26 May 2026, Questions & Answers
136 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
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This page contains 136 current affairs questions with answers from 26 May 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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136 QsWhich institution is primarily responsible for intervening in the forex market to manage the rupee's exchange rate?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) intervenes to prevent the exchange rate from falling by selling dollars from its forex reserves. This is a core function of a central bank under its monetary policy framework.
Consider the following statements regarding factors affecting the Indian rupee's value:
1. A surplus in the merchandise trade account increases demand for the rupee.
2. Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) inflows lead to an increase in the demand for the rupee.
3. The RBI's sale of US dollars from its reserves acts to depreciate the rupee's value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: A trade surplus means exports > imports, leading to higher foreign currency inflows which are exchanged for rupees, increasing rupee demand. Statement 2 is correct: FPI inflows mean foreign investors buy rupee assets, increasing demand for the rupee. Statement 3 is incorrect: When the RBI sells dollars, it absorbs rupees, increasing demand for the rupee and slowing its depreciation (it props up the value).
As per the article, what was the approximate level of India's foreign exchange reserves as of the end of March 2026?
- A.Approximately $600 billion
- B.Approximately $691.11 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.Approximately $750 billion
- D.Approximately $800 billion
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Explanation
The article provides the exact data point: "India’s forex reserves ... stood at around USD 691.11 billion at the end of March 2026." The other options are plausible but incorrect figures not mentioned in the text.
What is a primary negative consequence of the rupee's depreciation, as highlighted in the article?
- A.It makes Indian exports significantly more expensive for foreign buyers.
- B.It increases the cost of critical imports like oil for Indian companies.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It leads to an automatic reduction in the fiscal deficit of the government.
- D.It causes a substantial decrease in foreign remittances sent to India.
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Explanation
The article clearly states: "To purchase a barrel of oil at $100, Indian companies now must pay ₹9,600, compared to ₹8,500 had the exchange rate remained at ₹85 per dollar." This illustrates the increased import cost. A weaker rupee makes exports cheaper (not expensive), and the article does not link depreciation directly to fiscal deficit or remittance changes.
Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Finance Commission constituted?
- A.Article 265
- B.Article 280✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 360
- D.Article 112
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Explanation
Article 280 of the Constitution provides for the constitution of a Finance Commission every five years or earlier. It is a key body in India's fiscal federal structure.
Consider the following statements regarding the 16th Finance Commission:
1. It recommended a vertical devolution share of 41% of the divisible pool to States.
2. It abolished revenue-deficit grants and introduced a new criterion based on 'tax effort'.
3. It applied a square-root transformation to State GSDP shares for determining their contribution to national GDP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the 16th FC retained a 41% vertical share. Statement 2 is incorrect because it abolished revenue-deficit grants but replaced 'tax effort' with 'States' contribution to national GDP', not introduced 'tax effort'. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the FC applied a square-root transformation to State GSDP shares.
According to the article, what was the approximate combined share of the four southern states (Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu) under the 15th Finance Commission?
- A.24.8%
- B.17.0%
- C.15.8%✓ Correct Answer
- D.10.5%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "the combined share of the four southern States... declined from 24.8% to 15.8%" under the 15th FC. The other options are distractors: 24.8% was the share during the Sixth FC period, 17% is the approximate share under the 16th FC, and 10.5% is not mentioned.
What is a primary concern raised in the article regarding continued high fiscal transfers to poorer States?
- A.It leads to inflationary pressures in the national economy.
- B.It may weaken incentives for revenue mobilization and fiscal discipline in those States.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It causes a significant increase in the fiscal deficit of the Central government.
- D.It results in the neglect of infrastructure development in richer States.
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Explanation
The article directly states: "Continued reliance on unconditional equalisation transfers may weaken incentives for revenue mobilisation and fiscal discipline in weaker States." This is a classic argument in the equity-efficiency debate of fiscal federalism.
The 'critical minerals framework' was signed between India and which country?
- A.Japan
- B.United States of America✓ Correct Answer
- C.Australia
- D.United Kingdom
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Explanation
The article clearly states that India and the US signed the bilateral 'critical minerals framework' on Tuesday, May 26, 2026.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-US critical minerals framework:
1. It aims to deepen cooperation across the entire supply chain including mining, processing, and recycling.
2. The framework was signed during the visit of US President Donald Trump to India.
3. It builds upon the groundwork laid by the Forum on Resource Geostrategic Engagement (FORGE) launched in February 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per EAM Jaishankar's quote. Statement 2 is incorrect; the framework was signed during US Secretary of State Marco Rubio's visit, not the President's. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article that the agreement builds on FORGE launched in February 2026.
According to the article, what is the approximate value of resources the US government is mobilizing to secure critical mineral supply chains?
- A.Over $10 billion
- B.Over $20 billion
- C.Over $30 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over $40 billion
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "the US government is mobilising unprecedented resources... supporting projects with more than $30 billion in letters of interest, investments, loans, and other support."
What is a primary strategic objective of the India-US critical minerals framework, as indicated in the article?
- A.To increase bilateral trade in agricultural commodities
- B.To reduce collective vulnerability to single-source monopolies in mineral supply✓ Correct Answer
- C.To jointly develop nuclear energy technology
- D.To form a military alliance in the Indo-Pacific
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Explanation
The article states the framework aims to protect supply chains from 'coercive market practices and reduce our collective vulnerability to single-source monopolies', alluding to China's dominance. This is its core strategic objective.
Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commission of India established?
- A.Article 324✓ Correct Answer
- B.Article 326
- C.Article 329
- D.Article 332
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Explanation
The Election Commission of India is established under Article 324 of the Constitution, which grants it the superintendence, direction, and control of elections. Article 326 deals with adult suffrage.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court case on SIR:
1. The bench hearing the case comprises Chief Justice of India Surya Kant and Justice Joymalya Bagchi.
2. The Election Commission argued its power to verify citizenship flows from Article 324 of the Constitution.
3. Petitioners claimed the SIR process was rushed in Bihar while parts of the state were reeling under floods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only II
- B.(B) Only I and III✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Only II and III
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement I is correct as per the article. Statement II is incorrect; the ECI argued its power flows from Article 326 (universal adult suffrage), not Article 324. Statement III is correct as mentioned by petitioners.
On which date did the Supreme Court bench reserve its decision on petitions challenging the ECI's SIR powers?
- A.January 26, 2026
- B.January 29, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.May 26, 2026
- D.May 29, 2026
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Explanation
The article states the bench reserved its decision on January 29, 2026. May 26 is the date of the article's publication.
What is the core legal question being examined by the Supreme Court in this case?
- A.Whether the ECI can determine the age eligibility of voters.
- B.Whether the ECI has the power to determine citizenship status for electoral roll purposes.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Whether the ECI can postpone elections in flood-hit states.
- D.Whether the ECI can disqualify political parties from contesting elections.
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Explanation
The article states that while citizenship is a prerequisite for voting, the core question is whether the ECI can determine citizenship at all. This is the central legal dispute.
