12 June 2026, Questions & Answers
104 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
104 questions · 0 topics covered · 21 min revision
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This page contains 104 current affairs questions with answers from 12 June 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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104 QsWho was the petitioner in the famous 1975 election case against Prime Minister Indira Gandhi?
- A.Morarji Desai
- B.Jayaprakash Narayan
- C.Raj Narain✓ Correct Answer
- D.Charan Singh
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Explanation
As per the article, the election petition was filed by Raj Narain, the socialist leader who was defeated by Indira Gandhi in the 1971 Rae Bareilly parliamentary election.
Consider the following statements regarding the Allahabad High Court verdict of 1975:
1. The verdict declared Indira Gandhi's 1971 election from Rae Bareilly void.
2. Justice Jagmohan Lal Sinha upheld all fourteen charges of corrupt practices against her.
3. The verdict barred Indira Gandhi from contesting any election for a period of six years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The judgment annulled her 1971 election. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article states Justice Sinha dismissed twelve of the fourteen charges, upholding only two. Statement 3 is correct: The judgment barred her from contesting elections for six years.
On which date did the Supreme Court grant a conditional stay on the Allahabad High Court verdict against Indira Gandhi?
- A.12 June 1975
- B.23 June 1975
- C.24 June 1975✓ Correct Answer
- D.25 June 1975
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Explanation
The article states that on June 24, Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer of the Supreme Court issued a conditional stay on the Allahabad High Court judgement. June 12 is the HC verdict date, June 23 is when SC began hearing, and June 25 is the Emergency proclamation date.
What was the immediate and most significant political consequence of the Allahabad High Court's June 12, 1975 verdict?
- A.Indira Gandhi immediately resigned as Prime Minister.
- B.The President dissolved the Lok Sabha and called for fresh elections.
- C.A state of National Emergency was proclaimed under Article 352.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Supreme Court overturned the High Court verdict the next day.
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Explanation
As detailed in the article, the judgment triggered a political crisis. Following a Supreme Court stay and massive opposition protests, a state of Internal Emergency was proclaimed on the night of June 25, 1975. This is cited as the direct and most significant consequence.
The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 (AFSPA) is primarily administered by which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Defence
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Law and Justice
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
AFSPA is a law related to the maintenance of public order in 'disturbed areas', which falls under the internal security domain. Internal security is the primary responsibility of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Union Home Minister announced the complete withdrawal of AFSPA from all Northeastern states by the end of 2026.
2. A tripartite MoU was signed for oil exploration in a disputed area between Assam and Nagaland where work had been stalled for over three decades.
3. Since 2019, incidents of violence in the Northeast have reduced by approximately 80%, attributed to the signing of multiple peace accords.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The announcement was for withdrawal in 2027 (next year) and specifically mentioned barring one or two states, not a complete withdrawal from all states. Statement 2 is correct as per the article detailing the MoU for the Assam-Nagaland border area stalled for over 30 years. Statement 3 is correct as the article cites an 80% drop in violence due to 12 accords since 2019.
According to Union Home Minister Amit Shah, what is the estimated potential recovery value from the oil field mentioned in the tripartite MoU?
- A.More than ₹5,000 crore
- B.More than ₹10,000 crore
- C.More than ₹15,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.More than ₹20,000 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly quotes the Home Minister stating, "In one field alone, there are possibilities of recovery of more than ₹15,000 crore." The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is cited as the primary significance of the tripartite MoU signed between the Centre, Assam, and Nagaland, as per the news article?
- A.It formally demarcates the interstate boundary between Assam and Nagaland.
- B.It resolves a long-standing jurisdictional dispute to enable joint resource exploration and boost development.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It transfers all mineral rights in the disputed area to the Central government.
- D.It establishes a new public sector undertaking for oil exploration in the Northeast.
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Explanation
The article states the MoU is for "joint exploration and production" in a "disputed area belt" where work was "stalled for more than three decades due to jurisdictional differences." It is highlighted as an example of cooperative federalism opening doors for development, not boundary demarcation, central takeover, or creating a new PSU.
The SIPRI Yearbook 2026 was published by which international institute?
- A.International Institute for Strategic Studies (IISS)
- B.Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Rand Corporation
- D.Brookings Institution
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Explanation
As stated in the article, SIPRI stands for Stockholm International Peace Research Institute, a Sweden-based think tank established in 1966 that publishes the annual yearbook on global security.
Consider the following statements regarding findings of the SIPRI Yearbook 2026:
1. Global military expenditure in 2025 was $2.9 trillion, marking the eleventh consecutive year of increase.
2. India was the largest recipient of major arms during the period 2021-25.
3. The New START Treaty, the last remaining nuclear arms control treaty between the US and Russia, expired in February 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: global spending was $2.9T with an 11-year consecutive increase. Statement 2 is incorrect; India was the second largest recipient (8.2% of imports), not the largest. Statement 3 is correct; the article confirms New START expired in February 2026.
According to SIPRI Yearbook 2026, what was India's military expenditure in 2025?
- A.$82.1 billion
- B.$92.1 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$102.1 billion
- D.$114 billion
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Explanation
The article explicitly states India spent $92.1 billion on its military in 2025, an 8.9% increase from the previous year, making it the fifth highest spender globally. $114 billion was Germany's spending.
The SIPRI report highlights 'Nuclear-Conventional Entanglement' as a destabilizing development. What is the primary risk associated with this concept?
- A.Risk of conventional weapons being mistaken for chemical weapons.
- B.Risk that a conventional military strike could be misread as a nuclear attack, triggering escalation.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Risk of nuclear waste contaminating conventional battlefields.
- D.Risk of cyberattacks disabling both nuclear and conventional command systems simultaneously.
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Explanation
As defined in the article, Nuclear-Conventional Entanglement refers to the 'grey area' where the same missiles can carry both nuclear and conventional warheads. This creates the risk that a conventional strike could be misinterpreted as nuclear, leading to unintended escalation, as seen in the India-Pakistan context.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for notifying the rules for the four Labour Codes?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Labour and Employment✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
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Explanation
The Ministry of Labour and Employment is the nodal ministry for labour laws and policies in India. It is responsible for drafting and notifying rules under the consolidated Labour Codes.
Consider the following statements regarding the recently notified Labour Code Rules:
1. The Rules specify a minimum tenure of one year for Fixed-Term Employment.
2. The Rules provide a clear and detailed framework for determining the floor wage.
3. The Rules require a sole registered trade union to have at least 30% membership for recognition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The article states the rules remain silent on specifying a minimum tenure for Fixed-Term Employment. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article states the rules provide only a vague definition of the 'floor wage'. Statement 3 is correct: The Industrial Relations Code (Central) Rules provide that a sole registered trade union must have at least 30% membership to be recognised.
According to the Code on Wages (Central) Rules, how is the hourly wage to be calculated?
