1 June 2026, Questions & Answers

136 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

136 questions  ·  0 topics covered  ·  28 min revision

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This page contains 136 current affairs questions with answers from 1 June 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

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1 June 2026, Questions with Answers

136 Qs
Q1.

Under which fundamental right did the Delhi High Court root the 'right to be forgotten'?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Right to Equality (Article 14)
  • B.Right to Freedom of Speech (Article 19)
  • C.Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Right against Exploitation (Article 23)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The judgment explicitly states that the 'right to be forgotten' is a broader manifestation of the right to privacy, which itself is derived from Article 21 of the Constitution as established in the Puttaswamy case.

Source: Delhi HC Recognises ‘Right to be Forgotten’ Under Article 21, Directs Global De-indexing of Acquittal Records →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi High Court's judgment on the 'right to be forgotten':

1. It directed search engines to de-index judicial records globally from name-based searches.

2. It allowed de-indexing for all cases, including convictions for offences against children.

3. It linked the right to be forgotten to the Right to Privacy under Article 21 of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Court stated de-indexing must operate globally. Statement 2 is incorrect as the judgment specifically prohibits de-indexing in cases involving conviction for offences against children. Statement 3 is correct as the judgment roots the right in Article 21.

Source: Delhi HC Recognises ‘Right to be Forgotten’ Under Article 21, Directs Global De-indexing of Acquittal Records →
Q3.

According to the Delhi High Court judgment, within what timeframe were the search engines and the Ministry of Electronics and IT directed to comply with the de-indexing orders?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Within 1 week
  • B.Within 2 weeks✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Within 4 weeks
  • D.Within 6 weeks
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "All aforesaid directions shall be complied with within two weeks from today." This directive applied to both the search engine operators and the Union of India through MeitY.

Source: Delhi HC Recognises ‘Right to be Forgotten’ Under Article 21, Directs Global De-indexing of Acquittal Records →
Q4.

What was the primary rationale of the Delhi High Court for ordering global de-indexing of judicial records in certain cases?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To reduce the workload of Indian courts
  • B.To protect the fundamental right to informational privacy, which is not limited by territory✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To align Indian law exclusively with European Union's GDPR
  • D.To promote the business interests of search engine companies
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The judgment reasoned that since the fundamental right to informational privacy under Article 21 is not limited to a territory, the remedy (de-indexing) must also operate globally to be effective. This addresses the borderless nature of the internet.

Source: Delhi HC Recognises ‘Right to be Forgotten’ Under Article 21, Directs Global De-indexing of Acquittal Records →
Q5.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for preparing the fresh delimitation Bill as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Finance
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Union Home Ministry is preparing a fresh delimitation Bill. The Delimitation Commission operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Source: Delimitation Bill and One Nation One Election Legislation Revived by Government, Aiming for Implementation by 2029 Lok Sabha Elections →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding the developments mentioned in the article:

1. The Constitution (One Hundred and Thirty First Amendment) Bill, 2026 fell short of the required two-thirds majority in Lok Sabha.

2. The tenure of the Joint Parliamentary Committee reviewing the One Nation One Election Bill has been extended until the first day of the last week of the Budget session.

3. The BJP has proposed a formula for a uniform 50% increase in Lok Sabha seats across states to address southern states' concerns regarding delimitation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the JPC's tenure was extended until the Monsoon session, not the Budget session. Statement 3 is correct, as Union Home Minister Amit Shah proposed this formula during the debate.

Source: Delimitation Bill and One Nation One Election Legislation Revived by Government, Aiming for Implementation by 2029 Lok Sabha Elections →
Q7.

According to the article, how many states have assembly elections due in 2027, as cited in the context of phased implementation of One Nation One Election?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5 states
  • B.7 states✓ Correct Answer
  • C.9 states
  • D.11 states
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically mentions seven states: Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Punjab, Goa, Manipur, Himachal Pradesh, and Gujarat. This factual detail is crucial for understanding the logistical challenge of synchronizing elections.

Source: Delimitation Bill and One Nation One Election Legislation Revived by Government, Aiming for Implementation by 2029 Lok Sabha Elections →
Q8.

What is the primary concern of southern states like Tamil Nadu regarding the delimitation process, as expressed by a DMK leader in the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Loss of financial grants from the Centre
  • B.Penalisation in parliamentary representation despite successful population control✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Reduction in the number of Rajya Sabha seats
  • D.Override of state legislative powers on education policy
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The DMK leader stated the party's concern is that states which successfully implemented population control measures should not be penalised in parliamentary representation. This reflects the core federal issue in delimitation: balancing population-based representation with incentives for population stabilization.

Source: Delimitation Bill and One Nation One Election Legislation Revived by Government, Aiming for Implementation by 2029 Lok Sabha Elections →
Q9.

Which institution is responsible for the management of foreign exchange reserves and defending the rupee's value, as discussed in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Reserve Bank of India✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Securities and Exchange Board of India
  • D.International Monetary Fund
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central bank, entrusted with managing the country's foreign exchange reserves and intervening in the market to stabilize the rupee's value, as detailed in the article.

Source: RBI Earns ₹4.28 Lakh Crore Income FY26 via Forex Sales, Transfers ₹2.87 Lakh Crore Dividend to Centre →
Q10.

Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's operations in FY25-26:

1. The RBI's total income was ₹4.28 lakh crore, with the largest component coming from interest earned on government bonds.

2. To defend the rupee, the RBI sold foreign currency, which created a shortage of rupee liquidity in the market.

3. The RBI set aside ₹1.09 lakh crore in provisions mainly due to losses on its holdings of domestic and foreign securities as yields rose.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The largest income component was ₹1.69 lakh crore from 'exchange gain on foreign exchange transactions', not interest on bonds. Statement 2 is correct as selling forex returns rupees to RBI, reducing market liquidity. Statement 3 is correct as provisions were for losses on securities and forward contracts due to rising yields.

Source: RBI Earns ₹4.28 Lakh Crore Income FY26 via Forex Sales, Transfers ₹2.87 Lakh Crore Dividend to Centre →
Q11.

According to the article, what was the amount of foreign currency sold by the RBI on a gross basis during FY25-26?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.$150 billion
  • B.$175 billion
  • C.$195 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • D.$210 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the RBI sold $195 billion of foreign currency on a gross basis in 2025-26 as part of its operations to defend the rupee.

Source: RBI Earns ₹4.28 Lakh Crore Income FY26 via Forex Sales, Transfers ₹2.87 Lakh Crore Dividend to Centre →
Q12.

What was the primary consequence of the RBI selling foreign currency to defend the rupee, which the RBI then had to address?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.It increased the fiscal deficit of the government.
  • B.It reduced the availability of Indian rupees (rupee liquidity) in the market.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It caused a sharp appreciation of the rupee against the dollar.
  • D.It led to a decrease in the RBI's Contingent Risk Buffer.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

When the RBI sells dollars, it receives rupees, thereby withdrawing rupees from the market. This reduction in rupee liquidity, if unaddressed, would push up interest rates. The RBI countered this by buying government bonds to inject rupees back into the system.

Source: RBI Earns ₹4.28 Lakh Crore Income FY26 via Forex Sales, Transfers ₹2.87 Lakh Crore Dividend to Centre →
Q13.

Which national-level board of education issued the circular mandating the three-language formula discussed in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
  • B.Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.University Grants Commission (UGC)
  • D.National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the CBSE issued the circular mandating the study of three languages for Class 9 students. CBSE is the national board that affiliates a large number of schools across India and abroad.

Source: SC Seeks Report on CBSE's 3-Language Formula for Class 9 from July 1, 2026; Policy Challenged Under NEP 2020 →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding the three-language formula controversy:

1. The Supreme Court has granted an immediate stay on the implementation of the CBSE's three-language formula policy.

2. The CBSE circular mandates that at least two of the three languages studied must be native Indian languages.

3. The third language under this policy will be assessed through the Class 10 Board examination conducted by the CBSE.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the article says the Supreme Court declined to grant an immediate stay. Statement 2 is correct as the article states 'At least two of the three must be native Indian languages.' Statement 3 is incorrect because the article clarifies that the third language is exempt from the Class 10 Board exam and will be assessed through internal evaluation.

Source: SC Seeks Report on CBSE's 3-Language Formula for Class 9 from July 1, 2026; Policy Challenged Under NEP 2020 →
Q15.

From which date has the CBSE circular mandated the implementation of the three-language formula for Class 9 students?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.June 1, 2026
  • B.July 1, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Academic year 2029-30
  • D.July 15, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly mentions that the CBSE circular mandates the three-language formula for Class 9 students 'from July 1, 2026'. July 15, 2026, is the date of the next Supreme Court hearing, and 2029-30 was the earlier deferred timeline.

Source: SC Seeks Report on CBSE's 3-Language Formula for Class 9 from July 1, 2026; Policy Challenged Under NEP 2020 →
Q16.

What is a primary constitutional argument raised by petitioners against the CBSE's three-language mandate as per the article?

MediumUPSC, Teaching
  • A.It violates the fundamental right to equality.
  • B.Language is a matter of personal choice and cannot be imposed by the state.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It infringes upon the cultural rights of minorities.
  • D.It is contrary to the directives of the Official Languages Act.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly states that 'The petitioners argue that language is a matter of personal choice and cannot be imposed by the state.' This forms the core of their constitutional challenge, focusing on individual liberty versus state mandate in educational policy.

Source: SC Seeks Report on CBSE's 3-Language Formula for Class 9 from July 1, 2026; Policy Challenged Under NEP 2020 →
Q17.

Under which Act are Lok Adalats established in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
  • B.The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
  • C.The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The Family Courts Act, 1984
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Lok Adalats are statutory forums established under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, to promote the settlement of disputes through conciliation and compromise.

Source: Allahabad HC Limits Lok Adalat Jurisdiction: No Divorce Decrees Under Legal Services Act, 1987 →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent Allahabad High Court ruling on Lok Adalats:

1. The court held that Lok Adalats have the authority to grant divorce decrees if both parties mutually agree.

2. The judgment was based on the provisions of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, and the NALSA (Lok Adalat) Regulations, 2009.

3. The power to dissolve a marriage rests exclusively with the Family Courts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The court ruled that Lok Adalats cannot grant divorce decrees at all, as their role is limited to facilitating settlements. Statement 2 is correct as the judgment interprets these statutes. Statement 3 is correct as the court affirmed that Family Courts have exclusive jurisdiction over divorce.

Source: Allahabad HC Limits Lok Adalat Jurisdiction: No Divorce Decrees Under Legal Services Act, 1987 →
Q19.

The Allahabad High Court ruling that Lok Adalats cannot grant divorce was delivered by a bench comprising which justices?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Justice D.Y. Chandrachud and Justice Hima Kohli
  • B.Justice Shekhar B Saraf and Justice A.K. Chaudhary✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Justice Sanjay Kishan Kaul and Justice S. Ravindra Bhat
  • D.Justice U.U. Lalit and Justice Indira Banerjee
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Division Bench which passed the verdict comprised Justice Shekhar B Saraf and Justice A.K. Chaudhary of the Allahabad High Court's Lucknow Bench.