Which High Court delivered the judgment quashing an FIR against an advocate for professional acts in a GST matter?
- A.Gujarat High Court
- B.Allahabad High Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.Delhi High Court
- D.Bombay High Court
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Explanation
The article clearly states that a division bench of the Allahabad High Court, comprising Justices J J Munir and Tarun Saxena, quashed the criminal case against Advocate Smarpan Jain.
Consider the following statements regarding the Allahabad High Court judgment on advocate's liability:
1. The court held that an advocate can be held liable for criminal conspiracy with a client for actions taken in professional capacity.
2. The judgment stated that criminalizing a lawyer's professional act would violate the principles under Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution.
3. The case pertained to an advocate's actions while representing a client in a matter related to the Income Tax Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The court quashed the FIR precisely because it held that an advocate cannot be held in conspiracy for a professional act like filing an appeal. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; the case pertained to the Goods and Services Tax (GST), not the Income Tax Act.
According to the news, what was the percentage of disputed tax required as a pre-deposit for filing the GST appeal in question?
- A.5%
- B.10%✓ Correct Answer
- C.15%
- D.20%
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Explanation
The article mentions that the controversy arose regarding 'the pre-deposit of 10 per cent of the disputed tax, a requirement for filing such appeals.' The other percentages are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What was the primary constitutional rationale given by the Allahabad High Court for protecting an advocate from criminal liability for professional acts?
- A.To uphold the federal structure under Article 246.
- B.To protect the right to practice any profession under Article 19(1)(g).
- C.To safeguard principles of equality and liberty under Articles 14 and 21.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To ensure the independence of the judiciary under Article 50.
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Explanation
The court explicitly stated that criminalizing a lawyer's professional act 'hits at the roots of the principles enshrined under Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution.' While other articles are related, the judgment's core constitutional anchor was Articles 14 and 21.
Which of the following is the apex body responsible for formulating India's monetary policy, including decisions on the repo rate?
- A.Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of RBI✓ Correct Answer
- B.Finance Commission of India
- C.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The article mentions the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) meeting on June 3-5, 2026. The MPC is the statutory and institutionalized framework under the RBI Act for maintaining price stability, primarily through setting the policy repo rate.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman flagged concerns related to Fuel, Food, and Foreign Exchange, termed the '3F' crisis.
2. The Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) have pulled out Indian bonds and stocks worth $24.4 billion since the war in West Asia began.
3. The RBI's Monetary Policy Committee had cut the policy repo rate by 125 basis points in the year 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The '3F' concerns are Fuel, Fertiliser, and Foreign Exchange, not Food. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is also correct as the article states the MPC cut the repo rate by 125 bps in 2025. Hence, option C is correct.
As per the RBI's latest forecast mentioned in the article, what is the projected GDP growth rate for India in 2026-27?
- A.6.0%
- B.6.5%
- C.6.9%✓ Correct Answer
- D.7.2%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "The RBI's latest forecast, made in early April, pegs India's GDP growth in 2026-27 at 6.9%." The other options are close distractors mentioned as economists' warnings or are not cited.
What was a primary geopolitical concern driving the agenda of the recent Quad foreign ministers' meeting, as per the article?
- A.The territorial dispute in the South China Sea.
- B.The impact of the West Asia crisis on maritime security and energy flows.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Forming a military alliance to counter terrorism in Afghanistan.
- D.Launching a joint space mission to the Moon.
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Explanation
The article states that the war in West Asia has impacted maritime and energy security, and this was a key challenge discussed. The Quad is concerned about the closure of the Strait of Hormuz affecting freedom of navigation and supply chains, particularly for critical minerals.
As per the news, which regulatory body's rules were allegedly violated by HDFC Bank's payment practices?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
- D.Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)
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Explanation
The article states the payment violates RBI rules. The RBI is the central banking and monetary authority responsible for regulating banks in India, making it the correct nodal body.
Consider the following statements regarding the HDFC Bank case:
1. The bank routed a ₹45 crore payment as marketing spend to pay a higher interest rate to a state agency.
2. The Banking Regulation Act allows banks to offer negotiated interest rates to large depositors like government agencies.
3. The bank's internal vigilance probe found that top management, including the CEO, was aware of the payment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Banking Regulation Act and RBI norms prohibit offering negotiated interest rates to specific customers. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the probe found key management personnel were aware.
According to the article, what was the total deposit base of HDFC Bank as of March 31, 2026?
- A.₹15 lakh crore
- B.₹22 lakh crore
- C.₹31 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹45 lakh crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the bank had total deposits of ₹31 lakh crore as of March 31, 2026. The other figures are distractors; ₹45 crore is the disputed amount, not the deposit base.
What is the primary ethical issue highlighted by the HDFC Bank vigilance probe, as per the news article?
- A.Failure in digital security leading to data breach.
- B.Violation of insider trading norms by bank executives.
- C.Camouflaging a regulatory violation as a legitimate marketing expenditure.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Non-payment of corporate social responsibility (CSR) funds.
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Explanation
The core ethical issue is the alleged routing of an interest payment (which violates RBI rules) through vendors as sponsorship/marketing payments, thereby disguising its true nature. This directly challenges the bank's stated commitment to integrity and transparency.
Which regulatory body's Master Directions were allegedly violated by HDFC Bank in the case of disguised interest payments?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDAI)
- D.National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the vigilance report flagged a violation of the RBI's Master Directions on interest rates on deposits, which prohibit banks from offering negotiated returns to individual depositors. RBI is the primary regulator for banking operations in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the HDFC Bank case:
1. The bank disguised differential interest payments totaling ₹45 crore as marketing spend for a road safety campaign.
2. The arrangement was formally documented, reviewed by legal teams, and approved by the bank's board.
3. The promised interest rate to MSRDC was 6.01%, while the standard savings account rate was 3.5%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article which details payments of ₹45 crore routed via marketing. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the arrangement was 'verbally' agreed upon, letters were 'not vetted by legal or compliance teams', and were 'incomplete and poorly drafted'. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions MSRDC sought 6.01% while the bank offered 3.5% on savings accounts.
According to the internal vigilance investigation, what was the total amount of payments made to MSRDC disguised as marketing contributions during FY2024 and FY2025?
- A.₹25 crore
- B.₹39.7 crore
- C.₹45 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹50 crore
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Explanation
The article states the Audit Committee ordered an investigation into payments totalling Rs 45 crore made to MSRDC during FY2024 and FY2025. While the internal audit report mentions contributions aggregating to Rs 39.7 crore between 2023-24 and 2024-25, the total figure cited for the vigilance probe is ₹45 crore.
What is the primary regulatory concern highlighted by the HDFC Bank vigilance probe regarding the payments to MSRDC?
- A.Violation of foreign exchange management regulations.
- B.Breach of RBI Master Directions prohibiting negotiated interest rates to individual depositors.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Non-compliance with SEBI's insider trading regulations.
- D.Failure to adhere to corporate social responsibility spending norms.
