8 June 2026, Questions & Answers
168 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
168 questions · 0 topics covered · 34 min revision
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This page contains 168 current affairs questions with answers from 8 June 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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168 QsWhich institution in India is responsible for compiling and publishing the Balance of Payments (BoP) data?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- D.National Statistical Office (NSO)
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Explanation
As per the article, the data was released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The RBI is the central bank and the official compiler of India's Balance of Payments statistics, in line with its mandate to manage the external sector.
Consider the following statements regarding India's external sector as per the recent RBI data for Q4 FY26:
1. The current account recorded a surplus of $7.1 billion, which was lower than the surplus in the same quarter of the previous year.
2. Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) outflows decreased significantly compared to the year-ago period.
3. Net receipts from services exports showed an increase on a year-on-year basis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The surplus narrowed to $7.1 billion from $13.7 billion a year ago. Statement 2 is incorrect: FII outflows increased to $12 billion from $5.9 billion. Statement 3 is correct: Net services receipts increased to $60.4 billion from $53.3 billion a year ago.
What was the value of India's gold import bill for the fourth quarter (Q4) of the financial year 2025-26, as per the RBI data?
- A.$9.5 billion
- B.$22.57 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$58 billion
- D.$71.97 billion
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "Gold import bill for the March 2026 quarter was $22.57 billion". $9.5 billion was the Q4 figure for the previous year, $58 billion was the full-year figure for the previous year, and $71.97 billion is the full-year figure for 2025-26.
The narrowing of India's current account surplus in Q4 FY26, as reported, primarily reflects the impact of which of the following factors?
- A.A sharp decline in personal remittances from overseas Indians.
- B.Substantial inflows under external commercial borrowings (ECBs).
- C.A rising merchandise trade deficit and increased gold imports.✓ Correct Answer
- D.A significant reduction in foreign direct investment (FDI) inflows.
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Explanation
The article highlights the rising gold import bill and a higher merchandise trade deficit ($83.4 bn vs $59.3 bn) as key pressures. Remittances actually rose, ECBs saw net inflows (though lower), and FDI inflows were higher, not lower.
Which institution is responsible for forecasting India's monsoon rainfall, as mentioned in the article?
- A.Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)
- B.India Meteorological Department (IMD)✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Council of Applied Economic Research (NCAER)
- D.Central Water Commission (CWC)
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the 'India Meteorological Department has predicted that this year’s monsoon will only be 90% of the LPA.' IMD is the national meteorological service of India responsible for weather forecasting.
Consider the following statements regarding the GDP data for 2025-26:
1. The provisional GDP growth for 2025-26 is 7.7%, which is higher than the government's February prediction.
2. The agriculture sector's growth slowed to 3% despite the 2025 monsoon being 108% of its Long Period Average.
3. The Reserve Bank of India predicts that growth in 2026-27 will increase to 7.2%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'The provisional estimates of GDP growth for 2025-26 have been pegged at 7.7%, which is marginally higher than the 7.6% predicted by the government in February.' Statement 2 is correct: 'The sector’s growth slowed to 3% in 2025-26 from 4.2% in 2024-25, despite the 2025 monsoon having concluded at 108% of its long period average (LPA).' Statement 3 is incorrect: The article states 'The RBI predicted growth will dip to 6.6%', not increase to 7.2%.
According to the provisional estimates, what was the share of the services sector in the Gross Value Added (GVA) for 2025-26?
- A.51.9%
- B.54.3%✓ Correct Answer
- C.22.1%
- D.Below 20%
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'The data also show the rising dominance of services in the economy, with their share rising to 54.3% of total gross value added (GVA) in 2025-26.' 51.9% was the share in 2022-23, 22.1% was agriculture's share in 2022-23, and 'below 20%' is agriculture's share in 2025-26.
What is the primary concern highlighted by the GDP data regarding the structure of India's economy?
- A.Excessive reliance on foreign direct investment for growth.
- B.Rising inflation due to increased consumption expenditure.
- C.Services sector dominance growing while manufacturing share remains stagnant.✓ Correct Answer
- D.High fiscal deficit caused by increased government spending.
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that 'The manufacturing sector’s share has remained largely unchanged, another cause for concern. This suggests that India is not growing its value-added manufacturing sector fast enough.' This structural shift towards services without corresponding manufacturing growth is a key analytical point. The article does not primarily highlight concerns about FDI, inflation, or fiscal deficit.
Which institution is the nodal agency for conducting the National Family Health Survey (NFHS) in India?
- A.National Institute of Nutrition (NIN)
- B.International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
- D.National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)
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Explanation
The NFHS is conducted by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) with the International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS), Mumbai, serving as the nodal agency for survey coordination and implementation.
Consider the following statements regarding findings from NFHS-6 data on child nutrition:
1. The national stunting rate among children under five has shown a substantial decline compared to NFHS-5.
2. The proportion of children receiving an adequate diet has decreased, contributing to the decline in stunting.
3. Exclusive breastfeeding rates have increased uniformly across all major states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Stunting declined from 35.5% to 29.3%. Statement 2 is incorrect: Dietary adequacy increased from 11% to 15.3%, and the article notes stunting declined despite this gap, not because of it. Statement 3 is incorrect: Exclusive breastfeeding declined nationally and sharply in states like UP, while Kerala improved.
According to the NFHS-6 data mentioned in the article, what is the current national prevalence of wasting among children under five years of age?
- A.5.2%
- B.19.0%✓ Correct Answer
- C.29.3%
- D.31.8%
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Explanation
The article states that overall wasting fell only marginally, from 19.3 per cent to 19 per cent. Option A (5.2%) is the figure for severe wasting. Option C (29.3%) is for stunting, and Option D (31.8%) is for underweight children.
The sharp decline in exclusive breastfeeding rates in states like Uttar Pradesh, as per NFHS-6, primarily indicates a failure in which aspect of public health delivery?
- A.Institutional delivery infrastructure
- B.Postnatal support and counseling after hospital discharge✓ Correct Answer
- C.Vaccination coverage and cold chain management
- D.Availability of fortified complementary foods
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the decline 'suggests the problem is not institutional delivery but postnatal support after discharge.' This points to a gap in counseling and support for mothers in the critical period after birth to initiate and sustain breastfeeding.
Which organization releases the official GDP growth estimates for India?
- A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- B.National Statistics Office (NSO)✓ Correct Answer
- C.NITI Aayog
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The National Statistics Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation is responsible for compiling and releasing official macroeconomic data like GDP estimates, as mentioned in the article which cites NSO data for Q4 growth.
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian economy as per the article:
1. The GDP growth for the full year 2025-26 was the highest in the last three years.
2. Nominal GDP growth for 2025-26 exceeded the assumption made in the Union Budget.
3. The services sector grew at almost 10 percent in the fourth quarter of 2025-26.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states growth for the full year was 7.7%, 'the highest in the last three years'. Statement 2 is incorrect because nominal growth was 8.9%, which was 'significantly lower than the 10.1% assumed in the Union budget'. Statement 3 is correct as per the line 'the services sector grew at almost 10 per cent in the fourth quarter'.
What is the revised GDP growth projection for the financial year 2026-27 by the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee, as mentioned in the article?
- A.6.6%✓ Correct Answer
- B.6.9%
- C.7.7%
- D.7.8%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'In the June Monetary Policy Committee meeting, the RBI has projected the economy to slow down to 6.6 per cent this year, down from its earlier assessment of 6.9 per cent.' 6.9% was the earlier projection, 7.7% and 7.8% are last year's growth rates.
According to the article, what is a primary reason for the government and RBI announcing measures to attract foreign capital?
- A.To boost the manufacturing sector's growth
- B.To ease pressure on the Indian rupee✓ Correct Answer
- C.To directly finance the fiscal deficit
- D.To increase domestic consumption demand
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Explanation
The article directly links the measures to 'ease the pressure on the rupee', stating: 'Last week, measures were announced to attract foreign capital and ease the pressure on the rupee.' This is in the context of stress on the balance of payments and the currency.
Under which article of the Constitution does the President of India possess the power to promulgate Ordinances?
- A.Article 123✓ Correct Answer
- B.Article 124
- C.Article 213
- D.Article 352
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Explanation
Article 123 of the Indian Constitution grants the President the power to promulgate Ordinances when Parliament is not in session. This is the central constitutional provision relevant to the news about increasing Supreme Court strength via Ordinance.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The sanctioned strength of the Supreme Court was increased from 34 to 38 judges.
2. The increase was effected through a bill passed by both Houses of Parliament.
3. Three of the five new judges appointed occupy posts created by this executive action.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the strength was lifted from 34 to 38. Statement 2 is incorrect because the increase was done via a Presidential Ordinance, not a Parliamentary bill. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned in the article.
According to the article, what was the sanctioned strength of the Supreme Court judges before the recent increase via Ordinance?
- A.30 Judges
- B.32 Judges
- C.34 Judges✓ Correct Answer
- D.36 Judges
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Explanation
The article clearly states: "the President, by Ordinance, lifted the sanctioned strength from 34 to 38." Therefore, the strength before the Ordinance was 34 judges.
What is the primary constitutional concern raised by the use of an Ordinance to increase the number of Supreme Court judges, as discussed in the article?
- A.It increases the financial burden on the Consolidated Fund of India.
- B.It bypasses parliamentary scrutiny on a matter affecting judicial independence.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It violates the fundamental right to equality before law.
- D.It undermines the federal structure of the Constitution.
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Explanation
The core issue highlighted is the use of executive Ordinance power (Article 123) for a significant change in the judiciary's composition, which traditionally requires a parliamentary law under Article 124. This bypasses legislative debate and raises concerns about executive influence over the judiciary, a key pillar of democracy.
Under which Act was the conviction upheld by the Allahabad High Court in the recent judgment?
- A.Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act
- B.Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act✓ Correct Answer
- C.Indian Penal Code
- D.Code of Criminal Procedure
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the accused was convicted under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, and the High Court upheld this conviction.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Allahabad High Court judgment:
1. The Court upheld the conviction based solely on the credible testimony of the child victim.
2. The Court ruled that the testimony of a child victim always requires corroboration by medical evidence.
3. The judgment referred to the Supreme Court precedent set in the case of Ganesan v. State (2020).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the Court reaffirmed that sole testimony is sufficient if credible. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court stated the testimony requires no corroboration if found reliable. Statement 3 is correct as the Bench relied on the Supreme Court precedent in Ganesan v. State.
On which date did the Allahabad High Court deliver the judgment upholding the POCSO conviction, as per the article?
- A.June 08, 2026
- B.June 3, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.June 5, 2026
- D.June 1, 2026
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Explanation
The article specifies that 'The Allahabad High Court on Wednesday (June 3, 2026) upheld the life imprisonment...'. June 08 is the publication date, making it a close distractor.
What is the primary legal significance of the Allahabad HC referring to the victim as a 'sterling witness'?
- A.It mandates a higher quantum of punishment for the accused.
- B.It establishes that her testimony is of such high reliability that it needs no independent corroboration.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It transfers the burden of proof entirely onto the accused from the start of the trial.
- D.It allows the trial to be conducted in-camera for privacy.
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Explanation
The concept of a 'sterling witness' signifies a witness whose testimony is inherently trustworthy and credible. The court's finding that the victim was a sterling witness directly supports the legal principle that her sole testimony was sufficient for conviction, requiring no corroboration.
