27 May 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

Paragraph 6 of the 10th Schedule states that questions of disqualification of a member of a House shall be referred to the Chairman or Speaker of that House. For Rajya Sabha, it is the Chairman.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the 10th Schedule was introduced by the 52nd Amendment. Statement 2 is correct as the 'split' provision (Paragraph 3) was indeed deleted by the 91st Amendment. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Supreme Court in Subhash Desai vs Principal Secretary (2023) declined to sever the link between the legislature party and the political party, reinforcing the primacy of the political party.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that on April 24, 2026, seven out of ten sitting AAP MPs publicly announced their decision to merge with the BJP. May 27, 2026, is the article's publication date.

Explanation

The core controversy, as explained in the article, is interpreting Paragraph 4. The key question is whether the exemption applies only when the 'original political party' merges, or if the consent of two-thirds of its legislators alone (as per the deeming fiction in Paragraph 4(2)) can constitute a valid merger, effectively allowing the legislature wing to override the parent political party.

Explanation

The Election Commission of India (ECI) is the constitutional body under Article 324 responsible for the superintendence, direction, and control of elections, including exercises like the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Bench is led by CJI Surya Kant along with Justice Joymalya Bagchi. Statement 2 is correct: The petitions accused the ECI of arbitrarily assuming powers to 'determine citizenship'. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Court directed the ECI to publish details of the 65 lakh voters who were purged (deleted) from the draft roll, not added.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The final SIR list in Bihar had shown the total tally of eligible voters in the State as 7.42 crore.'

Explanation

The article states: 'One of the effective judicial interventions was to include Aadhaar as the 12th in the list of 11 ‘indicative’ documents that voters could file as proof of their identity or residence.' This highlights the Court's role in making the process more inclusive.

Explanation

Article 142(1) of the Constitution specifically grants the Supreme Court the power to pass any decree or order necessary for doing 'complete justice' in any cause or matter before it. This is an inherent power of the Court as the custodian of the Constitution.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Article 142 empowers the Supreme Court to pass orders for complete justice, acting beyond procedural constraints. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article cites the Supreme Court's decision in Anil Kumar Jain vs. Maya Jain (2009) which held that High Courts' powers under Article 226 are not at par with Article 142. Statement 3 is incorrect; the power is inherent and constitutional, not statutory.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that while National Highways comprise only 2% of roads, they account for 30% of fatalities. This alarming statistic was a contributing factor in the Supreme Court's decision to elevate safe travel as a fundamental right.

Explanation

The Supreme Court declared the Right to safe travel on National Highways as an integral part of the Right to Life under Article 21 of the Constitution. This expansion of Article 21's scope is a classic example of judicial interpretation to include essential facets of a dignified life.

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, the RBI pays dividends to the government under the RBI Act, 1934 (Section 47). This is a key static fact about the central bank's governance structure.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the buffer is at 7.5%, not 6.5%. Statement 3 is incorrect; RBI profits also come from foreign exchange interventions and other investments, not solely from bonds.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the dividend 'will cover roughly 20 per cent of the latter’s deficits'. This is a key data point linking the dividend's magnitude to its fiscal impact.

Explanation

The article highlights a 'perception problem' where institutional investors may see the RBI-government nexus as defined by dividend math, risking assumptions about central bank independence. This can affect currency valuation and foreign investment, as referenced with the US Fed example.

Explanation

The Supreme Court judgment specifically stated that the Election Commission of India was empowered under Article 324 of the Constitution to examine citizenship for the limited purpose of verifying inclusion in the electoral roll.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the Court rejected the petitioners' argument that SIR reversed the burden of proof. Statement 2 is correct as the judgment said SIR decisions are subject to judicial review. Statement 3 is correct as the Court directed the ECI to publish a booth-level list of purged voters with reasons.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the final list in Bihar showed the total tally of eligible voters in the State as 7.42 crore. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The article mentions that one effective judicial intervention was to include Aadhaar as the 12th in the list of 11 'indicative' documents that voters could file as proof, thereby expanding the options available to citizens.

Explanation

Article 324 of the Indian Constitution specifically vests the superintendence, direction, and control of all elections in the Election Commission of India. This is the source of its plenary powers, as referenced in the Supreme Court judgment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the bench said the exercise cannot be struck down as ultra vires merely because it adopts a different procedure. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Court clarified the ECI's inquiry is 'limited' and does not amount to a final declaration of citizenship. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions 'Any exclusion will be subject to review by the appropriate authority.'

