6 June 2026, Questions & Answers

104 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

104 questions  ·  0 topics covered  ·  21 min revision

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This page contains 104 current affairs questions with answers from 6 June 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

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6 June 2026, Questions with Answers

104 Qs
Q1.

Which statutory committee of the RBI is responsible for deciding the benchmark repo rate?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.Board for Financial Supervision (BFS)
  • B.Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Committee on Financial Sector Assessment (CFSA)
  • D.Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a statutory committee established under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. Its primary mandate is to determine the policy repo rate to achieve the inflation target set by the Government of India.

Source: RBI MPC Holds Repo Rate at 5.25%, Projects 6.6% GDP Growth and 5.1% Inflation for FY 2026-27 →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's June 2026 Monetary Policy:

1. The Monetary Policy Committee decided to increase the repo rate by 25 basis points.

2. The RBI revised its GDP growth projection for the year downwards to 6.6%.

3. To attract foreign capital, the government abolished the capital gains tax on FII investments in corporate bonds.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The MPC held the repo rate unchanged at 5.25%, it did not increase it. Statement 2 is correct: The RBI lowered its GDP growth projection to 6.6% from 6.9%. Statement 3 is incorrect: The tax exemption was for FII investments in government bonds, not corporate bonds.

Source: RBI MPC Holds Repo Rate at 5.25%, Projects 6.6% GDP Growth and 5.1% Inflation for FY 2026-27 →
Q3.

According to the article, what is the Reserve Bank of India's inflation forecast for the fiscal year, as announced in the June 2026 policy?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.4.6%
  • B.5.1%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.5.25%
  • D.3.5%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

In the June 2026 meeting, the RBI raised its inflation forecast for the year to 5.1%, up from the 4.6% it had estimated in its April meeting. 3.5% was the headline retail inflation figure for April, and 5.25% is the repo rate.

Source: RBI MPC Holds Repo Rate at 5.25%, Projects 6.6% GDP Growth and 5.1% Inflation for FY 2026-27 →
Q4.

What was a primary objective of the government and RBI's joint measures announced alongside the monetary policy?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To increase direct tax revenue from foreign investors
  • B.To tighten capital controls and stabilize the rupee
  • C.To attract foreign capital inflows and ease pressure on the currency✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To promote domestic retail investment in equity markets
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that measures like removing taxes on FII bond investments and providing concessional forex swap facilities were aimed at attracting foreign capital. This was needed due to significant equity outflows ($28.6 bn) and low net FDI ($7.65 bn), to ease pressure on the Indian rupee.

Source: RBI MPC Holds Repo Rate at 5.25%, Projects 6.6% GDP Growth and 5.1% Inflation for FY 2026-27 →
Q5.

Under which section of the RBI Act, 1934, is the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) constituted?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.Section 45ZB✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Section 7
  • C.Section 21
  • D.Section 58
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that under Section 45ZB of the amended RBI Act, 1934, the central government is empowered to constitute the six-member Monetary Policy Committee. This is a key static fact related to India's monetary policy framework.

Source: Govt Scraps FII Capital Gains & Withholding Tax on Bonds to Attract Funds, RBI Trims FY27 GDP Forecast to 6.6% →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent economic developments:

1. The government has scrapped both long-term and short-term capital gains tax for Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) on investments in government bonds.

2. The Reserve Bank of India has increased its GDP growth forecast for the financial year 2026-27 to 7.2%.

3. The Balance of Payments deficit for India is estimated to potentially touch $60 billion in the year 2026-27.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the Centre scrapped capital gains tax on FII investment in government bonds. Statement 2 is incorrect because the RBI cut its GDP growth forecast for FY27 to 6.6%, not increased it to 7.2%. Statement 3 is correct as economists estimate the BoP deficit could touch $60 billion in 2026-27.

Source: Govt Scraps FII Capital Gains & Withholding Tax on Bonds to Attract Funds, RBI Trims FY27 GDP Forecast to 6.6% →
Q7.

As per the third synchronised population estimation in April 2026, what is the estimated population of the Nilgiri Tahr in Tamil Nadu?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1,031
  • B.1,303
  • C.1,364✓ Correct Answer
  • D.1,450
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Nilgiri Tahr population count in Tamil Nadu, as per the April 2026 estimation, is 1,364 individuals, showing a 4.68% increase over the previous year's count of 1,303. The other options are previous years' counts or distractors.

Source: Govt Scraps FII Capital Gains & Withholding Tax on Bonds to Attract Funds, RBI Trims FY27 GDP Forecast to 6.6% →
Q8.

What is the primary objective of the clean mobility scheme recently approved by the Union Cabinet for Delhi-NCR?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To promote the manufacturing of electric vehicles within the region.
  • B.To incentivize the replacement of older trucks and buses with BS-VI compliant vehicles.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To provide subsidies for personal vehicle owners to switch to CNG.
  • D.To ban all commercial vehicles not registered in Delhi-NCR.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the scheme's objective is to reduce air pollution in Delhi-NCR by incentivizing the replacement of older trucks and buses with BS-VI or stricter emission-compliant vehicles. It specifically targets BS-IV and older vehicles, excluding government vehicles.

Source: Govt Scraps FII Capital Gains & Withholding Tax on Bonds to Attract Funds, RBI Trims FY27 GDP Forecast to 6.6% →
Q9.

The Akshaya Patra Foundation implements meals for school children under which major government scheme?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.PM Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana
  • B.Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS)
  • C.PM POSHAN (Mid-Day Meal Scheme)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.National Food Security Act (NFSA)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Akshaya Patra is an implementer of the PM POSHAN scheme, which was earlier known as the Mid-Day Meal Programme. It has signed an MoU with the government for this purpose.

Source: Akshaya Patra Serves 3.35 Million Meals Daily, Implements PM POSHAN Using AI & Centralised Kitchens →
Q10.

Consider the following statements regarding the Akshaya Patra Foundation:

1. It operates the world's largest school meal programme run by a not-for-profit organisation.

2. It serves more than 50% of the total beneficiary base of India's school meal programme.

3. It uses centralised kitchen models and technologies like steam cooking and roti-making machines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly says Akshaya Patra serves only about 2% of India's total beneficiary base. Statement 3 is correct as the article details the use of centralised kitchens, steam cooking, and roti-making machines capable of producing 40,000-60,000 rotis per hour.

Source: Akshaya Patra Serves 3.35 Million Meals Daily, Implements PM POSHAN Using AI & Centralised Kitchens →
Q11.

According to the article, how many meals does the Akshaya Patra Foundation serve to school children every day?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2.35 million
  • B.3.35 million✓ Correct Answer
  • C.1 million
  • D.25,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Akshaya Patra serves 2.35 million midday meals and, additionally, about 1 million morning nutrition servings. Therefore, the total daily meals served are 3.35 million. Option A is only the midday meal count, and option D is the number of schools.

Source: Akshaya Patra Serves 3.35 Million Meals Daily, Implements PM POSHAN Using AI & Centralised Kitchens →
Q12.

What is a primary technological challenge that Akshaya Patra is still trying to solve, as mentioned in the interview?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Developing genetically modified crops for higher yield
  • B.Creating an AI model to replace all kitchen staff
  • C.Accurately forecasting daily meal demand to reduce wastage✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Building kitchens that operate without any human intervention
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The CEO explicitly lists accurate demand forecasting as the first challenge: "How do we bring analytics and accurate forecasting of daily meal demand across thousands of schools? If I forecast incorrectly, it leads to significant wastage." The article rules out using GM crops and emphasizes that they do not lay off employees, making the other options incorrect.

Source: Akshaya Patra Serves 3.35 Million Meals Daily, Implements PM POSHAN Using AI & Centralised Kitchens →
Q13.

The 'Right to Public Space Bill' mentioned in the article was introduced in which house of the Indian Parliament?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lok Sabha
  • B.Rajya Sabha✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Both Houses simultaneously
  • D.It is a State Legislature Bill
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the bill was introduced in the Rajya Sabha on December 8, 2023, by V. Sivadasan, a Rajya Sabha member. This is a factual detail directly from the provided content.

Source: Urban Heat & Inequality Crisis: WHO Green Space Norm (9 sq.m./capita) vs. Chennai (0.81), Pune (1.4), Delhi (2.9) →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding green spaces in Indian cities as per the article:

1. The World Health Organization (WHO) prescribes a minimum of 9 square meters of green space per capita in urban areas.

2. Chennai has the lowest green space per capita among the Indian cities mentioned in the article.

3. UN-Habitat recommends that 50% of a city's land should be reserved as public open space.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the WHO data provided. Statement 2 is correct; Chennai has 0.81 sq.m., which is lower than Pune (1.4), Bengaluru (2.25), Delhi (2.9), and Mumbai (1.24). Statement 3 is incorrect; UN-Habitat recommends 30% of city land as public open space, not 50%.