Source: Allahabad HC Limits Lok Adalat Jurisdiction: No Divorce Decrees Under Legal Services Act, 1987 →
Q20.

What was the primary legal rationale given by the Allahabad High Court for limiting the authority of Lok Adalats in divorce matters?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Lok Adalats lack the necessary infrastructure to handle sensitive family matters.
  • B.The power to judicially decide and dissolve a marriage is reserved for Family Courts by law.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Lok Adalats are only meant for commercial and civil disputes, not personal laws.
  • D.The Constitution of India explicitly prohibits Lok Adalats from dealing with Hindu Marriage Act cases.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court's core reasoning, as per the article, is that the authority of Lok Adalats is statutorily limited to facilitating settlements. The power to render a judicial decision and dissolve a marriage rests exclusively with the Family Courts, making any Lok Adalat order on divorce a jurisdictional overreach.

Source: Allahabad HC Limits Lok Adalat Jurisdiction: No Divorce Decrees Under Legal Services Act, 1987 →
Q21.

Which constitutional article guarantees the freedom of conscience and religion, a right central to the debate on Adivasi identity?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 14
  • B.Article 19
  • C.Article 25✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 29
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 25 of the Indian Constitution guarantees freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion. The article is explicitly mentioned in the news as the basis for Adivasis' right to choose their religion without affecting their tribal status.

Source: Janjati Suraksha Manch Demands Delisting of Christian Adivasis from ST Status Under Article 25 Challenge →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding the legal status of Scheduled Tribes (STs) in India:

1. The Constitution of India links the identity of Scheduled Tribes to the religion they profess.

2. The Patna High Court, in its 1963 judgment on the Kartik Oraon case, held that tribal identity is based on ethnic and community kinship ties.

3. The Presidential Order of 1950 regarding Scheduled Castes, which links benefits to Hinduism, applies directly to Scheduled Tribes as well.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the article states that, unlike for SCs, neither the Constitution nor the law links ST identity to religion. Statement 2 is correct as per the 1963 Patna HC judgment cited. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 1950 Order applies to SCs, and the article highlights the JSM's demand to extend this principle to STs, which is currently not the case.

Source: Janjati Suraksha Manch Demands Delisting of Christian Adivasis from ST Status Under Article 25 Challenge →
Q23.

In which year did the Patna High Court deliver the landmark judgment in the Kartik Oraon case, establishing that tribal identity is not religion-based?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1950
  • B.1963✓ Correct Answer
  • C.1976
  • D.1992
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the Patna High Court gave its ruling in 1963. This is a key factual data point from the news, crucial for prelims. The other years are distractors: 1950 is the year of the Presidential Order for SCs, 1976 is linked to the 42nd Amendment, and 1992 is related to the 73rd Amendment and PESA.

Source: Janjati Suraksha Manch Demands Delisting of Christian Adivasis from ST Status Under Article 25 Challenge →
Q24.

What is a primary criticism, as per the article, of the Janjati Suraksha Manch's (JSM) campaign to delist Christian Adivasis?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It will lead to an increase in fraudulent religious conversions.
  • B.It serves to divide Adivasi communities, weakening their unified resistance against corporate land grabs.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It violates the fundamental right to equality under Article 14.
  • D.It proposes an unconstitutional amendment to the Forest Rights Act.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article argues that by splitting Adivasis on religious lines, the JSM campaign serves the interests of companies dispossessing them of jal, jangal, zameen (water, forest, land). This is presented as a strategic criticism of the campaign's impact, diverting focus from substantive rights issues.

Source: Janjati Suraksha Manch Demands Delisting of Christian Adivasis from ST Status Under Article 25 Challenge →
Q25.

Under which Act are Special Courts established to try offences of sexual assault against children?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act
  • B.The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Indian Penal Code
  • D.The Criminal Procedure Code
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The POCSO Act, 2012, mandates the establishment of Special Courts for the speedy trial of offences related to child sexual abuse. The article mentions cases being heard in 'POCSO special courts'.

Source: POCSO Data Shows 10-15% Cases Involve Consensual Teen Relationships, SC Allows MTP at 28 Weeks for Minor →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding the issues discussed in the article:

1. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, as amended in 2021, allows abortions beyond 24 weeks in all cases involving minors.

2. Empirical studies show that nearly 10-15% of cases under the POCSO Act involve de-facto consensual relationships between adolescents.

3. The Supreme Court, in the discussed case, rejected the doctors' request to delay the pregnancy termination by six weeks.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states the MTP Act 'does not allow abortions beyond 24 weeks even in exceptional circumstances.' Statement 2 is correct as per the empirical data cited. Statement 3 is correct as the court rejected the AIIMS doctors' argument in strong terms.

Source: POCSO Data Shows 10-15% Cases Involve Consensual Teen Relationships, SC Allows MTP at 28 Weeks for Minor →
Q27.

According to the empirical studies cited in the article, what percentage of cases before POCSO special courts involve de-facto consensual relationships?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5-10%
  • B.10-15%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.15-20%
  • D.20-25%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Empirical studies on the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 in India have repeatedly shown that nearly 10-15% of all cases before the POCSO special courts involve de-facto consensual relationships.'

Source: POCSO Data Shows 10-15% Cases Involve Consensual Teen Relationships, SC Allows MTP at 28 Weeks for Minor →
Q28.

What is the primary criticism, as per the article, of India's current legal approach to adolescent sexuality exemplified by the POCSO Act?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It is not stringent enough to punish offenders.
  • B.It fails to distinguish between consensual adolescent relationships and exploitative child sexual abuse.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It delegates too much power to special courts without adequate oversight.
  • D.It conflicts with the provisions of the Juvenile Justice Act.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article argues that the state's 'blanket criminalisation' under POCSO treats all sexual activity involving minors as a criminal offence, regardless of coercion or consensuality. It calls for a nuanced conversation that does not conflate 'de-facto consensual sexual interactions involving adolescents' with 'child rape and exploitation'.

Source: POCSO Data Shows 10-15% Cases Involve Consensual Teen Relationships, SC Allows MTP at 28 Weeks for Minor →
Q29.

On which river is the newly approved Padma Barrage located in Bangladesh?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Brahmaputra River
  • B.Meghna River
  • C.Padma River✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Jamuna River
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the Padma Barrage is on the Padma river, which is Bangladesh's stretch of the Ganga.

Source: Bangladesh Approves 2.1-km Padma Barrage for 2.88 Million Ha Irrigation, 113 MW Hydropower in Rajbari District →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding the Padma Barrage project:

1. It is located in the Rajbari district of Bangladesh.

2. The project includes a hydropower generation capacity of 113 MW.

3. It is primarily a flood control mechanism for the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta region.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the barrage is in Rajbari district. Statement 2 is correct as it mentions 113 MW of hydropower generation. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article describes its primary purposes as irrigation and addressing drought, not flood control.

Source: Bangladesh Approves 2.1-km Padma Barrage for 2.88 Million Ha Irrigation, 113 MW Hydropower in Rajbari District →
Q31.

What is the total length of the approved Padma Barrage structure?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.1.5 km
  • B.2.1 km✓ Correct Answer
  • C.2.5 km
  • D.3.0 km
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides the specific data point that the barrage will be 2.1-km-long. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Source: Bangladesh Approves 2.1-km Padma Barrage for 2.88 Million Ha Irrigation, 113 MW Hydropower in Rajbari District →
Q32.

What is a major criticism raised by environmental groups regarding the Padma Barrage project, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.High construction costs
  • B.Displacement of urban populations
  • C.Lack of public scrutiny and speed of approval✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Use of outdated engineering technology
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that 'Some environmental groups have also criticised the speed of approval and called for greater public scrutiny.' The other issues, while potential concerns, are not mentioned in the provided text.

Source: Bangladesh Approves 2.1-km Padma Barrage for 2.88 Million Ha Irrigation, 113 MW Hydropower in Rajbari District →
Q33.

Which US office, led by chief negotiator Brendan Lynch, is conducting trade talks with India as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR)✓ Correct Answer
  • B.US Department of Commerce
  • C.US International Trade Commission
  • D.US Department of State
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the team of United States Trade Representative (USTR) officials led by chief negotiator Brendan Lynch. USTR is the primary agency responsible for developing and coordinating U.S. international trade policy.

Source: India-US Trade Talks Seek Interim Deal Before July 24 Section 301 Tariffs →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-US trade negotiations:

1. The urgency for finalizing an interim deal is driven by new US tariffs under Section 301 set to come into effect on July 24, 2026.

2. Reciprocal tariffs imposed by the US were reduced from 50% in February 2026 to 18% in August 2025.

3. India has ratified the Forced Labour Convention, 1930 and the Abolition of Forced Labour Convention, 1957.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the new Section 301 tariffs will come into effect on July 24. Statement 2 is incorrect; the timeline is reversed: tariffs were 50% in August 2025 and reduced to 18% in February 2026. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article that India has ratified both conventions.

Source: India-US Trade Talks Seek Interim Deal Before July 24 Section 301 Tariffs →
Q35.

According to the article, what was the gross Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) inflow into India for the year 2025-26?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$7.65 billion
  • B.$84.53 billion
  • C.$94.53 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • D.$104.53 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states: 'India saw gross Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) inflows rise to a new record high of $94.53 billion in 2025-26'. $7.65 billion is the net FDI figure, while $84.53 and $104.53 billion are distractors.

Source: India-US Trade Talks Seek Interim Deal Before July 24 Section 301 Tariffs →
Q36.

What is a primary reason cited in the article for India's urgency to finalize a trade deal with the US?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To comply with WTO regulations
  • B.To restore confidence among investors and stabilize the currency✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To increase exports of agricultural products to the US
  • D.To secure technology transfers from US companies
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article emphasizes that 'finalisation of an interim trade deal is seen as important in restoring confidence among investors' and discusses the depreciation of the domestic currency (breaching Rs 95 per dollar) linked to trade tensions. The other options are not the primary drivers mentioned.

Source: India-US Trade Talks Seek Interim Deal Before July 24 Section 301 Tariffs →
Q37.

The India-Oman Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) falls under the purview of which Union Ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of External Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Finance
  • D.Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Trade agreements, including Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreements (CEPAs) and Free Trade Agreements (FTAs), are negotiated and implemented under the Department of Commerce, which is part of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Source: India-Oman CEPA Grants 99.38% Tariff-Free Access, Targets $3.64 Bn Export Boost For MSMEs →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-Oman Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA):

1. It provides 100% duty-free market access in Oman for 98% of tariff lines covering over 99% of India's exports.

2. Under the agreement, Oman has agreed to automatic marketing authorisation for all Indian agricultural products within 60 days.

3. The pact includes recognition of India's National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) certification.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the automatic marketing authorisation within 90 days is for Indian medicines (pharma), not agricultural products. Statement 3 is correct as the agreement provides for acceptance of India's NPOP certification.