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The court had reserved its decision on a batch of petitions challenging the ECI’s powers on January 29 this year.' Since the article is from May 2026, 'this year' refers to 2026.

Explanation

As per the article, the ECI's stand was that 'the power flows from Article 326 of the Constitution dealing with universal adult suffrage, which gives the right to vote to only citizens, and this empowers it to ensure that those on the roll are indeed citizens.' The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

As per the article, Section 4 of HAMA, 1956 provides that the Act's provisions have an overriding effect on any text, rule, or interpretation of Hindu law or any custom or usage prevailing before the Act's commencement.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The court ruled that a Hindu widow's right under HAMA is independent and does NOT require prior authorisation from her deceased husband. Statement 2 is correct as per the court's observation. Statement 3 is incorrect; the legal battle originated in 1984, not 1971 (the adoption deed was from 1971).

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the litigation has been pending since 1984, and the judgment was in 2026, making it a 42-year legal battle.

Explanation

The court used Sections 4 (overriding effect) and 5 (adoptions after commencement to be as per the Act) to establish that the statutory provisions of HAMA, 1956, take precedence over the requirements of the Banaras School of Hindu Law, which demanded a husband's prior consent.

Explanation

The Uniform Civil Code is mentioned in Article 44 under Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy) of the Indian Constitution. It directs the state to endeavour to secure a uniform civil code for its citizens.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states Assam is the third state after Uttarakhand and Gujarat to enact such a law, and Goa has had a UCC since 1961. Statement 2 is correct as STs are explicitly excluded. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the Bill ensures equal succession rights and bans polygamy.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Scheduled Tribes constitute 12.45% of Assam's population according to the 2011 Census. Option D (34.22%) is the percentage of Muslims in Assam, which is also mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article quotes the Chief Minister saying STs were excluded "as a mark of respect and because their age-old customary laws have rules and regulations similar to the UCC." The other options, while plausible in a broader context, are not mentioned in the provided article.

Explanation

The article states, 'The Ministry of Rural Development on May 23 released eight draft rules...' This ministry oversees rural development programs, including employment guarantee schemes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'It increases the number of working days from 100 to 125.' Statement 2 is incorrect because the article specifies exceptions: northeastern and Himalayan states as well as UTs with a legislature will have a 90% central funding burden, and UTs without a legislature will have 100% central funding. Statement 3 is correct: '...provides for a 60-day pause in the scheme during peak agricultural sowing and harvesting seasons...'

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The Union government has allocated Rs 95,692.31 crore for the VB-G RAM G scheme for this financial year (2026-27).' The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article explains under the 'Transitional Provisions': 'Their MGNREGS job cards, once renewed and verified through e-KYC, will remain valid for seeking employment under the VB-G RAM G Act.' This ensures continuity for existing beneficiaries. The article does not mention compensation, mandatory new cards, or priority allocation.

Explanation

The article states the Ministry of Home Affairs, under the Citizenship Act and the Foreigners' Tribunals, looks into aspects of citizenship contestations. The Court directed the EC to refer cases to the Competent Authority under the Citizenship Act, which is the MHA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Court upheld the SIR's validity. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Court specifically stated deletion 'does not amount to a declaration that the individual is not a citizen'. Statement 3 is correct as the Court directed the competent authority to take decisions 'preferably before the next Parliamentary, Assembly, Local Body elections'.

Explanation

The article states the Court termed its interventions to publish the complete list of 'approximately 65 lakh excluded electors'. This is a key factual data point from the ruling.

Explanation

The Court circumscribed the EC's power, terming it 'necessarily prima facie and contextual' and clarified it 'does not amount to a declaration that the individual is not a citizen of India; it merely reflects the Commission's inability to be satisfied, for electoral purposes, that the statutory conditions are met.' This is the core legal distinction established.

Explanation

The Supreme Court bench explicitly stated that the GST levy does not transgress Articles 366(12), which defines 'goods', and 366(12A), which defines 'Goods and Services Tax'. These are the foundational definitions in the Constitution for the GST framework.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Court upheld the 28% tax by classifying online gaming as betting. Statement 2 is correct as the bench comprised Justices J.B. Pardiwala and R. Mahadevan. Statement 3 is incorrect because the judgment overturned a Karnataka High Court decision, not a Gujarat High Court one.

Explanation

The article states that the GST department's show cause notice to GamesKraft Technologies Pvt Ltd sought payment of Rs 21,000 crores in dues. The other figures are distractors not mentioned in the provided content.