Source: Urban Heat & Inequality Crisis: WHO Green Space Norm (9 sq.m./capita) vs. Chennai (0.81), Pune (1.4), Delhi (2.9) →
Q15.

According to the article, what is the approximate green space available per capita in Bengaluru?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.0.81 sq.m.
  • B.1.4 sq.m.
  • C.2.25 sq.m.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2.9 sq.m.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides specific data: "Bengaluru offers approximately 2.25 sq.m." The other options are the figures for Chennai (0.81), Pune (1.4), and Delhi (2.9) respectively.

Source: Urban Heat & Inequality Crisis: WHO Green Space Norm (9 sq.m./capita) vs. Chennai (0.81), Pune (1.4), Delhi (2.9) →
Q16.

What is the primary social issue highlighted by the book 'Why Loiter?' as referenced in the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The economic cost of maintaining public parks.
  • B.The lack of safety for women in urban streets.
  • C.The unequal access to city spaces based on gender, class, and identity.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The environmental impact of reducing green cover.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article cites the book's central question: "who has access to these [city] spaces?" It concludes that if women, marginalized groups, or the working class have no access, it defines who is an 'acceptable citizen'. This directly points to inequality in access based on social identity.

Source: Urban Heat & Inequality Crisis: WHO Green Space Norm (9 sq.m./capita) vs. Chennai (0.81), Pune (1.4), Delhi (2.9) →
Q17.

Which government department is responsible for issuing the monsoon forecast mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
  • B.India Meteorological Department (IMD)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Central Water Commission
  • D.National Disaster Management Authority
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the India Meteorological Department (IMD) has forecast a 10% deficit in southwest monsoon rainfall. IMD is the national agency under the Ministry of Earth Sciences responsible for weather and monsoon forecasts.

Source: IMD Forecasts 10% Monsoon Deficit, El Nino Emergence Recalls 1876-78 Great Famine Toll of 55-82 Lakh →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding the historical event discussed in the article:

1. The 1876-78 Great Famine in India is historically linked to a powerful El Nino event.

2. The famine resulted in an estimated death toll of 55 lakh to 82 lakh people across the country.

3. According to the article, the region of present-day Telangana was completely unaffected by this famine.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Great Famine was linked to a powerful El Nino event. Statement 2 is correct as the article cites the death toll as 55 lakh to 82 lakh. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article notes that Nagarkurnool and Nalgonda districts in Telangana were among the worst-affected, though other parts faced only drinking water shortages.

Source: IMD Forecasts 10% Monsoon Deficit, El Nino Emergence Recalls 1876-78 Great Famine Toll of 55-82 Lakh →
Q19.

According to the IMD forecast mentioned in the article, what is the expected deficit in southwest monsoon rainfall for the year compared to the Long Period Average?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5% deficit
  • B.8% deficit
  • C.10% deficit✓ Correct Answer
  • D.12% deficit
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: "The India Meteorological Department (IMD) has forecast a 10% deficit in southwest monsoon rainfall from the Long Period Average this year." The other options are plausible distractors but not the figure provided.

Source: IMD Forecasts 10% Monsoon Deficit, El Nino Emergence Recalls 1876-78 Great Famine Toll of 55-82 Lakh →
Q20.

What was a key factor, as highlighted in the article, that helped mitigate the impact of the 1876-78 famine in the Telangana region?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Large-scale food imports by the British government
  • B.A network of traditional irrigation tanks and wells✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The introduction of drought-resistant crop varieties
  • D.Effective early warning systems for farmers
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article emphasizes that numerous tanks and water bodies in Telangana acted as buffers. It cites specific numbers: 18,089 large tanks (with 4,924 functional) and 52,685 wells (33,851 providing water), which helped blunt the impact of drought and supported famine-relief works.

Source: IMD Forecasts 10% Monsoon Deficit, El Nino Emergence Recalls 1876-78 Great Famine Toll of 55-82 Lakh →
Q21.

The National Educational Technology Forum is a proposed body under which of the following policy documents?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Policy on Information Technology 2012
  • B.National Education Policy 2020✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Digital India Mission
  • D.National Policy for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship 2015
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the National Education Policy 2020 positions digital technology as central and proposes a National Educational Technology Forum. This is a key static GK linkage for education-related policies.

Source: NEP 2020's Digital Push Questioned as Research Links Classroom Devices to Cognitive Decline; PISA 2022 Data Highlights Risk →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding the findings discussed in the article:

1. Research presented to the U.S. Senate indicates Gen Z is the first cohort to underperform its predecessor across several cognitive metrics.

2. PISA 2022 data from 81 countries shows that heavy screen use in classrooms is correlated with significantly higher academic scores.

3. Historian Dr. Eliza Filby argues that the new educational divide is between those with access to technology and those without.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Teaching
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; PISA 2022 data showed heavy screen use correlated with 'dramatically lower scores', not higher. Statement 3 is incorrect; Filby argues the new divide is 'between those whose education is shaped by people and those whose education is governed by platforms', not merely about access.

Source: NEP 2020's Digital Push Questioned as Research Links Classroom Devices to Cognitive Decline; PISA 2022 Data Highlights Risk →
Q23.

According to the PISA 2022 report mentioned in the article, data from how many countries was analyzed regarding device use and learning outcomes?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.65 countries
  • B.73 countries
  • C.81 countries✓ Correct Answer
  • D.92 countries
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states: 'PISA 2022, drawing on data from 81 countries, points in the same direction...'. This is a precise data point for factual recall.

Source: NEP 2020's Digital Push Questioned as Research Links Classroom Devices to Cognitive Decline; PISA 2022 Data Highlights Risk →
Q24.

What is a primary concern raised in the article regarding the equity argument for educational technology (Ed-Tech) when applied at scale in India?

MediumUPSC, Teaching
  • A.It will lead to an oversupply of trained teachers in the market.
  • B.It may produce the opposite of its promise by entrenching educational inequalities.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It will make education prohibitively expensive for all economic sections.
  • D.It will cause a decline in the development of digital infrastructure.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article argues that while ed-tech is framed as an equalizer, evidence suggests it creates a new divide where affluent children get human instruction and under-resourced children get apps. It states: 'The equity argument for ed-tech, applied at scale and without rigorous scrutiny, may produce the opposite of what it promises.'

Source: NEP 2020's Digital Push Questioned as Research Links Classroom Devices to Cognitive Decline; PISA 2022 Data Highlights Risk →
Q25.

Education, including technical and medical education, falls under which list of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Union List
  • B.State List
  • C.Concurrent List✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Residuary Powers
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Entry 25 of the Concurrent List (List III) covers "Education, including technical education, medical education and universities". This allows both the central and state governments, like Punjab in this case, to legislate on the subject.

Source: Punjab Government to Cap Private School Fee Hikes at 5% Annually, Mandate Refunds for Excess Beyond 15% Threshold →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding the proposed Punjab law on private school fees:

1. It caps the annual increase in school fees at 5%.

2. It mandates schools to refund excess fees if the hike exceeds 10% cumulatively over the last five years.

3. The move is based on Supreme Court rulings that prohibit profiteering in education.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions a 5% annual cap. Statement 2 is incorrect; the refund threshold is 15% cumulatively over the last three years, not 10% over five years. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly cites Supreme Court rulings against commercialisation.

Source: Punjab Government to Cap Private School Fee Hikes at 5% Annually, Mandate Refunds for Excess Beyond 15% Threshold →
Q27.

According to the news, what is the proposed cumulative fee hike threshold over three years that would trigger a refund to parents under the Punjab law?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.10%
  • B.12%
  • C.15%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.20%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that any private school that has cumulatively increased its fees by more than 15% during the last three consecutive years will be required to refund the excess amount.

Source: Punjab Government to Cap Private School Fee Hikes at 5% Annually, Mandate Refunds for Excess Beyond 15% Threshold →
Q28.

What is the primary constitutional and philosophical basis cited by the Punjab government for its move to regulate private school fees?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To increase state revenue from education taxes.
  • B.To implement a directive principle related to equitable economic system.
  • C.To uphold the Supreme Court's view of education as a public good, not a commercial enterprise.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To align with central government's New Education Policy 2020 guidelines on fee structure.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly quotes the minister referencing Supreme Court rulings that "commercialisation and profiteering in education are strictly impermissible," establishing this as the core philosophical and legal justification for the regulatory move.