Source: India-Oman CEPA Grants 99.38% Tariff-Free Access, Targets $3.64 Bn Export Boost For MSMEs →
Q39.

According to the article, what was the value of Indian exports to Oman that currently face a 5% import duty and will become more competitive under the CEPA?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$2 billion
  • B.$3.64 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$7.75 million
  • D.$119 million
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'Goods from India that currently face a 5 per cent import duty in Oman, worth about $3.64 billion in exports, will become more competitive.' $2 billion is annual remittances, $7.75 million is current marine product exports, and $119 million is Oman's total marine product imports.

Source: India-Oman CEPA Grants 99.38% Tariff-Free Access, Targets $3.64 Bn Export Boost For MSMEs →
Q40.

What is a primary strategic objective for India in signing the Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) with Oman, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase Indian foreign direct investment in Omani oil fields
  • B.To provide a crucial opportunity for Indian exporters to diversify markets and reduce dependence on traditional destinations✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To facilitate the import of natural gas from Oman at subsidized rates
  • D.To establish a joint military training facility in Oman
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'In an era of growing global instability, the CEPA offers Indian exporters a crucial opportunity to diversify markets and reduce dependence on traditional destinations facing economic slowdown and rising trade barriers.' The other options are not mentioned as primary objectives in the provided content.

Source: India-Oman CEPA Grants 99.38% Tariff-Free Access, Targets $3.64 Bn Export Boost For MSMEs →
Q41.

Who expressed concern over elevated sovereign bond yields and a potential reversal of global monetary easing, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • B.The Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Ministry of Finance
  • D.The NITI Aayog
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Reserve Bank of India’s annual report for 2025-26 expressed this concern. The Chief Economic Advisor also commented, but the primary institutional warning came from the RBI.

Source: Global Bond Yields Rise: US 10Y at 4.4%, UK at 4.9%, India 7% as Cheap Money Era Ends, RBI Warns of Capital Flow Reversal →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding the trends discussed in the article:

1. Japan experienced negative yields on its 10-year government bonds in some years due to deflationary pressures and its currency's safe-haven status.

2. The primary reason for the end of the cheap global money era is the significant increase in fiscal deficits across all developing nations.

3. Net capital flows into India turned negative in the first nine months of the 2025-26 financial year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's explanation for Japan's negative yields. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article cites the return of inflation and the end of Quantitative Easing as primary reasons, not fiscal deficits in developing nations. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions net capital outflows of $580 million in that period.

Source: Global Bond Yields Rise: US 10Y at 4.4%, UK at 4.9%, India 7% as Cheap Money Era Ends, RBI Warns of Capital Flow Reversal →
Q43.

According to the article, what was the approximate yield on 10-year Indian government bonds mentioned for the current period?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.About 5.5%
  • B.About 6.0%
  • C.About 6.5%
  • D.About 7.0%✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "Currently, 10-year government bond yields in India are at about 7%." The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors based on historical averages or other countries' yields.

Source: Global Bond Yields Rise: US 10Y at 4.4%, UK at 4.9%, India 7% as Cheap Money Era Ends, RBI Warns of Capital Flow Reversal →
Q44.

What, according to the analysis in the article, would be required for foreign capital to return to India in the new global financial environment?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.A return to Quantitative Easing by the US Federal Reserve
  • B.India offering a more compelling growth and earnings story✓ Correct Answer
  • C.A significant depreciation of the Indian Rupee
  • D.Imposing capital controls to prevent outflows
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article concludes that with the 'push' factor of cheap global money gone, foreign capital would require India to offer a more compelling 'pull' story based on higher GDP and earnings growth prospects. It shifts the onus onto domestic economic strength.

Source: Global Bond Yields Rise: US 10Y at 4.4%, UK at 4.9%, India 7% as Cheap Money Era Ends, RBI Warns of Capital Flow Reversal →
Q45.

Which statutory authority approves Tiger Conservation Plans (TCPs) for tiger reserves?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Board for Wildlife (NBWL)
  • B.National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Chief Wildlife Warden (CWLW) of the State
  • D.Forest Survey of India (FSI)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that TCPs are approved by the NTCA. The NBWL's Standing Committee deals with project clearance, the CWLW is a state-level officer, and FSI is for forest mapping.

Source: Maharashtra Govt Exempts Lloyds Metals 9.4 Sq Km Iron Ore Mine Project in Gadchiroli from Wildlife Clearance Under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding the Lloyds Metals mining project clearance:

1. The Maharashtra government exempted the project from wildlife clearance by correctly stating it was not located in any tiger corridor.

2. The project received forest clearance on April 15, 2026 and environment clearance on May 12, 2026.

3. The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) narrowed the definition of tiger corridors to only 32 'least cost pathways' identified in 2014.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the article states the government's claim was incorrect; maps showed the project was in a tiger corridor. Statement 2 is correct as per the dates mentioned. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions NTCA's volte-face in August 2025 narrowing the scope.

Source: Maharashtra Govt Exempts Lloyds Metals 9.4 Sq Km Iron Ore Mine Project in Gadchiroli from Wildlife Clearance Under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 →
Q47.

What is the area of forest land proposed for diversion for the Lloyds Metals iron ore mining project in Gadchiroli?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5.2 sq km
  • B.7.8 sq km
  • C.9.4 sq km✓ Correct Answer
  • D.11.6 sq km
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the project involves diverting 9.4 sq km of forest land.

Source: Maharashtra Govt Exempts Lloyds Metals 9.4 Sq Km Iron Ore Mine Project in Gadchiroli from Wildlife Clearance Under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 →
Q48.

What is the primary statutory significance of tiger corridors identified in Tiger Conservation Plans (TCPs) according to the Chief Wildlife Warden's letter?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.They are only indicative and have no legal standing for project scrutiny.
  • B.They carry statutory relevance under the Wildlife (Protection) Act for scrutiny of project proposals.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.They are relevant only for internal forest department management plans.
  • D.They are superseded by the 32 'least cost pathways' identified by NTCA.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

In his letter, the Chief Wildlife Warden pointed out that corridors identified in TCPs by the NTCA under the Wildlife (Protection) Act 'carry statutory relevance' for scrutiny of project proposals.

Source: Maharashtra Govt Exempts Lloyds Metals 9.4 Sq Km Iron Ore Mine Project in Gadchiroli from Wildlife Clearance Under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 →
Q49.

Under which ministry does the newly formed Online Gaming Authority of India (OGAI) function?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
  • C.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ministry of Law and Justice
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the Online Gaming Authority of India (OGAI) is a unified regulator under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). It was established after the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Rules, 2026, came into force.

Source: SC Upholds 28% Retrospective GST on Online Gaming, Quad Launches Maritime Initiative, India-Cyprus Elevate to Strategic Partnership →
Q50.

Consider the following statements:

1. Under parole, the period of release is treated as remission of the sentence.

2. Furlough is generally seen as a matter of right for a prisoner to maintain social ties.

3. The Supreme Court upheld a 28% retrospective GST levy on online gaming companies in May 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. In parole, the sentence is suspended and time spent does NOT count toward sentence completion. It is furlough where the period is treated as remission. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's comparison table. Statement 3 is correct as the SC upheld the 28% GST on May 27, 2026.

Source: SC Upholds 28% Retrospective GST on Online Gaming, Quad Launches Maritime Initiative, India-Cyprus Elevate to Strategic Partnership →
Q51.

What is the approximate value of the tax demand revived by the Supreme Court's verdict on retrospective GST for online gaming companies?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Nearly ₹1 lakh crore
  • B.Nearly ₹1.5 lakh crore
  • C.Nearly ₹2 lakh crore
  • D.Nearly ₹2.5 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Supreme Court verdict revives tax demands of nearly Rs 2.5 lakh crore against gaming firms, fantasy sports platforms, and casinos. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Source: SC Upholds 28% Retrospective GST on Online Gaming, Quad Launches Maritime Initiative, India-Cyprus Elevate to Strategic Partnership →
Q52.

What was a key outcome of Cyprus President Nikos Christodoulides's State visit to India in May 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Signing of a bilateral free trade agreement.
  • B.Elevation of bilateral ties to a Comprehensive Economic Partnership.
  • C.Elevation of bilateral ties to a Strategic Partnership and a defence roadmap.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Joint commitment to mediate in the West Asia conflict.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that India and Cyprus agreed to elevate ties to a Strategic Partnership and unveiled a 5-year defence cooperation roadmap (2026–2031). While other pacts were signed, this was the key strategic upgrade.

Source: SC Upholds 28% Retrospective GST on Online Gaming, Quad Launches Maritime Initiative, India-Cyprus Elevate to Strategic Partnership →
Q53.

Which U.S. government agency issued the guidance to close the loophole on AI chip exports to Chinese subsidiaries?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS)✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Department of Defense (DoD)
  • C.Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)
  • D.Office of the U.S. Trade Representative (USTR)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the guidance was posted by the U.S. Department of Commerce's Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS). BIS is the agency within the Commerce Department responsible for export controls.

Source: US BIS Closes Loophole for AI Chip Exports to Chinese Subsidiaries Abroad Under 2023 Licensing Rules →
Q54.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent US guidance on AI chip exports:

1. The guidance creates new export licensing requirements for advanced AI chips.

2. The guidance was issued in response to a paper that claimed the loophole had allowed a large-scale export of chips.

3. The guidance also imposes new requirements on data centers to stop using chips already exported to Chinese subsidiaries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The article quotes a BIS spokesperson saying the guidance clarifies export license requirements that "have been in place since 2023", not newly created. Statement 2 is correct: The article mentions the guidance was posted after a paper about the loophole circulated, and a chip industry source estimated exports in the 'hundreds of thousands'. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article explicitly states, "the new guidance does not require data centers to stop using the chips or cut off servicing."

Source: US BIS Closes Loophole for AI Chip Exports to Chinese Subsidiaries Abroad Under 2023 Licensing Rules →
Q55.

According to a chip industry source mentioned in the article, what was the estimated scale of advanced AI chips exported through the loophole before the guidance?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.A few thousand
  • B.Tens of thousands
  • C.Hundreds of thousands✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Over a million
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: "One chip industry source with deep supply-chain knowledge estimated it was in the hundreds of thousands." This is a specific data point directly from the source material.

Source: US BIS Closes Loophole for AI Chip Exports to Chinese Subsidiaries Abroad Under 2023 Licensing Rules →
Q56.

What is the primary strategic objective behind the US move to close the export loophole for advanced AI chips, as per the article's context?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase tariff revenue from technology exports
  • B.To promote open market competition in the semiconductor industry
  • C.To restrict China's access to critical technology for developing AI capabilities✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To encourage Chinese firms to invest more in US manufacturing facilities
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article frames the action within "broader U.S. efforts to starve Chinese firms of semiconductors needed to develop critical AI capabilities." The core objective is technological containment for national security reasons, not revenue generation, market promotion, or attracting investment.