Explanation

The core implication of the classification is tax treatment. Under GST, 'betting and gambling' is taxed at 28%. The Court's ruling thus validates applying this highest slab rate to online gaming, as opposed to the 18% rate for services or other categories.

Explanation

The news article explicitly states that the 'Sports Ministry' notified the formation of the NSB and NST. The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports is commonly referred to as the Sports Ministry, making it the nodal ministry for this governance reform.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states NSB members have a term of three years, not five. Statement 2 is correct as per the line: 'The Tribunal will have powers similar to those of a civil court, and its orders will be executable as such.' Statement 3 is also correct as per the article: 'No civil court shall have jurisdiction to entertain any suit or proceeding in respect of any matter on which the Tribunal is empowered to determine.'

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The NST members, meanwhile, will have a fixed five-year term.' This is a direct factual data point from the news.

Explanation

The article states that the NST 'will be an independent quasi-judicial body to ensure speedy and cost-effective resolution of disputes and minimise sports litigations.' The other functions listed, like organizing events or athlete selection, are typically the roles of National Sports Federations, not the Tribunal.

Explanation

The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG) is the nodal ministry for exploration, production, refining, and distribution of petroleum and natural gas in India. It oversees entities like OMCs and the Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Ltd. (ISPRL).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article mentions India signed an agreement with the UAE to store 30 million tonnes of crude oil in India's SPR. Statement 2 is incorrect: The daily under-recoveries are estimated at ₹700-800 crore, not ₹1000 crore. Statement 3 is correct: The article suggests a one-time 13% hike beyond the existing 7% cumulative increase to eliminate OMC losses.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that estimates place daily losses for OMCs near ₹700 crore-₹800 crore during peak volatility caused by elevated global crude prices and the government's policy of shielding consumers.

Explanation

The core argument is that prolonged selling of fuel below cost weakens OMC balance sheets and strains public finances. A measured price hike would reduce this fiscal burden, stabilize OMCs, and encourage responsible consumption, as India's moderate CPI inflation provides some room for such correction.

Explanation

The Department of Food and Public Distribution under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution is the nodal agency for the implementation of the National Food Security Act (NFSA) and the Public Distribution System (PDS).

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the new limit is ₹2.5 lakh, not ₹3 lakh. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's mention of a proposed CBDC ration distribution system. Statement 3 is correct as the audit identified 7.71 lakh ineligible enrolments.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the Delhi Cabinet approved raising the annual family income eligibility limit for ration cards from ₹1.2 lakh to ₹2.5 lakh. The other options are the old limit or plausible distractors.

Explanation

The article explains that the CBDC wallet model deposits the subsidy equivalent to the entitled ration, allowing purchase of food grains from authorized shops. This ensures the subsidy is used for its intended purpose (food security) rather than unrestricted cash, reducing potential misuse.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that CAR-T cell therapy was 'Originally developed for aggressive blood cancers' and is now being explored for autoimmune diseases.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article describes the process of modifying T-cells to eliminate rogue B-cells. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the possibility of long-term remission and reducing dependence on immunosuppressants. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states CAR-T therapy has completed Phase 2 trials for SLE, not Phase 3, and major barriers remain before it becomes part of routine care.

Explanation

The article directly states: 'According to studies, autoimmune disorders now affect around one in 10 people globally.' The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions: 'CAR-T therapy can trigger cytokine release syndrome, a severe inflammatory reaction along with neurological complications.' The other risks are not mentioned in the provided article content.

Explanation

While the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is chaired by the Prime Minister, its executive body, the Standing Committee (SC-NBWL), is chaired by the Union Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. This is a crucial static GK distinction often tested.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the study was conducted by the National Centre for Sustainable Coastal Management (NCSCM), not WII, and the projects were located beyond 5.5 km. Statement 3 is incorrect as the sanctuary is notified under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

Explanation

The NCSCM study concluded that the 'zone of influence' around the sanctuary extended only up to about 5.1 km. The 10 km option is the default Eco-Sensitive Zone distance, not the scientifically determined influence zone from this study.

Explanation

The article states that excluding villages from the notified boundary could significantly shrink the de facto 10-km ESZ around Pulicat, potentially opening up surrounding areas to further industrialisation from nearby industrial hubs. This is the core environmental implication discussed.

Explanation

The Supreme Court, in multiple judgments, has recognized that the right to life and liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution includes the right to reproductive autonomy. This is explicitly mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the MTP Act provisions mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is also correct as the article lists these specific categories for termination between 20-24 weeks. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article states that for pregnancies beyond 24 weeks, a woman can approach High Courts or the Supreme Court, not exclusively the Supreme Court.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "According to the MTP Act, a doctor can perform an MTP procedure for pregnancies up to 20 weeks." For pregnancies between 20-24 weeks, the opinion of two doctors is required.