- A.Daily wage divided by 12
- B.Daily wage divided by 10
- C.Daily wage divided by 8✓ Correct Answer
- D.Monthly wage divided by 240
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The Rules further provide that the hourly wage shall be calculated by dividing the daily wage by eight.' This is highlighted as a conceptually flawed approach but is the current rule.
What is a major criticism regarding the treatment of gig and platform workers under the newly notified Social Security Code Rules?
- A.They are granted excessive benefits compared to regular employees.
- B.They are mandated to form unions for collective bargaining.
- C.They continue to be treated as self-employed with unclear employment relationships.✓ Correct Answer
- D.They are excluded from all social security benefits permanently.
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Explanation
The article criticizes the Social Security Code Rules for making 'no attempt to clarify the employment relationship in the gig economy' and that 'gig and platform workers continue to be treated as self-employed and remain part of the unorganised workforce,' leaving them vulnerable.
Which constitutional article, as cited by the Supreme Court, bars judicial interference in electoral matters?
- A.Article 324
- B.Article 329(b)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 226
- D.Article 32
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Explanation
The Supreme Court Bench specifically cited Article 329(b) of the Constitution, which stipulates that no election to Parliament or a State Legislature can be called in question except through an election petition.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment:
1. The Court held that it has jurisdiction to interfere with the Returning Officer's order under its writ powers.
2. The Court cited the landmark 1952 judgment in N.P. Ponnuswami v. Returning Officer.
3. The Court ruled that an election petition is the only remedy available to challenge the rejection of a nomination.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 2
- B.(B) Only 3
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Court held it had NO jurisdiction to interfere due to Article 329(b). Statement 2 is correct as the Bench referenced the N.P. Ponnuswami case. Statement 3 is correct as the Court stated an election petition is the only remedy.
On what date did the Returning Officer reject Meenakshi Natarajan's nomination for the Rajya Sabha?
- A.June 9, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- B.June 11, 2026
- C.June 12, 2026
- D.October 2025
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Explanation
The article states the plea challenged 'a June 9 order of the RO... rejecting her nomination'. June 11 is when results were declared, June 12 is when the SC dismissed the plea, and October 2025 is when a notice was issued in the pending case.
What was the primary legal reasoning used by the Supreme Court to dismiss the plea for judicial intervention?
- A.The right to contest is a fundamental right enforceable under Article 32.
- B.The Court found no error in the Returning Officer's decision.
- C.The constitutional bar under Article 329(b) limits challenges to election petitions only.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The petitioner did not disclose a criminal case, which is a valid ground for rejection.
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Explanation
The core legal reasoning, as stated in the article, was the principle contained in Article 329 of the Constitution, which bars courts from intervening in ongoing electoral processes, relegating the challenge to an election petition.
The 'Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI)' was launched by the Prime Minister of which country?
- A.United States
- B.Japan
- C.India✓ Correct Answer
- D.Australia
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Explanation
As per the article, Prime Minister Narendra Modi of India launched the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI) in 2019. This is a key Indian foreign policy initiative for the region.
Consider the following statements regarding the news article:
1. The Quad grouping has agreed to start an Indo-Pacific Maritime Surveillance initiative.
2. The Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI) was launched by India in 2021.
3. The Pax Silica initiative is related to securing silicon-based supply chains.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article cites the Quad's decision to start the maritime surveillance initiative. Statement 2 is incorrect because the IPOI was launched in 2019, not 2021. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions the U.S. Pax Silica initiative for silicon supply chains. Hence, option C is correct.
In which year was the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI) launched by India?
- A.2017
- B.2019✓ Correct Answer
- C.2021
- D.2023
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Explanation
The article clearly states that Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI) in 2019. The other options are years associated with other geopolitical events but are distractors in this context.
According to Ambassador Vinay Kwatra, what was a key reality check for the world regarding supply chains, as mentioned in the article?
- A.The need for digital transformation in logistics
- B.The challenges posed by product and supply chain concentration in foreign geographies✓ Correct Answer
- C.The importance of lowering tariffs for free trade
- D.The shift towards agricultural self-sufficiency
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Explanation
The article quotes the envoy stating that the COVID-19 pandemic gave the world a reality check on the challenges posed by product and supply chain concentration in foreign geographies. This directly underscores the impetus for building more reliable and diversified supply chains, a key point in his discussion.
Which Indian ministry summoned the U.S. Charge d'Affaires and issued the formal diplomatic protest (demarche) over the attacks on merchant vessels?
- A.Ministry of Defence
- B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
- D.Ministry of Home Affairs
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Explanation
The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is responsible for India's foreign relations and diplomatic communications. As per the article, MEA spokesperson Randhir Jaiswal addressed the issue, and the MEA summoned the U.S. diplomat and handed over the demarche.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent attacks on merchant vessels with Indian seafarers:
1. The U.S. Navy attacked three vessels named Settebello, Marivex, and Jalveer, resulting in casualties among Indian crew members.
2. All three attacked vessels were Indian-owned and Indian-flagged, operating in the Gulf of Oman.
3. India demanded unimpeded access through the Strait of Hormuz in accordance with international law and called for an end to the attacks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article names the three vessels and confirms Indian casualties. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly states the vessels were foreign-flagged (Palau and Guinea-Bissau) and not Indian-owned. Statement 3 is correct as MEA spokesperson Jaiswal emphasized these points during the briefing.
According to the news, how many Indian seafarers were reported to be in the Gulf region at the time of the incidents?
- A.Over 5,000
- B.Over 10,000
- C.Over 15,000
- D.Over 18,000✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article states that 'more than 18,000 Indian seafarers remained in the Gulf region' as mentioned by Mukesh Mangal, Additional Secretary, Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. This is a key data point highlighting the scale of the Indian diaspora at risk.
What was the primary reason cited by the U.S. Central Command for attacking the vessel 'Jalveer'?
- A.The vessel was involved in piracy activities.
- B.The vessel refused to pay port duties in a U.S. territory.
- C.The vessel violated the blockade against Iran by attempting to transport Iranian oil.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The vessel entered restricted military waters near Oman.
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Explanation
The article directly quotes the U.S. Central Command's social media post, stating that Jalveer 'violated the blockade against Iran by attempting to transport Iranian oil' and failed to comply with directions. This connects the incident to the enforcement of U.S. sanctions on Iranian oil exports.
Which Union Ministry played a key facilitative role in the tripartite MoU between Centre, Assam, and Nagaland for oil exploration?