Source: Punjab Government to Cap Private School Fee Hikes at 5% Annually, Mandate Refunds for Excess Beyond 15% Threshold →
Q29.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for implementing the PM Suryaghar Yojana and PM-KUSUM schemes mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Power
  • B.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
  • D.Ministry of Rural Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) provided reasons for low adoption to the Estimates Committee. MNRE is the nodal ministry for promoting renewable energy, including solar power schemes like PM Suryaghar and PM-KUSUM.

Source: PM Suryaghar Yojana and PM-KUSUM Achieve 13 GW Against 40 GW Target; Power Subsidies Hinder Adoption in Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding India's decentralized solar schemes:

1. The PM Suryaghar Yojana offers beneficiaries free electricity up to 300 units every month.

2. The PM-KUSUM scheme was initially supposed to achieve its targets by 2022 but was extended due to the pandemic.

3. Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Rajasthan are among the top five performing states under the PM Suryaghar scheme, accounting for nearly 70% of installations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's description of PM Suryaghar Yojana. Statement 2 is correct: PM-KUSUM launched in 2019 had a 2022 target extended due to pandemic disruption. Statement 3 is correct: The article lists Gujarat, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, and Rajasthan as the top five states accounting for nearly 70% of rooftop installations.

Source: PM Suryaghar Yojana and PM-KUSUM Achieve 13 GW Against 40 GW Target; Power Subsidies Hinder Adoption in Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka →
Q31.

According to the article, what is the combined budget allocation for the PM Suryaghar Yojana and PM-KUSUM schemes?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Around ₹75,000 crore
  • B.Around ₹85,000 crore
  • C.Around ₹95,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Around ₹1,05,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Both schemes, backed by a combined budget of around Rs 95,000 crore...' The other options are close distractors; ₹75,000 crore is the estimated annual government savings from full implementation.

Source: PM Suryaghar Yojana and PM-KUSUM Achieve 13 GW Against 40 GW Target; Power Subsidies Hinder Adoption in Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka →
Q32.

What is identified in the article as the primary reason for the low adoption of rooftop solar schemes in states like Punjab and Tamil Nadu?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lack of adequate sunlight and technical potential
  • B.High upfront cost and lack of financing options
  • C.Existing provision of free or heavily subsidized grid electricity✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Complex application procedures and bureaucratic delays
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core analysis is that when electricity is already free (Punjab offers 300 free units) or heavily subsidized, consumers have no financial incentive to invest in solar. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy cited this as a primary reason to the Estimates Committee.

Source: PM Suryaghar Yojana and PM-KUSUM Achieve 13 GW Against 40 GW Target; Power Subsidies Hinder Adoption in Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka →
Q33.

Which central agency investigated the terror case against PFI leaders mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
  • B.National Investigation Agency (NIA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Intelligence Bureau (IB)
  • D.Research and Analysis Wing (RAW)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 'NIA's case, lodged in 2022' pertains to the allegations against PFI. The NIA is the designated central agency for investigating terror-related offenses under the NIA Act, 2008.

Source: Delhi Court Orders Framing of Charges Against PFI Leaders for Conspiracy to Overthrow Government and Establish Islamic Caliphate by 2047 →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The Delhi court ordered framing of charges against PFI and 25 other accused persons.

2. The Ministry of Home Affairs declared PFI an unlawful organization in September 2023.

3. Over 1,300 criminal cases have been registered against PFI members across the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says the judge ordered 'framing of charges against PFI and 25 other accused persons'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the MHA banned PFI in September 2022, not 2023. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions 'Over 1,300 criminal cases have been registered against PFI members'.

Source: Delhi Court Orders Framing of Charges Against PFI Leaders for Conspiracy to Overthrow Government and Establish Islamic Caliphate by 2047 →
Q35.

According to the court order, by which year was the alleged conspiracy aimed at establishing an Islamic Caliphate in India?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2030
  • B.2047✓ Correct Answer
  • C.2050
  • D.2025
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court order, as quoted in the article, states the conspiracy aimed to establish an Islamic Caliphate 'by or before the year 2047'. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the text.

Source: Delhi Court Orders Framing of Charges Against PFI Leaders for Conspiracy to Overthrow Government and Establish Islamic Caliphate by 2047 →
Q36.

What is the primary legal significance of the court's order to 'frame charges' in this case?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It signifies the conviction of the accused.
  • B.It indicates the court finds prima facie evidence to proceed with a trial.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It means the investigation by NIA has been concluded.
  • D.It represents the final judgment and sentencing.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

In criminal procedure, 'framing of charges' is a stage where the court, after considering the police report and documents, finds sufficient ground to presume the accused committed an offense. It is not a conviction but a decision to proceed to trial. The article states 'Formal framing of charges will take place on July 10 following which trial is likely to begin'.

Source: Delhi Court Orders Framing of Charges Against PFI Leaders for Conspiracy to Overthrow Government and Establish Islamic Caliphate by 2047 →
Q37.

Which constitutional article, related to the protection of personal liberty, is most relevant to the legal arguments concerning arbitrary freezing of bank accounts?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Article 14 (Right to Equality)
  • B.Article 19 (Freedom of Speech)
  • C.Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 32 (Remedies for enforcement of rights)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court's emphasis on balancing investigative necessities with the 'legitimate rights and interests of account holders' aligns with judicial interpretations of Article 21, which includes the right to livelihood and protection from arbitrary state action affecting one's finances.

Source: Karnataka HC Directs Centre to Frame National Policy on Interstate Bank Account Freezes for Cyber Fraud Cases →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka High Court order:

1. The court directed the Central Government to frame a national policy on interstate bank account freezes.

2. The order was passed in a petition challenging a debit freeze notice issued by the Karnataka Police.

3. The court suggested the use of the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems (CCTNS) for serving judicial notices in such cases.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court directed the Centre to consider a national-level policy. Statement 2 is incorrect; the freeze notice was issued by the Maharashtra Police, not Karnataka Police. Statement 3 is correct as the court's 5th suggested issue mentions facilitating service of notices through CCTNS.

Source: Karnataka HC Directs Centre to Frame National Policy on Interstate Bank Account Freezes for Cyber Fraud Cases →
Q39.

As per the news, on which date has the Karnataka High Court posted the matter for further hearing?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.June 30, 2026
  • B.July 1, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.July 4, 2026
  • D.June 4, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The court has now posted the matter for further hearing on July 1.' June 4 is the date of the order, making it a close distractor.

Source: Karnataka HC Directs Centre to Frame National Policy on Interstate Bank Account Freezes for Cyber Fraud Cases →
Q40.

What is the primary objective behind the Karnataka High Court's directive for a national framework on bank account freezes?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase the conviction rate in cyber fraud cases across India.
  • B.To standardise procedures and reduce hardship for account holders while aiding investigations.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To transfer all cyber fraud investigation powers exclusively to the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).
  • D.To mandate banks to bear the financial loss incurred due to frozen accounts.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court's order aims to create a 'standardised, technology-enabled, citizen-centric, and legally sustainable framework capable of balancing investigative necessities with the legitimate rights and interests of account holders.' This directly points to standardising procedures to reduce hardship while not hindering investigations.

Source: Karnataka HC Directs Centre to Frame National Policy on Interstate Bank Account Freezes for Cyber Fraud Cases →
Q41.

Which international organization sets the guidelines for the use of the Automatic Identification System (AIS) on ships?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.International Maritime Organization (IMO)✓ Correct Answer
  • B.World Trade Organization (WTO)
  • C.International Energy Agency (IEA)
  • D.United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that according to International Maritime Organization (IMO) guidelines, AIS should always be in operation when a ship is sailing or at anchor. The IMO is the UN agency responsible for the safety and security of shipping.

Source: 57% of Strait of Hormuz Tanker Transits Went 'Dark' in March-May 2026, Threatening Global Energy Security →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding 'dark shipping' in the Strait of Hormuz:

1. It refers to the practice of ships switching off their AIS transponders to avoid detection.

2. As per the article, this practice was initially limited to vessels transporting sanctioned Iranian oil but has now broadened to include non-Iranian operators.

3. According to Vortexa data cited, dark transits through the Strait of Hormuz represented 57% of all transits recorded between March 1 and late May 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article defines 'going dark' as switching off AIS transponders. Statement 2 is correct as the article states the practice broadened from Iran-linked tonnage to non-Iranian operators. Statement 3 is directly supported by the Vortexa data mentioned: 'dark transits through the Strait of Hormuz — between March 1 and late May — represent 57% of all transits recorded over the period.'

Source: 57% of Strait of Hormuz Tanker Transits Went 'Dark' in March-May 2026, Threatening Global Energy Security →
Q43.

According to the article, what percentage of India's Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) imports transits through the Strait of Hormuz?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Over 40%
  • B.60%
  • C.90%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.75%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'India depended heavily on the Strait of Hormuz for its energy imports, with over 40% of its oil imports, 60% of its LNG imports, and 90% of its liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) imports coming through the narrow passage...' The other options are distractors using the figures for oil (40%) and LNG (60%).