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that routing differential interest to a specific customer at a rate unavailable to others violates the RBI's Master Directions on interest rates on deposits. This is the core regulatory breach, unlike forex, insider trading, or CSR norms which are not mentioned in the context.
Which central ministry is impleaded as a party in the Supreme Court's suo motu case on illegal mining in the Chambal region?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Mines
- D.Ministry of Water Resources
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Supreme Court impleaded the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) as a party in the suo motu case alongside the states of Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Uttar Pradesh. This ministry is the nodal agency for environmental protection in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's observations on illegal mining in Chambal:
1. The court noted that Rajasthan's measures were initiated only after stringent directions requiring the personal presence of its senior officers.
2. The state has approved over ₹65 crore for IT-enabled monitoring systems and is installing 118 CCTVs.
3. The Supreme Court stayed a Rajasthan government notification seeking de-notification of about 732 hectares forming part of the National Chambal Tiger Sanctuary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the court's observation that 'a substantial number of the actions... appear to have been initiated only after stringent directions were issued requiring personal presence of senior officers.' Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions Rajasthan approved over ₹65 crore for IT systems and is installing 118 CCTVs. Statement 3 is incorrect because the sanctuary mentioned is the National Chambal Gharial Sanctuary, not Tiger Sanctuary. Hence, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
According to the state's data provided in the article, how many FIRs have been lodged in Dholpur since 2023 for illegal mining?
- A.730 FIRs✓ Correct Answer
- B.725 FIRs
- C.817 FIRs
- D.52 FIRs
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Explanation
The article provides specific data: '730 FIRs have been lodged in Dholpur since 2023 for illegal mining, with 725 arrests and 817 vehicles seized.' The other numbers are distractors: 725 is the number of arrests, 817 is vehicles seized, and 52 is FIRs in Karauli.
What is the primary reason the Supreme Court expressed displeasure with Rajasthan's approach, as highlighted in the article?
- A.The state failed to allocate sufficient funds for enforcement.
- B.The state's actions were reactive, initiated only after judicial compulsion, rather than proactive.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The state refused to cooperate with Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
- D.The state proposed a timeline that was too short for effective implementation.
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Explanation
The core criticism, termed 'apathetic administrative tendency', is that Rajasthan responded 'only upon direct judicial scrutiny and compulsion' and not through 'timely institutional initiative and responsible governance.' While funding (₹65 crore) was approved and timelines (18-36 months) were long, the fundamental issue was the reactive, compelled nature of the action.
Which committee of the Union Environment Ministry recommended environmental clearance for the Vedanta Sijimali bauxite mine project?
- A.Forest Advisory Committee (FAC)
- B.Expert Appraisal Committee (EAC) for non-coal mining✓ Correct Answer
- C.Central Empowered Committee (CEC)
- D.National Board for Wildlife (NBWL)
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Explanation
As mentioned in the article, the Union Environment Ministry's expert appraisal committee (EAC) on non-coal mining recommended the project for grant of environmental clearance. FAC deals with forest clearance, CEC is for Supreme Court monitored cases, and NBWL deals with wildlife clearance.
Consider the following statements regarding the Vedanta Sijimali bauxite mine project:
1. The project requires diversion of 709.72 hectares of forest land and is located in the Eastern Ghats.
2. The environmental clearance recommendation is unconditional and not dependent on any pending legal cases.
3. A site-specific Wildlife Conservation Plan with an outlay of Rs 34.44 crore has been prepared for the project area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the project requires diversion of 709.72 hectares of forest land and Sijimali is located in Eastern Ghats. Statement 2 is incorrect because the clearance is conditional on abiding by orders from the Supreme Court and NGT. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions a site-specific Wildlife Conservation Plan approved on August 16, 2024, with a total outlay of Rs 34.44 crore.
According to the article, what is the total bauxite reserve proposed to be mined from the Sijimali block?
- A.250 million tonnes
- B.311 million tonnes✓ Correct Answer
- C.400 million tonnes
- D.500 million tonnes
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the project proposes to mine high-grade bauxite reserves of 311 million tonnes. The other options are plausible but incorrect figures.
What is a primary reason for the opposition from local tribal communities to the Vedanta Sijimali mine project, as per the article?
- A.Concerns over increased traffic congestion in the area
- B.Loss of customary rights, forest produce, and access to sacred lands✓ Correct Answer
- C.Fear of a decline in tourism revenue from the region
- D.Objections to the use of foreign technology in mining
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Explanation
The article states that tribal communities have opposed the project on grounds of loss of customary rights, forest produce and access to sacred lands atop the hill where the mining lease is situated. The other options are not mentioned in the article.
Under which Union Ministry does the Border Security Force (BSF) function?
- A.Ministry of Defence
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of External Affairs
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The Border Security Force (BSF) is one of the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) and operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), as mentioned in the article's context of the Union Home Minister's announcement.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent announcements on border security:
1. Anti-drone systems will be deployed along the international border within the next six months.
2. The jurisdiction of the Border Security Force (BSF) has been expanded from 50 km to 100 km from the international border.
3. The BSF is now required to inform the civil administration about illegal construction within the expanded jurisdiction zone.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2 and 3
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: anti-drone systems will be deployed within six months. Statement 2 is incorrect; the jurisdiction was expanded from 15 km to 50 km, not from 50 km to 100 km. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the BSF must inform civil administration about illegal construction within the 50 km zone.
To what distance from the international border has the BSF's jurisdiction been expanded, according to the recent announcement?
- A.From 10 km to 30 km
- B.From 15 km to 50 km✓ Correct Answer
- C.From 20 km to 75 km
- D.From 25 km to 100 km
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Centre's decision expanded the BSF's jurisdiction from 15 kilometres to 50 kilometres from the international border. The other options are close distractors with different numerical ranges.
What is a primary objective behind the expansion of the BSF's jurisdiction to 50 km from the border, as per the article?
- A.To reduce the manpower requirements of the state police forces.
- B.To enhance the BSF's ability to check illegal smuggling, infiltration, and cross-border activities.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To facilitate faster infrastructure development in border villages.
- D.To transfer land revenue collection powers to the central force.
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Explanation
The article directly links the jurisdiction expansion to strengthening the BSF's preparedness against illegal smuggling, infiltration, and cross-border activities. While coordination with civil administration is mentioned, the core objective is enhancing security oversight in a broader belt.
Which ministry/department is responsible for negotiating the India-Canada Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement?
- A.Ministry of External Affairs
- B.Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
Trade agreements like CEPA are negotiated by the Department of Commerce under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The article mentions Joint Secretary Brij Mohan Mishra from this department as the chief negotiator.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-Canada trade negotiations:
1. The two countries are negotiating a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA).
2. The current bilateral trade level is approximately $50 billion.
3. The negotiations aim to triple the trade to $17 billion by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the current trade is $17 billion, not $50 billion. Statement 3 is also incorrect; the target is to triple trade to $50 billion by 2030, not to $17 billion. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.
According to the article, what is the target for India-Canada bilateral trade by 2030?