Which institution is responsible for implementing the FCNR(B) swap scheme mentioned in the news?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) as the authority that deployed the swap scheme in 2013 and is reviving it. The RBI is India's central bank and the primary regulator for foreign exchange management and banking.
Consider the following statements regarding the FCNR(B) swap scheme:
1. It was first introduced in 2013 to attract foreign inflows during a period of rupee volatility.
2. The scheme provides a subsidy to banks, which was 3.5% in 2013 and is a full hedging cost coverage in its current revival.
3. The scheme is designed for Resident Indians to park their domestic savings in foreign currencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's context on the 2013 'Taper Tantrum'. Statement 2 is correct; the article states the 2013 subsidy was 3.5% and the current revival involves the RBI fully bearing the exchange rate risk. Statement 3 is incorrect; FCNR(B) deposits are for Non-Resident Indians (NRIs), Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs), and Overseas Citizens of India (OCIs), not Resident Indians.
According to the article, what was the approximate amount of foreign inflow mobilized by the FCNR(B) swap scheme in 2013?
- A.$15 billion
- B.$26 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$50 billion
- D.$100 billion
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Explanation
The article clearly states: "The facility ended up being wildly successful, resulting in an inflow of $26 billion..." The $50 billion figure is the projected inflow for the current revival, and $100 billion is the total expected inflow from all measures over 12-24 months.
What is a key expected macroeconomic benefit of a stronger rupee, as highlighted in the article regarding the FCNR(B) scheme?
- A.Increase in export competitiveness
- B.Reduction in the country's import bill✓ Correct Answer
- C.Rise in domestic interest rates
- D.Decrease in foreign direct investment
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Explanation
The article quotes Raghuram Rajan's 2013 remark that a stronger rupee "would not only reduce the hedging cost for the RBI but also reduce India’s import bill." It further notes that savings would be greater now given India's $775 billion import bill (2025-26). The other options are not cited as primary benefits in this context.
The National Family Health Survey (NFHS) is conducted under the aegis of which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Women and Child Development
- B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
- D.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
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Explanation
The NFHS is conducted by the International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS) under the aegis of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW). It is the primary source for national data on health and family welfare indicators.
Consider the following statements regarding the findings of NFHS-6 for Delhi as mentioned in the article:
1. The share of babies breastfed within one hour of birth increased compared to NFHS-5.
2. Exclusive breastfeeding among infants below six months saw a decline.
3. The World Health Organization recommends exclusive breastfeeding for the first six months of life.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The article states the share dropped from 51.2% to 45.1%. Statement 2 is correct: Exclusive breastfeeding declined from 64.3% to 48.3%. Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly mentions the WHO recommends exclusive breastfeeding for the first six months.
According to the NFHS-6 data for Delhi mentioned in the article, what percentage of children aged 6-23 months were receiving a minimum adequate diet?
- A.16%
- B.11.2%✓ Correct Answer
- C.52.5%
- D.72.2%
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Explanation
The article specifically states that only 11.2% of children aged 6-23 months were receiving a minimum adequate diet, down from 16% in the previous survey. The other options are distractors: 16% is the previous figure, 52.5% is for complementary feeding for 6-8 months, and 72.2% is for exclusive/predominant breastfeeding.
As per the experts quoted in the article, what is identified as a major factor contributing to the decline in exclusive breastfeeding practices in Delhi?
- A.Biological failure of lactation in most mothers
- B.Lack of availability of infant formula
- C.Mothers returning to work early after childbirth✓ Correct Answer
- D.Overemphasis on breastfeeding in hospital counseling
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Explanation
Dr. Uma Vaidyanathan is quoted saying that returning to work early is a major factor, with mothers introducing formula to accommodate care-giving arrangements. The article also clarifies that biological failure of lactation is generally not the issue.
Under which Article of the Indian Constitution are specific safeguards against preventive detention provided?
- A.Article 19
- B.Article 21
- C.Article 22✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 32
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Explanation
Article 22 of the Constitution specifically provides protections against arrest and detention. Clauses (4) to (7) deal with the safeguards applicable to laws providing for preventive detention, such as the requirement to inform the detainee of the grounds and the provision for review by an advisory board.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Jammu & Kashmir High Court judgment on preventive detention:
1. The court quashed a detention order under the Public Safety Act (PSA), 1978.
2. The judgment held that preventive detention can be justified solely based on a person's criminal conduct from over three decades ago.
3. The court emphasized that grounds of detention must be sufficiently definite to enable the detainee to make an effective representation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the HC quashed the PSA detention order. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court explicitly ruled that preventive detention cannot be based on 'stale and remote' past incidents and requires a 'live and proximate link' to future threat. Statement 3 is correct as the judgment states that vague allegations violate the constitutional requirement for definite grounds to make a representation.
The detention order quashed by the J&K High Court was passed in which year?
- A.2022
- B.2023
- C.2024
- D.2025✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article states that the detention order under the PSA was passed in the year 2025. The court noted it was passed after a gap of approximately thirty-three years from the petitioner's release in 1992.
What is the primary legal principle reinforced by the J&K High Court's judgment in quashing the PSA detention?
- A.Preventive detention is an appropriate tool for punishing individuals for past criminal convictions.
- B.Preventive detention requires a live and proximate link between past conduct and the necessity to prevent future prejudicial activities.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Courts should show high deference to the subjective satisfaction of the detaining authority in security matters.
- D.The duration of past detention is irrelevant if the individual is associated with a banned organization.
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Explanation
The core ruling of the judgment is that preventive detention is not meant to punish past conduct but to prevent future activities. There must exist a 'live and proximate link' between the past conduct relied upon and the present necessity for detention. The court found this link missing due to the 33-year gap.
Under which policy framework were four exploration blocks allocated in the Andaman-Nicobar Basin, as mentioned in the article?
- A.New Exploration Licensing Policy (NELP)
- B.Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy (HELP)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP)
- D.Production Sharing Contract (PSC) regime
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that following the introduction of the Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy (HELP), the Government allocated four blocks for oil and gas exploration in the Andaman-Nicobar Basin. NELP was the older policy, while OALP is a component under HELP.
Consider the following statements regarding the natural gas discovery in the Andaman offshore region:
1. The discovery was made at the Vijayapuram-3 well, situated approximately 15 kilometres off the eastern coast of the Andaman Islands.
2. The Andaman-Nicobar Basin is part of the Indo-Gangetic sedimentary system, shaped by the tectonic boundary between the Indian and Eurasian plates.
3. The Samudra Manthan Mission, aimed at discovering offshore oil and gas reserves, was announced by the Prime Minister on Independence Day 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the basin is part of the Bengal-Arakan sedimentary system shaped by the Indian and Burmese plates, not the Indo-Gangetic system. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.
According to the article, what is the total area covered by the four exploration blocks allocated in the Andaman-Nicobar Basin under the HELP policy?
- A.Approximately 15,000 square kilometers
- B.Approximately 20,500 square kilometers
- C.Approximately 23,261 square kilometers✓ Correct Answer
- D.Approximately 25,000 square kilometers
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Explanation
The article states that four blocks for oil and gas exploration in the Andaman-Nicobar Basin cover approximately 23,261 square kilometers (SKM). The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the text.
What is the primary significance of the consecutive natural gas discoveries in the Andaman offshore basin for India, as highlighted in the article?
- A.To immediately replace all imports of liquefied natural gas (LNG)
- B.To boost tourism and infrastructure development in the Andaman Islands
- C.To strengthen expectations that the basin could develop into a key hydrocarbon-producing zone, enhancing energy security✓ Correct Answer
- D.To provide a direct source of fuel for the Indian Navy's operations in the Bay of Bengal
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Explanation
The article's core theme is that the discoveries strengthen expectations for the basin's hydrocarbon potential, contributing to the country's long-term energy security and reducing import dependence. While other options might be indirect effects, the primary significance is related to energy resource development.
Which apex body is responsible for the implementation of the Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY scheme at the national level?
- A.National Health Mission Directorate
- B.National Health Authority✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- D.Indian Council of Medical Research
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Explanation
The National Health Authority (NHA) is the apex body mandated to implement the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY). While the Ministry of Health is the parent ministry, the NHA is the specific attached office responsible for execution.
Consider the following statements regarding the launch of Ayushman Bharat in West Bengal:
1. The scheme will cover an estimated 1.43 crore households, including the poorest households and frontline health workers.
2. The Central government has released ₹976 crore for the implementation of the National Health Mission in the state.
3. The inter-state portability feature of the scheme is expected to benefit migrant workers from the state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the ₹976 crore was released for Ayushman Bharat implementation, not for the National Health Mission (for which ₹527 crore was released). Statement 3 is correct as the portability will benefit nearly 1 crore migrant workers.
According to the news, what is the estimated number of households to be covered under Ayushman Bharat in West Bengal?
- A.1.24 crore households
- B.1.43 crore households✓ Correct Answer
- C.1.65 crore households
- D.1.95 crore households
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the scheme will cover an estimated 1.43 crore households in the state. The figure of 1.24 crore refers specifically to the poorest households within that total.
What is a primary benefit of integrating West Bengal into the Ayushman Bharat scheme, as highlighted for migrant workers?
- A.Access to higher insurance coverage limits
- B.Ability to use the health card in other states (inter-state portability)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Automatic enrollment in the National Health Mission
- D.Exemption from paying any premiums
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that the inter-state portability built into Ayushman Bharat will immensely benefit migrant workers, allowing them to get treatment in other states. Their previous Swasthya Sathi card was not usable outside West Bengal.
The article mentions the 'Quad'. Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue?
- A.India
- B.United States
- C.Japan
- D.South Korea✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (Quad) comprises India, the United States, Japan, and Australia. South Korea, while a key US ally in the Indo-Pacific, is not a formal member of this grouping.
Consider the following statements regarding the changing dynamics of India-US relations as discussed in the article:
1. The US now views Pakistan, not India, as a key intermediary for engagement with Iran and Saudi Arabia in the Gulf region.
2. India's annual economic growth rate of 6-7% over 30 years has helped it significantly close the absolute GDP gap with China.
3. The foundational defence agreement LEMOA between India and the US guarantees automatic military support in the event of a US-China confrontation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Trump administration saw Pakistan as the intermediary with Iran. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article explicitly says the absolute GDP gap was growing, not reducing. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article says LEMOA 'might be triggered' but this was 'by no means a given', indicating no automatic guarantee.
According to the article, for approximately how many years did the 'special relationship' between India and the United States exist before the recent shift?
- A.20 years
- B.25 years
- C.30 years✓ Correct Answer
- D.35 years
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'For 30 years, India looked to the US for strategic balance...' and later refers to this period as the duration of the 'special relationship' that is now over.
What is identified as a primary reason for the diminished importance of India in America's strategy to counter China, according to the analysis?
- A.India's refusal to participate in any multilateral forums in the Indo-Pacific.
- B.A shift in US-China competition from security to economic and technological domains (the '4 Cs'), where India is not a crucial player.✓ Correct Answer
- C.India signing a formal military alliance with Russia, alienating the United States.
- D.A drastic slowdown in India's economic growth compared to China's sustained high growth.