- A.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
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Explanation
According to the article, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) release detailed the MoU and stated it establishes a coordinated framework. The signing occurred in the presence of the Home Minister, highlighting MHA's role in resolving the interstate boundary dispute to enable exploration.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Assam-Nagaland oil exploration MoU:
1. It aims to resume exploration in the Disputed Area Belt (DAB) after a suspension of three decades.
2. The agreement was signed between the governments of Assam and Nagaland only.
3. Assam accounts for nearly 15% of India's crude oil reserves and 22% of its natural gas reserves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the MoU paves the way for resumption after 30 years. Statement 2 is incorrect; it was a tripartite MoU involving the Union Government as well. Statement 3 is incorrect; the percentages are swapped – Assam has nearly 22% of crude oil and about 15% of natural gas reserves.
According to the article, what percentage of India's crude oil needs are met through imports?
- A.About 50%
- B.Over 75%
- C.Over 88%✓ Correct Answer
- D.Nearly 95%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "India depends on imports to meet over 88% of its crude oil needs." The figure for natural gas imports is about half (50%), which is a potential distractor.
What is the primary strategic objective behind the tripartite MoU for oil and gas exploration in the Assam-Nagaland border area?
- A.To increase revenue for the state governments of Assam and Nagaland
- B.To reduce India's dependence on energy imports and enhance energy security✓ Correct Answer
- C.To resolve the constitutional boundary dispute between Assam and Nagaland permanently
- D.To attract foreign direct investment specifically in the Northeast's mining sector
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Explanation
The article repeatedly links the agreement to India's high import dependency (88% crude oil) and vulnerability to international shocks. While economic development of the states and attracting investment are mentioned benefits, the core national objective stressed by ministers is enhancing domestic production for energy security.
Under which regulatory order is the approval for new fertilisers currently mandated in India?
- A.Essential Commodities Act, 1955
- B.Fertiliser (Control) Order, 1985✓ Correct Answer
- C.Agricultural Produce Marketing Committee Act
- D.Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that no new fertiliser can be introduced without registration under the Fertiliser (Control) Order (FCO) of 1985. This is the primary regulatory framework governing fertiliser quality and approval in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the fertiliser approval process in India:
1. The current process involves mandatory field trials conducted through ICAR institutes and state agricultural universities.
2. The approval time for a new fertiliser product in India is approximately 90 days, similar to the United States.
3. The proposed reform aims to exempt fertilisers meeting established quality standards from mandatory field trials.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions field trials through ICAR institutes and state agricultural universities. Statement 2 is incorrect as the approval time in India is 800+ days, while in the US it is 90 days. Statement 3 is correct as the government is considering exempting fertilisers meeting quality standards from field trials.
According to the article, what is the projected fertiliser subsidy bill for the financial year 2026-27?
- A.₹1,70,799 crore
- B.₹2,51,339.36 crore
- C.₹3,40,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹4,50,000 crore
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Explanation
The article states the Union government's fertiliser subsidy bill for 2026-27 is set to touch ₹3,40,000 crore. ₹1,70,799 crore is the budgeted amount, and ₹2,51,339.36 crore was the previous record in 2022-23.
What is the primary objective of the government's proposed reform to streamline the fertiliser approval process?
- A.To increase the production of conventional urea and DAP
- B.To reduce the time and complexity of introducing new, efficient fertiliser products✓ Correct Answer
- C.To centralise all fertiliser manufacturing under public sector units
- D.To eliminate the need for any quality standards for fertilisers
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Explanation
The article's core focus is on liberalising the 'cumbersome' and 'time-consuming' approval process that takes 800+ days. The reform aims to speed up the introduction of innovative, non-subsidised fertilisers like water-soluble and controlled-release variants to improve efficiency and manage the subsidy bill.
The article is authored by which key government official?
- A.Chairperson of NITI Aayog
- B.Chief Economic Advisor, Government of India✓ Correct Answer
- C.Governor of the Reserve Bank of India
- D.Secretary of the Department of Economic Affairs
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Explanation
The article's byline explicitly states 'The writer is chief economic advisor, Government of India'. This is a direct factual extraction from the provided content.
Consider the following statements regarding the explanations for India's R&D underinvestment as per the article:
1. A 'chronological' explanation cites the volatile macroeconomic environment of the last 15 years.
2. A 'generational' explanation cites the tendency of third-generation family firms to prioritize preserving inherited wealth over risky investments.
3. The article references a 2005 study by Morck, Wolfenzon, and Yeung on the economic entrenchment of family firms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article discusses the 'chronological' factor covering events from 2008-2023. Statement 2 is correct as it defines the 'generational' factor. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions the 2005 study by Morck, Wolfenzon, and Yeung.
According to the article, in which year was the study by Morck, Wolfenzon, and Yeung on family firms published in the Journal of Economic Literature?
- A.2003
- B.2005✓ Correct Answer
- C.2006
- D.2008
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Explanation
The article states: 'Morck, Wolfenzon and Yeung, in the Journal of Economic Literature in 2005, documented...'. This is a direct data point. 2006 is the year of the Pérez-González study mentioned later, which is a potential trap.
What is the primary strategic implication identified in the article if Indian industry fails to increase long-term R&D investment?
- A.Increased dependence on foreign portfolio investment.
- B.A gradual narrowing of competitive space as East Asian rivals climb the value chain.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Immediate regulatory action from the government to mandate R&D spending.
- D.A shift in the economy from services back to agriculture.
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Explanation
The article's core argument is about strategic survival. It states: 'As competitors from East Asia continue to climb the value chain, the space available to Indian businesses that decline to invest in frontier capabilities will narrow.' The other options are not the primary implication discussed.
Which ministry/department releases the Consumer Price Index (CPI) data in India?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Reserve Bank of India
- C.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation✓ Correct Answer
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
The article states that CPI data was released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). MoSPI is the nodal agency for official statistics in India, including price indices.
Consider the following statements regarding the inflation data for May 2026:
1. The headline Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation was higher than the inflation rate recorded in April 2026.
2. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) inflation for April 2026 was lower than the CPI inflation for May 2026.
3. The Consumer Food Price Index showed a month-on-month increase in May 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: May CPI inflation was 3.93%, higher than April's 3.48%. Statement 2 is incorrect: April WPI inflation was 8.3%, which is higher than May's CPI of 3.93%. Statement 3 is correct: The Consumer Food Price Index rose 0.92% month-on-month in May.
According to the article, what was the year-on-year increase in tomato prices in May 2026?
- A.32%
- B.35%
- C.48%✓ Correct Answer
- D.14%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "Tomato prices were 48% higher year-on-year in May." The other percentages correspond to ginger's increase (32%) or the April figures for tomatoes (35%) and ginger (14%).
As per the RBI's latest forecasts mentioned in the article, in which quarter of 2026-27 is inflation projected to peak?
- A.April-June (Q1)
- B.July-September (Q2)
- C.October-December (Q3)✓ Correct Answer
- D.January-March 2027 (Q4)
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Explanation
The article provides the RBI's quarterly inflation forecasts: 4.2% in April-June, 5.1% in July-September, 5.9% in October-December, and 5.4% in January-March 2027. The highest projected value is 5.9% for the October-December 2026 quarter.