Explanation

The article discusses how these rulings have triggered debates on the right to life, "often pitting the unborn child against the woman’s rights." The Supreme Court's April ruling prioritized the minor's "reproductive autonomy" over fetal viability, centralizing this conflict.

Explanation

The article mentions CERT-In as part of the government's response to cyber risks. While NCIIPC also deals with critical infrastructure protection, the article specifically names CERT-In.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states connectivity improves efficiency but creates opportunities for remote disruption. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article argues security must go beyond IT to include OT and IoT. Statement 3 is correct as the article calls for stricter policy, certification, and indigenous tech.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the security challenge involves the triad of IT (digital space), OT (physical world of plants/machinery), and IoT (which connects them). The other options are generic security concepts not specifically mentioned.

Explanation

The article highlights the need for rigorous certification (like STQC tests for cameras) and stronger enforcement of procurement policies favoring trusted products. It does not recommend banning all foreign tech or creating a new ministry.

Explanation

The NCLAT was established under Section 410 of the Companies Act, 2013. While it hears appeals against CCI orders (under the Competition Act), its own creation is rooted in the Companies Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the SC set aside both the CCI's December 2021 order and the NCLAT's June 2022 order. Statement 2 is incorrect; the CCI had suspended the deal and levied a penalty, not approved it. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's text. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the CCI's order of December 17, 2021, had levied a ₹202 crore penalty on Amazon. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The core implication of the verdict is the affirmation of the Supreme Court's constitutional power of judicial review. By setting aside orders of the CCI (a regulator) and the NCLAT (an appellate tribunal), the SC has underscored that their decisions are subject to judicial scrutiny for legal validity.

Explanation

Education is a subject under the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule. This allows both the Central and State governments to legislate on it, which is why Maharashtra is enacting its own law and the Centre can issue guidelines.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the SC guidelines are binding in the absence of state law. Statement 3 is incorrect as the proposed policy aims for fee transparency, not direct fee regulation.

Explanation

The article states that the state school education department's efforts have seen no further development since a committee of experts submitted a draft of recommendations in 2018.

Explanation

The article mentions that integrated coaching institutes are resisting regulation because proposed rules like caps on student enrolment and norms for batch sizes could adversely impact their business models, which often rely on large student intakes.

Explanation

As per the article, the RBI uses Open Market Operations (OMOs) to adjust rupee liquidity conditions. This is a core function of India's central bank as part of its monetary policy toolkit.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states BESS technology stores electricity chemically and lithium-ion (LFP) batteries are dominant. Statement 2 is correct as an inverted yield curve is mentioned as a reliable predictor of recession. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states El Niño is a stationary system, whereas the MJO is a moving system.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that ENSO occurs in irregular cycles of 2 to 7 years. This is a factual detail often tested in Prelims questions on climate phenomena.

Explanation

The article highlights the mismatch between renewable energy generation (which is not constant) and electricity demand. Energy storage systems address this core challenge by storing excess power when generation is high and discharging it when needed, making renewable power dispatchable.

Explanation

The article mentions Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal as the counterpart to the USTR. The Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal body for formulating India's trade policy and negotiating trade agreements.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states the new tariffs follow the Section 301 investigation launched in March against scores of countries, including India. Statement 3 is correct, as reported by the RBI.

Explanation

The article states that gross FDI inflows were $94.53 billion, but the net figure was a mere $7.65 billion. The other options are distractors: $94.53 billion is gross FDI, $13.6 billion is capital outflow in March, and $4.17 billion is FPI inflow in February.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that several countries are holding capex investment, awaiting Washington's new tariff architecture. For India, a slowdown in investments has weakened its currency. Finalizing the deal under the agreed framework before the new US tariffs are set is crucial to secure a comparative advantage and stabilize investments.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the NCRB report 'Accidental Deaths and Suicides in India 2024'. The NCRB, under the Ministry of Home Affairs, is responsible for compiling and publishing national crime statistics.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the CIC recommended high-level committees. Statement 2 is incorrect; the CIC upheld the IITs' denial of personal details citing privacy exemptions. Statement 3 is correct as the order mentions Section 44(3) of the DPDP Act which came into force on November 14, 2025.

Explanation

The article states student suicides increased from 13,892 in 2023 to 14,488 in 2024, a rise of nearly 4.3 per cent. This is a precise data point from the NCRB report.