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Explanation
The article explains that under recent US administrations, the China challenge changed to focus on 'commerce, chips, computer software (AI), and critical minerals'. It concludes that 'India is not a crucial player in any of these four Cs', reducing its perceived strategic value in this new phase of competition.
Who is the current Chairman of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), as mentioned in the article?
- A.Shri Shaktikanta Das
- B.Shri Tuhin Kanta Pandey✓ Correct Answer
- C.Smt. Madhabi Puri Buch
- D.Shri Ajay Tyagi
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions SEBI Chairman Tuhin Kanta Pandey as the speaker announcing the regulatory reforms. This is a direct factual recall from the news content.
Consider the following statements regarding the regulatory reforms mentioned by SEBI Chairman:
1. SEBI is reviewing the variable net worth framework for stock brokers to align capital with operational risk.
2. SEBI is making intraday borrowing for mutual funds a mandatory tool rather than a contingency measure.
3. SEBI and RBI are collaborating to introduce derivatives on equity indices to improve market liquidity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states SEBI intends to allow intraday borrowing as an efficient tool for liquidity mismatches, not make it mandatory. Statement 3 is incorrect; the collaboration is for derivatives on corporate bond indices, not equity indices.
According to the article, what was the approximate growth in mutual fund assets in India, as stated by the SEBI Chairman?
- A.From Rs 5 trillion to Rs 50 trillion
- B.From Rs 12 trillion to over Rs 80 trillion✓ Correct Answer
- C.From Rs 20 trillion to Rs 100 trillion
- D.From Rs 8 trillion to Rs 60 trillion
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Explanation
The article provides the exact data point: "Mutual fund assets have expanded from Rs 12 trillion to over Rs 80 trillion." The other options are close but incorrect distractors.
What is a primary objective of SEBI's review of the pre-open call auction mechanism for Initial Public Offerings (IPOs), as per the news?
- A.To increase the number of IPOs listed annually.
- B.To facilitate more stable and efficient market openings, reducing volatility.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To allow retail investors to bid after the market opens.
- D.To replace the book-building process entirely.
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the objective is "to facilitate more stable and efficient market openings, thereby reducing volatility and improving trading outcomes for investors." The other options describe potential outcomes or unrelated changes not mentioned in the text.
Which global body's principle of 'Most Favored Nation (MFN)' is central to the tariff discussions in the article?
- A.World Trade Organization (WTO)✓ Correct Answer
- B.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
- C.World Bank
- D.United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
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Explanation
The Most Favored Nation (MFN) principle is a cornerstone rule of the World Trade Organization (WTO). It requires that any trade advantage granted by a member to another country must be extended to all other WTO members. The article discusses India's MFN tariffs in comparison to its FTA partners.
Consider the following statements regarding challenges in India's FTAs as discussed in the article:
1. India's trade deficit with ASEAN, Japan, and South Korea has grown at a rate significantly higher than its deficit with the rest of the world post-FTAs.
2. The utilization rate of FTA benefits by Indian exporters is higher than the utilization rate by foreign exporters importing into India.
3. An 'inverted duty structure' arises when duties on finished products are higher than those on raw materials, protecting downstream manufacturing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states deficits with these partners grew by 268-381%, compared to 142% with the rest of the world. Statement 2 is incorrect: Indian export-side utilization is low (20-30%), while import-side utilization is high (60-70%). Statement 3 is incorrect: An inverted duty structure is when duties on raw materials are HIGHER than on finished products, which disadvantages downstream manufacturing, not protects it.
According to the article, what is the estimated percentage of India's eligible exports that actually utilize FTA preferences?
- A.10-15%
- B.20-30%✓ Correct Answer
- C.40-50%
- D.60-70%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'only an estimated 20-30 per cent of India’s eligible exports take advantage of FTA preferences.' The 60-70% figure is the estimated import-side utilization rate, making it a key distractor.
What is a primary consequence of the 'inverted duty structure' exacerbated by India's FTAs, as described in the article?
- A.It makes Indian raw material exports more competitive globally.
- B.It encourages the 'Make in ASEAN, Sell in India' trend, undermining domestic manufacturing.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It significantly increases government revenue from customs duties.
- D.It simplifies the Rules of Origin compliance for Indian small businesses.
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Explanation
The article directly links inverted duty structures (high input costs, low finished goods duties) to the growing incentive for firms to manufacture in FTA partner countries like those in ASEAN and then export the finished products duty-free to India. This weakens the 'Make in India' initiative.
Which US government office is headed by the Trade Representative involved in the India-US trade negotiations?
- A.Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR)✓ Correct Answer
- B.US Department of Commerce
- C.US International Trade Commission
- D.US Department of State
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Explanation
The article mentions 'US Trade Representative Jamieson Greer'. The United States Trade Representative is the head of the Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR), which is responsible for developing and coordinating US international trade policy.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The US has proposed Section 301 tariffs of 12.5% on 54 countries, including India.
2. The 'excess capacity' probe under Section 301 targets only India and China.
3. India seeks assurance that the US will not initiate further probes after the trade deal is signed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the probe targets India and 15 other countries, not just India and China. Statement 3 is correct as India has sought assurance against future probes. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the article, what is the tariff rate proposed by the US under Section 301 on six countries, including Pakistan and the EU?
- A.10%✓ Correct Answer
- B.12.5%
- C.15%
- D.The article does not specify
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Explanation
The article states: 'Washington has set 12.5% tariffs on 54 countries, including India, China and 10% of six countries, such as Pakistan and the EU.' Therefore, the tariff rate for this group of six countries is 10%.
What is a primary concern for India regarding the structure of recent US trade agreements like the USMCA, as highlighted in the article?
- A.They mandate excessive tariff reductions from developing countries.
- B.They contain 'poison pill' clauses that can restrict partners' trade with third countries.✓ Correct Answer
- C.They require harmonization of labor laws with US standards.
- D.They exclude dispute settlement mechanisms for non-tariff barriers.
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Explanation
The article references a report by Global Trade Alert pointing out 'restrictive third-country provisions — informally referred to as "poison pills"' in US agreements like USMCA. These clauses could trigger consequences if a partner signs a deal with a 'non-market economy' or a country the US believes threatens its interests, which is a key sovereignty concern for India.
Which entity provides an update on the potential inclusion of Indian bonds in the Bloomberg Global Aggregate Bond Index?
- A.Reserve Bank of India
- B.Bloomberg Index Services Ltd (BISL)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Securities and Exchange Board of India
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Bloomberg Index Services Ltd (BISL) had deferred the inclusion and will provide another update by mid-2026. BISL is the index provider and administrator responsible for this decision.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. India's GDP growth for the financial year 2025-26 was 7.7%, which was lower than the second advance estimate of 7.6%.
2. The government and RBI removed capital gains tax for Foreign Institutional Investors on investments in government bonds.
3. The Reserve Bank of India increased its GDP growth forecast for 2026-27 by 30 basis points.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the actual growth (7.7%) was higher than the advance estimate (7.6%). Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect because the RBI lowered, not increased, its forecast by 30 basis points to 6.6%.
According to the data released, what was the year-on-year growth in Goods and Services Tax (GST) collections from imports in May?
- A.3.0%
- B.7.8%
- C.19.1%✓ Correct Answer
- D.20.0%
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Explanation
The article clearly states that while overall GST collections rose only 3% year-on-year in May, the revenue from imports surged 19.1%. This indicates strong import demand for intermediate goods and machinery.
What is the primary objective of the government's move to scrap taxes on FII investments in government bonds, as per the source?
- A.To immediately boost stock market valuations.
- B.To increase the effective post-tax yield on Indian government securities for FIIs.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce the fiscal deficit by increasing tax revenue from FIIs.
- D.To promote foreign direct investment in the manufacturing sector.
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Explanation
The source states that the previous tax treatment reduced the effective post-tax yield for FIIs compared to peer markets. Removing the tax addresses this 'structural disadvantage' to make Indian bonds more competitive, thereby pushing for inclusion in the Bloomberg index.
The Uttar Pradesh government is in discussions with which national organization for launching a dedicated weather satellite?
- A.Indian Meteorological Department (IMD)
- B.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
- D.National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Uttar Pradesh government has initiated discussions with the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) for launching a satellite dedicated to monitoring weather parameters specific to the state.
Consider the following statements regarding the weather infrastructure in Uttar Pradesh as mentioned in the article:
1. The state has installed 450 Automatic Weather Stations and 2,000 Automatic Rain Gauges at the block level.
2. X-Band Doppler Weather Radars are being installed in Azamgarh, Varanasi, Aligarh, Jhansi, and Lucknow.
3. The Government of India's SACHET platform is used for disseminating lightning alerts via MMS.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct; the five cities listed are mentioned for radar installation. Statement 3 is correct; the article states that timely MMS alerts are received through the SACHET platform for lightning warnings.
According to the article, what was the approximate reduction in annual lightning deaths in high-risk districts of Uttar Pradesh after implementing the Early Warning System?
- A.From 200-250 to about 50
- B.From 100-150 to about a dozen✓ Correct Answer
- C.From 50-75 to about 5
- D.From 150-200 to about 25
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Explanation
The article states that earlier, 100 to 150 people used to lose their lives due to lightning annually in high-risk districts. After implementing the Early Warning System, annual deaths have reduced to just around a dozen.
What is the primary objective behind Uttar Pradesh's proposal for a dedicated weather satellite, as per the news article?
- A.To compete with the Indian Meteorological Department's national forecasts.
- B.To enable more efficient early warning systems for state-specific weather disasters.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To launch commercial remote sensing services for revenue generation.
- D.To support national security and defense-related surveillance.
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Explanation
The article's core theme is improving disaster management. The Chief Minister emphasized the need for accurate and timely forecasts to manage weather-related disasters. The proposed satellite is intended for monitoring weather-related parameters specific to Uttar Pradesh to strengthen early warning systems.
The mutual defense treaty between China and North Korea, which recently marked its 65th anniversary, is officially known as?
- A.Treaty of Amity and Cooperation
- B.Treaty of Friendship, Cooperation and Mutual Assistance✓ Correct Answer
- C.Sino-Korean Mutual Defense Pact
- D.Beijing-Pyongyang Strategic Partnership Agreement
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Explanation
The article mentions the 65th anniversary of the mutual defense treaty between the two countries. This treaty, signed in 1961, is formally called the 'Treaty of Friendship, Cooperation and Mutual Assistance between the People's Republic of China and the Democratic People's Republic of Korea'.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent visit of Chinese President Xi Jinping to North Korea:
1. This was Xi Jinping's first visit to North Korea in seven years.
2. The visit aimed to press North Korea on the issue of complete denuclearization as a primary agenda.
3. The visit coincided with the 65th anniversary of the mutual defense treaty between China and North Korea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states it was his first visit in seven years. Statement 2 is incorrect: Experts predict Xi could refrain from pressing Kim on denuclearization. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions this year marks 65 years since the treaty was signed.
As per the news article, in which year was the mutual defense treaty between China and North Korea signed?
- A.1953
- B.1961✓ Correct Answer
- C.1972
- D.1991
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Explanation
The article states, 'This year marks 65 years since the two countries signed a mutual defense treaty.' The visit is in 2026. Subtracting 65 years gives 1961 as the signing year.
