 17 June 2026?▼

This page contains 164 current affairs questions from 17 June 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 17 June 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. The leaked 14-point MoU between the US and Iran is a successor…
  2. Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the leaked US-Iran…
  3. Q3. According to the leaked MoU text, what is the proposed timelin…
  4. Q4. is the primary strategic implication of the US agreeing to lif…
  5. Q5. organisation is responsible for registering beneficiaries unde…
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the PM Viksit Bhar…
  7. Q7. According to the news article, what is the total outlay of the…
  8. Q8. is the primary objective of the PM Viksit Bharat Udyog Yojana?
  9. Q9. Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the anti-defect…
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the merger provisi…
  11. Q11. In which year was the split provision (Paragraph 3) of the Ten…
  12. Q12. did the Supreme Court recommend in the K.M. Singh case (2020) …
  13. Q13. country helped mediate the investment fund deal between the US…
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the US-Iran Recons…
  15. Q15. is the total size of the investment fund outlined in the US-Ir…
  16. Q16. is the primary purpose of the Reconstruction and Development F…
  17. Q17. EU body is responsible for proposing and implementing trade ag…
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the India-EU FTA: …
  19. Q19. By when will the India-EU Free Trade Agreement be signed, as a…
  20. Q20. is the primary strategic objective of advancing the India-Midd…
  21. Q21. group of countries held the summit in Evian-les-Bains, France …
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the 2026 G7 Summit…
  23. Q23. was the EU's trade deficit with China recorded in 2025?
  24. Q24. Why did G7 leaders discuss critical minerals at the 2026 summit?
  25. Q25. species of Plasmodium is responsible for the majority of sever…
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding drug-resistant mal…
  27. Q27. By what percentage did malaria-related deaths in India decline…
  28. Q28. Why does Plasmodium vivax pose a unique challenge for malaria …
  29. Q29. international agency published the monthly report that reveale…
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the IEA's report o…
  31. Q31. According to the article, what was the total volume of emergen…
  32. Q32. was the primary factor leading to the depletion of OECD oil st…
  33. Q33. article of the Indian Constitution deals with the appointment …
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of…
  35. Q35. According to the article, what is the percentage of women judg…
  36. Q36. is the primary recommendation made in the article to improve g…
  37. Q37. ministry is primarily responsible for the Indian Statistical I…
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the Draft ISI Bill…
  39. Q39. many members does the current Governing Council of ISI have, a…
  40. Q40. is the primary governance problem that the Draft ISI Bill 2026…
  41. Q41. ministry issued the blocking order against Telegram in India o…
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the legal framewor…
  43. Q43. According to the news article, how many active users does Tele…
  44. Q44. was the primary reason cited by the MeitY for blocking Telegra…
  45. Q45. ministry is responsible for issuing blocking orders under Sect…
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the G7: 1. The G7…
  47. Q47. is the estimated number of Telegram users in India as mentione…
  48. Q48. is the primary objective of the Multi-Lane Free Flow (MLFF) to…
  49. Q49. organization is the executive body of the European Union that …
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the India-EU Free …
  51. Q51. By what year is the India-EU Free Trade Agreement scheduled to…
  52. Q52. is the primary strategic objective of the India-EU Free Trade …
  53. Q53. strait, critical for global oil shipments, is mentioned in the…
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the U.S.-Iran deal…
  55. Q55. According to the article, over what time period will negotiati…
  56. Q56. is a key lesson for Gulf countries, as highlighted by the arti…
  57. Q57. regional intergovernmental union, mentioned as influencing U.S…
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the U.S.-Iran deal…
  59. Q59. According to the article, what is the estimated direct cumulat…
  60. Q60. is a primary geopolitical implication of the U.S.-Iran conflic…
  61. Q61. of the following landmark legislations is credited with restru…
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements regarding India's power sect…