Source: US BIS Closes Loophole for AI Chip Exports to Chinese Subsidiaries Abroad Under 2023 Licensing Rules →
Q57.

Under which Act was the convict sentenced to 'rigorous imprisonment for life' in the mentioned case?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Indian Penal Code, 1860
  • B.The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015
  • D.The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the convict was convicted and sentenced to rigorous imprisonment for life under Section 6 of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act. The BNS was invoked for a separate offence of criminal intimidation.

Source: POCSO Court Sentences Man to Life Imprisonment Till Natural Life, Awards ₹18.5 Lakh Compensation for Minor's Rape →
Q58.

Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi POCSO court judgment mentioned in the news:

1. The court awarded a total compensation of ₹18.5 lakh to the minor survivor and her child.

2. The convict was sentenced under Section 6 of the POCSO Act and Section 302 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita.

3. The entire judicial process from case institution to sentencing was completed within nine days.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Only 2 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the convict was sentenced under Section 6 of POCSO and Section 351(2) of the BNS for criminal intimidation, not Section 302 (murder). Statement 3 is correct as the case was instituted on May 21 and sentencing was on May 30, 2026.

Source: POCSO Court Sentences Man to Life Imprisonment Till Natural Life, Awards ₹18.5 Lakh Compensation for Minor's Rape →
Q59.

What was the total amount of compensation awarded by the Delhi POCSO court to the minor survivor and her child?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹10 lakh
  • B.₹15 lakh
  • C.₹18.5 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹20 lakh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court directed payment of ₹18.5 lakh as compensation under the victim compensation framework. Of this, ₹12 lakh was allocated for the minor girl and ₹6.5 lakh for her child.

Source: POCSO Court Sentences Man to Life Imprisonment Till Natural Life, Awards ₹18.5 Lakh Compensation for Minor's Rape →
Q60.

Which of the following was identified as a primary aggravating circumstance by the court in awarding the maximum sentence?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The convict was a foreign national.
  • B.The crime was committed in a public place.
  • C.The convict abused a position of trust as a former neighbour.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The victim was above 16 years of age.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court emphasized that the accused, being a former neighbour, enjoyed the trust of the victim's family and grossly abused that position to commit the crime inside her home. This betrayal of trust was a major aggravating factor, outweighing any mitigating circumstances.

Source: POCSO Court Sentences Man to Life Imprisonment Till Natural Life, Awards ₹18.5 Lakh Compensation for Minor's Rape →
Q61.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for the National Family Health Survey (NFHS)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)
  • B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Women and Child Development
  • D.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The National Family Health Survey (NFHS) is conducted under the stewardship of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW). The International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS) is the nodal agency for its implementation.

Source: NFHS-VI Report: 1 in 6 Indians Diabetic, 30% Obese, 31% Children Underweight Highlights Double Disease Burden →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding the findings of NFHS-VI as mentioned in the article:

1. One in six Indians reported high blood sugar levels.

2. Close to 30 percent of Indian children are obese.

3. Over 80 percent of infants between six and twenty-three months do not receive an adequate diet.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Only 2 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states 'Close to 30 per cent of Indians are obese' – it refers to the general population, not specifically children. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.

Source: NFHS-VI Report: 1 in 6 Indians Diabetic, 30% Obese, 31% Children Underweight Highlights Double Disease Burden →
Q63.

According to the NFHS-VI data mentioned in the article, what percentage of children in India are still underweight?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.More than 25%
  • B.More than 31%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.More than 35%
  • D.More than 40%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'more than 31 per cent of children are still underweight.' The other figures are distractors; 35% is the figure from a different survey (Comprehensive Nutritional Survey) for children with adult-level triglycerides.

Source: NFHS-VI Report: 1 in 6 Indians Diabetic, 30% Obese, 31% Children Underweight Highlights Double Disease Burden →
Q64.

What is the primary critique, as per the article, of the government's approach to tackling nutritional challenges based on NFHS-VI data?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Excessive focus on urban areas at the cost of rural nutrition.
  • B.Over-reliance on international aid and imported food supplies.
  • C.Focus on calorie intake without ensuring nutritional diversity in diets.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Neglecting the role of the private sector in food distribution.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that 'a combination of government policies and people’s choices has led to a prioritisation of calorie intake at the cost of nutritional diversity.' It further critiques government programs for focusing 'excessively on supply-side interventions' without addressing family-level influences on diet.

Source: NFHS-VI Report: 1 in 6 Indians Diabetic, 30% Obese, 31% Children Underweight Highlights Double Disease Burden →
Q65.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for the implementation of the India-Oman Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of External Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Finance
  • D.Ministry of Defence
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ministry of Commerce and Industry, under Minister Piyush Goyal, handles trade agreements and policies. FTAs and CEPAs fall under its purview, as mentioned in the article where the minister announced the agreement's entry into force.

Source: India-Oman Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) Comes Into Force on June 1, 2026, Aiming to Boost $11.18 Billion Bilateral Trade →
Q66.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-Oman Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA):

1. The agreement was signed on December 18, 2025, in Muscat.

2. The agreement entered into force on the same day it was signed.

3. The agreement provides preferential access for Indian exporters in sectors like textiles and marine products.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the agreement entered into force on June 1, 2026, after completion of internal processes, not on the signing date. Statement 3 is correct as the article lists beneficiary sectors including textiles and marine products.

Source: India-Oman Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) Comes Into Force on June 1, 2026, Aiming to Boost $11.18 Billion Bilateral Trade →
Q67.

According to the news, what was the value of bilateral trade between India and Oman in the financial year 2025-26?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.$10.61 billion
  • B.$11.18 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$12.5 billion
  • D.$9.8 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that bilateral trade reached $11.18 billion in FY 2025-26. $10.61 billion is the figure for FY 2024-25, making it a close distractor. The other options are not mentioned.

Source: India-Oman Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) Comes Into Force on June 1, 2026, Aiming to Boost $11.18 Billion Bilateral Trade →
Q68.

What is a key strategic advantage for India highlighted in the article regarding Oman's role in trade?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Oman provides access to the European Union market.
  • B.Oman is India's largest trading partner globally.
  • C.Oman serves as a strategic gateway to the wider GCC market.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Oman offers the lowest tariff rates in the world.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Oman serves as a strategic gateway to the wider GCC market through its advanced port infrastructure. This is the strategic advantage mentioned. The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Source: India-Oman Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) Comes Into Force on June 1, 2026, Aiming to Boost $11.18 Billion Bilateral Trade →
Q69.

Which ministry is responsible for the compilation and release of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • C.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ministry of Heavy Industries
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is the nodal ministry that has revised and releases the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). This is a standard static GK fact.

Source: IIP Growth Slows to 4.9% in April 2026, Base Year Revised to 2022-23 with 120 New Items →
Q70.

Consider the following statements regarding the revised Index of Industrial Production (IIP):

1. Its base year has been revised from 2011-12 to 2022-23.

2. The revision was undertaken under the aegis of the Technical Advisory Committee for Base Year Revision of IIP (TAC-IIP).

3. The new series has dropped all items related to the energy sector to focus on manufacturing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the base year revision to 2022-23. Statement 2 is correct as the TAC-IIP committee's role is mentioned. Statement 3 is incorrect; the new series adds granularity to the energy sector (like separate indices for renewable energy) and does not drop all energy items.

Source: IIP Growth Slows to 4.9% in April 2026, Base Year Revised to 2022-23 with 120 New Items →
Q71.

According to the news, what was the growth rate of India's Index of Industrial Production (IIP) in April 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.4.5%
  • B.4.9%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.5.7%
  • D.6.2%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that India's industrial production expanded at a slower pace of 4.9% in April (2026). 5.7% was the growth rate in April 2025, and 6.2% was the manufacturing growth rate in April 2026, making them close distractors.

Source: IIP Growth Slows to 4.9% in April 2026, Base Year Revised to 2022-23 with 120 New Items →
Q72.

What is a primary objective of revising the base year of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP), as indicated in the article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To reduce the time lag in the release of IIP data
  • B.To increase the weight of the agricultural sector in the index
  • C.To improve representativeness by capturing emerging industrial products✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To align the IIP growth rate with the GDP growth rate
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that an expanded item basket 'improves representativeness, captures diversification in industrial production, and reflects emerging industrial products and technologies.' While a reduced time lag (28 days) is a feature, it's not the primary objective of the base year revision. The IIP does not cover agriculture, and alignment with GDP is not mentioned as an objective.

Source: IIP Growth Slows to 4.9% in April 2026, Base Year Revised to 2022-23 with 120 New Items →
Q73.

The article discusses proposed reforms for gig workers. Which ministry is primarily responsible for labour laws and codes in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Labour and Employment✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  • D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ministry of Labour and Employment is the nodal agency for formulating and implementing labour laws and policies in India, including the four labour codes mentioned in the article.

Source: Platform Economy & Gig Workers: 84-hour weeks, Rs 25-30k monthly earnings, and proposed labour code reforms for neo-proletariat →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding gig workers as discussed in the article:

1. Many delivery agents reported working more than 84 hours a week to unlock higher incentives.

2. The article cites Karl Marx's theory of surplus value to explain the logic of the platform economy.

3. The government has recently proposed reforms for gig workers under the five new labour codes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as the article references Karl Marx's theory of surplus value. Statement 3 is incorrect because the reforms are proposed under the four labour codes, not five.

Source: Platform Economy & Gig Workers: 84-hour weeks, Rs 25-30k monthly earnings, and proposed labour code reforms for neo-proletariat →
Q75.

According to the article, what is the typical monthly earning range for delivery workers in Delhi after working extensive hours?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Rs 15,000 - Rs 20,000
  • B.Rs 20,000 - Rs 25,000
  • C.Rs 25,000 - Rs 30,000✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Rs 30,000 - Rs 35,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that most workers in Delhi earn only between Rs 25,000 and Rs 30,000 a month, despite exhausting schedules.

Source: Platform Economy & Gig Workers: 84-hour weeks, Rs 25-30k monthly earnings, and proposed labour code reforms for neo-proletariat →
Q76.

What is a key challenge highlighted in the article regarding the protection of gig workers in the platform economy?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lack of technological infrastructure for platform operations
  • B.Opaque algorithmic management and lack of transparency in incentive structures✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Over-regulation by the government stifling innovation
  • D.High unionization rates leading to frequent strikes
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article emphasizes that workers have little clarity on how incentives are altered, performance metrics are determined, or why penalties appear, pointing to algorithmic opacity as a major challenge for worker protection.

Source: Platform Economy & Gig Workers: 84-hour weeks, Rs 25-30k monthly earnings, and proposed labour code reforms for neo-proletariat →
Q77.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for conducting bilateral talks with foreign dignitaries like the President of Myanmar?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Defence
  • B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is the nodal ministry for India's foreign relations and diplomatic engagements. The article mentions the External Affairs Ministry spokesperson commenting on the meeting.