- A.$17 Billion
- B.$30 Billion
- C.$50 Billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$100 Billion
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Explanation
Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal explicitly stated the target is to triple trade from the current $17 billion level to $50 billion by 2030. The other options are distractors based on the current figure ($17bn) or exaggerated projections.
What is a key strategic objective behind India pursuing a CEPA with Canada, as highlighted in the news?
- A.To replace India's trade with the United States
- B.To primarily import advanced military technology
- C.To diversify trade partnerships and boost exports in pharmaceuticals and tech✓ Correct Answer
- D.To reduce the number of Indian students studying abroad
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Explanation
The article highlights key export sectors like pharmaceuticals and electronic goods, and mentions unlocking a massive new market. The core objective is economic diversification and export growth in these sectors, not military trade or student reduction.
Which government office is responsible for publishing the Sample Registration System (SRS) Statistical Report?
- A.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- B.NITI Aayog
- C.Office of the Registrar General & Census Commissioner, India✓ Correct Answer
- D.National Statistical Office (NSO)
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Explanation
The Sample Registration System (SRS) is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General & Census Commissioner, India (ORGI), which operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs. It is the primary source for vital statistics like birth and death rates in the country.
Consider the following statements regarding the findings of the Sample Registration System – Statistical Report, 2024:
1. India's Total Fertility Rate (TFR) has fallen below the replacement level fertility.
2. The Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) for India has increased compared to previous estimates.
3. The report highlights that performance in rural areas is on par with urban centres.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: TFR has dropped to 1.9, which is below the replacement level of 2.1. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article states IMR has fallen to 24, indicating a decrease. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article explicitly states 'performance in rural areas is not on a par with the urban centres'.
According to the SRS 2024 report, what is India's current Total Fertility Rate (TFR)?
- A.1.7
- B.1.9✓ Correct Answer
- C.2.1
- D.2.3
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'India’s Total Fertility Rate has dropped to 1.9'. The replacement level of 2.1 is a key distractor. The other options represent potential historical values or close approximations.
What is the primary demographic implication of India's Total Fertility Rate (TFR) falling below the replacement level, as indicated by the SRS 2024 report?
- A.An immediate decline in the total population
- B.A guaranteed increase in per capita income
- C.A long-term transition towards an ageing population structure✓ Correct Answer
- D.The end of the demographic dividend window
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Explanation
A sustained TFR below replacement level means each generation is smaller than the previous one, leading to an increase in the proportion of elderly people in the population over time. While the population may still grow for a few decades due to population momentum, the age structure shifts. The demographic dividend window is still present due to the current large youth population.
Under which Constitutional Amendment is the formation of Nagar Panchayats for Census towns envisioned, as mentioned in the article?
- A.73rd Constitutional Amendment Act
- B.74th Constitutional Amendment Act✓ Correct Answer
- C.86th Constitutional Amendment Act
- D.97th Constitutional Amendment Act
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that State governments must constitute Nagar Panchayats for all Census towns, as the 74th Constitutional Amendment envisioned. The 74th CAA deals with Urban Local Bodies, while the 73rd CAA deals with Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Consider the following statements regarding the challenges in peri-urban water governance discussed in the article:
1. The number of Census towns in India has increased by 178% over the last two decades.
2. The Jal Jeevan Mission has successfully provided tap water connections to all rural households in India.
3. Nearly 40 million urban households in India rely on on-site sanitation systems like septic tanks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states Census towns jumped from 1,362 to 3,784, a 178% increase. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says the Jal Jeevan Mission has brought tap water to nearly eight out of every 10 rural households, not all. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's data.
According to the article, what is the projected number of new housing units India will need by the year 2047?
- A.130 million
- B.200 million
- C.230 million✓ Correct Answer
- D.500 million
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Explanation
The article states: "By 2047, the country will need 230 million new housing units and 500 new cities." The figure 500 million is a distractor (it's the number of new cities needed).
What is a primary reason cited in the article for the water crisis in peri-urban areas like those near Gurugram?
- A.Complete absence of any municipal governance structure.
- B.Administrative inefficiencies after rural governance was abolished and areas were placed under municipal corporations.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Over-reliance on monsoon rains and lack of rainwater harvesting.
- D.Excessive groundwater extraction solely for industrial purposes.
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Explanation
The article uses Gurugram as an example where "rural governance was abolished and peri-urban areas were placed under the municipal corporation which struggles with administrative inefficiencies." This leads to residents facing urban prices without urban services, a key governance challenge.
Which government office is responsible for conducting the Sample Registration System (SRS) survey in India?
- A.NITI Aayog
- B.Office of the Registrar General & Census Commissioner, India✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- D.Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
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Explanation
The Sample Registration System (SRS) is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General & Census Commissioner, India. This office, under the Ministry of Home Affairs, is responsible for demographic surveys and the decadal census.
Consider the following statements regarding the Sample Registration System (SRS) 2024 data:
1. India's Total Fertility Rate (TFR) has remained below the replacement level for five consecutive years.
2. The Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) in rural areas is lower than in urban areas as per the latest report.
3. Chhattisgarh recorded the lowest Infant Mortality Rate among all states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as TFR has remained at 1.9 (below replacement level of 2.1) for five years. Statement 2 is incorrect because rural IMR (27) is higher than urban IMR (17). Statement 3 is incorrect as Chhattisgarh recorded the highest IMR (36), not the lowest (Kerala at 8).
According to the SRS 2024 report, what is India's Total Fertility Rate (TFR)?
- A.1.8
- B.1.9✓ Correct Answer
- C.2.0
- D.2.1
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that India's Total Fertility Rate (TFR) has remained flat at 1.9 for the fifth consecutive year. The replacement level is 2.1, making 1.9 a critical data point.
What is the primary implication of India's Total Fertility Rate (TFR) remaining below the replacement level, as highlighted in the SRS 2024 data?
- A.It indicates a rapid increase in the youth population, boosting the demographic dividend.
- B.It signals that many economically advanced states are ageing rapidly.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It shows a failure of family planning programs across all states.
- D.It suggests that rural areas have achieved population stabilization.
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Explanation
The article links the below-replacement TFR (1.9) with the fact that nearly 10% of India's population is aged 60 and above, indicating rapid ageing in advanced states. This is a key demographic implication, distinguishing it from states like Bihar with a higher TFR.
The India-US critical minerals framework was signed on the sidelines of the meeting of which grouping?
- A.G20 Foreign Ministers Meeting
- B.Quad Foreign Ministers Meeting✓ Correct Answer
- C.BRICS Summit
- D.Indo-Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF) Ministerial
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the framework was signed on the sidelines of the Quad Foreign Ministers' meeting in New Delhi. The Quad comprises India, the US, Japan, and Australia.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-US critical minerals deal:
1. It was signed by External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar and U.S. Secretary of State Marco Rubio.
2. The framework aims for cooperation only in the mining of critical minerals.
3. The groundwork for this deal was laid at a Critical Minerals Forum hosted in Washington D.C. in February.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the framework aims for cooperation across the entire supply chain including mining, processing, recycling, and investment. Statement 3 is correct as U.S. Secretary Rubio mentioned the groundwork was laid at a Critical Minerals Forum in Washington D.C. on February 4.