What is a key strategic objective for China in reasserting its influence over North Korea, as highlighted in the article?
- A.To isolate South Korea in regional diplomacy
- B.To gain leverage in its dealings with the United States✓ Correct Answer
- C.To directly participate in North Korea's nuclear program
- D.To replace Russia as the sole arms supplier to North Korea
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that restoring exclusive influence over North Korea would give Xi Jinping leverage in dealings with US President Trump, who has expressed desire to restart diplomacy with Kim. This is a central theme of the geopolitical analysis provided.
Which government mission, mentioned in the article, is central to India's strategy for securing minerals needed for electric vehicles?
- A.National Solar Mission
- B.National Mission on Sustainable Habitat
- C.National Critical Mineral Mission✓ Correct Answer
- D.National Electric Mobility Mission Plan
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the 'National Critical Mineral Mission' as India's mechanism for securing rare earths and critical minerals, envisaging stockpiling to reduce vulnerabilities in the EV supply chain.
Consider the following statements regarding the arguments presented in the article about India's shift to Electric Vehicles (EVs):
1. The article proposes stopping the registration of new fossil-fuel vehicles after 2028.
2. It argues that EVs increase India's global vulnerability compared to fossil fuel vehicles.
3. The Centre for Social and Economic Progress (CSEP) analysis cited shows that the lifetime cost of electric two-wheelers is higher than their petrol counterparts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the government is proposing to stop registration of new (fossil-fuel) vehicles after 2028. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article argues EVs REDUCE global vulnerabilities as batteries are not consumables. Statement 3 is incorrect; CSEP analysis shows lifetime costs are SIGNIFICANTLY LOWER, not higher.
According to the policy proposal discussed in the article, by which year is a mandatory shift to electric vehicles for two- and four-wheelers suggested?
- A.2025
- B.2026
- C.2028✓ Correct Answer
- D.2030
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Explanation
The article clearly states the proposal is to institute a policy for a move towards electric vehicles by 2028. The other options are plausible distractors based on other climate or policy targets often seen in the news.
What is a primary economic solution suggested in the article to address the auto industry's concern over 'stranded assets' during the transition to electric vehicles?
- A.Providing direct capital subsidies for new EV factories
- B.Offering accelerated depreciation on existing assets✓ Correct Answer
- C.Implementing a carbon tax on petrol vehicles
- D.Nationalizing the battery manufacturing sector
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions that for stranded assets as production lines shift, firms 'could be asking the government for accelerated depreciation.' This is a fiscal tool to allow faster write-off of asset values, reducing tax liability and easing the financial burden of transition.
Which U.S. official reportedly drafted the proposal to purchase the Chagos Islands, as mentioned in the article?
- A.U.S. Secretary of State
- B.U.S. Treasury Secretary✓ Correct Answer
- C.U.S. Defense Secretary
- D.U.S. National Security Advisor
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the proposal was put forward by U.S. Treasury Secretary Scott Bessent and presented to President Trump. This is a specific factual detail from the source.
Consider the following statements regarding the Chagos Islands and Diego Garcia:
1. The UK paused its agreement to transfer sovereignty of the Chagos Islands to Mauritius in April 2026.
2. Diego Garcia is located approximately 2,360 miles (3,800 km) from Iran.
3. The U.S. proposal to buy the islands is the preferred option currently under consideration by the White House.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'In April, the UK government paused its agreement to transfer sovereignty of the Chagos Islands to Mauritius.' Statement 2 is correct: 'The Diego Garcia base... is about 2,360 miles (3,800km) from Iran.' Statement 3 is incorrect: The article says the proposal 'is not believed to be the preferred option at this stage.'
According to the article, approximately how far is the Diego Garcia military base from Iran?
- A.1,800 km
- B.2,360 miles✓ Correct Answer
- C.4,500 km
- D.3,000 miles
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Explanation
The article provides the distance in two units: 'about 2,360 miles (3,800km)'. Option B states the exact figure in miles as mentioned. The other options are incorrect distractors.
What is the primary strategic reason, as cited by a U.S. official in the article, for the U.S. opposition to the UK transferring sovereignty of the Chagos Islands?
- A.To protect the economic interests of Chagos refugees.
- B.To maintain Diego Garcia as a vital and indispensable military installation for U.S. national security.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To uphold the UK's historical colonial rights in the Indian Ocean.
- D.To prevent Mauritius from developing the islands for tourism.
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Explanation
The U.S. official told Reuters that 'Diego Garcia’s strategic location in the Indian Ocean makes it a vital and indispensable military installation of significant importance to the national security of the United States.' This directly states the strategic security rationale. The other options are not supported by the article's content.
Which High Court delivered the judgment stating that a Muslim man's second marriage is not bigamy under Section 82 of BNS, 2023?
- A.Bombay High Court
- B.Kerala High Court
- C.Gauhati High Court✓ Correct Answer
- D.Delhi High Court
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Explanation
The judgment was delivered by Justice Mridul Kumar Kalita of the Gauhati High Court on June 5, 2026, as mentioned in the article. The Bombay and Kerala High Courts were cited as precedents, but the ruling was from Gauhati HC.
Consider the following statements regarding the Gauhati High Court judgment on bigamy and Muslim personal law:
1. The court held that a Muslim man can be prosecuted for bigamy under Section 82 of BNS, 2023 for contracting a second marriage.
2. The judgment stated that a Muslim man's fifth marriage, while the other four are subsisting, would be void and attract prosecution.
3. The court referenced the Assam Compulsory Registration of Muslim Marriages and Divorces Act, 2024, stating that non-registration makes a marriage void.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The court quashed the bigamy case, ruling that a second marriage is not an offence under Section 82 BNS for a Muslim man. Statement 2 is correct as per the judgment's reasoning. Statement 3 is incorrect; the court noted that the APP conceded mere non-registration does not make the marriage void.
According to the Gauhati High Court judgment, under Muslim personal law, how many marriages is a man permitted to have simultaneously?
- A.Two
- B.Three
- C.Four✓ Correct Answer
- D.Unlimited
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Gauhati High Court, citing Muslim personal law, noted it permits a Muslim man to have up to four wives simultaneously. This is the key factual basis for quashing the bigamy case for a second marriage.
What was the primary legal reasoning of the Gauhati High Court for quashing the bigamy case against the Muslim man?
- A.The first wife had consented to the second marriage.
- B.The second marriage was registered under the Assam Compulsory Registration Act.
- C.The offence of bigamy under Section 82 BNS requires the second marriage to be void, which it was not under Muslim personal law.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The husband had divorced his first wife before the second marriage.
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Explanation
The core legal reasoning, as detailed in the article, is that Section 82 of the BNS (like Section 494 IPC) criminalizes bigamy only when the second marriage is 'void'. Since Muslim personal law validates a second marriage (up to four), it is not void, and thus the essential element of the offence is missing.
Which of the following Acts specifically provides the legal framework for the termination of pregnancy in cases of rape, as referenced in the Allahabad High Court judgment?
- A.The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012
- B.The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015
- D.The Indian Penal Code, 1860
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the 'Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971' as the statutory framework for abortion services. While POCSO deals with offences against children and JJ Act with care and protection, the specific law governing termination of pregnancy is the MTP Act, 1971.
Consider the following statements regarding the observations made by the Allahabad High Court in the news article:
1. The court noted that 525 cases involving pregnancies in unmarried child rape victims were reported in Uttar Pradesh in the last five years.
2. The court found that over 500 cases of rape victims were produced before Medical Boards for termination-related assistance in Uttar Pradesh between 2013 and 2023.
3. The court highlighted that the Lucknow zone recorded the highest concentration of such cases in the state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states only 106 cases were produced before Medical Boards over 11 years, not 'over 500'. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions Lucknow zone had the highest concentration (115 cases). Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
According to the data furnished to the Allahabad High Court, how many procedures were performed under the formal Medical Board framework in Uttar Pradesh between 2013 and 2023?
- A.106✓ Correct Answer
- B.115
- C.525
- D.Approximately 240
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Explanation
The article specifically states: "data furnished by the state revealed only 106 cases of rape victims being produced before Medical Boards for termination-related assistance between 2013 and 2023." 115 is the number of cases in Lucknow zone, 525 is the total pregnancies reported in five years, and 240 is not mentioned.
What was a key institutional failure highlighted by the Allahabad High Court's analysis of the zone-wise distribution of cases?
- A.The failure was limited only to rural areas of Uttar Pradesh.
- B.Urban areas like Gorakhpur city had disproportionately high case numbers.
- C.The failure extended across both rural and urban areas of the state.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The failure was primarily due to a lack of relevant laws.
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Explanation
The article states: "the zone-wise distribution... disclosed a pattern of institutional failure that extends across both rural and urban areas of the state." It specifically notes Gorakhpur city recorded zero cases, contradicting option B. The failure is in implementation, not the absence of laws (option D).
Which ministry is responsible for releasing the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) series in India?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- C.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Heavy Industries
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Explanation
The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is the nodal agency for releasing macroeconomic indices like the IIP and the Consumer Price Index (CPI). This is a standard static GK fact linked to the news.
Consider the following statements regarding recent developments:
1. The new Index of Industrial Production (IIP) series has 2022-23 as its base year and includes a sector for 'Gas Supply and Water Supply, Sewerage & Waste Management'.
2. Jai Prakash Narayan Bird Sanctuary, designated as India's 100th Ramsar site, is a man-made reservoir located in the state of Bihar.
3. The Maruti WagonR Flex Fuel vehicle has been officially homologated to run on E100 (pure ethanol) under approved Indian standards.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Jai Prakash Narayan Bird Sanctuary (Surha Tal) is a natural oxbow lake in Ballia, Uttar Pradesh, not a man-made reservoir in Bihar. Statement 3 is incorrect; the car is homologated for E85, not E100, though it is technically capable of running on higher blends.
According to the 2026 synchronised population estimate, what is the recorded population of the Nilgiri Tahr?
- A.1,250
- B.1,302
- C.1,364✓ Correct Answer
- D.1,428
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Nilgiri Tahr population estimate for 2026 stood at 1,364, marking a 4.68% rise over the previous year. The other options are plausible distractors close to the actual figure.
What is a primary strategic objective behind the government's push for flex-fuel vehicles like the recently launched Maruti WagonR FFV?
- A.To immediately replace all petrol and diesel vehicles on Indian roads.
- B.To reduce dependence on imported crude oil and promote the use of domestic agricultural produce for fuel.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To phase out compressed natural gas (CNG) as a transportation fuel.
- D.To meet the emission targets set under the Montreal Protocol.
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Explanation
The core objective of promoting ethanol-based flex-fuel vehicles is energy security. It aims to cut down India's massive crude oil import bill by substituting it with ethanol, which is produced domestically from sugarcane and other biomass, thereby also supporting farmers. The article mentions the government's success in increasing ethanol blending to 20%.