Source: 57% of Strait of Hormuz Tanker Transits Went 'Dark' in March-May 2026, Threatening Global Energy Security →
Q44.

What is the primary reason, as per the article's analysis, for the recent surge in non-Iranian tankers going 'dark' while transiting the Strait of Hormuz?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To evade international sanctions on their cargo.
  • B.As a wider commercial response to conflict risk and operational uncertainty.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To reduce fuel consumption by taking shorter, unauthorized routes.
  • D.To avoid paying transit fees to coastal states.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes Claire Jungman of Vortexa stating that AIS-off movements 'have become a wider commercial response to conflict risk, operational uncertainty, and the need to keep Gulf cargo moving.' While sanctions evasion was the initial driver for Iranian vessels, the surge among non-Iranian operators is attributed to these broader commercial and security concerns in a conflict zone.

Source: 57% of Strait of Hormuz Tanker Transits Went 'Dark' in March-May 2026, Threatening Global Energy Security →
Q45.

Which ministry launched the E85 fuel in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
  • B.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  • D.Ministry of Heavy Industries
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Union Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas launched the E85 fuel. This ministry is responsible for the exploration, production, refining, and distribution of petroleum, natural gas, and petroleum products in India.

Source: E85 Fuel (80–85% Ethanol) Launched for Flex-Fuel Vehicles, Priced at ₹82.12/Litre (~₹20 Cheaper) to Cut Emissions by 61% →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding E85 fuel:

1. It contains 80–85% ethanol blended with petrol.

2. It can be used in regular E20-compatible vehicles without any engine damage.

3. Its use reduces greenhouse gas emissions by approximately 61% compared to standard fossil fuels.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article defines E85 as having 80–85% ethanol. Statement 2 is incorrect because E85 is engineered exclusively for Flex-Fuel Vehicles (FFVs) and filling it in a regular E20 vehicle can damage the engine. Statement 3 is correct as per the Centre's data mentioned in the article.

Source: E85 Fuel (80–85% Ethanol) Launched for Flex-Fuel Vehicles, Priced at ₹82.12/Litre (~₹20 Cheaper) to Cut Emissions by 61% →
Q47.

What is the price of E85 fuel per litre in Delhi, as announced?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹80.12
  • B.₹82.12✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹84.12
  • D.₹86.12
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides the specific data point: "In Delhi, the E85 fuel is priced at Rs 82.12 per litre." The other options are close distractors. Remembering such exact figures is crucial for Prelims questions.

Source: E85 Fuel (80–85% Ethanol) Launched for Flex-Fuel Vehicles, Priced at ₹82.12/Litre (~₹20 Cheaper) to Cut Emissions by 61% →
Q48.

What is a primary strategic objective behind the government's launch of E85 fuel and promotion of Flex-Fuel Vehicles, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To immediately replace all existing petrol and diesel vehicles
  • B.To increase government revenue through higher fuel taxes
  • C.To reduce dependence on crude oil imports and boost farmers' income✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To phase out ethanol production from sugarcane
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes the Union Minister stating that wider FFV adoption "reduces India's dependence on crude oil imports and boosts farmers' income through greater ethanol demand." The other options are either incorrect or not supported by the article's content.

Source: E85 Fuel (80–85% Ethanol) Launched for Flex-Fuel Vehicles, Priced at ₹82.12/Litre (~₹20 Cheaper) to Cut Emissions by 61% →
Q49.

Which apex biomedical research body conducted the PreVenTB trial mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Institute of Health
  • B.Indian Council of Medical Research✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Council of Scientific & Industrial Research
  • D.Department of Biotechnology
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the PreVenTB trial was 'conducted by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)'. ICMR is India's apex body for biomedical research under the Department of Health Research.

Source: ICMR's PreVenTB Trial Shows VPM1002 Vaccine with 50.4% Efficacy Against Extrapulmonary TB, Targets Elimination by 2030 →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding the PreVenTB trial findings:

1. The VPM1002 vaccine showed statistically significant efficacy against extrapulmonary tuberculosis (EPTB).

2. The trial primarily focused on evaluating vaccine efficacy in infants below the age of six years.

3. No other ongoing global TB vaccine trial has included extrapulmonary TB as an efficacy end-point.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states '50.4% efficacy of VPM1002 against extrapulmonary TB (statistically significant)'. Statement 2 is incorrect: The trial involved individuals 'aged six years and above', not infants. Statement 3 is correct: The article notes 'none of the currently ongoing trials worldwide has included EPTB as the efficacy end-point'.

Source: ICMR's PreVenTB Trial Shows VPM1002 Vaccine with 50.4% Efficacy Against Extrapulmonary TB, Targets Elimination by 2030 →
Q51.

According to the PreVenTB trial results published in the BMJ, what was the reported efficacy of the VPM1002 vaccine against all forms of tuberculosis (TB)?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.18.6%
  • B.21.4%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.50.4%
  • D.64.6%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically mentions 'overall 21.4% efficacy of VPM1002 against all TB'. 50.4% is the efficacy against extrapulmonary TB only, and 64.6% is the efficacy in children aged 6-14 years against all TB.

Source: ICMR's PreVenTB Trial Shows VPM1002 Vaccine with 50.4% Efficacy Against Extrapulmonary TB, Targets Elimination by 2030 →
Q52.

What is the primary public health argument made in the article for considering the deployment of vaccines like VPM1002?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To completely replace the existing BCG vaccination programme for infants.
  • B.To wait for international validation and WHO pre-qualification before any rollout.
  • C.To act as a pragmatic tool for immediate benefit while better options are developed.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To focus exclusively on preventing pulmonary TB transmission in urban hotspots.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core argument is against 'waiting for a perfect vaccine' and for 'deploying tools that reduce severe disease... can deliver immediate and tangible benefits'. It advocates for a pragmatic approach, citing precedents like Covaxin's early approval.

Source: ICMR's PreVenTB Trial Shows VPM1002 Vaccine with 50.4% Efficacy Against Extrapulmonary TB, Targets Elimination by 2030 →
Q53.

The article discusses systemic failures in addressing exam paper leaks. In the Indian governance structure, which ministry is broadly responsible for policy related to recruitment examinations for central government staff?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Education
  • D.Ministry of Law and Justice
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions (which oversees the Department of Personnel and Training) is the nodal ministry for policies related to recruitment and appointments to central government services, often conducted by bodies like UPSC and SSC.

Source: Only 2 Convictions in 45 Exam Paper Leak Cases (2002-2025) Undermining 3.86 Crore Candidates' Trust →
Q54.

Consider the following statements regarding the findings about exam paper leaks mentioned in the article:

1. Between 2002 and 2025, convictions were secured in more than 10% of the investigated paper leak cases.

2. The investigation covered paper leak cases affecting recruitment exams for teachers, police, and railway staff.

3. Over 3.86 crore people had enrolled for examinations that were cancelled in the past 23 years due to such malpractices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 2
  • B.(B) Only 3
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Convictions were secured in only 2 out of 45 cases, which is about 4.4%, not 'more than 10%'. Statement 2 is correct as the article explicitly mentions exams for teachers, police constables, and railway staff. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's data on enrolments for cancelled exams.

Source: Only 2 Convictions in 45 Exam Paper Leak Cases (2002-2025) Undermining 3.86 Crore Candidates' Trust →
Q55.

According to the article's investigation covering cases from 2002 to 2025, how many individuals were arrested in connection with exam paper leaks?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.925
  • B.1,200
  • C.1,658✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that out of 1,658 arrested individuals, only 925 were charge-sheeted. Option A (925) is the number charge-sheeted, which is a close distractor. The other options are plausible but incorrect figures not mentioned in the text.

Source: Only 2 Convictions in 45 Exam Paper Leak Cases (2002-2025) Undermining 3.86 Crore Candidates' Trust →
Q56.

What is the primary concern raised by the article regarding repeated exam paper leaks and low conviction rates?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It increases the government's expenditure on re-conducting examinations.
  • B.It leads to a shortage of qualified candidates in government jobs.
  • C.It undermines public trust in the country's institutions and the promise of meritocracy.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It forces educational institutions to lower their admission standards.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core argument is that impunity in exam fraud weakens trust in institutions and betrays the promise that advancement is based on merit. While re-conducting exams has costs (option A), and there might be indirect impacts on candidate pools (option B), the central thematic concern is the erosion of institutional trust and the meritocratic ideal.

Source: Only 2 Convictions in 45 Exam Paper Leak Cases (2002-2025) Undermining 3.86 Crore Candidates' Trust →
Q57.