Source: India-Myanmar Strategic Talks Focus on Trade, Connectivity, Border Security & Defence Cooperation →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. Prime Minister Narendra Modi held talks with Myanmar President Min Aung Hlaing at Hyderabad House in New Delhi.

2. The talks focused solely on enhancing trade and economic cooperation between the two nations.

3. National Security Advisor Ajit Doval also met President Aung Hlaing to discuss bilateral ties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the talks focused on trade, connectivity, border security, and defence cooperation, not solely on trade. Statement 3 is correct as NSA Ajit Doval met the President on May 31, 2026.

Source: India-Myanmar Strategic Talks Focus on Trade, Connectivity, Border Security & Defence Cooperation →
Q79.

According to the article, when did the military junta seize power in a coup in Myanmar, overthrowing the government of Aung San Suu Kyi?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.February 1, 2020
  • B.February 1, 2021✓ Correct Answer
  • C.January 1, 2021
  • D.March 1, 2021
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the coup occurred on Monday (February 1, 2021). The other dates are close distractors.

Source: India-Myanmar Strategic Talks Focus on Trade, Connectivity, Border Security & Defence Cooperation →
Q80.

What was the primary focus of the bilateral talks between India and Myanmar as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Cultural exchange and tourism promotion
  • B.Trade, connectivity, border security, and defence cooperation✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Climate change and renewable energy partnerships
  • D.Healthcare collaboration and pandemic preparedness
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states the talks focused on boosting bilateral cooperation in these four specific areas. While other areas might be part of broader relations, these were the primary focus of this meeting.

Source: India-Myanmar Strategic Talks Focus on Trade, Connectivity, Border Security & Defence Cooperation →
Q81.

Which statutory body is responsible for approving the Tiger Conservation Plan (TCP) for tiger reserves in India?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.National Board for Wildlife
  • B.National Tiger Conservation Authority✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Central Zoo Authority
  • D.Forest Survey of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. As mentioned in the article, it approves the 10-year Tiger Conservation Plan for every tiger reserve.

Source: Maharashtra Exempts 9.4 Sq Km Gadchiroli Iron Ore Mine in NTCA-Listed Tiger Corridor, SC Uses Article 142 for Sex Worker Rights, India-Oman CEPA Enforces →
Q82.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The Maharashtra Chief Wildlife Warden exempted a mining project in Gadchiroli from wildlife clearance, stating it was not in a tiger corridor.

2. The Supreme Court, in its judgment, held that the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956, adequately distinguishes between voluntary sex work and trafficking.

3. The India-Oman Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement provides 100% duty-free access to Oman for 98% of Indian tariff lines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) 1 and 2 only
  • B.(B) 1 and 3 only✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) 2 and 3 only
  • D.(D) 1, 2 and 3
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the SC criticized the ITPA for NOT adequately distinguishing between voluntary sex work and trafficking. Statement 3 is correct as the article states CEPA gives 100% duty-free access on 98% of tariff lines.

Source: Maharashtra Exempts 9.4 Sq Km Gadchiroli Iron Ore Mine in NTCA-Listed Tiger Corridor, SC Uses Article 142 for Sex Worker Rights, India-Oman CEPA Enforces →
Q83.

According to the United Nations World Cities Report 2026 cited in the article, what percentage of households globally spend more than 30% of their income on rent, classifying them as 'housing stress-burdened'?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.30%
  • B.44%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.50%
  • D.73%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that globally, 44% of households spend more than 30% of their income on rent. The 73% figure is the increase in India's price-to-income ratio from 2010 to 2023, making it a close distractor.

Source: Maharashtra Exempts 9.4 Sq Km Gadchiroli Iron Ore Mine in NTCA-Listed Tiger Corridor, SC Uses Article 142 for Sex Worker Rights, India-Oman CEPA Enforces →
Q84.

What was the primary strategic significance for India highlighted in the context of the India-Oman relationship, beyond trade under the CEPA?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Access to Oman's oil reserves at preferential rates
  • B.Defence cooperation and access to the Port of Duqm for military use✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Oman's support for India's permanent UN Security Council seat
  • D.Collaboration on space technology and satellite launches
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's 'Do You Know' section emphasizes that Oman is India's closest defence partner in the Gulf and that India has secured access to the key Port of Duqm for military use and logistical support, which is crucial for Indian Ocean strategy.

Source: Maharashtra Exempts 9.4 Sq Km Gadchiroli Iron Ore Mine in NTCA-Listed Tiger Corridor, SC Uses Article 142 for Sex Worker Rights, India-Oman CEPA Enforces →
Q85.

The 'Troika', which imposed austerity measures on Greece during its financial crisis, consisted of which of the following institutions?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.World Bank, IMF, and European Commission
  • B.European Commission, European Central Bank, and International Monetary Fund✓ Correct Answer
  • C.European Union Parliament, World Trade Organization, and World Bank
  • D.OECD, European Central Bank, and International Monetary Fund
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, the 'troika' that offered the bailout plan to Greece comprised the European Commission (EC), the European Central Bank (ECB), and the International Monetary Fund (IMF).

Source: Austerity Debates: Keynesian Critique, Greek Crisis (GDP -25%, Unemployment 27%), India's 80% Oil Import Dependence →
Q86.

Consider the following statements regarding austerity:

1. Austerity policies primarily aim to restore fiscal balance through increases in public expenditure.

2. Keynes's paradox of thrift suggests that increased saving by households during a recession can lead to a fall in overall savings in the economy.

3. The Greek financial crisis demonstrated that austerity measures guaranteed economic recovery and debt reduction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because austerity aims for fiscal balance through cuts (not increases) in public expenditure. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's explanation of Keynes's paradox of thrift. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Greek crisis showed austerity led to a 25% GDP contraction and increased debt, contradicting the guarantee of recovery.

Source: Austerity Debates: Keynesian Critique, Greek Crisis (GDP -25%, Unemployment 27%), India's 80% Oil Import Dependence →
Q87.

According to the article, what was the approximate decline in Greece's economic output (GDP) as a result of the austerity measures imposed during its financial crisis?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.15%
  • B.20%
  • C.25%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.30%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that fiscal consolidation in Greece led to a drastic shrinking of the economy, with its economic output declining by 25 per cent.

Source: Austerity Debates: Keynesian Critique, Greek Crisis (GDP -25%, Unemployment 27%), India's 80% Oil Import Dependence →
Q88.

What is a primary reason cited in the article for India's particular vulnerability to the current geopolitical tensions in West Asia?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.High dependence on gold imports for reserve management
  • B.Over 80% dependence on imported crude oil requirements✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Substantial foreign direct investment from the region
  • D.Large-scale export of manufactured goods to the region
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly links India's economic pressure to geopolitical tension in West Asia because India imports over 80 per cent of its crude oil requirements, making it vulnerable to external shocks like global inflation and fuel price hikes.

Source: Austerity Debates: Keynesian Critique, Greek Crisis (GDP -25%, Unemployment 27%), India's 80% Oil Import Dependence →
Q89.

Through which entity does the Government of India provide the credit guarantee under the ECLGS?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  • B.National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
  • D.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that for MSMEs, 100% of the additional credit is guaranteed by the government 'through the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC)'. NCGTC is the common trustee for government-backed credit guarantee schemes.

Source: ECLGS 5.0: ₹1.71 Lakh Cr Loan Applications Received, 75% from MSMEs; ₹5,000 Cr Carve-Out for Aviation →
Q90.

Consider the following statements regarding the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) 5.0:

1. It was launched in response to the economic stress caused by the ongoing West Asia conflict.

2. It provides a government guarantee of 90% for MSME loans and 100% for non-MSME loans.

3. It includes a specific allocation of Rs 5,000 crore for the aviation sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states ECLGS 5.0 was launched 'to tackle the stress... as a result of the ongoing West Asia conflict'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the guarantee is 100% for MSMEs and 90% for non-MSMEs. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions 'a specific carve-out of Rs 5,000 crore for the aviation sector'.

Source: ECLGS 5.0: ₹1.71 Lakh Cr Loan Applications Received, 75% from MSMEs; ₹5,000 Cr Carve-Out for Aviation →
Q91.

As per the news, what is the total estimated outlay (size) of the ECLGS 5.0 scheme?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Rs 1.71 lakh crore
  • B.Rs 2.55 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Rs 35,194 crore
  • D.Rs 18,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The Rs 2.55-lakh crore scheme, announced on May 5...'. Rs 1.71 lakh crore is the total loan amount applied for, Rs 35,194 crore is the amount sanctioned so far, and Rs 18,000 crore is the estimated cost to the government for providing the guarantees.

Source: ECLGS 5.0: ₹1.71 Lakh Cr Loan Applications Received, 75% from MSMEs; ₹5,000 Cr Carve-Out for Aviation →
Q92.

What is the primary stated objective of launching ECLGS 5.0, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To boost long-term infrastructure investment
  • B.To tackle stress faced by MSMEs and the aviation sector due to the West Asia conflict✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To reduce the non-performing assets (NPAs) of public sector banks
  • D.To promote digital lending and financial inclusion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's lead states the scheme was launched 'to tackle the stress being faced by Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) and the aviation sector as a result of the ongoing West Asia conflict.' While digital processing is a feature, it is not the primary objective. The scheme is a liquidity support measure, not directly an NPA reduction tool.

Source: ECLGS 5.0: ₹1.71 Lakh Cr Loan Applications Received, 75% from MSMEs; ₹5,000 Cr Carve-Out for Aviation →
Q93.

The 'Right to be Forgotten' is primarily considered a facet of which fundamental right in the Indian Constitution?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Right to Equality (Article 14)
  • B.Right to Freedom of Speech (Article 19)
  • C.Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Right to be Forgotten is derived from the broader Right to Privacy, which was recognized as an intrinsic part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21 by the Supreme Court in the Puttaswamy judgment.

Source: Delhi HC Directs Google & Indian Kanoon to De-index Name-Based Searches, Upholds Right to be Forgotten in 144-Page Order →
Q94.

Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi High Court's recent order on the 'Right to be Forgotten':

1. The court directed the complete removal of judicial records from platforms like Indian Kanoon.

2. The order was passed in response to petitions filed by individuals acquitted in criminal cases or involved in private civil disputes.

3. The Supreme Court of India has already settled the larger question of complete takedown of judgments from legal databases.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The court ordered de-indexing (disabling name-based search), not removal of records. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the Supreme Court is 'dealing with' the larger takedown question, implying it is not yet settled.

Source: Delhi HC Directs Google & Indian Kanoon to De-index Name-Based Searches, Upholds Right to be Forgotten in 144-Page Order →
Q95.

How many petitions did the Delhi High Court decide through its order upholding the 'Right to be Forgotten'?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.25 petitions
  • B.38 petitions✓ Correct Answer
  • C.42 petitions
  • D.50 petitions
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Delhi High Court decided 38 petitions through this order, with the oldest dating back to 2016.

Source: Delhi HC Directs Google & Indian Kanoon to De-index Name-Based Searches, Upholds Right to be Forgotten in 144-Page Order →
Q96.