The travel advisory for Indian citizens in Iran was issued by which Indian government body?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Security Council Secretariat
- D.Cabinet Committee on Security
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Explanation
Travel advisories for citizens abroad are issued by the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA). The MEA, through its overseas missions like the Embassy in Tehran, is responsible for the welfare and protection of Indian nationals in foreign countries.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent travel advisory for Iran:
1. It is the first advisory issued by India since the beginning of the Iran-US conflict.
2. The advisory applies only to Indian tourists and not to students or businesspersons.
3. The Indian Embassy has facilitated exit through land borders with Armenia and Azerbaijan in the past.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the article states this is the 8th advisory. Statement 2 is incorrect as the advisory explicitly applies to all Indian citizens, including students, businesspersons, pilgrims, and tourists. Statement 3 is correct as per the article which mentions the Embassy facilitated exit through land borders with Armenia and Azerbaijan.
According to the news article, approximately how many Indian nationals are estimated to still remain in Iran?
- A.Around 5,000
- B.Around 7,500✓ Correct Answer
- C.Around 10,000
- D.Around 12,000
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Around 7,500 Indian nationals still remain in Iran.' The other numbers are plausible distractors but are not mentioned in the provided content.
What is the primary objective behind India issuing a fresh travel advisory urging citizens to leave Iran?
- A.To reduce diplomatic ties with Iran
- B.To prioritize the safety and security of Indian nationals✓ Correct Answer
- C.To comply with international sanctions against Iran
- D.To encourage tourism in alternative destinations
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Explanation
The article repeatedly cites 'heightened security concerns' and advises citizens 'to prioritise their safety.' The core objective of such advisories is the welfare and protection of citizens abroad during times of perceived threat, which is a fundamental duty of the government.
Which High Court has jurisdiction over the state of Tamil Nadu?
- A.Madras High Court✓ Correct Answer
- B.Karnataka High Court
- C.Kerala High Court
- D.Andhra Pradesh High Court
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Explanation
The Madras High Court has jurisdiction over Tamil Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry. Its principal seat is in Chennai, and the news article specifically mentions the Madras High Court's judgment.
Consider the following statements regarding the Madras High Court judgment on election bribery:
1. The court quashed the proceedings because the prosecution failed to link the seized money to influencing any voter's electoral right.
2. The court held that the confession of a co-accused can form the sole basis for prosecution under the Indian Penal Code.
3. The judgment emphasized that seizure of money during an election period automatically constitutes the offence of electoral bribery.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the core of the judgment was the lack of nexus between money and electoral inducement. Statement 2 is incorrect as the court reiterated the settled law that a co-accused's confession is not substantive evidence. Statement 3 is incorrect as the court explicitly stated such an approach is legally impermissible.
According to the Madras High Court judgment, which sections of the Indian Penal Code define the offence and prescribe punishment for electoral bribery respectively?
- A.Section 171(B) and Section 171(C)
- B.Section 171(C) and Section 171(D)
- C.Section 171(B) and Section 171(E)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Section 171(A) and Section 171(B)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "Section 171(E) prescribes punishment for bribery and Section 171(B) defines the ingredients of bribery." This is a direct factual extraction from the news content.
What is the primary legal significance of the Madras High Court's judgment quashing the election bribery case?
- A.It reduces the penalties for all electoral offences under the IPC.
- B.It lowers the standard of proof required for convicting someone in election-related crimes.
- C.It clarifies that prosecution must prove a direct link between gratification and an electoral act, not just seizure of money.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It empowers the Election Commission to directly prosecute candidates without police investigation.
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Explanation
The judgment's core ruling is that the offence of electoral bribery requires proof that gratification was intended to induce a specific electoral act (vote/not vote). Merely finding money during elections is insufficient. This upholds a high evidential standard and protects against vague prosecutions.
Which portal is mentioned in the article as the online system used for forest and environmental approvals by the Forest Department?
- A.e-Samiksha Portal
- B.Parivesh Portal✓ Correct Answer
- C.e-GRAS Portal
- D.PRAN Portal
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the forest department made applications through the Centre's Parivesh portal (Pro-Active and Responsive facilitation by Interactive, Virtuous and Environmental Single-window Hub). This portal is specifically designed for such clearances.
Consider the following statements regarding the news article:
1. The Gujarat High Court took suo motu cognisance of the maternal death case reported in The Indian Express.
2. The proposed road construction project in Turkheda village is fully funded under the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY).
3. The total land requirement for the clubbed road projects in the Kawant region exceeds 15 hectares of forest land.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article confirms the Gujarat HC took suo motu cognisance. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the roads will be constructed from grants under Mukhya Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana's Tribal grants head, not PMGSY. Statement 3 is correct as officials mention the projects require more than 15 hectares of land.
According to the Union Minister's reply in Rajya Sabha mentioned in the article, what was Gujarat's Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) for the period 2020-22?
- A.75 per lakh live births
- B.55 per lakh live births✓ Correct Answer
- C.88 per lakh live births
- D.65 per lakh live births
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Explanation
The article states: "From 75 maternal deaths per 1 lakh live births in 2016-18, Gujarat saw an MMR of 55 in 2020-22." India's overall MMR is 88, which is a common distractor.
What is the primary reason cited by officials for the delay in constructing the promised road to Turkheda village?
- A.Lack of budgetary allocation from the state government
- B.Pending forest and revenue department clearances for land use✓ Correct Answer
- C.Technical difficulties in designing the road for hilly terrain
- D.Local opposition from the tribal community to the project
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the project awaits clearance from the state forest department, and the process involves multi-stage approvals from Forest and Revenue Departments for land exceeding 15 hectares. The budget (Rs 13.5 crore) was approved, and terrain challenges are secondary, not the primary cause of delay.
The Supreme Court judgment mentions the dispute was settled before a Lok Adalat. Under which Act are Lok Adalats established?
- A.The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
- B.The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
- C.The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Civil Procedure Code, 1908
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Explanation
Lok Adalats are established under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, to provide a platform for the amicable settlement of disputes. This is a key static GK fact relevant for Polity and Governance sections.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment on pre-marital relationships:
1. The Court held that character verification for disciplined forces should be completely abolished.
2. The judgment stated that a compromise in a criminal case before a Lok Adalat amounts to an admission of guilt.
3. The Bench emphasized that authorities must be sensitive to changing social norms regarding relationships.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Court recognized character verification as integral but refined its application; it did not call for its abolition. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Court criticized the recruitment board for treating a compromise as an admission of guilt, calling it 'perverse'. Statement 3 is correct, as the judgment explicitly asks authorities to be sensitive to changing times.
In the Supreme Court case concerning pre-marital relationships, which State Level Police Recruitment Board had cancelled the constable candidate's selection?
- A.Andhra Pradesh State Level Police Recruitment Board
- B.Telangana State Level Police Recruitment Board✓ Correct Answer
- C.Karnataka State Police Recruitment Board
- D.Maharashtra Police Recruitment Board
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the selection was cancelled by the Telangana State Level Police Recruitment Board. This is a factual data point directly from the news.
What is the core legal principle reiterated by the Supreme Court in this judgment that forms the basis for quashing the recruitment cancellation?
- A.The principle of double jeopardy
- B.The principle of presumption of innocence✓ Correct Answer
- C.The principle of res judicata
- D.The principle of natural justice
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Explanation
The judgment underlines the well-settled principle of criminal jurisprudence that unless a charge is proved in a court of law, there is a presumption of innocence. The recruitment board's adverse inference violated this principle as the case was settled without a trial.
Which of the following institutions provided the heat-related mortality data used in the study on uncompensable heat stress?
- A.National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) and India Meteorological Department (IMD)✓ Correct Answer
- B.NITI Aayog and Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
- C.Ministry of Health and World Health Organization (WHO)
- D.Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) and Ministry of Earth Sciences
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that heat-related mortality data for Indian states (1980-2019) was obtained from the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) and the India Meteorological Department (IMD).
Consider the following statements regarding the findings of the study on heat stress in India:
1. Uncompensable heat stress (UHS) was more prevalent during the summer months of March-June, affecting about eight per cent of India.
2. The study projects that under 2°C warming, the monsoon season UHS will affect a larger area of India than the summer season UHS.
3. The total population affected by UHS could be between 0.8 and 1.2 billion based on projected population under different warming levels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states monsoon UHS will affect 'nearly equivalent areas' (53%) as summer (60%), not a larger area. Statement 3 is directly quoted from the article. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the study, what was the approximate area affected by uncompensable heat stress (UHS) in India by the year 2020?
- A.Less than 0.01 million square kilometres
- B.0.02 million square kilometres
- C.0.04 million square kilometres✓ Correct Answer
- D.0.08 million square kilometres
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Explanation
The article clearly states: "from less than 0.01 million square kilometres during the 1980s to 0.04 million square kilometres by 2020." Option A is the 1980s baseline, making it a close distractor.
What is the primary implication of the finding that 'monsoon-season uncompensable heat stress is projected to increase rapidly with climate warming'?
- A.It will lead to an increase in annual rainfall variability across India.
- B.It extends the period of high health and productivity risks from heat from just summer to most of the year.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It indicates that greenhouse gas emissions will decrease during the monsoon season.
- D.It suggests that coastal regions will become uninhabitable before northwestern regions.
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Explanation
The core finding is that a dangerous health risk (UHS), previously concentrated in summer, is projected to become nearly as severe during the monsoon (July-Oct) under warming. This effectively doubles the annual threat period for vulnerable populations, impacting public health and labour productivity year-round.
Under which Union Ministry does the initiative for coal gasification fall?
- A.Ministry of Power
- B.Ministry of Coal and Mines✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
- D.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions Union Minister for Coal and Mines G. Kishan Reddy announcing the coal gasification push. The Ministry of Coal is the nodal agency for all policy matters related to coal, including its gasification.
Consider the following statements regarding the coal gasification initiative:
1. It targets an investment of ₹4 lakh crore and aims to save approximately ₹3 lakh crore in foreign exchange.
2. A key objective is to reduce import dependence for agricultural fertilizers and industrial chemicals.
3. The government has allocated 200 million tonnes of coal for this purpose with incentives worth ₹46,000 crore.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct; the Minister stated the aim is to reduce import dependence for products like ammonia, methanol, and fertilizers. Statement 3 is incorrect; the allocated amount is 100 million tonnes, not 200 million tonnes.
According to the news, what is the total amount of incentives announced by the government to promote coal gasification?
- A.₹30,000 crore
- B.₹46,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹60,000 crore
- D.₹4 lakh crore
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Explanation
The article clearly states: "...allocating 100 million tonnes of coal for this purpose with incentives worth ₹46,000 crore." ₹60,000 crore refers to savings from reduced coal imports last year, and ₹4 lakh crore is the total investment target.
What is a stated advantage of pursuing Underground Coal Gasification (UCG) as mentioned in the article?
- A.It is a cheaper alternative to surface mining for all coal reserves.
- B.It completely eliminates carbon emissions from coal use.
- C.It offers a viable alternative where conventional mining is not feasible.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It primarily aims to increase coal exports to other countries.
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Explanation
The Minister stated, "India has significant reserves of deep-seated coal and underground gasification offers a viable alternative where conventional mining is not feasible." The other options are not supported by the article; UCG does not eliminate all emissions, is not necessarily cheaper for all reserves, and the goal is import substitution, not export.
Which statutory body has released the draft 'Registered Allied and Healthcare Professionals (Professional Conduct & Ethics) Regulations, 2026'?
- A.National Medical Commission
- B.National Commission for Allied and Healthcare Professions✓ Correct Answer
- C.Indian Nursing Council
- D.Medical Council of India
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the draft regulations were released by the National Commission for Allied and Healthcare Professions. This body was established under the NCAHP Act, 2021, to regulate allied health professions.