On which date was the India-US critical minerals cooperation framework signed in New Delhi?
- A.February 4, 2026
- B.May 26, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.December 1, 2025
- D.March 15, 2026
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Explanation
The article clearly states the signing took place on Tuesday, May 26, 2026. February 4 is the date of the preparatory forum in Washington D.C. December 2025 is when the Pax Silica initiative was launched.
What is a primary strategic objective of the India-US critical minerals framework as per the news article?
- A.To increase bilateral trade in agricultural commodities
- B.To ensure reliable long-term access to minerals vital for the innovation economy✓ Correct Answer
- C.To form a military alliance in the Indian Ocean Region
- D.To jointly develop nuclear energy technology
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Explanation
The article quotes U.S. Secretary Rubio stating the strategic interest is in "ensuring reliable long-term access to critical minerals and supply chains that are important for our innovation economy." The other options are not mentioned as objectives of this specific framework.
Which Indian minister presided over the Quad Foreign Ministers' meeting held in New Delhi in May 2026?
- A.Minister of Defence
- B.Minister of Commerce and Industry
- C.External Affairs Minister✓ Correct Answer
- D.Minister of Finance
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Explanation
The article states that External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar presided over the Quad Foreign Ministers' meeting. The External Affairs Ministry handles India's foreign relations and diplomacy, making it the nodal ministry for such engagements.
Consider the following statements regarding the Quad Foreign Ministers' meeting held in May 2026:
1. The meeting was held at Hyderabad House in New Delhi.
2. The primary focus of the discussion was on climate change financing for South Asia.
3. The participants discussed issues of supply chain resilience and maritime security in the Indo-Pacific.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the meeting was held at Hyderabad House. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article specifies the focus was on the Indo-Pacific, with issues like supply chains and maritime security, not climate financing for South Asia. Statement 3 is correct as these were explicitly mentioned as discussion points.
According to the news article, on which date was the Quad Foreign Ministers' meeting held in 2026?
- A.May 24, 2026
- B.May 26, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.May 28, 2026
- D.June 1, 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the meeting was held on Tuesday, May 26, 2026. The other dates are close distractors. Paying attention to specific dates mentioned in international summits is crucial for Prelims.
What was a key strategic concern that formed the backdrop for the Quad Foreign Ministers' meeting, as per the article?
- A.The refugee crisis in Europe
- B.Russia's invasion of Ukraine
- C.China's increasing military muscle-flexing in the Indo-Pacific✓ Correct Answer
- D.The debt crisis in Sri Lanka
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Explanation
The article directly states that the Quad meeting came amid rising global concerns over China's increasing military muscle-flexing in the Indo-Pacific. This is the central geopolitical context for the Quad's discussions on security and partnerships, while other options are not mentioned in this context.
The China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) is a flagship project under which larger Chinese global initiative?
- A.Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)
- B.Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP)
- C.Belt and Road Initiative (BRI)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
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Explanation
As mentioned in the article, CPEC is described as 'a flagship project of China's Belt and Road initiative'. The BRI is China's global infrastructure and investment strategy.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent China-Pakistan joint statement:
1. Both sides welcomed third parties to participate in the development of the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC).
2. The plans encompass an upgrade of the Khyber Pass, the main overland link between the two countries.
3. Pakistan reaffirmed its commitment to the 'One-China' principle regarding Taiwan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the joint statement. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article specifies the plans encompass the Khunjerab Pass and an upgrade of the Karakoram Highway, not the Khyber Pass. Statement 3 is correct as Pakistan reaffirmed the One-China principle.
According to the news, which key mountain pass and highway are central to the plans for upgrading the overland link between China and Pakistan?
- A.Nathu La Pass and the Friendship Highway
- B.Khyber Pass and the Grand Trunk Road
- C.Khunjerab Pass and the Karakoram Highway✓ Correct Answer
- D.Lipulekh Pass and the Mana Pass Road
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'These plans encompass the Khunjerab Pass and an upgrade of the Karakoram Highway, the main overland link between China and Pakistan.'
What was a key security concern for Beijing that Pakistan addressed in the recent joint statement?
- A.Cybersecurity threats to Chinese financial institutions
- B.Piracy in the Strait of Hormuz affecting trade routes
- C.Safety of Chinese workers and investments in Pakistan✓ Correct Answer
- D.Border disputes with Afghanistan along the Durand Line
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Explanation
The article states: 'Pakistan also promised targeted steps to boost security and cooperation to ensure the safety of Chinese workers and investments in Pakistan, a key concern for Beijing after repeated militant attacks.'
The foreign ministers' meeting of the Quad grouping was hosted at Hyderabad House in Delhi. Under which ministry's purview does such diplomatic hosting primarily fall?
- A.Ministry of Defence
- B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Home Affairs
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is responsible for India's foreign relations and diplomatic engagements. Hosting foreign ministers' meetings, like the Quad meeting, is a core function of the MEA, which handles bilateral and multilateral diplomacy.
Consider the following statements regarding the Quad grouping:
1. It originated from the coordination of disaster relief efforts after the 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami.
2. It is a formal multilateral treaty organization with a permanent secretariat, similar to the United Nations.
3. The 'Quad Plus' framework is a concept that proposes the inclusion of countries like South Korea and Vietnam.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Quad's origins lie in the 2004 tsunami relief coordination. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly mentions the Quad is NOT structured like a typical multilateral organisation and lacks a secretariat. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions 'Quad Plus' potentially including South Korea, New Zealand, and Vietnam.
According to the article, in which year was the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue revived after its initial phase lost momentum?
- A.2015
- B.2017✓ Correct Answer
- C.2019
- D.2020
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Quad was revived in 2017 in the face of the rising Chinese challenge. The year 2020 is when Australia joined the Malabar exercises, marking the first official grouping since the revival.
What is a primary strategic reason, as per the article, for the Quad avoiding transformation into a formal military alliance like NATO?
- A.To reduce military expenditure among member states
- B.To maintain flexibility and navigate political transitions within member countries✓ Correct Answer
- C.To comply with the non-alignment principles of the United Nations Charter
- D.To focus exclusively on economic cooperation and trade agreements
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Explanation
The article states that avoiding a formal military alliance has helped the grouping 'navigate political transitions within member states, including the return of Donald Trump to the White House.' This flexibility is cited as a key reason for its informal structure, allowing it to adapt to changing domestic politics in member nations.
The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (Quad) is an informal strategic forum comprising which of the following countries?
- A.India, USA, UK, Japan
- B.India, USA, Australia, Japan✓ Correct Answer
- C.India, USA, Australia, South Korea
- D.India, USA, France, Japan
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Explanation
As explicitly stated in the article, the Quad comprises India, the United States, Australia, and Japan. This is a core static fact about the grouping.