Explanation

The article clearly states the Commission upheld the IITs' stand, saying the information amounted to personal data of third parties and could not be disclosed, citing Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act and Section 44(3) of the DPDP Act.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the VMTB tool is a new tool under the National TB Elimination programme. This programme, formerly known as the Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme (RNTCP), is the central government's flagship scheme for TB control and elimination.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions VMTB uses about 30 open-source datasets including nutrition profiles, NFHS-4 data, and presence of night lights. Statement 2 is incorrect; the tool was piloted in Haryana and Assam before national rollout. Statement 3 is correct as per the Global TB Report 2025 data cited in the article.

Explanation

The article states that data from Haryana shows there was a 251% relative increase in the yield of TB cases last year due to the tool. The 61% increase was for Assam, making option C the correct answer.

Explanation

The core function of the VMTB tool, as explained by Dr. Neeraj Agrawal and Dr. Rajesh Raju, is to use data to create a map identifying high-risk villages/wards. This allows health workers to 'focus 100% of our efforts on 50% of the areas,' thereby increasing efficiency and effectiveness of active case finding.

Explanation

As per the article, SEFE is the former German subsidiary of Gazprom, which Germany nationalized in 2022 during the Europe-wide energy crisis triggered by the Ukraine war.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The KSI Lisims terminal is on the Pacific Coast (Pearse Island, British Columbia), not the Atlantic coast. Statement 2 is correct: The deal is for up to 1 million metric tons (1.1 million US tons) per year. Statement 3 is incorrect: While the project has the permits, the final investment decision is still pending, as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article clearly states the project cost is $10-billion Canadian, which is equivalent to US$ 7.2 billion. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that Prime Minister Mark Carney has set a goal to double non-U.S. trade in a decade. This LNG deal with Germany is a step towards achieving that objective by diversifying Canada's energy export markets away from overwhelming dependence on the United States.

Explanation

Article 22(1) of the Indian Constitution states that no person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest. The accused in the NDPS case argued violation of this right, which the court examined.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The court held the opposite: denial of bail is the norm and grant is an exception for commercial quantity cases under Section 37 NDPS Act. Statement 2 is incorrect. The court explicitly stated that the presumption of innocence is taken away for commercial quantity NDPS accused, unlike in murder cases. Statement 3 is correct as per the article.

Explanation

The article states: "each gram of MDMA is sold for approximately Rs 15,000 to Rs 20,000." This data point was used by the court to appreciate the significance of the 1 kg seizure.

Explanation

The court observed that Section 37 "is intended to curb the menace of drug transporting, possessing, peddling, etc, which is harming the youth of this country." This defines the special legislative intent behind creating an exception to ordinary bail principles.

Explanation

As stated in the article, the Aeronautical Development Agency functions under the Ministry of Defence. ADA is a part of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), which comes under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The RFP was issued to three shortlisted private consortia (L&T-BEL, Tata, Bharat Forge-BEML). Statement 2 is incorrect: The article explicitly states that HAL has been kept out of this process; the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) is the nodal agency partnering with a private entity. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions the plan to build five prototypes.

Explanation

The article specifically states that the foundation stone for the ₹15,803-crore AMCA infrastructure project was laid in Andhra Pradesh's Sri Sathya Sai district. The other figures are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Explanation

The article highlights that three private consortia have been shortlisted and that state-run HAL has been kept out, indicating a strategic shift towards fostering a private sector-led defence industrial base under the new 'Programme Execution Model'. This aligns with the broader 'Make in India' goal of involving private industry in strategic sectors.

Explanation

As stated in the article, the SARTHAK-PDS scheme integrates components to comprehensively strengthen the implementation of the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013. The other Acts, while important, are not the primary legislative focus of this scheme.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article which states the scheme integrates the two components. Statement 2 is incorrect because the scheme is approved for five years, not three. Statement 3 is incorrect as the scheme is in the 16th Finance Commission cycle, not the 15th.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the Union Cabinet approved the extension with a central outlay of ₹25,530 crore. The other figures are close distractors not mentioned in the provided content.

Explanation

The article directly states that the scheme integrates components to 'comprehensively strengthen implementation of the National Food Security Act, 2013 (NFSA)'. While improving logistics (option B) is a means, the overarching objective is NFSA implementation. The article does not mention deficit reduction (A) or replacing PDS with cash transfers (D).