Consider the following statements regarding the draft regulations mentioned in the news:
1. They are India's first comprehensive national code of ethics for allied health professionals.
2. They are issued under the authority of the National Medical Commission Act, 2019.
3. Their objectives include standardizing professional behavior across different states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states this is the 'first comprehensive code of ethics'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the regulations are issued by the National Commission for Allied and Healthcare Professions, not the National Medical Commission. Statement 3 is correct as the draft seeks to 'standardise behaviour across professions and states'.
As per the news article, when is the webinar titled 'What new rules mean for allied health' scheduled to be hosted?
- A.June 08, 2026
- B.June 10, 2026
- C.June 13, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- D.June 15, 2026
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Explanation
The article clearly mentions: "The Hindu will host a webinar titled, 'What new rules mean for allied health', on June 13, 2026 at 5:00 p.m." The other dates are close distractors.
What is the primary objective of the draft 'Registered Allied and Healthcare Professionals (Professional Conduct & Ethics) Regulations, 2026' as highlighted in the news?
- A.To increase the number of allied health professionals in India
- B.To establish a common national ethical framework and standardize professional conduct✓ Correct Answer
- C.To replace the existing National Medical Commission
- D.To provide financial subsidies to allied health students
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Explanation
The article's core theme is that the draft seeks to fill the gap of a 'common national ethical framework' and aims to 'define professional conduct standards' and 'standardise behaviour'. The other options are not mentioned as primary objectives.
The caution regarding the long-term use of IMI-resistant mustard hybrids was published by Prof. Deepak Pental in which scientific journal?
- A.Science
- B.Nature
- C.Current Science✓ Correct Answer
- D.Indian Journal of Agricultural Sciences
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the commentary by Prof. Deepak Pental was published in the journal 'Current Science'. This is a factual recall from the news content.
Consider the following statements regarding the new IMI-resistant mustard hybrids:
1. They are developed using genetic modification (GM) technology.
2. They are resistant to herbicides that inhibit the enzyme Acetolactate Synthase (ALS).
3. Their primary target is to control the parasitic weed Orobanche, which affects mustard yields.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the article clearly states the hybrids were developed through 'mutation breeding', a non-GM process. Statement 2 is correct as the resistance is due to a change making the ALS enzyme tolerant. Statement 3 is correct as Orobanche is identified as the major parasitic weed targeted.
According to the article, what was the approximate value of India's edible oil imports in the year 2024-25?
- A.About Rs 1.2 lakh crore
- B.About Rs 1.6 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.About Rs 2.0 lakh crore
- D.About Rs 2.4 lakh crore
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Explanation
The article provides the specific data point: 'In 2024-25, the country imported around 16 million tonnes at about Rs 1.6 lakh crore.' The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is the primary concern raised by experts regarding the widespread use of the new IMI-resistant mustard hybrids?
- A.They will significantly increase the cost of cultivation for farmers.
- B.They require genetically modified seeds which are not approved in India.
- C.Over-reliance on a single herbicide will lead to the evolution of resistant weed populations.✓ Correct Answer
- D.They are not effective in the arid environments of North India where mustard is primarily grown.
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Explanation
The core caution from Prof. Pental, as detailed in the article, is that 'strong directional selection' from using only one herbicide will cause weeds to evolve resistance, making the technology fail. This is the central application/impact issue discussed.
The Bab al-Mandab Strait is located between which of the following regions?
- A.Between Oman and Iran
- B.Between Yemen and the Horn of Africa (Djibouti/Eritrea)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Between Saudi Arabia and Egypt
- D.Between Indonesia and Malaysia
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the strait is 'Located between Yemen and the Horn of Africa nations of Djibouti and Eritrea.' The other options describe other major straits: Hormuz (Oman-Iran), Malacca (Indonesia-Malaysia).
Consider the following statements regarding the Bab al-Mandab Strait:
1. It is a strategic maritime corridor connecting the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden.
2. Approximately 20% of the world's oil trade passes through this strait daily.
3. In 2024, about 4.1 million barrels of petroleum products passed through it daily.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's definition. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states it is 5% of global oil trade, not 20% (which is closer to the share for the Strait of Hormuz). Statement 3 is correct as per the specific data point mentioned in the article.
According to the article, what was the approximate value of goods passing annually through the Red Sea before the Israel-Gaza war?
- A.$500 billion
- B.$750 billion
- C.$1 trillion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$1.5 trillion
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Explanation
The article states: 'The attacks disrupted shipping in the Red Sea, through which roughly $1 trillion in goods passed annually before the war.' The other figures are plausible distractors but not mentioned.
What is the primary strategic implication of Iran's threat to block the Bab al-Mandab Strait, as highlighted in the news?
- A.To directly challenge US naval dominance in the Persian Gulf.
- B.To use control over a global trade chokepoint as geopolitical leverage in regional conflicts.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To promote the use of alternative renewable energy sources worldwide.
- D.To establish a new international maritime security coalition.
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Explanation
The article frames the threat as a response to potential Israeli action, demonstrating how control over critical infrastructure like maritime chokepoints can be weaponized to exert pressure and gain strategic advantage in a regional dispute, affecting global economics.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for issuing the official monsoon forecast for India?
- A.Ministry of Earth Sciences✓ Correct Answer
- B.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- C.Ministry of Jal Shakti
- D.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
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Explanation
The India Meteorological Department (IMD), which issues the monsoon forecast, operates under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES). While agriculture and water ministries use the forecast, the scientific prediction is MoES's mandate.
Consider the following statements regarding the southwest monsoon forecast for 2026 as per the article:
1. The monsoon onset over Kerala was delayed, occurring on June 4, which was also later than IMD's own forecast.
2. The India Meteorological Department (IMD) has forecast seasonal rainfall at 90% of the Long Period Average (LPA) with a 60% probability of a deficient year.
3. All regions of India, except the northeast, are expected to receive normal rainfall during the monsoon season.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states the monsoon reached Kerala on June 4, which was three days past its normal date and four days behind IMD's own forecast. Statement 2 is correct: IMD pegged seasonal rainfall at 90% of LPA with a 60% probability of an outright deficient year. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article says only the northeast is expected to see normal rain; northwest, central India, the peninsula and the monsoon core zone are all forecast to fall short.
According to the India Meteorological Department's forecast mentioned in the article, what is the probability of the monsoon season being 'deficient' in 2026?
- A.50%
- B.60%✓ Correct Answer
- C.70%
- D.80%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the IMD has pegged seasonal rainfall with "a 60% probability of an outright deficient year." The other percentages are distractors not mentioned in the context of this forecast.
What is the primary reason cited in the article for the government to activate ministries on a 'war footing' in response to the monsoon forecast?
- A.To prepare for potential urban flooding in metropolitan cities.
- B.To manage the risk of sown crops facing danger from unwatered dry spells and an ongoing input crisis.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To launch a new national mission for climate-resilient infrastructure.
- D.To coordinate with state governments for post-monsoon flood relief operations.
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that the distribution of rainfall matters, with risks of "sudden long dry spells" leaving "sown crops...unwatered." It further states this monsoon is "exceptionally" consequential because it "arrives atop an input crisis" from West Asia affecting fertilizer and energy. Therefore, proactive management of agricultural and input risks is the core rationale for urgent action.
Which international organization provided the population projection stating that one in five Indians will be over 60 by 2050?
- A.World Bank
- B.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
- C.United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA)✓ Correct Answer
- D.World Health Organization (WHO)
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Explanation
The article explicitly cites the United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) for the projection that almost one of five Indians will be over the age of 60 by 2050. The other organizations, while relevant to global data, are not mentioned as the source in this context.
Consider the following statements regarding India's retirement planning challenges:
1. Medical inflation in India has been consistently higher than the overall inflation rate.
2. The National Pension System (NPS) is a mandatory scheme only for government employees.
3. Urbanization and the rise of nuclear families are reducing traditional family-support structures for the elderly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states medical inflation has stayed between 12-14%, significantly higher than overall inflation. Statement 2 is incorrect because the NPS is described as addressing the absence of a structured pension culture 'outside of government employment', implying it is not mandatory and is open to all. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions changing societal structures like urbanisation and nuclear families mean retirees may no longer have the same family-support structures.
According to the article, what is the projected increase in India's elderly population over the next three decades?
- A.From 10 crore to 25 crore
- B.From 15 crore to 34 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.From 12 crore to 30 crore
- D.From 18 crore to 40 crore
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Explanation
The article specifically states: 'The elderly population in India is likely to rise from about 15 crore today to more than 34 crore over the next three decades.' The other options are close distractors with incorrect starting or ending figures.
What is identified as the primary advantage of starting retirement planning early through instruments like the NPS?
- A.It provides immediate tax benefits under Section 80C.
- B.It allows investors to build a corpus gradually while benefiting from long-term compounding.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It guarantees fixed returns that are higher than fixed deposits.
- D.It is managed directly by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that 'the advantage of starting early... is the ability to build a retirement corpus gradually over decades while benefiting from compounding and professional fund management.' While NPS offers tax benefits, the primary strategic advantage highlighted is the power of compounding over a long period. The article does not mention guaranteed returns or RBI management.
The National Statistical Office (NSO), which releases GDP estimates, operates under which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Planning
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Explanation
The National Statistical Office (NSO) was formed by merging the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) and the Central Statistics Office (CSO). It is the central statistical agency of India and functions under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
Consider the following statements regarding the economic projections mentioned in the article:
1. The National Statistical Office (NSO) revised the GDP growth estimate for 2025-26 downwards from its second advance estimate.
2. Crisil Ratings expects the Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation for 2026-27 to be lower than the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) inflation recorded in April 2026.
3. A major reason for the expected economic slowdown in 2026-27 is the adverse impact of the West Asia conflict on energy prices and trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the NSO revised the GDP growth estimate UPWARDS to 7.7% from the second advance estimate of 7.6%. Statement 2 is incorrect as the article states CPI inflation is forecast at 5.1% for 2026-27, which is lower than the WPI inflation of 8.3% recorded in April 2026. Statement 3 is correct as the article identifies the West Asia conflict as a major cause for the expected slowdown.
According to the article, what is Crisil's forecast for India's GDP growth in the fiscal year 2026-27?
- A.6.2%
- B.6.6%✓ Correct Answer
- C.7.1%
- D.7.7%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "Crisil expects GDP growth to slow to 6.6 per cent from 7.7 per cent last year." The RBI also pared its growth outlook to the same figure. Option D (7.7%) is the previous year's actual growth, making it a close distractor.
As per the analysis in the article, what is identified as a primary reason for the evaporation of policy space to support growth through easy monetary policy in the near term?
- A.A sharp increase in the fiscal deficit
- B.Rising inflationary risks and expectations✓ Correct Answer
- C.Pressure from international financial institutions
- D.A deliberate shift towards fiscal consolidation
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Explanation
The article states, "the policy space to support growth through easy monetary policy has evaporated because of rising inflation risks." It cites rising CPI forecasts, pass-through of input costs, higher fuel prices, and rising household inflation expectations as key reasons. The other options are not cited as primary reasons in the article.
Under which ministry does the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC), the body that approved Bt cotton, function?