The Madras High Court judgment discussed the implementation of which specific legislation aimed at child protection?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act
  • B.The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act
  • D.The Commission for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the judgment examined cases arising under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act and discussed its implementation framework.

Source: Madras HC Justice Gowri Directs Trauma-Informed Justice in POCSO Cases, Flags Systemic Gaps in Child Protection Act Implementation →
Q58.

Consider the following statements regarding the Madras High Court judgment on POCSO trials:

1. The court warned that mechanical implementation of the POCSO Act could ultimately undermine the interests of the children it seeks to protect.

2. Justice Gowri observed that the true success of the POCSO framework should be measured solely through its conviction rate.

3. The judgment called for academic inquiry into child psychology and trauma-informed policing to improve the justice system.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the court's warning about mechanical implementation. Statement 2 is incorrect; the judgment explicitly states success cannot be measured 'solely through convictions' but also through emotional well-being. Statement 3 is correct as the court encouraged deeper academic inquiry into these areas.

Source: Madras HC Justice Gowri Directs Trauma-Informed Justice in POCSO Cases, Flags Systemic Gaps in Child Protection Act Implementation →
Q59.

How many separate petitions involving POCSO prosecutions from Tamil Nadu did Justice Gowri examine to deliver the common judgment discussed in the news?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2
  • B.3
  • C.4✓ Correct Answer
  • D.5
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that Justice L Victoria Gowri was hearing four separate petitions involving POCSO prosecutions from different districts of Tamil Nadu.

Source: Madras HC Justice Gowri Directs Trauma-Informed Justice in POCSO Cases, Flags Systemic Gaps in Child Protection Act Implementation →
Q60.

According to the Madras High Court judgment, what is identified as a recurring systemic gap in the handling of POCSO cases that harms children?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Excessive financial compensation awarded to victims
  • B.The absence of trauma-informed investigative approaches✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Too much focus on out-of-court settlements
  • D.Over-reliance on digital evidence collection
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The judgment, as per the article, identified several recurring concerns including the 'absence of trauma-informed investigative approaches' which leads to mechanical procedures and psychological strain on children.

Source: Madras HC Justice Gowri Directs Trauma-Informed Justice in POCSO Cases, Flags Systemic Gaps in Child Protection Act Implementation →
Q61.

The National Testing Agency (NTA), which is proposing a "zero-trust" exam security model, operates under which Union Ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Human Resource Development
  • B.Ministry of Education✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Science and Technology
  • D.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The NTA is an autonomous body established by the Government of India under the Ministry of Education (formerly Ministry of Human Resource Development). Its primary mandate is to conduct entrance examinations for higher education institutions.

Source: NTA Proposes "Zero-Trust" Exam Security With Central Question Bank Post NEET-UG 2026 Paper Leak Arrests →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding the proposed reforms by the National Testing Agency (NTA):

1. It involves creating a central repository of questions to make question-setters "examination-agnostic".

2. The reform was triggered by a paper leak during the final printing and distribution stage.

3. The NTA plans to use Artificial Intelligence for nearly 85 percent of the translation process for question papers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article describes the move to a central question bank. Statement 2 is incorrect; the leak occurred during the "first phase of the confidential operations (CONOPs)", i.e., the paper-setting and translation stage, not the final printing stage. Statement 3 is correct as per the article which mentions the NTA's plan to use AI for nearly 85% of translation.

Source: NTA Proposes "Zero-Trust" Exam Security With Central Question Bank Post NEET-UG 2026 Paper Leak Arrests →
Q63.

According to the article, how many people were arrested by the CBI in connection with the NEET-UG 2026 paper leak?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.10
  • B.11
  • C.12
  • D.13✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the CBI's investigation "has so far resulted in the arrest of 13 people, including translators and subject experts". The other numbers are close distractors.

Source: NTA Proposes "Zero-Trust" Exam Security With Central Question Bank Post NEET-UG 2026 Paper Leak Arrests →
Q64.

What is the primary objective behind the NTA's proposal to adopt a "zero-trust architecture" and a central question bank?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To reduce the cost of conducting national-level examinations
  • B.To increase the difficulty level of questions for competitive exams
  • C.To minimize the number of individuals with knowledge of the final question paper✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To speed up the process of result declaration
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core objective, as stated in the article, is to reduce human interface and ensure "no single individual has visibility of the final paper". This aims to plug systemic leaks by making the paper-setting process opaque even to its contributors. Cost, difficulty, and speed are not the primary focus of this security-centric reform.

Source: NTA Proposes "Zero-Trust" Exam Security With Central Question Bank Post NEET-UG 2026 Paper Leak Arrests →
Q65.

Under which Ministry/Office does the National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre (NCIIPC) function?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  • B.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • C.Prime Minister's Office under the National Security Advisor✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Cabinet Secretariat
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, NCIIPC falls under the National Security Advisor in the Prime Minister's Office. This is a key static fact about India's cybersecurity architecture.

Source: Anthropic's Project Glasswing Grants Mythos AI Access to India's CERT-In, NCIIPC, I4C for Critical Infrastructure Cyber Defense →
Q66.

Consider the following statements regarding Anthropic's Project Glasswing:

1. It provides access to the AI model 'Claude Mythos Preview' for identifying software vulnerabilities.

2. It initially included partners only from the United States and has now expanded to include India.

3. The model is being used exclusively for defensive cybersecurity purposes by all partner nations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states Mythos Preview can identify critical software vulnerabilities. Statement 2 is correct as Project Glasswing expanded beyond its initial US and UK cohort to over 15 countries including India. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article reports the US NSA is using Mythos for offensive cyber operations.

Source: Anthropic's Project Glasswing Grants Mythos AI Access to India's CERT-In, NCIIPC, I4C for Critical Infrastructure Cyber Defense →
Q67.

According to the article, in which month and year did Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman hold a high-level meeting to assess risks from the Mythos AI model to India's banking sector?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.March 2026
  • B.April 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.May 2026
  • D.June 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, in April, held a high-level meeting... to assess risks posed by the powerful model to the country’s banking sector.' This is a direct factual recall question.

Source: Anthropic's Project Glasswing Grants Mythos AI Access to India's CERT-In, NCIIPC, I4C for Critical Infrastructure Cyber Defense →
Q68.

What was a primary directive issued by the Finance Minister to the Indian Banks' Association (IBA) regarding the threat from advanced AI models like Mythos?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To increase capital reserves for potential cyber fraud losses
  • B.To develop a coordinated institutional mechanism for swift response✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To mandate the use of only indigenous cybersecurity software
  • D.To conduct an immediate audit of all banking software
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'Sitharaman directed the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) to develop a coordinated institutional mechanism to respond swiftly and effectively to any such threat.' This directive focuses on creating a structured, collaborative response framework rather than immediate technical or financial measures.

Source: Anthropic's Project Glasswing Grants Mythos AI Access to India's CERT-In, NCIIPC, I4C for Critical Infrastructure Cyber Defense →
Q69.

Who chairs the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Finance Minister
  • B.The Prime Minister✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Governor of RBI
  • D.The Chairman of the Council (e.g., S Mahendra Dev)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the meeting of the Economic Advisory Council was chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. The Council has a Chairman (S Mahendra Dev) but its meetings are chaired by the PM.

Source: Govt Scraps Capital Gains Tax on FII Bonds, RBI Revives FCNR(B) Scheme to Attract $70 Billion Foreign Funds →
Q70.

Consider the following statements regarding the measures announced:

1. The Ministry of Finance abolished the withholding tax on interest income for FIIs from government bonds.

2. The Reserve Bank of India introduced a permanent concessional forex swap facility for all corporates for External Commercial Borrowings.

3. The revival of the FCNR(B) scheme involves the central bank bearing the full exchange rate hedging cost.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Ministry did away with the withholding tax on investment by FIIs. Statement 2 is incorrect because the forex swap facility is temporary and for Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs), not all corporates. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the RBI bearing the full exchange rate hedging cost for the revived FCNR(B) scheme.

Source: Govt Scraps Capital Gains Tax on FII Bonds, RBI Revives FCNR(B) Scheme to Attract $70 Billion Foreign Funds →
Q71.

According to the provisional estimates mentioned in the article, what was India's GDP growth rate for the full financial year 2025-26?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.7.6%
  • B.7.7%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.7.8%
  • D.7.9%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Q4 growth of 7.8% helped push the provisional estimate of full-year growth to 7.7%, which is 10 basis points higher than the second advance estimate of 7.6%. The Q4 growth rate (7.8%) is a close distractor.

Source: Govt Scraps Capital Gains Tax on FII Bonds, RBI Revives FCNR(B) Scheme to Attract $70 Billion Foreign Funds →
Q72.