Explanation

Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to life and personal liberty. The Supreme Court has consistently held that a speedy trial is an integral part of this right, and indefinite detention without trial violates this fundamental right.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Bench was hearing a CBI plea against bail granted by Gauhati HC. Statement 2 is correct as per the SIT report mentioned. Statement 3 is incorrect; the demand was for Scheduled Tribe (ST) status, not OBC inclusion.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Referring to a CBI report, the Bench said that 20 charge sheets had been filed...' The number 207 refers to total chargesheets filed by the SIT, and 400 refers to the number of accused.

Explanation

The Supreme Court's order, as quoted, states they asked for legal aid counsel 'well-versed in Manipuri to counsel the victims.' This aligns with the Court's broader emphasis on 'confidence-building measures' to restore the victims' faith in the system.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Union Home Minister Amit Shah, who heads the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), directed the authorities to enforce the 'zero-tolerance' policy and demolition order.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the meeting was held in Bikaner to assess security concerning Rajasthan's border districts. Statement 2 is correct as Shah directed 100% saturation of government schemes. Statement 3 is incorrect because the review was scheduled after two months, not six months.

Explanation

The article clearly states the directive is for illegal constructions within 0 to 15 km of the international borders. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article links the demolition and financial monitoring to addressing issues like infiltration, narcotics smuggling, encroachment, and terror financing. The core objective is enhancing border security, not revenue generation or tourism.

Explanation

The article states that the NHA 2022-23 report was prepared by the National Health Accounts Technical Secretariat (NHATS), which is under the National Health Systems Resource Centre, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: per capita government health expenditure increased from ₹1,042 to ₹2,786. Statement 2 is incorrect because OOPE as a percentage of total health expenditure declined to 39.4% (it did not increase). Statement 3 is correct as the Ministry identified purchase of pharmaceuticals as the main driver.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that government health expenditure per capita increased to ₹2,786 in 2022-23, from ₹1,042 in 2013-14. ₹1,042 is the 2013-14 figure, making it a close distractor.

Explanation

The article directly quotes a senior Health Ministry official stating that the declining OOPE trend is also the impact of operationalisation of more than 1.8 lakh Ayushman Arogya Mandir wellness centres providing preventive and curative care closer to communities.

Explanation

The Supreme Court order explicitly states that the committee is 'headed by the Union Home Secretary'. This is a key factual detail from the article. The other Secretaries are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the committee comprises Chief Secretaries of all States AND Union Territories through which Yamuna flows. Statement 2 is correct as mentioned in the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; the deadline is eight weeks, not six weeks.

Explanation

The article states the Supreme Court 'given them eight weeks to come up with a comprehensive plan'. This is a precise data point. The other options are common timeframes used as close distractors.

Explanation

The article mentions that the Union government suggested the Home Secretary as nodal officer 'to coordinate efforts between States, Union Territories, and the Centre'. The court emphasized the absence of a single plan and agencies working in silos, highlighting the need for coordinated action.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Solicitor General Tishar Mehta appeared before a Bench headed by Chief Justice of India Surya Kant. This is a factual recall from the provided news content.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the petitions challenge the 'Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, 2026', not the 2019 Act. Statement 3 is correct as petitioners argue the medical board requirement amounts to 'medical gatekeeping' and violates the NALSA judgment's affirmation of self-identity.

Explanation

The article states: 'The top law officer urged the Chief Justice to list the Union government’s plea for transferring these petitions to itself on May 29.' The other dates are close distractors: May 27 is the publication date, and June is when High Courts resume.

Explanation

The article clearly states that petitioners argue the 2026 amendments 'pull the carpet from under the 2014 NALSA judgment that declared that the right to self-identity was a fundamental right' and that 'Section 3 of the 2026 Act has omitted the right to self-perceived gender identity.' This is the core legal challenge mentioned.

Explanation

As per the article, the Supreme Court directed its Registry to forward the petition to the Election Commission of India (ECI). The ECI, under Article 324, is the constitutional authority responsible for the superintendence, direction, and control of elections.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The SC forwarded the plea to the ECI for consideration; it did not issue a mandate. Statement 2 is correct as per the petitioner's argument quoted in the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article explicitly states the 1961 Rules do not call for recording the exact time of voting, creating an 'audit gap'.

Explanation

The article states: 'The time-stamped VVPAT slip could be preserved for six months or more, the latter in case there was a dispute.' The 'or more' is a crucial detail for potential traps.