- A.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- B.Ministry of Science and Technology
- C.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
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Explanation
The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the apex regulatory body for genetically modified organisms in India. It functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), as environmental release of GMOs falls under its purview.
Consider the following statements regarding India's cotton sector:
1. The Cotton Productivity Mission aims to increase lint yield from 441 kg/ha to 755 kg/ha by 2031.
2. The commercial cultivation of Bt cotton was approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) in 2002.
3. The Cotton Seed Price Control Order of 2015 was introduced by the Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; Bt cotton was approved for commercial cultivation by the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) in 2002, not the CCEA. Statement 3 is correct; the Cotton Seed Price Control Order is a central government regulation introduced in 2015.
According to the article, what was India's cotton lint yield (in kg per hectare) for the triennium ending (TE) 2025-26?
- A.302 kg/ha
- B.441 kg/ha✓ Correct Answer
- C.566 kg/ha
- D.755 kg/ha
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the current lint productivity is 441 kg per hectare (in triennium ending (TE) 2025-26). 302 kg/ha was the yield in 2002-03, 566 kg/ha was the peak yield in 2013-14, and 755 kg/ha is the 2031 target.
What is identified in the article as the primary consequence of successive seed price control policies on India's cotton sector?
- A.A significant increase in farmer incomes due to cheaper seeds.
- B.A surge in public sector investment in cotton seed research.
- C.The commercial unviability of seed innovation by private companies.✓ Correct Answer
- D.A rapid adoption of the latest genetically modified seed varieties.
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Explanation
The article argues that price control decisions, by slashing and then abolishing trait fees, made seed innovation commercially unviable for private companies. This led to the withdrawal of next-generation technologies from regulatory consideration, leaving farmers with dated technology and causing productivity stagnation.
Khanij Bidesh India Limited (KABIL), mentioned in the news, is a joint venture under which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- B.Ministry of Mines✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of External Affairs
- D.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that KABIL is a joint venture of three Central Public Sector Enterprises under the Ministry of Mines. This ministry is responsible for the survey, exploration, and mining of minerals.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Critical Minerals Mission:
1. It has an outlay of ₹32,000 crore to strengthen domestic capabilities.
2. It includes a ₹1,500 crore incentive to promote the recycling of critical minerals.
3. The mission aims to reduce India's import dependence on critical minerals, which is currently around 70%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as ₹1,500 crore in incentives have been allocated for recycling. Statement 3 is incorrect because the import dependence is nearly 93%, not 70%.
According to the article, what is the total financial outlay announced for the National Critical Minerals Mission?
- A.₹15,000 crore
- B.₹25,000 crore
- C.₹32,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹50,000 crore
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Centre has launched the National Critical Minerals Mission with an outlay of ₹32,000 crore. The other figures are plausible distractors but not mentioned.
What is the primary strategic objective behind KABIL's acquisition of critical mineral blocks in Argentina?
- A.To increase India's exports of finished mineral products
- B.To secure overseas mineral assets and reduce import dependence for key industries✓ Correct Answer
- C.To provide technical assistance to Argentina's mining sector
- D.To diversify India's foreign direct investment portfolio
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Explanation
The Minister highlighted that the acquisition marks a significant step in India's efforts to secure overseas mineral assets and reduce its heavy dependence on imports, which is 93% for critical minerals. This directly addresses supply risks for strategic sectors.
Which government department is responsible for issuing the official monsoon forecast for India mentioned in the article?
- A.Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)
- B.India Meteorological Department (IMD)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- D.Central Water Commission (CWC)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'The India Meteorological Department has already forecast a below-normal monsoon...'. IMD is the national meteorological service of India and is the nodal agency for weather forecasting.
Consider the following statements regarding the agricultural scenario discussed in the article:
1. The farm sector growth in 2025-26 was higher than in 2024-25.
2. The article suggests that the primary impact of the forecasted El Niño in 2026 will be on the Kharif crop season.
3. The editorial advocates for making 2026 the year of millets, pulses, and oilseeds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Farm sector growth was 4.2% in 2024-25 and 3.2% in 2025-26, so growth was lower in 2025-26. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article clearly states 'The real impact might be during the rabi (winter-spring) season', not Kharif. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned: 'The Narendra Modi government must work towards making 2026 India’s year of millets, pulses and oilseeds'.
According to the India Meteorological Department's forecast mentioned in the article, what is the expected monsoon rainfall for the country in 2026 as a percentage of the Long Period Average (LPA)?
- A.85% of LPA
- B.90% of LPA✓ Correct Answer
- C.95% of LPA
- D.100% of LPA
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Explanation
The article states: 'The India Meteorological Department has already forecast a below-normal monsoon, with overall rainfall at 90 per cent of LPA for the four-month season.' The other options are plausible distractors for different monsoon categories (deficient, below normal, normal).
What is the primary reason, as per the editorial, for promoting millets, pulses, and oilseeds in response to the forecasted challenges?
- A.They have a higher export value compared to rice and wheat.
- B.They require less water and fertilisers (especially urea) than traditional staples.✓ Correct Answer
- C.They are more resistant to all pests and diseases.
- D.They have a much shorter growing season than Rabi crops.
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Explanation
The article explicitly links the promotion of these crops to resource efficiency: '...millets, pulses and oilseeds, which also consume less water and fertilisers — especially urea (nitrogen) — than rice, wheat or sugarcane.' This addresses the dual challenge of potential water (monsoon) and fertiliser shortfalls.
The news mentions the Supreme Court directing an affidavit from the MCD. What does MCD stand for?
- A.Metropolitan Commission of Delhi
- B.Municipal Corporation of Delhi✓ Correct Answer
- C.Metropolitan Council of Delhi
- D.Municipal Committee of Delhi
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Explanation
MCD stands for the Municipal Corporation of Delhi, the unified civic body responsible for Delhi's municipal governance. The article explicitly refers to the 'Municipal Corporation of Delhi (MCD)'.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Supreme Court-appointed amicus curiae is Senior Advocate Ajit Kumar Sinha.
2. The building collapse incident that prompted the report occurred in Delhi's Saidulajab area on June 4, 2026.
3. The amicus curiae has sought a direction for the Delhi Government to compensate the families of the deceased.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article names Ajit Kumar Sinha as the amicus curiae. Statement 2 is incorrect; the collapse happened on May 30, 2026, not June 4. Statement 3 is correct as the status report seeks an affidavit from the Delhi Government on compensating victims' families.
According to the article, how many people were injured in the building collapse in Saidulajab?
- A.At least 10
- B.At least 12
- C.At least 14✓ Correct Answer
- D.At least 16
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the building collapse 'claimed six lives and injured at least 14 people on May 30'. The other numbers are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is the primary objective of the directions sought by the amicus curiae from the Supreme Court in this case?
- A.To initiate criminal proceedings against the building owner.
- B.To audit and enforce action against illegal constructions and regulatory failures by the MCD.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To transfer the case to the National Green Tribunal for environmental violations.
- D.To order the demolition of all buildings over three storeys in Delhi.
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Explanation
The core request is for the MCD to file an affidavit detailing surveys and actions taken, and to conduct structural audits and sealing/demolition of illegal structures. This aims to address systemic regulatory failure, not just a single criminal case or a blanket demolition order.
The Chagos Archipelago is administered by the United Kingdom under which official territorial designation?
- A.Crown Dependency
- B.British Overseas Territory✓ Correct Answer
- C.Associated State
- D.UN Trust Territory
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Explanation
The UK administers the Chagos Archipelago as the British Indian Ocean Territory (BIOT), which is a type of British Overseas Territory. Crown Dependencies like Jersey are different, and the territory is not a UN Trust Territory.
Consider the following statements regarding the news on Chagos Islands:
1. The United States is considering a proposal to purchase the Chagos Islands directly from the United Kingdom.
2. The Diego Garcia military base in the Chagos archipelago has been jointly operated by the US and UK since 1966 under a lease agreement.
3. The International Court of Justice (ICJ) has issued an advisory opinion supporting Mauritius's claim to the Chagos Archipelago.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The US is considering buying from Mauritius, not the UK. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's mention of the 1966 lease. Statement 3 is a correct static fact, as the ICJ did issue such an advisory opinion in 2019, which is crucial background to this dispute.
In which year was the Diego Garcia atoll leased to the United States for establishing a military base, as per the article?
- A.1965
- B.1966✓ Correct Answer
- C.1971
- D.1980
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Diego Garcia is 'site of a major United States military base... leased from Britain in 1966.' 1965 is the year BIOT was created, making it a close distractor.
What is the primary strategic concern driving the US consideration to purchase the Chagos Islands, as highlighted in the article?
- A.To establish a new naval base for the QUAD alliance
- B.To secure permanent control over the vital Diego Garcia military installation✓ Correct Answer
- C.To support the decolonization process led by the United Nations
- D.To reduce its military dependence on the United Kingdom
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Explanation
The US official quoted calls Diego Garcia 'a vital and indispensable military installation of significant importance to the national security of the United States.' The proposed purchase is an alternative to the UK ceding sovereignty, aimed at preserving the base's viability, not directly related to QUAD or supporting UN decolonization.
Who is the current Chief Justice of India as mentioned in the article advocating for 'Swadeshi jurisprudence'?
- A.Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
- B.Justice N.V. Ramana
- C.Justice Surya Kant✓ Correct Answer
- D.Justice U.U. Lalit
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions Chief Justice of India (CJI) Justice Surya Kant as the one delivering the lecture and advocating for the development of 'Swadeshi jurisprudence'. This is a direct factual recall from the news content.
Consider the following statements regarding 'Swadeshi jurisprudence' as discussed by CJI Surya Kant:
1. It refers to a legal framework that relies solely on imported technological models for judicial efficiency.
2. It emphasizes attentiveness to India's constitutional values, linguistic diversity, and social conditions.
3. It is part of efforts that include exploring an indigenous AI ecosystem for the judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as 'Swadeshi jurisprudence' is defined as being attentive to India's own context "rather than relying solely upon imported technological models". Statement 2 is correct as per the CJI's definition. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions serious efforts are underway to explore an indigenous AI ecosystem alongside this jurisprudence.
According to the article, where did CJI Surya Kant deliver the lecture on 'Constitutional Promise to Digital Reality'?
- A.At the United Nations General Assembly, New York
- B.At the International Conference on Arbitrating Indo-UK Commercial Disputes, London
- C.At the Oxford Union and the Oxford Law Society✓ Correct Answer
- D.At the Supreme Court of India, New Delhi
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Explanation
The article clearly states: "Delivering a lecture at the Oxford Union and the Oxford Law Society on the theme 'Constitutional Promise to Digital Reality...'" The other options are distractors: London was the venue for a different conference mentioned, and the Supreme Court is his institution but not the lecture venue.
What is the Supreme Court of India's stated approach towards technology in the judicial process, as per CJI Surya Kant's lecture?
- A.Technology should completely automate judicial reasoning to ensure speed and uniformity.
- B.Technology is approached as an aid to human reasoning, not a substitute for independent judicial thought.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Technology should be imported from advanced global models to ensure best practices.
- D.Technology has no significant role to play in safeguarding constitutional promises.