What is the primary economic objective behind the government's move to scrap taxes on FII investments in government bonds?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To increase direct tax revenue from foreign entities.
  • B.To accelerate the inclusion of Indian bonds in global indices like Bloomberg's.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To reduce the fiscal deficit by increasing government borrowing costs.
  • D.To promote domestic retail investment in the bond market.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that removing these taxes will likely accelerate the inclusion of Indian sovereign debt in the Bloomberg Global Aggregate Bond Index. This inclusion is crucial to attract passive foreign investment flows, which is the primary objective mentioned. The other options are either opposite to the effect or not the primary goal.

Source: Govt Scraps Capital Gains Tax on FII Bonds, RBI Revives FCNR(B) Scheme to Attract $70 Billion Foreign Funds →
Q73.

The interim report for the proposed Kerala High-Speed Rail Corridor was prepared by which organization?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Konkan Railway Corporation Limited (KRCL)
  • B.Rail India Technical and Economic Service (RITES)
  • C.Delhi Metro Rail Corporation (DMRC)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.National High-Speed Rail Corporation Limited (NHSRCL)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that E. Sreedharan submitted the DMRC's interim report for the Kerala high-speed rail corridor. DMRC is a joint venture of the Government of India and the Government of Delhi, known for developing the Delhi Metro.

Source: Kerala's ₹60,000 Cr High-Speed Rail to be World's 1st Green Corridor with Solar Power, DMRC Proposes Standard Gauge →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding the proposed Kerala High-Speed Rail (KHSR) corridor:

1. It is proposed to be a fully elevated double line from Thiruvananthapuram to Kannur.

2. Its entire energy requirement is proposed to be met through a captive solar network.

3. The project proposes to use Indian Broad Gauge to ensure compatibility with the existing railway network.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article says the 473.20-km line will be fully elevated except for a 6.5-km tunnel stretch. Statement 2 is correct: The system's energy requirements would be met through a captive solar network. Statement 3 is incorrect: The report proposes the use of standard gauge, not broad gauge, to reduce axle load and costs.

Source: Kerala's ₹60,000 Cr High-Speed Rail to be World's 1st Green Corridor with Solar Power, DMRC Proposes Standard Gauge →
Q75.

What is the total estimated cost of the proposed Kerala High-Speed Rail (KHSR) corridor as per the DMRC interim report?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹42,000 crore
  • B.₹60,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹75,000 crore
  • D.₹1,20,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The project cost is estimated at Rs 60,000 crore'. The other figures are distractors. The funding breakdown is ₹36,000 crore via Centre-State equity and ₹24,000 crore via crowdfunding.

Source: Kerala's ₹60,000 Cr High-Speed Rail to be World's 1st Green Corridor with Solar Power, DMRC Proposes Standard Gauge →
Q76.

What is a primary stated advantage of using Standard Gauge over Broad Gauge for the proposed high-speed rail corridor, as mentioned in the report?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It allows for heavier freight loads to be transported.
  • B.It enables seamless integration with India's existing railway network.
  • C.It reduces axle load, thereby lowering investment and operational costs.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It is mandated for all railway projects receiving central funding.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that the HSR line is proposed on standard gauge because 'axle load can be reduced to 15 tonnes against 25 tonnes on broad gauge, substantially lowering investment and operational costs.' The other options are incorrect: Standard gauge allows for lighter loads (A), creates compatibility issues with existing broad-gauge network (B), and there is no such mandate (D).

Source: Kerala's ₹60,000 Cr High-Speed Rail to be World's 1st Green Corridor with Solar Power, DMRC Proposes Standard Gauge →
Q77.

Which department of the Government of India presents the National Awards for e-Governance (NAeG)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Department of Science and Technology
  • B.Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DAR&PG)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  • D.NITI Aayog
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the National Awards for e-Governance (NAeG) are presented every year since 2003 by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DAR&PG), Government of India.

Source: National e-Governance Awards 2026: 17 Projects Win, AgriStack & JAM Trinity Underpin DPI for Viksit Bharat →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the National Awards for e-Governance (NAeG):

1. They have been presented annually since the year 2003.

2. The award money for Gold awardees is to be utilized for implementation of a project in any area of public welfare.

3. The theme for the 2026 National Conference on e-Governance is 'Digital India: Transforming Governance'.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states NAeG awards have been given since 2003. Statement 2 is correct as the award money (₹10 lakh for Gold) is to be used for public welfare projects. Statement 3 is incorrect; the 2026 conference theme is 'Viksit Bharat 2047: AI-Enabled, Data-Driven and Secure Digital Governance'.

Source: National e-Governance Awards 2026: 17 Projects Win, AgriStack & JAM Trinity Underpin DPI for Viksit Bharat →
Q79.

What is the monetary incentive associated with winning a Gold Award in the National Awards for e-Governance 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹2 lakh
  • B.₹5 lakh
  • C.₹10 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹15 lakh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the NAeG Awards, 2026 consist of an incentive of Rs 10 lakh for Gold awardees and Rs 5 lakh for Silver awardees.

Source: National e-Governance Awards 2026: 17 Projects Win, AgriStack & JAM Trinity Underpin DPI for Viksit Bharat →
Q80.

What is the primary objective of the JAM Trinity, which forms the base layer of India's Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI)?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase tax collection through digital means
  • B.To enable direct welfare delivery and reduce intermediaries✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To promote digital literacy in rural areas
  • D.To create a unified digital market for goods and services
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As explained in the article, the JAM Trinity — Jan Dhan bank accounts, Aadhaar enrolment, and widespread mobile penetration — connected individuals to the state directly, enabling welfare benefits to move straight into bank accounts, reducing intermediaries, delays, and leakages.

Source: National e-Governance Awards 2026: 17 Projects Win, AgriStack & JAM Trinity Underpin DPI for Viksit Bharat →
Q81.

The Tamil Nadu Cool Roof SOP was developed by the Tamil Nadu Green Climate Company (TNGCC) in collaboration with which international organization?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.World Bank
  • B.United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.World Health Organization (WHO)
  • D.International Energy Agency (IEA)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the SOP was developed by TNGCC and TNCCM "in collaboration with the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and Seeds Technical Services."

Source: Tamil Nadu Issues Cool Roof SOP Achieving 5°C Temperature Drop, 30% Energy Saving in Pilot Projects →
Q82.

Consider the following statements regarding the Tamil Nadu Cool Roof SOP:

1. It was launched on June 5, 2026, coinciding with World Environment Day.

2. The pilot project at Perumbakkam recorded a reduction in indoor temperatures but did not show any significant change in roof surface temperatures.

3. The SOP prescribes a 12-stage implementation framework covering aspects from feasibility assessment to periodic maintenance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says the SOP was launched on June 5, marking World Environment Day. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Perumbakkam pilot specifically recorded roof surface temperatures that were 6°C to 8°C lower. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the document prescribes a 12-stage framework.

Source: Tamil Nadu Issues Cool Roof SOP Achieving 5°C Temperature Drop, 30% Energy Saving in Pilot Projects →
Q83.

According to the article, what was the approximate reduction in indoor temperature recorded during peak summer in the Perunthalaivar Kamarajar Government Girls Higher Secondary School pilot project?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2-3°C
  • B.4-5°C✓ Correct Answer
  • C.6-7°C
  • D.8-9°C
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: "Indoor air and ceiling surface temperatures fell by about 4°C to 5°C" in the Ambattur school pilot project. The other options are distractors based on other data points in the article (e.g., 6-8°C was the roof surface temperature reduction in Perumbakkam).

Source: Tamil Nadu Issues Cool Roof SOP Achieving 5°C Temperature Drop, 30% Energy Saving in Pilot Projects →
Q84.

What is the primary objective of the Tamil Nadu Cool Roof Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) as highlighted in the news?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase government revenue through building permits.
  • B.To standardize the implementation of a passive cooling measure to improve heat resilience and reduce energy demand.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To promote the use of imported construction materials.
  • D.To replace all existing roofs in the state with new structures.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core objective, as stated in the article, is to "standardise the implementation of cool roof coatings, which is a passive cooling measure" and the Environment Secretary noted it aims "to improve heat resilience while reducing energy demand and emissions." The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Source: Tamil Nadu Issues Cool Roof SOP Achieving 5°C Temperature Drop, 30% Energy Saving in Pilot Projects →
Q85.

Which state's Forest Department has introduced India's first judiciary-integrated digital system for wildlife offences as per the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Tamil Nadu
  • B.Karnataka
  • C.Kerala✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Odisha
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Kerala Forest Department has launched this initiative, making Kerala the first State in India to achieve a fully digitised, judiciary-integrated wildlife offence management system.

Source: Kerala's HAWK System Integrates Judiciary, Eliminates Paperwork for Wildlife Crime Prosecution Under Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita →
Q86.