Explanation

The petition's core argument, as reported, is that time-stamping would be a 'panacea' for controversies over 'last-hour voting surges' and 'booth-level discrepancies,' thereby enhancing transparency. It is presented as a systemic addition, not a cost-saving or speed-enhancing measure.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Simon Stiell is the executive secretary of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). UNEP is the UN's environmental agency, IPCC assesses climate science, and WMO focuses on weather and climate data.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the IMD predicted heatwaves in central and northwest India, not southern and eastern India. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions record power demand and that solar helped meet daytime peaks.

Explanation

The article clearly states that peak power demand touched a record 270.8 GW on May 21, 2026. The other options (257.3 GW, 260.4 GW, 265.0 GW) were the demand figures on preceding days (May 18, 19, and 20 respectively).

Explanation

The article quotes Simon Stiell stating that the extreme heat 'underscored the importance of homegrown clean energy and energy-efficiency measures'. This is presented as the way to provide cooling and ensure secure, affordable electricity, directly addressing the challenge.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the SARTHAK-PDS programme is linked to the government's commitment under the National Food Security Act (NFSA), which currently covers 81.35 crore beneficiaries. The NFSA provides the legal backbone for India's public distribution system.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the merger of two existing schemes. Statement 2 is correct; the outlay is ₹25,530 crore and it is extended 'till March 2031' (i.e., FY 2030-31). Statement 3 is correct as the article details the use of AI, ML, NLP, and Blockchain for unified databases and real-time monitoring. Hence, all statements are correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Union Cabinet approved the continuation of the SARTHAK-PDS programme 'with a total allocation of Rs 25,530 crore up to March 2031'. This is a precise data point frequently tested in preliminary exams.

Explanation

The article specifies that 'By merging the two initiatives, the government aims to create a single administrative structure for improving foodgrain distribution and strengthening implementation of the NFSA.' The other options are incorrect: the outlay is increased, technology deployment is a collaborative effort, and the scheme aims to modernize, not replace, the existing PDS.

Explanation

The Election Commission of India, the constitutional body responsible for conducting elections, is established under Article 324. Article 315 is for UPSC, Article 352 for national emergency, and Article 368 for amendment procedure.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the SIR started with Bihar. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Supreme Court upheld the SIR as constitutional. Statement 3 is correct as per the allegations made by petitioner Mahua Moitra.

Explanation

The article quotes petitioner Mahua Moitra stating that "27 lakh valid voters [were] unable to vote after Bengal SIR". The other figures are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the provided text.

Explanation

The core argument of petitioners like Yogendra Yadav is that the verdict puts a "stamp of approval" on a process that disenfranchised citizens, with allegations of 59-100 million affected. This directly concerns the fundamental right to vote.

Explanation

As per the article, the government constituted the 'High-Level Committee on Demographic Changes' (HLCDC) under the Ministry of Home Affairs. This ministry handles matters of internal security, border management, and citizenship, which are directly linked to issues of infiltration and demographic change.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states payments were 'routed through the bank’s marketing department, disguised as contributions to a road safety awareness campaign'. Statement 2 is incorrect: US Secretary of State Rubio said the initiative will 'leverage each of our country’s maritime surveillance capabilities... to enhance information sharing'. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions the project 'requires diversion of 709.72 hectares of forest land'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Vedanta Limited’s bauxite mine project... proposed to mine high-grade bauxite reserves of 311 million tonnes'. Later, it reiterates that Sijimali has 'an estimated reserve of 311 million tonnes of high-grade bauxite'.

Explanation

The article quotes Home Minister Amit Shah: "Infiltration and other reasons causing unnatural demographic change pose a very significant challenge..." and that the committee would conduct a "comprehensive assessment" of changes due to "illegal immigration and other unnatural causes". This is the stated primary objective.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the Border Security Force (BSF) in the context of a coordinated border management strategy along the Indo-Pakistan Border. The BSF is the primary force for India's land borders, especially the Pakistan and Bangladesh fronts.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The directive is for the 'International Border', not the 'Line of Control (LoC)'. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's mention of a '360-degree security framework'. Statement 3 is correct as the article lists CBDT and NCB as part of the coordinated strategy against infiltration, narcotics smuggling, and terror financing.

Explanation

The article states, 'anti-drone systems will be deployed along the International Border in the next six months'. This is a specific data point mentioned in the context of combating cross-border smuggling.

Explanation

The article links these enhanced responsibilities of DMs directly to the broader goal of addressing 'infiltration, narcotics smuggling, encroachment, terror financing, and other trans-border crimes'. Tracking funding sources and shell companies is a key method to disrupt the financial networks enabling these crimes.