What is the primary objective of the 'de-indexing' directed by the Delhi High Court in its recent order?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To permanently delete all online records of a court case to protect privacy.
  • B.To prevent an individual's name from appearing in search results while keeping the judgment accessible via other identifiers.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To transfer all judicial records to a secure, government-controlled database.
  • D.To mandate search engines to seek prior permission before indexing any court judgment.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As clarified in the article, de-indexing does not erase the record. It prevents a person's name from being a search key, but the judgment remains accessible via case number, citation, or court details, thus balancing privacy with open justice.

Source: Delhi HC Directs Google & Indian Kanoon to De-index Name-Based Searches, Upholds Right to be Forgotten in 144-Page Order →
Q97.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for negotiating and implementing Free Trade Agreements like the India-Oman CEPA?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of External Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Finance
  • D.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Department of Commerce under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal agency for formulating India's foreign trade policy and negotiating trade agreements like FTAs and CEPAs.

Source: India-Oman CEPA Enforces 98% Zero-Duty Access, Boosts Energy Security Amid Hormuz Strait Disruption →
Q98.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-Oman Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA):

1. It grants India zero-duty access across 98% of Omani tariff lines.

2. The agreement was signed in December 2025 and came into force in June 2026.

3. Under the CEPA, Oman's share of India's total imports was 8.8% in FY25.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct; the deal was signed in December last year (2025) and entered force on June 1, 2026. Statement 3 is incorrect; Oman's share of India's total imports was 0.9% in FY25, not 8.8% (which was the UAE's share).

Source: India-Oman CEPA Enforces 98% Zero-Duty Access, Boosts Energy Security Amid Hormuz Strait Disruption →
Q99.

According to the article, what was the value of India's energy imports from Oman in April 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$429.58 million
  • B.$1.48 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$3.64 billion
  • D.$7.2 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that energy shipments from Oman jumped 246.42% to $1.48 billion in April 2026, compared to $429.58 million in April 2025. $3.64 billion is the value of Indian exports to Oman that faced duties up to 5%, and $7.2 billion is the value of imports (crude oil, LNG, etc.) in FY2026.

Source: India-Oman CEPA Enforces 98% Zero-Duty Access, Boosts Energy Security Amid Hormuz Strait Disruption →
Q100.

What is a primary strategic advantage for India in strengthening trade ties with Oman, as highlighted in the news?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Access to a large consumer market of over 50 million people
  • B.Oman's membership in the European Union trade bloc
  • C.Geographic location of Omani ports outside the Strait of Hormuez✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Oman's status as the world's largest exporter of rare earth minerals
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article emphasizes that much of Oman's coastline is on the Gulf of Oman and Arabian Sea, outside the Strait of Hormuez. This makes ports like Salalah and Duqm accessible even when the strait is blocked, providing India a resilient trade route amidst regional conflict. Oman's population is only around 5.2 million.

Source: India-Oman CEPA Enforces 98% Zero-Duty Access, Boosts Energy Security Amid Hormuz Strait Disruption →
Q101.

Under which Article of the Constitution did the Karnataka High Court equate the right to Medical Termination of Pregnancy?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 14
  • B.Article 19
  • C.Article 21✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 32
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court noted that the Supreme Court has held MTP as a right vested with the mother and equated it to the autonomy of her body under Article 21 (right to life and personal liberty).

Source: Karnataka HC Permits MTP for 32-Week Pregnancy Under Article 21, Cites Medical Board Report on Severe Foetal Abnormalities →
Q102.

Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka High Court judgment on pregnancy termination:

1. The court allowed termination of a 32-week pregnancy based on a medical board's report.

2. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, permits termination up to 24 weeks without court permission.

3. The court held that the right to terminate pregnancy is not a fundamental right under the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court allowed termination at 32 weeks based on the medical board's opinion. Statement 2 is correct as the MTP Act permits termination up to 24 weeks without court interference. Statement 3 is incorrect because the court equated MTP to a right under Article 21.

Source: Karnataka HC Permits MTP for 32-Week Pregnancy Under Article 21, Cites Medical Board Report on Severe Foetal Abnormalities →
Q103.

According to the Karnataka High Court order, up to how many weeks of pregnancy does the statute provide for medical termination without court interference?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.20 weeks
  • B.22 weeks✓ Correct Answer
  • C.24 weeks
  • D.26 weeks
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The bench noted in its order that 'the statute provides for medical termination of pregnancy without court interference so long as the foetus is 22 weeks old.' This is a specific data point from the article.

Source: Karnataka HC Permits MTP for 32-Week Pregnancy Under Article 21, Cites Medical Board Report on Severe Foetal Abnormalities →
Q104.

What was the primary legal rationale used by the Karnataka High Court to permit the termination of a 32-week pregnancy?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The parents' financial inability to raise a child
  • B.The medical board's opinion on severe foetal abnormalities and the right to bodily autonomy under Article 21✓ Correct Answer
  • C.A directive from the Supreme Court to allow all late-term abortions
  • D.The failure of the state government to provide healthcare
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court's decision was based on the medical board's finding of severe neurological deficits and the principle that MTP is a right related to bodily autonomy under Article 21, especially when no statutory remedy is available beyond 24 weeks.

Source: Karnataka HC Permits MTP for 32-Week Pregnancy Under Article 21, Cites Medical Board Report on Severe Foetal Abnormalities →
Q105.

The Telangana Government Order GO.MS 6 implements provisions of which central legislation?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
  • B.The Code on Wages, 2019✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972
  • D.The Contract Labour (Regulation & Abolition) Act, 1970
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the GO activates the provisions of the Centre's Code on Wages, 2019, repealing the old Minimum Wages Act. The other acts are separate labor laws not mentioned in the context of this reform.

Source: Telangana Bans Cash Wages, Mandates E-transfers & Extends Minimum Wage to Gig Workers via GO.MS 6 Under Code on Wages 2019 →
Q106.

Consider the following statements regarding Telangana's new wage order:

1. It mandates wage payments only through electronic transfers or bank checks, explicitly banning cash.

2. It extends minimum wage protections to agricultural workers under the new skill categories.

3. It introduces overtime compensation at double the standard rate for work on public holidays and weekly rest days.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says payouts via paper cash are banned and wages must be disbursed electronically. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article specifies the order categorizes 'non-agricultural, commercial, and industrial setups', excluding agriculture. Statement 3 is correct as the article states overtime on public holidays and rest days is compensated at double the rate.

Source: Telangana Bans Cash Wages, Mandates E-transfers & Extends Minimum Wage to Gig Workers via GO.MS 6 Under Code on Wages 2019 →
Q107.

According to the Telangana GO, what is the revised minimum wage for a 'Skilled' worker in Zone 1 (Municipal Corporations)?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Rs 13,772
  • B.Rs 16,000
  • C.Rs 17,000
  • D.Rs 18,500✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides the revised wages for Zone 1: Unskilled (Rs 16,000), Semi-skilled (Rs 17,000), Skilled (Rs 18,500), and Highly Skilled (Rs 20,000). Rs 13,772 was the old wage for the Skilled category.

Source: Telangana Bans Cash Wages, Mandates E-transfers & Extends Minimum Wage to Gig Workers via GO.MS 6 Under Code on Wages 2019 →
Q108.

What is a key objective of Telangana's move to categorize the state into three zones (Municipal Corporations, Municipalities, Rural Areas) for wage fixation?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To uniformly apply the same minimum wage across the entire state.
  • B.To encourage labor-intensive industries to set up in rural areas with lower wage overheads.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To ensure gig workers receive higher wages than traditional workers.
  • D.To simplify the process of cash wage distribution in remote areas.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the zone distinction lets industrial developers set up labour-intensive projects in lower-overhead rural zones while managing corporate setups in urban centres. The other options are incorrect: wages are not uniform (they vary by zone), the article does not compare gig vs traditional worker wages, and cash wages are banned, not simplified.

Source: Telangana Bans Cash Wages, Mandates E-transfers & Extends Minimum Wage to Gig Workers via GO.MS 6 Under Code on Wages 2019 →
Q109.

India and Australia are co-leads of a specific Working Group under which regional organisation, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC)
  • B.Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
  • C.Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India and Australia, as co-leads of the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) Working Group on Maritime Safety and Security, look forward to jointly hosting an exercise. IORA is the correct regional organisation mentioned.

Source: India & Australia Agree to Advance Maritime, Undersea Domain Awareness; Joint Roadmap & MLSA Under 2020 Agreement →
Q110.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-Australia Defence Ministers' Dialogue:

1. The second edition of the dialogue was co-chaired in New Delhi by Defence Ministers Rajnath Singh and Richard Marles.

2. The ministers agreed to progress collaborative maritime domain awareness activities but did not discuss undersea domain awareness.

3. They welcomed the evolution of Army Exercise Austrahind to focus on amphibious combat and littoral manoeuvres.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 3
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the ministers agreed to progress maritime domain awareness activities AND to explore opportunities to enhance undersea domain awareness. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: India & Australia Agree to Advance Maritime, Undersea Domain Awareness; Joint Roadmap & MLSA Under 2020 Agreement →
Q111.

According to the joint statement, when was the inaugural edition of the India-Australia Defence Ministers' Dialogue held?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.October 9, 2024
  • B.October 9, 2025✓ Correct Answer
  • C.June 1, 2025
  • D.June 1, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifies that the ministers reflected on the enhanced cooperation 'since the inaugural edition of the dialogue on October 9 last year'. Given the current article is dated June 2026, 'last year' refers to 2025. The other dates are close distractors.

Source: India & Australia Agree to Advance Maritime, Undersea Domain Awareness; Joint Roadmap & MLSA Under 2020 Agreement →
Q112.

What is a primary strategic objective shared by India and Australia, as emphasised in their recent defence dialogue?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To establish a military alliance against common adversaries
  • B.To maintain a free, open, peaceful, stable and prosperous Indo-Pacific✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To develop a joint nuclear deterrent capability
  • D.To create a unified currency for bilateral trade
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly quotes the joint statement, noting that the ministers 'affirmed the importance of enhancing cooperation... to help maintain a free, open, peaceful, stable and prosperous Indo-Pacific'. This reflects their shared vision for the region's strategic architecture, not an alliance or nuclear deterrent.

Source: India & Australia Agree to Advance Maritime, Undersea Domain Awareness; Joint Roadmap & MLSA Under 2020 Agreement →
Q113.

Which institute is responsible for conducting the National Family Health Survey (NFHS) in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
  • B.International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Institute of Nutrition (NIN)
  • D.National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the NFHS is conducted by the International Institute of Population Sciences (IIPS), under the supervision of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. This is a key static fact.

Source: NFHS-6 Factsheet Reduces Key Indicators from 131 to 101, Omits Sex Ratio, Cancer Screening Data for 'Data Harmonisation' →
Q114.