Consider the following statements regarding the HAWK system:

1. It was developed in collaboration with the Wildlife Trust of India (WTI) and supported by NTT Data.

2. The system's integration with the judiciary underwent security audits by the National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre (NCIIPC).

3. It enables real-time tracking of cases from the filing of the Preliminary Offence Report (POR) to court verdicts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the security audit was conducted by CERT-In (Computer Emergency Response Team), not NCIIPC. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions real-time tracking from POR to verdicts.

Source: Kerala's HAWK System Integrates Judiciary, Eliminates Paperwork for Wildlife Crime Prosecution Under Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita →
Q87.

The HAWK system's integration with the judiciary represents the final phase of a digitisation roadmap that the Kerala Forest Department embarked upon in which year?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2015
  • B.2016
  • C.2017✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2018
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

According to Jose Louies, CEO of WTI, the department embarked upon this digitisation roadmap back in 2017. The other options are close distractors related to the timeline of the Malayattoor case (2016-17).

Source: Kerala's HAWK System Integrates Judiciary, Eliminates Paperwork for Wildlife Crime Prosecution Under Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita →
Q88.

What was the primary catalyst that led to the envisioning of the HAWK system according to the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.A directive from the National Green Tribunal to digitise records.
  • B.The need to comply with the new Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita provisions.
  • C.The crisis during the 2016-2017 Malayattoor elephant poaching investigation.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Recommendations from a committee on forest governance reforms.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the genesis of HAWK traces back to the major crisis during the infamous Malayattoor elephant poaching investigation, which exposed systemic blindness due to fragmented data. The other options are either not mentioned or are subsequent developments.

Source: Kerala's HAWK System Integrates Judiciary, Eliminates Paperwork for Wildlife Crime Prosecution Under Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita →
Q89.

Which ministry's data was analyzed in the news article to report on India's oil imports?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
  • B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Finance
  • D.Ministry of External Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "An analysis of data from the Ministry of Commerce and Industry shows that India’s total oil imports bounced back..." This ministry handles trade data, including import-export statistics.

Source: India's Russian Oil Share Hits 38% in April 2026 Amid 425% Premium Surge to $864.9/Tonne →
Q90.

Consider the following statements regarding India's oil imports in April 2026 as per the article:

1. India's total oil import volume was 195.3 lakh tonnes.

2. The volume of oil imported from Russia constituted more than 38% of the total import volume.

3. The premium paid per tonne for Russian oil in April 2026 was $77.8.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 3
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states total imports were "195.3 lakh tonnes." Statement 2 is incorrect: The Russian volume was "67 lakh tonnes" which is "34.3% of the total," not more than 38%. Statement 3 is correct: The article states the premium was "$77.8 per tonne."

Source: India's Russian Oil Share Hits 38% in April 2026 Amid 425% Premium Surge to $864.9/Tonne →
Q91.

According to the article, what was the percentage increase in India's total oil import bill in April 2026 compared to March 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.23%
  • B.61.3%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.27%
  • D.425%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: "India’s total oil import bill jumped 61.3% to $15.4 billion in April 2026, as compared to its level in the previous month." 23% is the volume increase, 27% is the volume increase from Russia, and 425% is the premium increase.

Source: India's Russian Oil Share Hits 38% in April 2026 Amid 425% Premium Surge to $864.9/Tonne →
Q92.

The recent shift from discount to premium on Russian oil, as reported, primarily highlights which of the following challenges for India?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.A decline in the technological capability of domestic refineries.
  • B.Increased vulnerability of its current account and inflation management.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.A surplus in the strategic petroleum reserves leading to storage costs.
  • D.Reduced diplomatic leverage in multilateral forums like the UN.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article shows a drastic increase in the cost of a major import (oil), which directly widens the trade and current account deficit. Higher energy costs also feed into inflation, making macroeconomic management more challenging. The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Source: India's Russian Oil Share Hits 38% in April 2026 Amid 425% Premium Surge to $864.9/Tonne →
Q93.

Which investigative agency was the prosecuting authority in the Supreme Court case concerning access to chargesheet documents?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Investigation Agency (NIA)
  • B.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Enforcement Directorate (ED)
  • D.Intelligence Bureau (IB)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the CBI registered the case in 2007 and that the law officer appearing for the CBI made submissions before the Supreme Court. The CBI is the central agency handling the prosecution under the Official Secrets Act.

Source: SC Directs CBI to Provide 'Highly Confidential' Documents to Accused Under Section 207 CrPC, Balancing Article 21 Rights with National Security →
Q94.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment on access to chargesheet documents:

1. The Court held that an accused can be denied access to documents if they are classified as 'highly confidential' for national security.

2. The judgment was delivered in a case involving provisions of the Official Secrets Act, 1923.

3. The Court linked the right to access chargesheet documents to the fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 2
  • B.(B) Only 3
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court ruled that an accused cannot be denied access to documents forming part of the chargesheet, even if they are confidential, as withholding them prejudices the right to a fair trial. Statement 2 is correct as the case involved retired Major General V.K. Singh, prosecuted under the Official Secrets Act, 1923. Statement 3 is correct as the Bench stated that the right to a fair trial is an important facet of the fundamental right to life and personal liberty under Article 21.

Source: SC Directs CBI to Provide 'Highly Confidential' Documents to Accused Under Section 207 CrPC, Balancing Article 21 Rights with National Security →
Q95.

In which year was the case registered by the CBI against retired Major General V.K. Singh, as mentioned in the Supreme Court judgment?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2005
  • B.2006
  • C.2007✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2008
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states: "The CBI registered a case against Singh in September 2007." The chargesheet was filed later in April 2008, but the First Information Report (FIR) was registered in 2007.

Source: SC Directs CBI to Provide 'Highly Confidential' Documents to Accused Under Section 207 CrPC, Balancing Article 21 Rights with National Security →
Q96.

What was the primary legal provision under which the accused sought access to the confidential documents in the Supreme Court case?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Section 41 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC)
  • B.Section 173 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC)
  • C.Section 207 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Section 438 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article repeatedly mentions that retired Major General V.K. Singh filed an application under Section 207 of the CrPC before the trial court. This section deals specifically with the supply of copies of the police report and other documents to the accused. The Supreme Court's judgment revolves around the interpretation and application of this section.

Source: SC Directs CBI to Provide 'Highly Confidential' Documents to Accused Under Section 207 CrPC, Balancing Article 21 Rights with National Security →
Q97.

Which constitutional article, interpreted by the Supreme Court, guarantees the fundamental right to travel abroad?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 14
  • B.Article 19
  • C.Article 21✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 32
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court has interpreted the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution to include the right to travel abroad. This interpretation is part of the expanded meaning given to Article 21 through various judicial pronouncements.

Source: SC Balances Article 21 Travel Right With Victim's Speedy Trial Under Article 21 in 2026 Judgment →
Q98.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme Court judgment:

1. The Supreme Court held that the right to travel abroad under Article 21 is an absolute right.

2. The judgment set aside an order of the Telangana High Court.

3. The case originated from an FIR filed in the year 2014.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court held that the right to travel abroad under Article 21 is NOT absolute and must be balanced with other rights. Statement 2 is correct as the SC set aside the Telangana HC's order. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the FIR was filed in 2014.

Source: SC Balances Article 21 Travel Right With Victim's Speedy Trial Under Article 21 in 2026 Judgment →
Q99.

According to the news article, in which year was the FIR filed in the criminal case that led to the Supreme Court's judgment?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2012
  • B.2014✓ Correct Answer
  • C.2016
  • D.2023
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The case arose out of a complaint lodged in 2014 about the suspicious death of the complainant’s father after which an FIR was filed...' Therefore, the correct year is 2014.

Source: SC Balances Article 21 Travel Right With Victim's Speedy Trial Under Article 21 in 2026 Judgment →
Q100.

What was the primary legal principle established by the Supreme Court in this judgment?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The right to travel abroad is an unconditional fundamental right.
  • B.High Courts have unlimited discretion to grant travel permission to accused persons.
  • C.The right to travel abroad must be balanced with the victim's right to a speedy trial and societal interest.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Medical treatment abroad is a valid ground for unconditional travel permission for any accused.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core ruling of the Supreme Court, as quoted in the article, is that the right to travel abroad 'cannot be viewed in isolation' and 'A balance must be struck between the individual liberty... and the right... to a speedy trial together with the larger societal interest...'. This establishes the balancing principle.

Source: SC Balances Article 21 Travel Right With Victim's Speedy Trial Under Article 21 in 2026 Judgment →
Q101.