Consider the following statements regarding the initiatives launched at the recent Quad Foreign Ministers' meeting:
1. The Indo-Pacific Maritime Surveillance Corporation initiative is designed to provide near-real-time commercial maritime tracking data.
2. The first joint port infrastructure project under the Quad Ports of the Future Partnership is a pilot in Fiji.
3. The Quad Critical Minerals Initiative framework aims to coordinate investment to strengthen supply chains, including in recycling.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states it is the expansion of the 'Indo-Pacific Maritime Domain Awareness Initiative' that provides near-real-time data, not the Surveillance Corporation initiative. Statement 2 is correct as per the announcement. Statement 3 is correct as the framework includes coordination on mining, processing, and recycling.
According to the article, what percentage of global maritime trade passes through the Indo-Pacific region, as highlighted by the US Secretary of State?
- A.40%
- B.50%
- C.60%✓ Correct Answer
- D.70%
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Explanation
The article quotes US Secretary of State Marco Rubio stating that "60% of global maritime trade passes through the Indo-Pacific." This underscores the region's strategic economic importance.
What is the primary strategic objective behind the Quad's launch of the Critical Minerals Initiative framework, as inferred from the article?
- A.To monopolize the global trade of rare earth elements.
- B.To reduce dependency and build resilient supply chains against economic coercion.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To provide direct financial aid to mining companies in member countries.
- D.To impose export restrictions on critical minerals to other countries.
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Explanation
The article discusses the initiative in the context of addressing 'economic volatility and trade vulnerabilities' and strengthening supply chains. The broader context of the Quad meeting suggests a goal of reducing strategic dependencies, which aligns with building resilience against economic coercion.
Which ministry/department serves as the Member Secretary for the newly constituted high-level committee on demographic change?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
- C.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of External Affairs
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Joint Secretary (Foreigners-I) from the Ministry of Home Affairs will serve as the Member Secretary of this committee. The MHA handles matters related to internal security, borders, and foreigners.
Consider the following statements regarding the high-level committee on demographic change:
1. It was announced by the Prime Minister on August 15, 2025.
2. The committee is chaired by a retired Chief Justice of India.
3. The Census Commissioner is a member of this committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: PM Modi announced the committee on August 15, 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect; the chairperson is Justice Prakash Prabhakar Naolekar, a retired Supreme Court Justice, not a retired Chief Justice of India. Statement 3 is correct as the article lists the Census Commissioner as a member.
On which date did Prime Minister Narendra Modi announce the formation of the high-level committee on demographic change?
- A.August 15, 2024
- B.August 15, 2025✓ Correct Answer
- C.January 26, 2025
- D.May 26, 2026
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Explanation
The article clearly mentions that Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced the 'high-level committee on demographic change' on August 15, 2025. The other dates are distractors: August 15, 2024 is a year earlier; January 26, 2025 is Republic Day; May 26, 2026 is the date of the article publication/announcement of committee constitution.
According to the Union Home Minister, what is the primary challenge posed by 'unnatural demographic change' as mentioned in the article?
- A.It poses a significant challenge to economic growth and development.
- B.It poses a significant challenge to the present and future of any nation.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It poses a significant challenge to international diplomatic relations.
- D.It poses a significant challenge to technological advancement.
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Explanation
The Home Minister's message on X stated that infiltration and other reasons causing 'unnatural demographic change' pose a significant challenge to the present and future of any nation. This broad challenge is linked to sovereignty and security, not specifically to economy, diplomacy, or technology.
The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (Quad) is an informal strategic forum. Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the Quad?
- A.India
- B.United States
- C.Japan
- D.South Korea✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The Quad members are India, the United States, Japan, and Australia. South Korea, while a key US ally in the region, is not a member of this specific grouping. This tests basic static knowledge of international groupings.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Quad Foreign Ministers' meeting was chaired by External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar in New Delhi.
2. The Supreme Court directed the states of Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Gujarat to consider granting immunity to forest guards in the Chambal region.
3. The high-level committee on demographic change is headed by a retired High Court judge.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the SC directed Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan (not Gujarat). Statement 3 is incorrect as the committee is headed by a retired Supreme Court Justice, Prakash Prabhakar Naolekar, not a High Court judge.
On which date was the Quad Foreign Ministers' Meeting held, as per the news article?
- A.May 25, 2026
- B.May 26, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.May 27, 2026
- D.April 15, 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the Quad Foreign Ministers' Meeting was held on Tuesday, May 26, 2026. April 15, 2026, is the date the SC dismissed the Mekedatu review petition via circulation.
What is the primary strategic objective behind the Quad's announcement of enhanced cooperation in critical minerals and maritime surveillance in the Indo-Pacific?
- A.To promote cultural exchange among member nations
- B.To counter China's growing military and economic influence in the region✓ Correct Answer
- C.To establish a common currency for trade within the Quad
- D.To reduce tariffs on agricultural products between member countries
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Explanation
The article directly links the Quad's new measures to the 'backdrop of China's growing military posturing' and concerns over 'China's export controls on rare earth elements'. The core objective is strategic counterbalancing, not cultural, monetary, or purely trade-related goals.
Which statutory body is primarily responsible for implementing the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal award and regulating water releases, as mentioned in the news?
- A.Central Water Commission (CWC)
- B.Cauvery Water Management Authority (CWMA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Narmada Control Authority (NCA)
- D.Inter-State Council
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Detailed Project Report for the Mekedatu project is being considered by experts in the Cauvery Water Management Authority (CWMA). The CWMA was established under the Cauvery Water Management Scheme, 2018, following the Supreme Court's directions, to implement the tribunal's award.
Consider the following statements regarding the Mekedatu project dispute mentioned in the news:
1. The Supreme Court dismissed Tamil Nadu's review petition, stating its challenge was premature as the project's DPR is under CWMA scrutiny.
2. The Central Water Commission (CWC) has the sole authority to approve the Detailed Project Report for the Mekedatu dam.
3. The proposed Mekedatu project has a capacity of 67.16 TMC ft. and is estimated to cost ₹9,000 crore.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the SC dismissed the review plea, terming the challenge premature while the DPR is with the CWMA. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states CWC made it clear that any acceptance of the DPR would be given only after approvals from CWMA and CWRC, indicating it is not the sole authority. Statement 3 is correct as the article provides these exact figures for capacity and cost.
According to the news article, what is the proposed power generation capacity (in MW) of the Mekedatu Balancing Reservoir cum Drinking Water project?
- A.350 MW
- B.400 MW✓ Correct Answer
- C.450 MW
- D.500 MW
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Mekedatu project includes generation of a 400 MW project. The other options are close distractors. Remembering specific numerical data like project capacity, cost, and power generation is crucial for Prelims.
What was the primary reason given by the Supreme Court for dismissing Tamil Nadu's review petition against the Mekedatu project?
- A.The project was found to be fully compliant with all environmental norms.
- B.Tamil Nadu failed to provide sufficient evidence of potential harm.
- C.The challenge was considered premature as the project's DPR was still under consideration by the CWMA.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Karnataka had already obtained all necessary clearances from the Central Government.