Explanation

As stated in the article, I2U2 is a forum comprising India, Israel, the UAE, and the US. It aims to advance cooperation in food and energy security. The other combinations are incorrect as per the article's content.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Letter of Intent (LoI) was signed during the UAE President's visit in January 2026. The May 2026 visit saw the signing of a Strategic Framework Agreement. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct as the article states IMEC was launched in September 2023.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that Indian companies entered into long-term contracts with Abu Dhabi National Oil Company Gas (ADNOCGAS) for the supply of 4.5 MMTPA (Million Metric Tonnes Per Annum) of LNG to India.

Explanation

The article's analysis states that incidents like US-Israel attacks on Iran and subsequent Iranian retaliation have created a dynamic where the traditional external security guarantor (the US) is seen as a source of insecurity. This insecurity is pushing GCC states to diversify their external security partnerships.

Explanation

CERT-In (Indian Computer Emergency Response Team) is the national agency for cybersecurity incidents and operates under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The blueprint offers recommendations and does not impose legal obligations. Statement 2 is correct: It advises adopting zero trust and MFA. Statement 3 is incorrect: It recommends audits through CERT-In empanelled auditors, which can be private organisations, not exclusively government auditors.

Explanation

The article states that the agency reiterated the requirement for entities to report cyber incidents within six hours. This is a key data point from the guidelines.

Explanation

The blueprint's core objective, as stated in the article, is to offer recommendations to help organisations strengthen their resilience against AI-enabled cyber threats. It is a non-binding advisory framework, not a punitive law or a promotion of offensive tools.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Supreme Court, specifically a bench comprising Chief Justice of India Surya Kant and Justice Joymalya Bagchi, issued notice on the pleas. This is a judicial function of the apex court.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the policy begins July 1 (2026-27 academic year) for Class 9. Statement 2 is incorrect; Justice Bagchi disagreed that it raises a federal question, stating it strengthens federalism. Statement 3 is correct as the circular aims to align with NEP 2020 and NCF-SE 2023.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions in the senior advocate's argument and the final circular that the policy decision is to implement it from July 1. The other dates are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The bench, particularly Justice Bagchi, highlighted that finding teachers would be a problem. The petitioners further pointed out the startling fact that there are no textbooks, with a suggestion to use Class 6 books for Class 9. These form the core logistical hurdles mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 10-car hydrogen-powered trainset was developed by the Chennai-based Integral Coach Factory (ICF). ICF is a premier production unit of Indian Railways under the Ministry of Railways.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the National Green Hydrogen Mission targets at least 5 MMT per annum by 2030, with a potential to reach 10 MMT. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned under the 'Hydrogen for Heritage' programme. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the 10-car hydrogen-powered set will operate at a maximum speed of 75 kmph on the Jind–Sonipat route. This is a specific factual detail important for prelims.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that hydrogen trains provide a 'viable alternative to diesel locomotives on non-electrified railway routes' and are a 'zero-emission mechanism'. This aligns with the core objective of decarbonising railways, especially on sections where electrification is challenging, to meet India's net-zero target.

Explanation

The Forest Advisory Committee (FAC) is a statutory body constituted under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980, and it operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). It advises the government on proposals for diverting forest land for non-forest purposes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: the coal block was allotted to Rajasthan Vidyut Utpadan Nigam Limited (RVUNL) for its plants; the Adani Group is the developer and operator, not the end-user. Statement 3 is incorrect: the clearance involves phased felling of trees, with translocation mandated only for 67,414 trees below 60 cm girth.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the state forest department has proposed compensatory afforestation (CA) in 3,233.3 hectares of degraded forest land. Option A is the area being diverted for the mine, option B is a distractor, and option D is close to the number of trees to be felled (4.48 lakh).

Explanation

The article details that the KECB is located less than 4 km from the Lemru elephant corridor's buffer zone. The Chhattisgarh government admitted to the FAC that elephant movement and key species like sloth bear are reported in the area, and the mine will likely impact this movement, making wildlife conflict a primary concern.

Explanation

As per the article, the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2026 seeks to amend the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956. This Act determines the sanctioned strength of judges in the Supreme Court.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states V. Mohana would be the second woman from the Bar to be recommended, after Justice Indu Malhotra. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the Collegium is headed by CJI Surya Kant.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2026, seeks to increase the sanctioned strength of the court from the present 34 to 38. The current working strength is 32, which is a distractor.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that CJI Kant recommended increasing the strength so that a permanent constitution bench can be put in place to hear pending matters. While other options may be related goals, this is the specific objective cited in the news.