Which Indian law decriminalized attempt to commit suicide and introduced a presumption of severe mental stress for such attempts?
- A.The Indian Penal Code (Amendment) Act, 2013
- B.The Mental Healthcare Act, 2017✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985
- D.The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012
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Explanation
The Mental Healthcare Act, 2017, specifically in Section 115, states that a person who attempts suicide shall be presumed to have severe stress and shall not be punished under the Indian Penal Code, thereby decriminalizing the attempt.
Consider the following statements regarding the Kerala High Court judgment mentioned in the news:
1. The Court acquitted the woman by applying the presumption under Section 115 of the Mental Healthcare Act, 2017.
2. The Court held that the Mental Healthcare Act does not have retrospective effect and thus could not apply to the 2016 incident.
3. The Court clarified that for an offence under Section 309 IPC, the focus is on the 'attempt' to commit suicide, not the likelihood of death from the injuries inflicted.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the judgment specifically applied Section 115 of the MHCA. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Court reaffirmed the Act's retrospective effect for trials begun after its enforcement. Statement 3 is correct as the judgment explicitly states that Section 309 IPC focuses on the attempt, not the fatal potential of injuries.
In which year did the Mental Healthcare Act, referenced in the Kerala HC judgment, come into effect?
- A.2016
- B.2017
- C.2018✓ Correct Answer
- D.2019
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Explanation
The article states, 'The Act, which came into effect in 2018.' While the Act was passed in 2017, its enforcement date is a key factual distinction often tested.
What was the primary legal consequence of the Kerala High Court applying Section 115 of the Mental Healthcare Act, 2017, to the case?
- A.It increased the sentence of the convicted woman.
- B.It allowed the woman to be punished under a different section of the IPC.
- C.It created a presumption that the woman was under severe stress, leading to her acquittal from IPC offences.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It mandated compulsory psychiatric treatment as an additional punishment.
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Explanation
Section 115 of the MHCA presumes severe stress in case of a suicide attempt and states the person 'shall not be punished for any of the offences under the IPC.' The Court applied this presumption, which was the direct legal basis for setting aside her conviction and life sentence.
The proposed PM MITRA Textile Park near Kalaburagi falls under which special development region of Karnataka?
- A.Malnad Region
- B.Coastal Karnataka Region
- C.Kalyana Karnataka Region✓ Correct Answer
- D.Mysore Region
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Explanation
The article mentions the park is expected to emerge as a major hub for the Kalyana Karnataka region. This region, comprising six backward districts, receives special development attention under Article 371-J of the Constitution.
Consider the following statements regarding the PM MITRA Textile Park project near Kalaburagi:
1. The first phase of the park is being developed over an area of 1,000 acres.
2. The park's Common Effluent Treatment Plant (CETP) will have a capacity of 5 million litres per day (MLD).
3. The CETP will operate on Zero Liquid Discharge (ZLD) technology to minimise environmental impact.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the CETP capacity is 2.5 MLD, not 5 MLD. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly stated. Hence, option C is correct.
What is the capacity of the Ground Level Service Reservoir (GLSR) for potable water supply planned for the PM MITRA Textile Park?
- A.2 lakh litres
- B.5 lakh litres✓ Correct Answer
- C.10 lakh litres
- D.15 lakh litres
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions that a comprehensive water management system would include a 'five-lakh-litre Ground Level Service Reservoir (GLSR) for potable water supply'. The other options are distractors based on other reservoir capacities mentioned (like the 10 lakh litre ELSR).
What is the primary infrastructural model being adopted for the development of the PM MITRA Textile Park to attract investors?
- A.Public-Private Partnership (PPP) Model
- B.Build-Operate-Transfer (BOT) Model
- C.Plug-and-Play Model✓ Correct Answer
- D.Engineering, Procurement, and Construction (EPC) Model
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Explanation
The Minister stated the project would be developed under a 'plug-and-play' model, enabling investors to commence production with minimal delay by providing ready-to-use world-class infrastructure. This model reduces the time and capital expenditure required for investors to set up operations.
The administration of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA) falls primarily under which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Law and Justice
- D.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
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Explanation
The FCRA is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). The MHA grants registration and prior permission to associations to receive foreign contributions and monitors their utilization.
Consider the following statements regarding the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2026:
1. It introduces a new Section 16A that allows for the provisional vesting of an organization's assets with a government authority upon cancellation of its FCRA registration.
2. The Bill proposes to abolish Section 22 of the FCRA, which deals with the disposal of assets of defunct organizations.
3. According to the article, the civil society sector contributes around 2% of India's GDP and generates significant employment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as Section 16A enables provisional vesting of assets. Statement 2 is correct as the article states the Bill proposes abolishing Section 22. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the sector contributes around 2% of GDP and, according to a 2014 report, generates 27 lakh jobs.
According to the article, approximately how many FCRA licences were cancelled between 2014 and 2026?
- A.About 5,000
- B.About 10,000
- C.About 22,000✓ Correct Answer
- D.About 35,000
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that between 2014 and 2026, about 22,000 FCRA licences have been cancelled. The other options are plausible distractors but are not mentioned in the provided text.
What is a primary constitutional concern raised by critics regarding the FCRA Amendment Bill, 2026, as per the article?
- A.It violates the principle of federalism by encroaching on state subjects.
- B.It undermines the right to property and the autonomy of minority institutions.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It contravenes the Directive Principles of State Policy related to economic justice.
- D.It is inconsistent with India's international commitments under WTO agreements.
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Explanation
The article highlights that the Bill raises constitutional concerns under Articles 14, 19(1)(c), 25, 26, 29, 30, and 300A. These articles pertain to equality, freedom of association, rights of religious denominations, and protection of minority interests, directly linking to the autonomy of minority institutions and property rights. The other options, while potential concerns, are not specifically mentioned in the article.
Aparajita Chattopadhyay, one of the experts quoted in the article, is a professor at which premier institution?
- A.Indian Institute of Management (IIM)
- B.International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU)
- D.Tata Institute of Social Sciences (TISS)
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Explanation
The article's byline explicitly states that Aparajita Chattopadhyay is a Professor at the International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS). IIPS is India's premier demographic research and training institute.
Consider the following statements regarding the news on population incentives:
1. India's Total Fertility Rate (TFR) has recently fallen below the replacement level.
2. The state of Andhra Pradesh has announced cash incentives for having a second and third child.
3. International experience from countries like Poland and Sweden shows that cash incentives lead to a permanent reversal of declining fertility trends.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states India's TFR is now 1.9, below the replacement rate of 2.1. Statement 2 is incorrect because Andhra Pradesh announced incentives for the third (₹30,000) and fourth (₹40,000) child, not the second and third. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article mentions that in Sweden, France, Singapore etc., such incentives brought only short-term changes that were difficult to sustain.