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Explanation
The core of the Supreme Court's reasoning, as stated in the article, is that Tamil Nadu's challenge is 'premature' because the Detailed Project Report (DPR) is only being considered by the experts in the Cauvery Water Management Authority (CWMA) and Cauvery Water Regulation Committee (CWRC). The court emphasized the need to let the institutional process run its course.
Which regulatory body announced the pilot project for tokenisation of corporate bonds?
- A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- B.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
- D.Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)
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Explanation
The article states that SEBI Chairman Tuhin Kanta Pandey announced the pilot project. SEBI is the regulator for the securities market in India, which includes corporate bonds.
Consider the following statements regarding the SEBI pilot project for tokenisation:
1. It aims to tokenise corporate bonds using Distributed Ledger Technology (DLT).
2. The project is expected to be fully implemented and rolled out nationwide within 3 months.
3. One of the stated benefits is to improve liquidity and enable instantaneous settlements in the corporate bond market.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly mentions the use of DLT for tokenisation. Statement 2 is incorrect because the rollout is expected to take 6-9 months, not 3 months, and it will start as a limited-scale pilot. Statement 3 is correct as improving liquidity and enabling instantaneous settlements are cited as key objectives.
According to the SEBI Chairman, what is the expected timeline for the implementation of the pilot project on bond tokenisation?
- A.3 to 6 months
- B.6 to 9 months✓ Correct Answer
- C.9 to 12 months
- D.12 to 18 months
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Explanation
The article quotes SEBI Chairman Tuhin Kanta Pandey stating, "It will take 6 to 9 months to see various stages." This is the specific timeline mentioned for the pilot project's implementation.
What is a primary potential benefit of tokenising corporate bonds, as highlighted in the news?
- A.To increase government tax revenue from bond transactions
- B.To replace the existing stock exchanges with a decentralised system
- C.To improve liquidity and enable more instantaneous, automated settlements✓ Correct Answer
- D.To allow foreign investors direct access to the primary bond market
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Explanation
The SEBI Chairman stated that tokenisation "could help improve liquidity in the corporate bond market and enable more instantaneous and automated settlements." This is the core benefit discussed, focusing on market efficiency rather than tax revenue, exchange structure, or foreign access.
Which constitutional article empowers the Supreme Court to pass orders for 'complete justice', as used in the Chambal sanctuary case?
- A.Article 32
- B.Article 136
- C.Article 142✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 226
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Explanation
Article 142 of the Indian Constitution grants the Supreme Court the unique power to pass any decree or order necessary for doing 'complete justice' in any cause or matter pending before it. The article explicitly mentions this phrase, which was cited in the court's order.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's order on Chambal sanctuary:
1. The court directed states to grant immunity to forest guards under Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code.
2. The order was passed by a Bench comprising Justices Vikram Nath and Sandeep Mehta.
3. The court mandated the installation of CCTV surveillance to be operationalised within one year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The immunity is to be considered under Section 218(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), not Section 498A of IPC. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; the court ordered the surveillance machinery to be operationalised in six months, not one year.
By what date did the Supreme Court ask the states of UP, MP, and Rajasthan to file a report regarding prosecution immunity for forest guards?
- A.May 26, 2026
- B.May 29, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.June 1, 2026
- D.Within six months
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Explanation
The article states that the court listed the case for the next hearing on May 29, 2026, to discuss the issues raised and sought a report from the states by then. The other options are distractors: May 26 is the date of the order, and six months is the deadline for operationalising surveillance.
What is the primary objective behind the Supreme Court's direction to consider prosecution immunity for forest guards under BNSS Section 218(3)?
- A.To increase government revenue from sand mining permits
- B.To reduce the workload of the state police forces
- C.To protect frontline officials from legal fear while performing their duty against illegal miners✓ Correct Answer
- D.To transfer the responsibility of environmental protection entirely to the central government
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Explanation
The core objective, as stated by the court, is to ensure that 'frontline forest officials should not fear prosecution under law while fighting the lawless.' This aims to empower them to take bona fide actions against illegal mining without the threat of legal repercussions, thereby strengthening enforcement.
Which quasi-judicial body is responsible for declaring a person a foreigner in Assam, as per the news?
- A.National Human Rights Commission
- B.Foreigners Tribunal✓ Correct Answer
- C.State Election Commission
- D.District Consumer Forum
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Explanation
As mentioned in the article, the woman challenged an order from the Foreigners Tribunal. These tribunals are established under the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964, specifically to determine if a person is a foreigner under the Foreigners Act, 1946, in Assam.
Consider the following statements regarding the Gauhati High Court judgment mentioned in the news:
1. The court upheld the petitioner's citizenship, citing her appearance in the voters' list.
2. The court emphasized the petitioner's failure to discharge the burden of proof under Section 9 of the Citizenship Act, 1955.
3. A crucial factor in the judgment was an unexplained 20-year gap in voter list records from 1965 to 1985.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The court upheld the Foreigners Tribunal's order declaring her a foreigner, not a citizen. Statement 2 is incorrect: The burden of proof is under Section 9 of the Foreigners Act, 1946, not the Citizenship Act, 1955. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions the 'inordinate and unexplained gap of about 20 years from 1965 to 1985' as a crucial factor.
According to the 1985 Assam Accord, what is the official cut-off date for determining Indian citizenship in the state of Assam?
- A.January 26, 1950
- B.March 25, 1971✓ Correct Answer
- C.August 15, 1947
- D.December 6, 1992
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'The 1971 cut-off date in Assam refers to March 25, 1971, which is the official deadline for determining Indian citizenship in the state according to the historic 1985 Assam Accord.' The other dates are significant in Indian history but not the Assam Accord cut-off.
What was the primary legal basis cited by the Gauhati High Court for dismissing the woman's plea against the Foreigners Tribunal order?
- A.Violation of the Right to Equality under Article 14.
- B.Failure to discharge the burden of proof under Section 9 of the Foreigners Act, 1946.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Lack of jurisdiction of the Foreigners Tribunal.
- D.Insufficient legal representation for the petitioner.
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The court ruled that the petitioner failed to discharge the burden of proof mandated under Section 9 of the Foreigners Act, 1946.' This is the core legal principle applied. While other constitutional rights might be involved, the court's specific reasoning centered on this statutory burden of proof.
Which institution in India is primarily responsible for managing the exchange rate of the Indian rupee?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
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Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central bank and the primary institution responsible for managing the country's exchange rate and foreign exchange reserves, as highlighted in the article discussing its intervention in the forex market.
Consider the following statements regarding factors affecting the Indian rupee:
1. A rise in global crude oil prices increases India's import bill and puts downward pressure on the rupee.
2. Significant gold imports create a direct export-generating asset for the economy.
3. Capital outflows by foreign institutional investors reduce the supply of dollars in the forex market.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as India imports nearly 90% of its crude oil; higher prices widen the trade deficit and pressure the rupee. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states gold imports do NOT create a direct export-generating asset; dollars leave without creating future productive capacity. Statement 3 is correct as capital outflows reduce dollar supply, increasing demand for dollars and weakening the rupee.