Consider the following statements regarding the National Family Health Survey-6 (NFHS-6):

1. Its factsheet was released on May 29, 2026, and contains more key indicators than the previous NFHS-5.

2. Data on cancer screening and out-of-pocket expenditure for delivery have been omitted from the NFHS-6 factsheet.

3. The survey is conducted by the International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: NFHS-6 factsheet has 101 indicators, which is fewer than the 131 in NFHS-5. Statement 2 is correct: The article lists cancer screening and out-of-pocket delivery expenditure among the omitted indicators. Statement 3 is correct: IIPS conducts the NFHS. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: NFHS-6 Factsheet Reduces Key Indicators from 131 to 101, Omits Sex Ratio, Cancer Screening Data for 'Data Harmonisation' →
Q115.

According to the NFHS-5 data mentioned in the article, what percentage of people were screened for cervical cancer?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.0.5%
  • B.0.9%
  • C.1.5%
  • D.1.9%✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that NFHS-5 data showed 1.9% of people were screened for cervical cancer. For breast and oral cancers, the screening rate was 0.9%. This is a precise data point for prelims.

Source: NFHS-6 Factsheet Reduces Key Indicators from 131 to 101, Omits Sex Ratio, Cancer Screening Data for 'Data Harmonisation' →
Q116.

What is the primary reason cited by the Health Ministry for omitting several key indicators from the NFHS-6 factsheet?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce the survey's operational cost and complexity
  • B.Lack of reliable data collection for those indicators in NFHS-6
  • C.An attempt at 'data harmonisation' with other existing surveys✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To focus the factsheet only on indicators showing positive trends
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, Health Ministry sources explained that the omissions were an attempt at 'data harmonisation' because several parameters were being reported independently by other surveys like the Sample Registration Survey (SRS) and scheme-specific reports.

Source: NFHS-6 Factsheet Reduces Key Indicators from 131 to 101, Omits Sex Ratio, Cancer Screening Data for 'Data Harmonisation' →
Q117.

Which Indian ministry is primarily responsible for handling high-level bilateral diplomatic visits like that of the Myanmar President?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Defence
  • D.Ministry of Finance
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is the nodal agency for India's foreign relations and diplomatic engagements, including coordinating state visits and bilateral meetings. The Foreign Secretary, who briefed the media, is a senior officer of the MEA.

Source: Myanmar Assures India on 1,643-km Border Security, Cooperation on Kaladan Project Amid Rakhine Hostilities →
Q118.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. Myanmar President U Min Aung Hlaing assured that Myanmar's territory would not be used by groups acting against India's security.

2. The India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway project is delayed solely due to financial constraints.

3. India has repatriated over 2,400 of its citizens from cyber scam compounds in Myanmar in the last year-and-a-half.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the President's assurance reported in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the delay is attributed to the security situation and active ethnic armed groups, not just financial constraints. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned by Foreign Secretary Vikram Misri.

Source: Myanmar Assures India on 1,643-km Border Security, Cooperation on Kaladan Project Amid Rakhine Hostilities →
Q119.

What is the length of the land border that India shares with Myanmar, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1,458 km
  • B.1,643 km✓ Correct Answer
  • C.1,751 km
  • D.2,095 km
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that stability in Myanmar is important for the security of people living along the '1,643-km-long border' that India shares with Myanmar. The other figures are close distractors representing India's borders with other countries.

Source: Myanmar Assures India on 1,643-km Border Security, Cooperation on Kaladan Project Amid Rakhine Hostilities →
Q120.

What is a primary reason cited in the article for India's continued engagement with Myanmar, despite its internal political situation?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To secure access to Myanmar's oil and gas reserves exclusively.
  • B.Because stability in Myanmar is crucial for India's Northeast security and connectivity to Southeast Asia.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To mediate a peace deal between Myanmar and Bangladesh.
  • D.To counter China's influence by offering military bases in Myanmar.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Foreign Secretary explicitly stated that 'stability and peace in Myanmar is a major interest for India, not just for the security of the Northeast... but also for our interests, such as connectivity to Southeast Asia.' The other options either overstate or are not supported by the article's content.

Source: Myanmar Assures India on 1,643-km Border Security, Cooperation on Kaladan Project Amid Rakhine Hostilities →
Q121.

The Rajasthan High Court, in the Asaram case, upheld a life sentence for rape of a minor. Under which major legislation are provisions for punishment in such cases primarily governed?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Indian Penal Code, 1860
  • B.The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
  • D.The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

While rape is defined under the IPC, the POCSO Act is the special law enacted to deal specifically with sexual offences against children. It provides for stringent punishments and child-friendly procedures. The article mentions the victim was a 'minor disciple', placing the crime squarely under POCSO.

Source: Rajasthan HC Cancels Asaram's Bail, Upholds Life Term for Rape of Minor, Directs Surrender After 15 Court Reliefs →
Q122.

Consider the following statements regarding the Asaram case as per the news article:

1. The Rajasthan High Court cancelled Asaram's bail and directed his surrender in its judgment delivered on May 27, 2026.

2. Asaram had been out on interim bail continuously since January 2025, granted solely by the Supreme Court.

3. The court noted he had served over 12 years of his sentence, including remission, but the actual custody period was about 11.5 years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Rajasthan HC pronounced its judgement on May 27, 2026, upholding the life term and cancelling bail. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the SC granted interim bail in Jan 2025, the Rajasthan and Gujarat HCs also extended his bail subsequently; he was not out solely on SC bail. Statement 3 is correct as per the article which mentions he served '12 years, 11 months and 27 days... including remission' and the actual custody was '11 years, 6 months and 3 days'.

Source: Rajasthan HC Cancels Asaram's Bail, Upholds Life Term for Rape of Minor, Directs Surrender After 15 Court Reliefs →
Q123.

According to the article, for approximately how many times did Asaram Bapu obtain court-sanctioned medical relief (through permissions, parole, bail) between March 2024 and May 2026?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.About 10 times
  • B.About 12 times
  • C.About 15 times✓ Correct Answer
  • D.About 20 times
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states in the summary and the detailed timeline that Asaram 'cited his deteriorating health to obtain court relief at least 15 times' over the past two years. The list provided also details around 15 specific instances.

Source: Rajasthan HC Cancels Asaram's Bail, Upholds Life Term for Rape of Minor, Directs Surrender After 15 Court Reliefs →
Q124.

What was the primary legal and philosophical rationale given by the Rajasthan High Court for cancelling Asaram's bail despite his failing health?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The cost of providing medical security was becoming too high for the state to bear.
  • B.His age and ailments were found to be exaggerated based on new medical reports.
  • C.The court held that the convict's frailty cannot justify ignoring the victim's voice and shaking societal faith in justice.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.He was found to have violated bail conditions by frequently traveling abroad for treatment.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes the court's observation: 'his frail health "cannot justify ignoring the victim's voice. Quiet. Devastating. Irrefutable." To ignore it would be to shake society’s faith in the criminal justice system...'. This reflects the core judicial reasoning prioritizing the victim's justice and systemic integrity over compassionate grounds for the convict.

Source: Rajasthan HC Cancels Asaram's Bail, Upholds Life Term for Rape of Minor, Directs Surrender After 15 Court Reliefs →
Q125.

Which international treaty, specifically mentioned in the India-Australia talks, forms the legal basis for freedom of navigation and overflight in maritime zones?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Geneva Conventions
  • B.The United Nations Charter
  • C.The 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that both ministers underscored the importance of freedom of navigation and overflight consistent with international law, particularly the 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).

Source: India-Australia Agree to Develop Defence MoU, Stress UNCLOS & Indo-Pacific Security Amid West Asia Crisis →
Q126.

Consider the following statements regarding the high-level talks between India and Australia:

1. The two countries agreed to begin developing a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) regarding defence articles and services.

2. The talks emphasized the importance of the Quad's Indo-Pacific Maritime Surveillance Collaboration (IPMSC) to be implemented initially in the South China Sea.

3. The ministers welcomed Australia's first defence trade mission to India and agreed to explore further exchanges through a Joint Working Group.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Only 2 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the IPMSC initiative is to be implemented initially in the Indian Ocean Region, not the South China Sea. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the welcome for the defence trade mission and exploration of exchanges through the Joint Working Group on Defence Industry, Research, and Materiel.

Source: India-Australia Agree to Develop Defence MoU, Stress UNCLOS & Indo-Pacific Security Amid West Asia Crisis →
Q127.

According to the news, which of the following regional partnerships did the India-Australia talks welcome for its growing strategic convergence in the Indo-Pacific?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa)
  • B.Quad (India, US, Japan, Australia)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations)
  • D.SCO (Shanghai Cooperation Organisation)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: "The two Ministers welcomed the growing strategic convergence between Australia, India, Japan and the United States (U.S.) in the Indo-Pacific..." This grouping of four nations is commonly referred to as the Quad or Quadrilateral Security Dialogue.

Source: India-Australia Agree to Develop Defence MoU, Stress UNCLOS & Indo-Pacific Security Amid West Asia Crisis →
Q128.

What was a primary strategic objective highlighted in the India-Australia talks regarding the Indo-Pacific region?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To establish a military alliance against a specific country.
  • B.To promote a free, open, peaceful, stable, and prosperous regional order.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To create a new trade bloc excluding China.
  • D.To reduce dependency on maritime trade routes.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly quotes the joint statement: "The Ministers affirmed the importance of enhancing cooperation with regional partners to help maintain a free, open, peaceful, stable and prosperous Indo-Pacific." This reflects the shared vision for the region's strategic architecture.

Source: India-Australia Agree to Develop Defence MoU, Stress UNCLOS & Indo-Pacific Security Amid West Asia Crisis →
Q129.

Which organization operates the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) system in India?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  • B.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • C.National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that NPCI runs the UPI system. It is an initiative of RBI and the Indian Banks' Association (IBA) but is operated by NPCI as the umbrella organisation for retail payments.

Source: UPI Hits Record ₹29.9 Lakh Cr in May 2026; Volume at 23.2 Billion with 19% YoY Growth →
Q130.

Consider the following statements regarding UPI transactions in May 2026:

1. The value of transactions reached a record high of ₹29.90 lakh crore.

2. The volume of transactions grew by 19% on an annual basis.

3. The average ticket size for UPI transactions has been steadily increasing since 2021.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 19% growth was in value terms, not volume; volume grew by 24%. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article mentions the average ticket size has declined from ₹1,848 in 2021 to ₹1,313 in 2025.

Source: UPI Hits Record ₹29.9 Lakh Cr in May 2026; Volume at 23.2 Billion with 19% YoY Growth →
Q131.

According to the news, what was the volume of UPI transactions in April 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.18.67 billion
  • B.22.35 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.23.20 billion
  • D.29.03 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "The UPI transaction in volume terms was 22.35 billion recorded in April, 2026." Option A is the volume for May 2025, C is for May 2026, and D is the value for April 2026 in lakh crore, not billion.

Source: UPI Hits Record ₹29.9 Lakh Cr in May 2026; Volume at 23.2 Billion with 19% YoY Growth →
Q132.