According to the article, what is the cash incentive announced by Andhra Pradesh for a woman having her fourth child?
- A.₹25,000
- B.₹30,000
- C.₹40,000✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹50,000
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Explanation
The article clearly states: "Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister Chandrababu Naidu announced cash incentives of ₹30,000 and ₹40,000 to women having their third and fourth child respectively." Therefore, the incentive for the fourth child is ₹40,000.
What is a primary reason cited by experts in the article against using cash incentives to boost population growth?
- A.It will lead to immediate political gains in delimitation.
- B.It is an effective tool that has worked globally.
- C.Fertility is a socio-cultural choice not easily driven by monetary policy.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It will automatically improve the skill level of the future workforce.
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Explanation
Expert Aparajita Chattopadhyay argues that "reversal of fertility trends cannot be a policy driven thing. It is deeply rooted socio-culturally and is an individualistic choice." The other options are contrary to the article's analysis, which states that such incentives have limited success and do not address core issues like skilling.
Under which Ministry does the Directorate General Factory Advice Service and Labour Institutes (DGFASLI) function?
- A.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- B.Ministry of Labour and Employment✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Heavy Industries
- D.Ministry of Home Affairs
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Explanation
DGFASLI is a technical wing under the Ministry of Labour & Employment, responsible for providing advice on occupational safety and health in factories and docks, as mentioned in the context of implementing the OSH Code.
Consider the following statements regarding the news on industrial safety:
1. The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions (OSH) Code, 2020 has been recently renamed as the Directorate General of Occupational Safety and Health.
2. The Standard Reference Notes (SRNs) published by DGFASLI show matching data on industrial accidents from the Labour Bureau and Chief Inspectors of Factories.
3. States like Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, and West Bengal have consistently failed to provide industrial accident data to central agencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) Both 1 and 3
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The OSH Code is the legislation; it is DGFASLI that has been renamed as the Directorate General of Occupational Safety and Health under this Code. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article explicitly states the data from the two sources in SRNs 'never match'. Statement 3 is correct as per the article.
As per the article, what was the approximate percentage of sanctioned posts vacant in DGFASLI as of 2023?
- A.Nearly 25%
- B.Nearly 33%
- C.Nearly 50%✓ Correct Answer
- D.Nearly 66%
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Explanation
The article states that 'nearly 50% of the 349 sanctioned posts remained vacant as of 2023' in DGFASLI, highlighting a critical institutional capacity gap.
What is the primary implication of the data discrepancies between the Labour Bureau and DGFASLI, as highlighted in the article?
- A.It indicates a surplus of factory inspectors in industrial states.
- B.It reflects efficient and streamlined data reporting by all states.
- C.It points to severe lapses and inconsistencies in the reporting of industrial accidents.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It demonstrates the successful implementation of the OSH Code, 2020.
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Explanation
The article's core argument is that the mismatched data reveals fundamental flaws in the accident reporting system, undermining effective policy-making and enforcement of safety norms. The other options are contrary to the article's findings.
Which Union Ministry is the nodal ministry for implementing the MGNREGA and its proposed replacement, the VB-G RAM G Act?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Rural Development✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- D.Ministry of Labour and Employment
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Explanation
Both MGNREGA and the new VB-G RAM G Act are rural employment guarantee schemes, which fall under the mandate of the Ministry of Rural Development. This ministry formulates policies and programs for rural poverty alleviation, infrastructure, and employment.
Consider the following statements regarding the Viksit Bharat Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Act, 2025 (VB-G RAM G):
1. It guarantees 125 days of wage employment per rural household, replacing the 100-day guarantee under MGNREGA.
2. Unlike MGNREGA, its funding follows a 50:50 cost-sharing model between the Centre and the States.
3. It introduces a 'Seasonal Alignment Window' allowing states to suspend works for up to 60 days during peak agricultural seasons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states VB-G RAM G proposes 125 days of work compared to MGNREGA's 100. Statement 2 is incorrect; the funding model is 60:40 (Centre:State), not 50:50. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the 60-day 'Seasonal Alignment Window' provision. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the article, what has been the average percentage of women workers under MGNREGA for the last five years?
- A.Over 48%
- B.Over 52%
- C.Over 58%✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over 65%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states, "Women have accounted for over 58% of MGNREGA workers for the last five years, as per official data." The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
A key criticism of the VB-G RAM G Act, as highlighted in the article, is that it fundamentally shifts the scheme's operational model. What is this core shift?
- A.From a supply-driven to a demand-based entitlement.
- B.From a budget-capped to an open-ended funding model.
- C.From a demand-based entitlement to a supply-driven model.✓ Correct Answer
- D.From state-led implementation to entirely centralised implementation.
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Explanation
The article's core critique is that VB-G RAM G moves away from MGNREGA's fundamental principle of a 'demand-based' legal guarantee. Instead, it adopts a 'supply-driven' model where work is limited by a fixed central budget and approved projects, effectively rationing employment based on supply rather than honoring demand.
Under which Union Ministry does the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) function?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Labour and Employment
- D.Ministry of Heavy Industries
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that DPIIT functions under the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry. This is a key static GK fact about India's administrative structure.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO) comes under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
2. DPIIT is focusing on moving towards automation in explosives manufacturing, including phasing out old electric detonators.
3. The Bharat Audyogik Vikas Yojana has an outlay of ₹33,660 crore for developing 100 investment-ready industrial parks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states PESO comes under DPIIT. Statement 2 is correct as DPIIT is focusing on automation and phasing out old electric detonators for electronic ones. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the ₹33,660 crore outlay for 100 parks under Bharat Audyogik Vikas Yojana.
According to the article, what was India's gross FDI inflow in FY26?
- A.Nearly $85 billion
- B.Nearly $90 billion
- C.Nearly $94 billion
- D.Nearly $95 billion✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article quotes DPIIT Joint Secretary Dr. Kajal stating that India recorded an all-time high gross FDI inflow of nearly $95 billion in FY26. Option C ($94 billion) is a close distractor mentioned earlier in the same quote, but the final figure given is $95 billion.
What is the primary objective behind DPIIT and PESO's focus on automation in explosives manufacturing processes?
- A.To increase production efficiency and reduce costs
- B.To make operations safer and prevent accidental blasts✓ Correct Answer
- C.To attract foreign direct investment in the explosives sector
- D.To comply with international environmental standards
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Explanation
The article's core theme is safety reform following the Nagpur blast. The official explicitly states DPIIT is focusing on automation 'to make operations safer' and prevent accidental blasts. While efficiency and FDI are mentioned elsewhere, the primary driver for automation in this context is safety.
Which ministry is responsible for the implementation of the PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana and is currently monitoring the DCR panel supply issue?