  63. Q63. According to the article, what is the approximate target for I…
  64. Q64. is identified as a core challenge for Distribution Companies (…
  65. Q65. The Strait of Hormuz, a critical chokepoint mentioned in the n…
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the U.S.-Iran agre…
  67. Q67. According to the article, on which date did the U.S. and Israe…
  68. Q68. What, according to the analysis in the article, was the fundam…
  69. Q69. of the following bodies is primarily responsible for the plann…
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the new slum rehab…
  71. Q71. According to the article, what is the total number of slums in…
  72. Q72. was identified as a key reason for the failure of previous slu…
  73. Q73. country's social media policy model is the UK planning to adop…
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the UK's proposed …
  75. Q75. According to a survey mentioned in the article, what percentag…
  76. Q76. is the primary rationale, as explained by the expert, for advo…
  77. Q77. government think tank published the 'Composite Water Managemen…
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the urban water cr…
  79. Q79. According to the article, in which year did the Mihir Shah Com…
  80. Q80. is the primary critique of the conventional approach to urban …
  81. Q81. organization is primarily responsible for implementing the Pra…
  82. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri…
  83. Q83. is the total amount of incentives disbursed at the launch of t…
  84. Q84. is the primary objective of the PMVBRY scheme?
  85. Q85. is the full form of IMPACT proposed by PM Modi at the G7 Summi…
  86. Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the G7 Summit 2026…
  87. Q87. In which year was the India-Middle East-Europe Corridor (IMEC)…
  88. Q88. is the primary objective of the Global Skills Partnership prop…
  89. Q89. state agency conducted the sting operation 'Operation Food Saf…
  90. Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the VACB sting ope…
  91. Q91. According to the article, what percentage of government-subsid…
  92. Q92. is the primary objective of the 'Operation Food Safety' sting …
  93. Q93. body is primarily responsible for promoting Bengaluru's startu…
  94. Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the Global Startup…
  95. Q95. was the total VC funding that flowed into Bengaluru-based star…
  96. Q96. is the primary objective of the Karnataka Digital Economy Miss…
  97. Q97. department under the Ministry of Education is primarily respon…
  98. Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the NTA's financia…
  99. Q99. was the total revenue collected by the NTA from conducting exa…
  100. Q100. is the primary objective of the parliamentary committee's reco…
  101. Q101. parliamentary committee submitted the 381st Action Taken Repor…
  102. Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the parliamentary …
  103. Q103. According to the news article, how many subjects were offered …
  104. Q104. is the primary concern raised by the parliamentary panel regar…
  105. Q105. constitutional provision directs the state to secure a Uniform…
  106. Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the UCC Bill in Ma…
  107. Q107. is the deadline (in days) given to the high-level committee to…
  108. Q108. is the primary objective of introducing the Uniform Civil Code…
  109. Q109. entity was formed after the abolition of TANGEDCO in 2024 and …
  110. Q110. Consider the following statements regarding Tamil Nadu’s power…
  111. Q111. According to the White Paper, what was the annual government s…
  112. Q112. is the primary implication of the Supreme Court’s order on reg…
  113. Q113. strategic waterway is the focus of the 14-point MoU between Ir…
  114. Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the Iran-U.S. MoU:…
  115. Q115. According to the MoU, within how many days does the U.S. commi…
  116. Q116. is a potential consequence of Iran not committing to toll-free…
  117. Q117. institution conducted the study on human activity driving extr…
  118. Q118. Consider the following statements: 1. The study used a techni…
  119. Q119. According to the study, which region of India showed the clear…
  120. Q120. is the primary implication of the study's finding for urban pl…
  121. Q121. ministry is responsible for issuing the temporary blocking ord…
  122. Q122. Consider the following statements: 1. The government flagged …
  123. Q123. On which date was the temporary blocking order issued against …
  124. Q124. is the primary reason cited by Telegram for rejecting the outr…
  125. Q125. institution conducted the study titled 'Behaviour Change Appro…
  126. Q126. Consider the following statements regarding the CEEW study on …
  127. Q127. According to the CEEW study, what percentage of surveyed farme…
  128. Q128. is the primary strategic shift recommended by the CEEW study t…
  129. Q129. international waterway, through which 1/5 of the world's oil a…
  130. Q130. Consider the following statements regarding the US-led campaig…
  131. Q131. According to the Reuters analysis, what percentage of Iran's a…
  132. Q132. does the failure to achieve 'regime change' in Iran despite th…
  133. Q133. ministry released the second Bonn Challenge progress report fo…
  134. Q134. Consider the following statements regarding India's Bonn Chall…
  135. Q135. According to the report, how many million man-days of employme…
  136. Q136. is the primary objective of the Bonn Challenge?
  137. Q137. body approved the pilot project to outsource management of Com…
  138. Q138. Consider the following statements: 1. The pilot project cover…
  139. Q139. is the total number of sanctioned specialist positions in Madh…
  140. Q140. is the primary objective of the pilot project announced by Mad…
  141. Q141. US president established the original US Pacific Command on Ja…
  142. Q142. Consider the following statements regarding the US Pacific Com…
  143. Q143. On what date did the US Department of War announce the reversi…
  144. Q144. was the primary reason cited by the US Department of War for r…
  145. Q145. ministry/department is primarily responsible for the implement…
  146. Q146. Consider the following statements regarding the new Delhi slum…
  147. Q147. According to the article, what is the total number of families…
  148. Q148. is the primary reason for extending the cut-off date from 2015…
  149. Q149. ministry's Additional Secretary attended the Gujarat SEZs Outr…
  150. Q150. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Indi…
  151. Q151. is the minimum investment required for a project to be classif…
  152. Q152. is the primary objective of the 'Choose Your Incentive' scheme…
  153. Q153. is India's top atomic energy regulatory body responsible for l…
  154. Q154. Consider the following statements regarding SMR licensing in I…
  155. Q155. did the SHANTI Act receive the President's assent?
  156. Q156. is the primary reason for AERB not granting special regulatory…
  157. Q157. US law created the H-1B visa category?
  158. Q158. Consider the following statements regarding the US court rulin…
  159. Q159. percentage of H-1B visa approvals are accounted for by Indian …
  160. Q160. was the primary legal reason the US District Court struck down…
  161. Q161. of the following bodies is primarily responsible for the plann…
  162. Q162. Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi Slum and…
  163. Q163. According to the new Delhi Slum Rehabilitation Policy 2026, wh…
  164. Q164. is a significant feature of the implementation strategy for th…