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Explanation
The article directly quotes: "The Supreme Court of India has consciously approached technology as an aid to human reasoning rather than as a substitute for independent judicial thought." This defines the court's cautious and human-centric approach to legal tech, which is central to the news item.
The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) is under which ministry/department of the Government of India?
- A.Department of Science & Technology
- B.Department of Health Research, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
- C.Department of Biotechnology
- D.Ministry of Education
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Explanation
As mentioned in the article, Dr. Rajiv Bahl is Secretary to the Government of India, Department of Health Research, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare and Director-General of ICMR. This establishes ICMR's administrative linkage.
Consider the following statements regarding the reforms undertaken by ICMR:
1. It is restructuring institutes into interdisciplinary hubs focusing on domains like digital health and child health.
2. It has launched the National Health Research Programme (NHRP) which focuses on funding individual research projects.
3. The NHRP has identified priority areas including antimicrobial resistance, tuberculosis, and mental health.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions ICMR repositioning institutes as interdisciplinary hubs for digital health, child health, etc. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states NHRP marks a shift from funding projects to enabling solutions. Statement 3 is correct as NHRP's 13 priority areas include antimicrobial resistance, TB, and mental health.
According to the article, how many priority areas have been identified under the National Health Research Programme (NHRP)?
- A.10
- B.13✓ Correct Answer
- C.15
- D.17
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the National Health Research Programme (NHRP) has identified 13 priority areas. The other numbers are plausible distractors but not mentioned.
What is a primary objective of the ICMR's current strategic reorientation, as described in the article?
- A.To increase the number of standalone disease-specific research institutes.
- B.To shift from generating knowledge to solving pressing public health challenges through integrated research.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To focus exclusively on basic biomedical research without operational application.
- D.To reduce collaboration with State and district health systems.
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Explanation
The article states the shift reflects a move towards integrated, institute-led research where science is designed not just to generate knowledge, but to solve pressing public health challenges. The other options contradict the article's emphasis on interdisciplinary hubs, operational research with states, and a connected ecosystem.
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For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
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What are the important current affairs questions for 8 June 2026?▼
This page contains 168 current affairs questions from 8 June 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 8 June 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
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Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
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Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
- Q1. institution in India is responsible for compiling and publishi…
- Q2. Consider the following statements regarding India's external s…
- Q3. was the value of India's gold import bill for the fourth quart…
- Q4. The narrowing of India's current account surplus in Q4 FY26, a…
- Q5. institution is responsible for forecasting India's monsoon rai…
- Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the GDP data for 2…
- Q7. According to the provisional estimates, what was the share of …
- Q8. is the primary concern highlighted by the GDP data regarding t…
- Q9. institution is the nodal agency for conducting the National Fa…
- Q10. Consider the following statements regarding findings from NFHS…
- Q11. According to the NFHS-6 data mentioned in the article, what is…
- Q12. The sharp decline in exclusive breastfeeding rates in states l…
- Q13. organization releases the official GDP growth estimates for In…
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian economy…
- Q15. is the revised GDP growth projection for the financial year 20…
- Q16. According to the article, what is a primary reason for the gov…
- Q17. Under which article of the Constitution does the President of …
- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q19. According to the article, what was the sanctioned strength of …
- Q20. is the primary constitutional concern raised by the use of an …
- Q21. Under which Act was the conviction upheld by the Allahabad Hig…
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Allahab…
- Q23. On which date did the Allahabad High Court deliver the judgmen…
- Q24. is the primary legal significance of the Allahabad HC referrin…
- Q25. institution is responsible for implementing the FCNR(B) swap s…
- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the FCNR(B) swap s…
- Q27. According to the article, what was the approximate amount of f…
- Q28. is a key expected macroeconomic benefit of a stronger rupee, a…
- Q29. The National Family Health Survey (NFHS) is conducted under th…
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the findings of NF…
- Q31. According to the NFHS-6 data for Delhi mentioned in the articl…
- Q32. As per the experts quoted in the article, what is identified a…
- Q33. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution are specific sa…
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Jammu &…
- Q35. The detention order quashed by the J&K High Court was passed i…
- Q36. is the primary legal principle reinforced by the J&K High Cour…
- Q37. Under which policy framework were four exploration blocks allo…
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the natural gas di…
- Q39. According to the article, what is the total area covered by th…
- Q40. is the primary significance of the consecutive natural gas dis…
- Q41. apex body is responsible for the implementation of the Ayushma…
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the launch of Ayus…
- Q43. According to the news, what is the estimated number of househo…
- Q44. is a primary benefit of integrating West Bengal into the Ayush…
- Q45. The article mentions the 'Quad'. Which of the following countr…
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the changing dynam…
- Q47. According to the article, for approximately how many years did…
- Q48. is identified as a primary reason for the diminished importanc…
- Q49. is the current Chairman of the Securities and Exchange Board o…
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the regulatory ref…
- Q51. According to the article, what was the approximate growth in m…
- Q52. is a primary objective of SEBI's review of the pre-open call a…
- Q53. global body's principle of 'Most Favored Nation (MFN)' is cent…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding challenges in Indi…
- Q55. According to the article, what is the estimated percentage of …
- Q56. is a primary consequence of the 'inverted duty structure' exac…
- Q57. US government office is headed by the Trade Representative inv…
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q59. According to the article, what is the tariff rate proposed by …
- Q60. is a primary concern for India regarding the structure of rece…
- Q61. entity provides an update on the potential inclusion of Indian…
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Indi…
- Q63. According to the data released, what was the year-on-year grow…
- Q64. is the primary objective of the government's move to scrap tax…
- Q65. The Uttar Pradesh government is in discussions with which nati…
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the weather infras…
- Q67. According to the article, what was the approximate reduction i…
- Q68. is the primary objective behind Uttar Pradesh's proposal for a…
- Q69. The mutual defense treaty between China and North Korea, which…
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the recent visit o…
- Q71. As per the news article, in which year was the mutual defense …
- Q72. is a key strategic objective for China in reasserting its infl…
- Q73. government mission, mentioned in the article, is central to In…
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the arguments pres…
- Q75. According to the policy proposal discussed in the article, by …
- Q76. is a primary economic solution suggested in the article to add…
- Q77. U.S. official reportedly drafted the proposal to purchase the …
- Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the Chagos Islands…
- Q79. According to the article, approximately how far is the Diego G…
- Q80. is the primary strategic reason, as cited by a U.S. official i…
- Q81. High Court delivered the judgment stating that a Muslim man's …
- Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the Gauhati High C…
- Q83. According to the Gauhati High Court judgment, under Muslim per…
- Q84. was the primary legal reasoning of the Gauhati High Court for …
- Q85. of the following Acts specifically provides the legal framewor…
- Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the observations m…
- Q87. According to the data furnished to the Allahabad High Court, h…
- Q88. was a key institutional failure highlighted by the Allahabad H…
- Q89. ministry is responsible for releasing the Index of Industrial …
- Q90. Consider the following statements regarding recent development…
- Q91. According to the 2026 synchronised population estimate, what i…
- Q92. is a primary strategic objective behind the government's push …
- Q93. The travel advisory for Indian citizens in Iran was issued by …
- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the recent travel …
- Q95. According to the news article, approximately how many Indian n…
- Q96. is the primary objective behind India issuing a fresh travel a…
- Q97. High Court has jurisdiction over the state of Tamil Nadu?
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the Madras High Co…
- Q99. According to the Madras High Court judgment, which sections of…
- Q100. is the primary legal significance of the Madras High Court's j…
- Q101. portal is mentioned in the article as the online system used f…
- Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the news article: …
- Q103. According to the Union Minister's reply in Rajya Sabha mention…
- Q104. is the primary reason cited by officials for the delay in cons…
- Q105. The Supreme Court judgment mentions the dispute was settled be…
- Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
- Q107. In the Supreme Court case concerning pre-marital relationships…
- Q108. is the core legal principle reiterated by the Supreme Court in…
- Q109. of the following institutions provided the heat-related mortal…
- Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the findings of th…
- Q111. According to the study, what was the approximate area affected…
- Q112. is the primary implication of the finding that 'monsoon-season…
- Q113. Under which Union Ministry does the initiative for coal gasifi…
- Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the coal gasificat…
- Q115. According to the news, what is the total amount of incentives …
- Q116. is a stated advantage of pursuing Underground Coal Gasificatio…
- Q117. statutory body has released the draft 'Registered Allied and H…
- Q118. Consider the following statements regarding the draft regulati…
- Q119. As per the news article, when is the webinar titled 'What new …
- Q120. is the primary objective of the draft 'Registered Allied and H…
- Q121. The caution regarding the long-term use of IMI-resistant musta…
- Q122. Consider the following statements regarding the new IMI-resist…
- Q123. According to the article, what was the approximate value of In…
- Q124. is the primary concern raised by experts regarding the widespr…
- Q125. The Bab al-Mandab Strait is located between which of the follo…
- Q126. Consider the following statements regarding the Bab al-Mandab …
- Q127. According to the article, what was the approximate value of go…
- Q128. is the primary strategic implication of Iran's threat to block…
- Q129. ministry is primarily responsible for issuing the official mon…
- Q130. Consider the following statements regarding the southwest mons…
- Q131. According to the India Meteorological Department's forecast me…
- Q132. is the primary reason cited in the article for the government …
- Q133. international organization provided the population projection …
- Q134. Consider the following statements regarding India's retirement…
- Q135. According to the article, what is the projected increase in In…
- Q136. is identified as the primary advantage of starting retirement …
- Q137. The National Statistical Office (NSO), which releases GDP esti…
- Q138. Consider the following statements regarding the economic proje…
- Q139. According to the article, what is Crisil's forecast for India'…
- Q140. As per the analysis in the article, what is identified as a pr…
- Q141. Under which ministry does the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Co…
- Q142. Consider the following statements regarding India's cotton sec…
- Q143. According to the article, what was India's cotton lint yield (…
- Q144. is identified in the article as the primary consequence of suc…
- Q145. Khanij Bidesh India Limited (KABIL), mentioned in the news, is…
- Q146. Consider the following statements regarding the National Criti…
- Q147. According to the article, what is the total financial outlay a…
- Q148. is the primary strategic objective behind KABIL's acquisition …
- Q149. government department is responsible for issuing the official …
- Q150. Consider the following statements regarding the agricultural s…
- Q151. According to the India Meteorological Department's forecast me…
- Q152. is the primary reason, as per the editorial, for promoting mil…
- Q153. The news mentions the Supreme Court directing an affidavit fro…
- Q154. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q155. According to the article, how many people were injured in the …
- Q156. is the primary objective of the directions sought by the amicu…
- Q157. The Chagos Archipelago is administered by the United Kingdom u…
- Q158. Consider the following statements regarding the news on Chagos…
- Q159. In which year was the Diego Garcia atoll leased to the United …
- Q160. is the primary strategic concern driving the US consideration …
- Q161. is the current Chief Justice of India as mentioned in the arti…
- Q162. Consider the following statements regarding 'Swadeshi jurispru…
- Q163. According to the article, where did CJI Surya Kant deliver the…
- Q164. is the Supreme Court of India's stated approach towards techno…
- Q165. The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) is under which m…
- Q166. Consider the following statements regarding the reforms undert…
- Q167. According to the article, how many priority areas have been id…
- Q168. is a primary objective of the ICMR's current strategic reorien…