- A.Ministry of Power
- B.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) and its Secretary, Santosh Kumar Sarangi, holding meetings and monitoring the situation regarding DCR-compliant solar panels for the PM Surya Ghar scheme.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent issues in India's rooftop solar sector:
1. The mandatory Domestic Content Requirement (DCR) for solar panels, effective from June 1, 2026, applies only to residential rooftop installations under the PM Surya Ghar scheme.
2. India's annual solar cell manufacturing capacity is approximately half of its annual solar module production capacity.
3. The shortage of DCR-compliant panels has reportedly increased the cost of installing a rooftop solar system for a household by at least Rs. 50,000.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states the DCR mandate from June 1 applies to "all domestic, commercial and industrial solar projects," not just residential ones. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: India's cell capacity is ~30 GW against module production of 60-65 GW. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article mentions a price rise adding "at least Rs 20,000" per installation, not Rs 50,000.
According to the article, what is the current number of rooftop systems installed under the PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana, and what capacity have they added?
- A.30 lakh systems, adding ~8 GW
- B.40 lakh systems, adding over 12 GW✓ Correct Answer
- C.50 lakh systems, adding ~15 GW
- D.60 lakh systems, adding over 18 GW
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "About 40 lakh rooftop systems have been installed under the PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana so far, adding over 12 GW capacity." The other options are close distractors using plausible numbers.
What is the primary objective behind the government's mandate for using domestically manufactured solar cells (DCR) in projects?
- A.To immediately reduce the cost of solar installations for consumers
- B.To reduce India's dependence on imported solar cells and strengthen the domestic manufacturing ecosystem✓ Correct Answer
- C.To simplify the procurement process for solar installers by limiting supplier options
- D.To align with international trade agreements that prohibit the use of certain imported components
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Explanation
The article directly states: "While the move is aimed at reducing India’s dependence on imports and strengthening the domestic solar manufacturing ecosystem..." The other options describe potential side-effects or incorrect rationales not mentioned in the article.
The free bus travel facility for NEET candidates in Odisha was directed to be implemented by which state corporation?
- A.Odisha State Transport Corporation
- B.Odisha State Road Transport Corporation (OSRTC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Odisha Public Transport Authority
- D.Odisha Metro Rail Corporation
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the government issued a letter to the chairman-cum-managing director of the Odisha State Road Transport Corporation (OSRTC) to implement the free bus travel facility for NEET aspirants.
Consider the following statements regarding the announcements made by the Odisha government:
1. It announced free education from Kindergarten to Postgraduate level in all private schools.
2. It announced free bus travel for all 56,983 NEET candidates across 134 examination centers.
3. The announcement was made marking two years of the BJP government, which has rolled out 121 welfare schemes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the free education policy is for government schools and colleges, not private ones. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's data. Statement 3 is correct as the announcement was made on the 2-year anniversary and the article mentions 121 welfare schemes.
According to the news, for how many NEET UG re-examination candidates did the Odisha government announce free bus travel?
- A.56,893
- B.56,983✓ Correct Answer
- C.57,083
- D.57,183
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Explanation
The article specifically states that the free bus travel facility will be available to all 56,983 candidates across the state. The other options are close numerical distractors.
What is the primary objective of the Odisha government's announcement of free bus travel for NEET candidates, as per the article?
- A.To increase revenue for the state transport corporation
- B.To reduce the risk of heatstroke and support candidates from economically weaker sections✓ Correct Answer
- C.To promote the use of public transport over private vehicles
- D.To ensure candidates reach the exam centers much earlier than required
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the decision aims to 'reduce the risk of heatstroke, support candidates from economically weaker sections, and ensure hassle-free travel to the exam centers.' The other options are not mentioned as primary objectives.
Which statutory body is responsible for coordinating and maintaining standards in higher education, as mentioned in the NTF report regarding regulations?
- A.National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
- B.University Grants Commission (UGC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
- D.National Institute of Educational Planning and Administration (NIEPA)
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions 'University Grants Commission (UGC) regulations' in the context of gaps in addressing student suicides. The UGC is the statutory body established for coordination and maintenance of standards in university education.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court-appointed National Task Force (NTF) report on student suicides:
1. It argues that student suicides are primarily a structural issue, not just a mental health problem.
2. It found that India has a comprehensive statutory framework for suicide prevention in higher education.
3. It highlighted that student suicides constituted 7.6% of all deaths by suicide in India in 2022.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the NTF's central argument is that suicides are a structural issue. Statement 2 is incorrect; the report's most important finding is the 'complete absence' of a direct statutory framework. Statement 3 is correct as the article states student suicides were 7.6% of all suicides in 2022.
According to the Supreme Court in Amit Kumar & Ors v. Union of India (2026), what was the number of student suicide cases in India in the year 2022?
- A.10,000
- B.11,500
- C.13,000✓ Correct Answer
- D.15,000
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'student suicides in India had doubled over a decade, reaching 13,000 cases in 2022'. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is the primary legal significance of the Supreme Court's judgment in Sukdeb Saha v. The State of Andhra Pradesh (2025), as referenced in the NTF report?
- A.It established stricter penalties for institutions failing to prevent student suicides.
- B.It linked mental well-being inseparably to the Right to Life under Article 21 of the Constitution.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It directed the immediate enactment of a Student Suicide Prevention Act.
- D.It mandated the creation of counselling centres in every educational institution.
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Explanation
The article states the court held that 'mental well-being is inseparable from the right to life' under Article 21. This constitutional interpretation is the judgment's core significance, forming the basis for the NTF's work. The other options describe potential outcomes or recommendations, not the judgment's primary holding.
The G-7 is an intergovernmental forum consisting of how many member countries?
- A.Six
- B.Seven✓ Correct Answer
- C.Eight
- D.Ten
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Explanation
The G-7, or Group of Seven, is a forum of seven major advanced economies: Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States. The European Union participates as a non-enumerated member.
Consider the following statements regarding the G-7 and India's association:
1. India's first invitation to the G-7 summit was in 2005 during the tenure of Prime Minister Manmohan Singh.
2. The G-7 was originally formed as the G-6 in 1975, which became the G-7 in 1976 after Canada joined.
3. Prime Minister Narendra Modi has been attending the G-7 summit every year since 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. India's first invitation was in 2003, during Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee's tenure. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's historical data. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.
According to the article, what is the approximate share of global GDP controlled by the G-7 nations currently?
- A.Over two-thirds
- B.Roughly 50%
- C.Roughly 40%✓ Correct Answer
- D.Less than 30%
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Explanation
The article states that while the G-8 (which included Russia) controlled over two-thirds of global GDP, the G-7's share has now declined to roughly 40 per cent due to the rise of other major economies like China and India.
What is the primary strategic significance of the 'Indo-Mediterranean' vision, as discussed in the article?
- A.To replace the Belt and Road Initiative as a China-led project.