The Joint Seat Allocation Authority (JoSAA) functions under which Union Ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Education✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ministry of Science and Technology
  • C.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  • D.Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

JoSAA is the authority for seat allocation to IITs, NITs, IIITs, and Other-GFTIs. All these institutes fall under the purview of the Ministry of Education (formerly MHRD), which is responsible for higher education in India.

Source: IITs Launch 15+ New BTech Courses in Quantum, Semiconductor, AI for JEE Advanced 2026 Under India Semiconductor Mission →
Q102.

Consider the following statements regarding the new BTech programmes at IITs:

1. IIT Madras offers a BS programme in Data Science with an exit option for a diploma or BSc degree.

2. The BTech in Design at IIT Delhi requires qualification in both JEE Advanced and the UCEED entrance exam.

3. The BTech in Industrial Engineering and Operations Research at IIT Bombay was first offered as a Master's programme in 1976.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the BS programme allows learners to exit at different stages with a diploma, a BSc, or a full BS degree. Statement 2 is correct: Admission requires JEE Advanced ranking and UCEED qualification. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions IEOR started as an interdisciplinary programme at IIT Bombay in 1976, offering Master's and Doctoral degrees before the BTech was added in 2024.

Source: IITs Launch 15+ New BTech Courses in Quantum, Semiconductor, AI for JEE Advanced 2026 Under India Semiconductor Mission →
Q103.

According to the article, what is the sanctioned intake for the newly launched BTech in Industrial Engineering and Operations Research at IIT Bombay?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.20 seats
  • B.30 seats
  • C.36 seats✓ Correct Answer
  • D.40 seats
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The sanctioned intake is approximately 36 seats.' for the BTech in IEOR at IIT Bombay. The other options are close distractors; 20 seats is the intake for IIT Delhi's BTech in Design.

Source: IITs Launch 15+ New BTech Courses in Quantum, Semiconductor, AI for JEE Advanced 2026 Under India Semiconductor Mission →
Q104.

What is the primary strategic objective behind IITs introducing new BTech programmes in areas like IC Design, Semiconductor Technology, and Space Sciences?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase the total number of engineering seats available in the country.
  • B.To reduce the dependence on foreign universities for postgraduate education.
  • C.To align technical education with national priorities and build self-reliance in critical technologies.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To replace traditional engineering branches like Mechanical and Civil Engineering entirely.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the new courses are 'Driven by national priorities like the India Semiconductor Mission' and aim to address the 'need for tech-driven healthcare' and other strategic sectors. This aligns with the broader 'Atmanirbhar Bharat' vision, making option C correct. While other options might be incidental effects, they are not the primary strategic driver mentioned.

Source: IITs Launch 15+ New BTech Courses in Quantum, Semiconductor, AI for JEE Advanced 2026 Under India Semiconductor Mission →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 6 June 2026?▼

This page contains 104 current affairs questions from 6 June 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 6 June 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. statutory committee of the RBI is responsible for deciding the…
  2. Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's June 202…
  3. Q3. According to the article, what is the Reserve Bank of India's …
  4. Q4. was a primary objective of the government and RBI's joint meas…
  5. Q5. Under which section of the RBI Act, 1934, is the Monetary Poli…
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the recent economi…
  7. Q7. As per the third synchronised population estimation in April 2…
  8. Q8. is the primary objective of the clean mobility scheme recently…
  9. Q9. The Akshaya Patra Foundation implements meals for school child…
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the Akshaya Patra …
  11. Q11. According to the article, how many meals does the Akshaya Patr…
  12. Q12. is a primary technological challenge that Akshaya Patra is sti…
  13. Q13. The 'Right to Public Space Bill' mentioned in the article was …
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding green spaces in In…
  15. Q15. According to the article, what is the approximate green space …
  16. Q16. is the primary social issue highlighted by the book 'Why Loite…
  17. Q17. government department is responsible for issuing the monsoon f…
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the historical eve…
  19. Q19. According to the IMD forecast mentioned in the article, what i…
  20. Q20. was a key factor, as highlighted in the article, that helped m…
  21. Q21. The National Educational Technology Forum is a proposed body u…
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the findings discu…
  23. Q23. According to the PISA 2022 report mentioned in the article, da…
  24. Q24. is a primary concern raised in the article regarding the equit…
  25. Q25. Education, including technical and medical education, falls un…
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the proposed Punja…
  27. Q27. According to the news, what is the proposed cumulative fee hik…
  28. Q28. is the primary constitutional and philosophical basis cited by…
  29. Q29. ministry is primarily responsible for implementing the PM Sury…
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding India's decentrali…
  31. Q31. According to the article, what is the combined budget allocati…
  32. Q32. is identified in the article as the primary reason for the low…
  33. Q33. central agency investigated the terror case against PFI leader…
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  35. Q35. According to the court order, by which year was the alleged co…
  36. Q36. is the primary legal significance of the court's order to 'fra…
  37. Q37. constitutional article, related to the protection of personal …
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka High…
  39. Q39. As per the news, on which date has the Karnataka High Court po…
  40. Q40. is the primary objective behind the Karnataka High Court's dir…
  41. Q41. international organization sets the guidelines for the use of …
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding 'dark shipping' in…
  43. Q43. According to the article, what percentage of India's Liquefied…
  44. Q44. is the primary reason, as per the article's analysis, for the …
  45. Q45. ministry launched the E85 fuel in India?
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding E85 fuel: 1. It c…
  47. Q47. is the price of E85 fuel per litre in Delhi, as announced?
  48. Q48. is a primary strategic objective behind the government's launc…
  49. Q49. apex biomedical research body conducted the PreVenTB trial men…
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the PreVenTB trial…
  51. Q51. According to the PreVenTB trial results published in the BMJ, …
  52. Q52. is the primary public health argument made in the article for …
  53. Q53. The article discusses systemic failures in addressing exam pap…
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the findings about…
  55. Q55. According to the article's investigation covering cases from 2…
  56. Q56. is the primary concern raised by the article regarding repeate…
  57. Q57. The Madras High Court judgment discussed the implementation of…
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the Madras High Co…
  59. Q59. many separate petitions involving POCSO prosecutions from Tami…
  60. Q60. According to the Madras High Court judgment, what is identifie…
  61. Q61. The National Testing Agency (NTA), which is proposing a "zero-…
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the proposed refor…
  63. Q63. According to the article, how many people were arrested by the…
  64. Q64. is the primary objective behind the NTA's proposal to adopt a …
  65. Q65. Under which Ministry/Office does the National Critical Informa…
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements regarding Anthropic's Projec…
  67. Q67. According to the article, in which month and year did Finance …
  68. Q68. was a primary directive issued by the Finance Minister to the …
  69. Q69. chairs the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EA…
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the measures annou…
  71. Q71. According to the provisional estimates mentioned in the articl…
  72. Q72. is the primary economic objective behind the government's move…
  73. Q73. The interim report for the proposed Kerala High-Speed Rail Cor…
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the proposed Keral…
  75. Q75. is the total estimated cost of the proposed Kerala High-Speed …
  76. Q76. is a primary stated advantage of using Standard Gauge over Bro…
  77. Q77. department of the Government of India presents the National Aw…
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the National Award…
  79. Q79. is the monetary incentive associated with winning a Gold Award…
  80. Q80. is the primary objective of the JAM Trinity, which forms the b…
  81. Q81. The Tamil Nadu Cool Roof SOP was developed by the Tamil Nadu G…
  82. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the Tamil Nadu Coo…
  83. Q83. According to the article, what was the approximate reduction i…
  84. Q84. is the primary objective of the Tamil Nadu Cool Roof Standard …
  85. Q85. state's Forest Department has introduced India's first judicia…
  86. Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the HAWK system: …
  87. Q87. The HAWK system's integration with the judiciary represents th…
  88. Q88. was the primary catalyst that led to the envisioning of the HA…
  89. Q89. ministry's data was analyzed in the news article to report on …
  90. Q90. Consider the following statements regarding India's oil import…
  91. Q91. According to the article, what was the percentage increase in …
  92. Q92. The recent shift from discount to premium on Russian oil, as r…
  93. Q93. investigative agency was the prosecuting authority in the Supr…
  94. Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
  95. Q95. In which year was the case registered by the CBI against retir…
  96. Q96. was the primary legal provision under which the accused sought…
  97. Q97. constitutional article, interpreted by the Supreme Court, guar…
  98. Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme…
  99. Q99. According to the news article, in which year was the FIR filed…
  100. Q100. was the primary legal principle established by the Supreme Cou…
  101. Q101. The Joint Seat Allocation Authority (JoSAA) functions under wh…
  102. Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the new BTech prog…
  103. Q103. According to the article, what is the sanctioned intake for th…
  104. Q104. is the primary strategic objective behind IITs introducing new…