What does the declining average ticket size of UPI transactions, as mentioned in the article, primarily indicate?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.A decrease in the overall adoption of digital payments.
  • B.A sign of a maturing ecosystem with wider use for small-value transactions.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Increased reliance on UPI for high-value business transactions.
  • D.A technical flaw in the UPI system limiting transaction amounts.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes the Cashfree Payments CEO stating that the decline in average ticket size "is not a concern, it is a sign of a maturing ecosystem." It indicates UPI is being used more frequently for everyday, small-ticket purchases, deepening its penetration.

Source: UPI Hits Record ₹29.9 Lakh Cr in May 2026; Volume at 23.2 Billion with 19% YoY Growth →
Q133.

Which constitutional body is responsible for making recommendations on GST rates and related matters?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Finance Commission
  • B.GST Council✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC)
  • D.NITI Aayog
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The GST Council is the constitutional body established under Article 279A. It is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and includes state Finance Ministers. It recommends GST rates, exemptions, and laws.

Source: GST Collections at ₹1.94 Lakh Cr in May 2026, Show 3.2% YoY Growth Amid Strong Domestic Demand →
Q134.

Consider the following statements regarding GST collections for May 2026 as per the news article:

1. Gross GST collection showed a year-on-year growth of 3.2%.

2. The growth in taxable supplies for the services sector was higher than that for the goods sector.

3. Net GST revenue, after adjusting for refunds, was approximately ₹1.67 lakh crore.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as gross GST grew 3.2% to ₹1.94 lakh crore. Statement 2 is incorrect; taxable supplies of goods grew 26.9% while services grew 22.2%, meaning goods growth was higher. Statement 3 is correct as net GST revenue was about ₹1.67 lakh crore after adjusting refunds of ₹27,281 crore.

Source: GST Collections at ₹1.94 Lakh Cr in May 2026, Show 3.2% YoY Growth Amid Strong Domestic Demand →
Q135.

According to the news article, what was the amount of Integrated GST (IGST) collected specifically from imports in May 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹37,397 crore
  • B.₹45,143 crore
  • C.₹51,990 crore
  • D.₹59,654 crore✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that 'IGST collection from imports rose 19.1% during May to ₹59,654 crore'. The other figures correspond to CGST (₹37,397 cr), SGST (₹45,143 cr), and IGST from domestic transactions (₹51,990 cr).

Source: GST Collections at ₹1.94 Lakh Cr in May 2026, Show 3.2% YoY Growth Amid Strong Domestic Demand →
Q136.

The growth in GST collections, as reported in the news, is primarily seen as an indicator of what?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Increase in direct tax compliance
  • B.Level of formal economic activity and domestic consumption✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Reduction in the fiscal deficit of states
  • D.Success of disinvestment initiatives
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

GST is an indirect tax on consumption. Rising GST collections, especially when driven by growth in taxable supplies of goods (26.9%) and services (22.2%), directly reflect higher economic transactions within the formal sector and robust domestic demand.

Source: GST Collections at ₹1.94 Lakh Cr in May 2026, Show 3.2% YoY Growth Amid Strong Domestic Demand →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 1 June 2026?▼

This page contains 136 current affairs questions from 1 June 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 1 June 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. Under which fundamental right did the Delhi High Court root th…
  2. Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi High Cou…
  3. Q3. According to the Delhi High Court judgment, within what timefr…
  4. Q4. was the primary rationale of the Delhi High Court for ordering…
  5. Q5. ministry is primarily responsible for preparing the fresh deli…
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the developments m…
  7. Q7. According to the article, how many states have assembly electi…
  8. Q8. is the primary concern of southern states like Tamil Nadu rega…
  9. Q9. institution is responsible for the management of foreign excha…
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's operatio…
  11. Q11. According to the article, what was the amount of foreign curre…
  12. Q12. was the primary consequence of the RBI selling foreign currenc…
  13. Q13. national-level board of education issued the circular mandatin…
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the three-language…
  15. Q15. From which date has the CBSE circular mandated the implementat…
  16. Q16. is a primary constitutional argument raised by petitioners aga…
  17. Q17. Under which Act are Lok Adalats established in India?
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Allahab…
  19. Q19. The Allahabad High Court ruling that Lok Adalats cannot grant …
  20. Q20. was the primary legal rationale given by the Allahabad High Co…
  21. Q21. constitutional article guarantees the freedom of conscience an…
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the legal status o…
  23. Q23. In which year did the Patna High Court deliver the landmark ju…
  24. Q24. is a primary criticism, as per the article, of the Janjati Sur…
  25. Q25. Under which Act are Special Courts established to try offences…
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the issues discuss…
  27. Q27. According to the empirical studies cited in the article, what …
  28. Q28. is the primary criticism, as per the article, of India's curre…
  29. Q29. On which river is the newly approved Padma Barrage located in …
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the Padma Barrage …
  31. Q31. is the total length of the approved Padma Barrage structure?
  32. Q32. is a major criticism raised by environmental groups regarding …
  33. Q33. US office, led by chief negotiator Brendan Lynch, is conductin…
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the India-US trade…
  35. Q35. According to the article, what was the gross Foreign Direct In…
  36. Q36. is a primary reason cited in the article for India's urgency t…
  37. Q37. The India-Oman Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (C…
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the India-Oman Com…
  39. Q39. According to the article, what was the value of Indian exports…
  40. Q40. is a primary strategic objective for India in signing the Comp…
  41. Q41. expressed concern over elevated sovereign bond yields and a po…
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the trends discuss…
  43. Q43. According to the article, what was the approximate yield on 10…
  44. Q44. What, according to the analysis in the article, would be requi…
  45. Q45. statutory authority approves Tiger Conservation Plans (TCPs) f…
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the Lloyds Metals …
  47. Q47. is the area of forest land proposed for diversion for the Lloy…
  48. Q48. is the primary statutory significance of tiger corridors ident…
  49. Q49. Under which ministry does the newly formed Online Gaming Autho…
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements: 1. Under parole, the perio…
  51. Q51. is the approximate value of the tax demand revived by the Supr…
  52. Q52. was a key outcome of Cyprus President Nikos Christodoulides's …
  53. Q53. U.S. government agency issued the guidance to close the loopho…
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the recent US guid…
  55. Q55. According to a chip industry source mentioned in the article, …
  56. Q56. is the primary strategic objective behind the US move to close…
  57. Q57. Under which Act was the convict sentenced to 'rigorous impriso…
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi POCSO co…
  59. Q59. was the total amount of compensation awarded by the Delhi POCS…
  60. Q60. of the following was identified as a primary aggravating circu…
  61. Q61. ministry is primarily responsible for the National Family Heal…
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the findings of NF…
  63. Q63. According to the NFHS-VI data mentioned in the article, what p…
  64. Q64. is the primary critique, as per the article, of the government…
  65. Q65. ministry is primarily responsible for the implementation of th…
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the India-Oman Com…
  67. Q67. According to the news, what was the value of bilateral trade b…
  68. Q68. is a key strategic advantage for India highlighted in the arti…
  69. Q69. ministry is responsible for the compilation and release of the…
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the revised Index …
  71. Q71. According to the news, what was the growth rate of India's Ind…
  72. Q72. is a primary objective of revising the base year of the Index …
  73. Q73. The article discusses proposed reforms for gig workers. Which …
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding gig workers as dis…
  75. Q75. According to the article, what is the typical monthly earning …
  76. Q76. is a key challenge highlighted in the article regarding the pr…
  77. Q77. ministry is primarily responsible for conducting bilateral tal…
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Prim…
  79. Q79. According to the article, when did the military junta seize po…
  80. Q80. was the primary focus of the bilateral talks between India and…
  81. Q81. statutory body is responsible for approving the Tiger Conserva…
  82. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  83. Q83. According to the United Nations World Cities Report 2026 cited…
  84. Q84. was the primary strategic significance for India highlighted i…
  85. Q85. The 'Troika', which imposed austerity measures on Greece durin…
  86. Q86. Consider the following statements regarding austerity: 1. Aus…
  87. Q87. According to the article, what was the approximate decline in …
  88. Q88. is a primary reason cited in the article for India's particula…
  89. Q89. Through which entity does the Government of India provide the …
  90. Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the Emergency Cred…
  91. Q91. As per the news, what is the total estimated outlay (size) of …
  92. Q92. is the primary stated objective of launching ECLGS 5.0, as men…
  93. Q93. The 'Right to be Forgotten' is primarily considered a facet of…
  94. Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi High Cou…
  95. Q95. many petitions did the Delhi High Court decide through its ord…
  96. Q96. is the primary objective of the 'de-indexing' directed by the …
  97. Q97. ministry is primarily responsible for negotiating and implemen…
  98. Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the India-Oman Com…
  99. Q99. According to the article, what was the value of India's energy…
  100. Q100. is a primary strategic advantage for India in strengthening tr…
  101. Q101. Under which Article of the Constitution did the Karnataka High…
  102. Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka High…
  103. Q103. According to the Karnataka High Court order, up to how many we…
  104. Q104. was the primary legal rationale used by the Karnataka High Cou…
  105. Q105. The Telangana Government Order GO.MS 6 implements provisions o…
  106. Q106. Consider the following statements regarding Telangana's new wa…
  107. Q107. According to the Telangana GO, what is the revised minimum wag…
  108. Q108. is a key objective of Telangana's move to categorize the state…
  109. Q109. India and Australia are co-leads of a specific Working Group u…
  110. Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the India-Australi…
  111. Q111. According to the joint statement, when was the inaugural editi…
  112. Q112. is a primary strategic objective shared by India and Australia…
  113. Q113. institute is responsible for conducting the National Family He…
  114. Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the National Famil…
  115. Q115. According to the NFHS-5 data mentioned in the article, what pe…
  116. Q116. is the primary reason cited by the Health Ministry for omittin…
  117. Q117. Indian ministry is primarily responsible for handling high-lev…
  118. Q118. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Myan…
  119. Q119. is the length of the land border that India shares with Myanma…
  120. Q120. is a primary reason cited in the article for India's continued…
  121. Q121. The Rajasthan High Court, in the Asaram case, upheld a life se…
  122. Q122. Consider the following statements regarding the Asaram case as…
  123. Q123. According to the article, for approximately how many times did…
  124. Q124. was the primary legal and philosophical rationale given by the…
  125. Q125. international treaty, specifically mentioned in the India-Aust…
  126. Q126. Consider the following statements regarding the high-level tal…
  127. Q127. According to the news, which of the following regional partner…
  128. Q128. was a primary strategic objective highlighted in the India-Aus…
  129. Q129. organization operates the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) sys…
  130. Q130. Consider the following statements regarding UPI transactions i…
  131. Q131. According to the news, what was the volume of UPI transactions…
  132. Q132. does the declining average ticket size of UPI transactions, as…
  133. Q133. constitutional body is responsible for making recommendations …
  134. Q134. Consider the following statements regarding GST collections fo…
  135. Q135. According to the news article, what was the amount of Integrat…
  136. Q136. The growth in GST collections, as reported in the news, is pri…