- B.To create a singularly Indian-led military alliance in the Indian Ocean.
- C.To serve as a geostrategic corridor connecting the Indian Ocean to Europe for trade, technology, and energy.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To formally integrate India into the European Union's single market.
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Explanation
The article defines the Indo-Mediterranean as "an important corridor for trade, technology, energy, data and ideas, tying the Indian Ocean to Europe." It is a strategic framework, not a military alliance or a market integration plan, and is presented as a collaborative alternative, not a direct replacement, for China's Belt and Road Initiative.
The External Affairs Minister's remarks criticizing 'double standards' were made at which international forum?
- A.G20 Summit
- B.UN General Assembly
- C.Kultaranta Talks✓ Correct Answer
- D.World Economic Forum
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar made these remarks at the 'Emerging Powers and the New Geopolitical Competition' session at the Kultaranta Talks in Finland.
Consider the following statements regarding External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar's recent remarks:
1. He stated that the United States had asked India to buy Russian oil in 2022 to help stabilize the global oil market.
2. He defended India's oil purchases solely on the basis of supporting Russia's economy amid sanctions.
3. He highlighted that no European country has ever been attacked with Indian weapons, unlike European arms sales to regions affecting India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Only 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; Jaishankar defended purchases based on 'cost and availability' and national interest, not on supporting Russia. Statement 3 is correct as he contrasted India's peaceful record with European arms sales.
According to the article, in which year did the United States ask India to buy Russian oil to stabilize the market?
- A.2020
- B.2021
- C.2022✓ Correct Answer
- D.2023
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Explanation
The article mentions that Jaishankar recalled that 'in 2022', the United States had encouraged India to procure Russian crude to stabilise energy markets following Western sanctions on Moscow.
What is the primary implication of External Affairs Minister Jaishankar's criticism of the US policy on Russian oil, as per the news article?
- A.It signals India's alignment with Russia against the West.
- B.It advocates for India to stop all oil imports from Russia immediately.
- C.It reinforces India's commitment to making independent foreign policy choices based on national interest.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It indicates India's support for the US-led sanctions regime on Russia.
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Explanation
The core of Jaishankar's argument is defending India's sovereign right to make energy choices (strategic autonomy) based on cost, availability, and national interest, and calling out inconsistency in external pressure. The other options are either extreme or contrary to the article's narrative.
Which United States agency confirmed the formation of the 'Super El Niño' conditions in the Pacific Ocean?
- A.National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
- B.National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.United States Geological Survey (USGS)
- D.Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the United States National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) announced the formation of El Niño conditions. NOAA is the primary US agency for monitoring oceanic and atmospheric conditions.
Consider the following statements regarding the 'Super El Niño' discussed in the news:
1. It is predicted to make the year 2027 the hottest on record.
2. It typically suppresses hurricane activity in the Atlantic Ocean but increases it in the Pacific Ocean.
3. During the last Super El Niño in 2015-16, India received more than 100% of its long-period average monsoon rainfall.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as multiple forecasts in the article predict 2027 to be the hottest year. Statement 2 is correct as the article states El Niño suppresses Atlantic hurricanes but increases activity in the Pacific. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article clearly mentions India received only 86% of its long-period average rainfall in 2015-16.
According to the NOAA update mentioned in the article, what is the percentage chance of the current El Niño intensifying into one of the largest events in the historical record since 1950?
- A.50%
- B.63%✓ Correct Answer
- C.75%
- D.85%
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Explanation
The article directly quotes NOAA, stating there is a 63% chance of El Niño intensifying and ranking 'among the largest El Niño events in the historical record going back to 1950.' This is a precise data point from the source.
What is a major potential impact of the developing 'Super El Niño' on India, as highlighted in the article?
- A.Increased frequency of cyclones in the Bay of Bengal
- B.More intense heatwaves and associated health hazards✓ Correct Answer
- C.Heavier than normal winter snowfall in the Himalayas
- D.Prolonged and severe cold wave conditions in North India
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Explanation
The article specifically states that the El Niño condition is likely to 'cause more intense heatwaves in India, which, in the past, have led to health hazards and hundreds of deaths.' The other options are not mentioned as direct impacts in the provided content.
The 'Indicators of Global Climate Change (IGCC)' report mentioned in the news was published in which scientific journal?
- A.Nature Climate Change
- B.Science
- C.Earth System Science Data✓ Correct Answer
- D.Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the latest IGCC report was 'published on Wednesday in the journal Earth System Science Data'. This is a direct factual extraction from the provided content.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. In 2024, renewable energy sources became the predominant source of power globally for the first time.
2. The carbon budget to limit warming to 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels is already exhausted as per the IGCC report.
3. The report was released during the mid-year climate talks held in Geneva.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'Solar, wind and hydro edged out fossil fuels as the predominant source of power.' Statement 2 is incorrect; the budget 'could be completely depleted in about three years', not already exhausted. Statement 3 is incorrect; the talks were in Bonn, not Geneva.
According to the IGCC report cited in the article, what was the level of global warming reached in the year 2025?
- A.1.27°C
- B.1.37°C✓ Correct Answer
- C.1.47°C
- D.1.57°C
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Explanation
The article provides the exact data point: 'human activities pushed global warming to 1.37 degrees Celsius in 2025, according to the latest Indicators of Global Climate Change (IGCC) report'. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.
What does the article identify as the 'Achilles Heel' of global warming mitigation efforts?
- A.High cost of renewable energy installations
- B.Lack of political will in developed nations
- C.Inadequate transfer of technology and know-how✓ Correct Answer
- D.Rising energy demand in developing countries
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Unfortunately, know-how transfer has been the Achilles Heel of global warming mitigation.' This directly points to the challenge of international cooperation in sharing green technologies, which is crucial for industrial decarbonization.
The analysis on R&D underspending is authored by which key government official?
- A.Chairman, NITI Aayog
- B.Governor, Reserve Bank of India
- C.Chief Economic Advisor, Government of India✓ Correct Answer
- D.Secretary, Department of Science & Technology
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Explanation
The article explicitly states at the end: "The writer is chief economic advisor, Government of India." This is a direct factual extraction from the provided content.
Consider the following statements regarding reasons for India's low R&D spending as per the article:
1. A large domestic captive market reduces competitive pressure for innovation, akin to a 'Dutch Disease' effect.
2. Historical colonial rule promoted indigenous manufacturing, boosting long-term R&D capabilities.
3. Premature financialisation and focus on shareholder value incentivise short-term stock gains over long-term R&D investment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article describes the 'Dutch disease' effect of a vast captive market. Statement 2 is incorrect; colonial rule caused deindustrialisation, suppressing manufacturing instincts. Statement 3 is correct, as detailed with references to Lazonick's research and executive stock options.
According to the Harvard Business Review research cited in the article, what percentage of their earnings did S&P 500 firms spend on stock buybacks between 2003 and 2012?
- A.37%
- B.54%✓ Correct Answer
- C.71%
- D.91%
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Explanation
The article states: "Between 2003 and 2012, the 449 companies... spent 54 per cent of their earnings on buybacks and another 37 per cent on dividends." The other percentages are distractors: 37% was spent on dividends, and 91% is the sum of both, which is not asked.
What is identified in the article as a key consequence of competitive popular democracy in a large developing economy like India, affecting R&D investment?
- A.It guarantees long-term policy stability for corporate planning.
- B.It generates structural uncertainty, raising the discount rate for long-horizon investments.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It directly funds public sector R&D through electoral mandates.
- D.It eliminates the need for private sector R&D by fostering public innovation.
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Explanation
The article's section 'Democracy, uncertainty, and the discount rate' argues that democratic uncertainty makes confident long-run prediction difficult. Businesses internalise this as a higher discount rate, making long-payoff investments like R&D less attractive.
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For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
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What are the important current affairs questions for 12 June 2026?▼
This page contains 104 current affairs questions from 12 June 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 12 June 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
- Q1. was the petitioner in the famous 1975 election case against Pr…
- Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Allahabad High…
- Q3. On which date did the Supreme Court grant a conditional stay o…
- Q4. was the immediate and most significant political consequence o…
- Q5. The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 (AFSPA) is primari…
- Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q7. According to Union Home Minister Amit Shah, what is the estima…
- Q8. is cited as the primary significance of the tripartite MoU sig…
- Q9. The SIPRI Yearbook 2026 was published by which international i…
- Q10. Consider the following statements regarding findings of the SI…
- Q11. According to SIPRI Yearbook 2026, what was India's military ex…
- Q12. The SIPRI report highlights 'Nuclear-Conventional Entanglement…
- Q13. ministry is primarily responsible for notifying the rules for …
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the recently notif…
- Q15. According to the Code on Wages (Central) Rules, how is the hou…
- Q16. is a major criticism regarding the treatment of gig and platfo…
- Q17. constitutional article, as cited by the Supreme Court, bars ju…
- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q19. On what date did the Returning Officer reject Meenakshi Natara…
- Q20. was the primary legal reasoning used by the Supreme Court to d…
- Q21. The 'Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI)' was launched by th…
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the news article: …
- Q23. In which year was the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI) la…
- Q24. According to Ambassador Vinay Kwatra, what was a key reality c…
- Q25. Indian ministry summoned the U.S. Charge d'Affaires and issued…
- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the recent attacks…
- Q27. According to the news, how many Indian seafarers were reported…
- Q28. was the primary reason cited by the U.S. Central Command for a…
- Q29. Union Ministry played a key facilitative role in the tripartit…
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Assam-N…
- Q31. According to the article, what percentage of India's crude oil…
- Q32. is the primary strategic objective behind the tripartite MoU f…
- Q33. Under which regulatory order is the approval for new fertilise…
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the fertiliser app…
- Q35. According to the article, what is the projected fertiliser sub…
- Q36. is the primary objective of the government's proposed reform t…
- Q37. The article is authored by which key government official?
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the explanations f…
- Q39. According to the article, in which year was the study by Morck…
- Q40. is the primary strategic implication identified in the article…
- Q41. ministry/department releases the Consumer Price Index (CPI) da…
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the inflation data…
- Q43. According to the article, what was the year-on-year increase i…
- Q44. As per the RBI's latest forecasts mentioned in the article, in…
- Q45. Indian law decriminalized attempt to commit suicide and introd…
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the Kerala High Co…
- Q47. In which year did the Mental Healthcare Act, referenced in the…
- Q48. was the primary legal consequence of the Kerala High Court app…
- Q49. The proposed PM MITRA Textile Park near Kalaburagi falls under…
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the PM MITRA Texti…
- Q51. is the capacity of the Ground Level Service Reservoir (GLSR) f…
- Q52. is the primary infrastructural model being adopted for the dev…
- Q53. The administration of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Ac…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the Foreign Contri…
- Q55. According to the article, approximately how many FCRA licences…
- Q56. is a primary constitutional concern raised by critics regardin…
- Q57. Aparajita Chattopadhyay, one of the experts quoted in the arti…
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the news on popula…
- Q59. According to the article, what is the cash incentive announced…
- Q60. is a primary reason cited by experts in the article against us…
- Q61. Under which Ministry does the Directorate General Factory Advi…
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the news on indust…
- Q63. As per the article, what was the approximate percentage of san…
- Q64. is the primary implication of the data discrepancies between t…
- Q65. Union Ministry is the nodal ministry for implementing the MGNR…
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the Viksit Bharat …
- Q67. According to the article, what has been the average percentage…
- Q68. A key criticism of the VB-G RAM G Act, as highlighted in the a…
- Q69. Under which Union Ministry does the Department for Promotion o…
- Q70. Consider the following statements: 1. The Petroleum and Explo…
- Q71. According to the article, what was India's gross FDI inflow in…
- Q72. is the primary objective behind DPIIT and PESO's focus on auto…
- Q73. ministry is responsible for the implementation of the PM Surya…
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the recent issues …
- Q75. According to the article, what is the current number of roofto…
- Q76. is the primary objective behind the government's mandate for u…
- Q77. The free bus travel facility for NEET candidates in Odisha was…
- Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the announcements …
- Q79. According to the news, for how many NEET UG re-examination can…
- Q80. is the primary objective of the Odisha government's announceme…
- Q81. statutory body is responsible for coordinating and maintaining…
- Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court-…
- Q83. According to the Supreme Court in Amit Kumar & Ors v. Union of…
- Q84. is the primary legal significance of the Supreme Court's judgm…
- Q85. The G-7 is an intergovernmental forum consisting of how many m…
- Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the G-7 and India'…
- Q87. According to the article, what is the approximate share of glo…
- Q88. is the primary strategic significance of the 'Indo-Mediterrane…
- Q89. The External Affairs Minister's remarks criticizing 'double st…
- Q90. Consider the following statements regarding External Affairs M…
- Q91. According to the article, in which year did the United States …
- Q92. is the primary implication of External Affairs Minister Jaisha…
- Q93. United States agency confirmed the formation of the 'Super El …
- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the 'Super El Niño…
- Q95. According to the NOAA update mentioned in the article, what is…
- Q96. is a major potential impact of the developing 'Super El Niño' …
- Q97. The 'Indicators of Global Climate Change (IGCC)' report mentio…
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. In 2…
- Q99. According to the IGCC report cited in the article, what was th…
- Q100. does the article identify as the 'Achilles Heel' of global war…
- Q101. The analysis on R&D underspending is authored by which key gov…
- Q102. Consider the following statements regarding reasons for India'…
- Q103. According to the Harvard Business Review research cited in the…
- Q104. is identified in the article as a key consequence of competiti…