According to the article, what was the value of India's foreign exchange reserves as of May 8, 2026?
- A.USD 552.39 billion
- B.USD 696.99 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.USD 728.49 billion
- D.USD 979.4 billion
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that India's foreign exchange reserves stood at USD 696.99 billion as of May 8, 2026. USD 728.49 billion was the record high in February, USD 552.39 billion refers to foreign currency assets (a component), and USD 979.4 billion is the total import value for FY 2025-26.
What is the primary conceptual framework used in the article to analyze the policy constraints faced by the Reserve Bank of India in managing the rupee?
- A.The Phillips Curve
- B.The Laffer Curve
- C.The Mundell-Fleming Trilemma✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Gresham's Law
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Explanation
The article directly references the 'Mundell-Fleming trilemma' or 'impossible trinity' to explain that the RBI cannot simultaneously maintain a fixed exchange rate, allow free capital movement, and run an independent monetary policy. This is the core framework used to analyze the central bank's strategic choices.
Under which ministry has the High-Level Committee on Demographic Changes been constituted?
- A.Ministry of External Affairs
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
- D.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the government constituted the committee under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). The MHA is responsible for internal security, border management, and domestic policy, making it the nodal ministry for issues related to illegal immigration and demographic changes.
Consider the following statements regarding the High-Level Committee on Demographic Changes:
1. It is chaired by a serving Supreme Court judge.
2. The committee was first announced by the Prime Minister in his Independence Day speech in 2025.
3. One of its key mandates is to recommend a system for the identification and deportation of illegal immigrants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The committee is chaired by retired Supreme Court judge Justice Prakash Prabhakar Naolekar, not a serving judge. Statement 2 is correct as per the article which mentions the PM's announcement on August 15, 2025. Statement 3 is correct as the article lists recommending a 'permanent operational system' for identification, detention, and deportation as a key mandate.
Within what timeframe is the High-Level Committee on Demographic Changes expected to submit its report?
- A.6 months
- B.1 year✓ Correct Answer
- C.18 months
- D.2 years
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the committee 'is expected to submit its report within one year.' The other options are plausible distractors for different government committees but are not mentioned in this context.
What is described as a primary cause of the 'unnatural demographic changes' that the committee is tasked to study?
- A.Declining fertility rates nationwide
- B.Internal migration for education
- C.Illegal immigration and irregular population mobility✓ Correct Answer
- D.Government resettlement schemes
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Explanation
The article repeatedly cites 'illegal immigration' and 'irregular population mobility' as key external abnormal factors leading to unnatural demographic changes, distinct from normal fertility or mortality trends. While fertility variations are mentioned as a possible cause to study, illegal immigration is highlighted as the primary challenge by the Home Minister.
Which regulatory body is exploring reforms to deepen India's corporate debt market, as per the news?
- A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- B.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
- D.Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions SEBI Chairman Tuhin Kanta Pandey discussing measures to deepen debt markets. SEBI is the regulator for securities markets in India, which includes the corporate bond market.
Consider the following statements regarding SEBI's proposed debt market reforms:
1. SEBI is exploring a pilot to tokenize corporate bonds into smaller digital tokens.
2. SEBI plans to merge the regulatory framework for debt brokers with that of equity brokers to reduce complexity.
3. SEBI is reviewing if debt-only listed entities require the same LODR regulations as equity-listed companies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions SEBI is exploring a pilot for tokenization. Statement 2 is incorrect; SEBI is considering a distinct regulatory classification for debt brokers, not merging them with equity brokers. Statement 3 is correct as SEBI Chairman mentioned a review of LODR regulations for debt-only listed entities.
According to SEBI Chairman Tuhin Kanta Pandey, what did he label as the economy's 'second engine' for credit?
- A.The banking sector
- B.The corporate bond market✓ Correct Answer
- C.The microfinance institution network
- D.The government securities market
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Explanation
The article quotes SEBI Chairman Tuhin Kanta Pandey labeling the corporate bond market as the economy's 'second engine' for credit, emphasizing its role in financing growth beyond the traditional bank-led model.
What is a primary objective of SEBI's proposed reforms to the debt market architecture?
- A.To increase government revenue from securities transaction tax
- B.To shift the economy entirely away from bank financing
- C.To make the debt market more accessible for retail investors✓ Correct Answer
- D.To reduce the regulatory oversight on all listed entities
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Explanation
The article states SEBI is exploring measures to 'make it more accessible for the retail audience.' Specific reforms like tokenization (creating smaller digital tokens) and developing bond ETFs are aimed at allowing retail investors with smaller ticket sizes to participate.
The district-level committee for examining citizenship applications under the CAA, as mentioned in the article, comprises officials from which of the following?
- A.Postal Department, State Police, and Judiciary
- B.Postal Department, Civil Administration, and Central Government✓ Correct Answer
- C.Election Commission, Civil Administration, and Home Ministry
- D.Finance Ministry, Postal Department, and State Government
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that applications are examined by a district-level committee comprising officials from the postal department, civil administration, and the central government. This is a specific procedural detail from the news.
Consider the following statements regarding the news article:
1. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019, provides a pathway to citizenship for Hindus, Sikhs, and Jains from Pakistan, Afghanistan, and Bangladesh.
2. The cut-off date for eligibility under the CAA for entry into India is December 31, 2012.
3. In Haryana, over 300 of the 355 individuals granted citizenship had migrated from Pakistan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 3
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the CAA covers Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis, and Christians. Statement 2 is incorrect; the cut-off date is December 31, 2014, not 2012. Statement 3 is correct as the article states 'Over 300 migrated from Pakistan, while the remainder came from Afghanistan.'
According to the article, how many individuals from Pakistan and Afghanistan have been granted Indian citizenship in Haryana over the past two years under the CAA?
- A.250
- B.300
- C.355✓ Correct Answer
- D.400
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'He is among 355 people from Pakistan and Afghanistan who have been granted Indian citizenship in Haryana over the past two years.' The other numbers are close distractors based on other figures in the article (e.g., over 300 from Pakistan).
What is described as the primary significance of gaining citizenship under the CAA for the beneficiaries in the article?
- A.It provides them with immediate government employment.
- B.It serves as a legal status and a lifeline, freeing them from visa uncertainty.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It guarantees them financial assistance from the Indian government.
- D.It allows them to claim ancestral property in their home countries.
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Explanation
The article's concluding section quotes an official saying citizenship is 'not just a legal status but a lifeline, freeing them from the uncertainty of visa renewals.' Other options like employment or financial aid are not mentioned as primary significances.
The High Court judgment discussed the regularisation of backdoor appointments under which specific Act?
- A.The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019
- B.The Central Civil Services (Conduct) Rules, 1964
- C.The Jammu and Kashmir Civil Services (Special Provisions) Act, 2010✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Right to Information Act, 2005
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the court referred to the 'Jammu and Kashmir Civil Services (Special Provisions) Act, 2010' as the latest in a series of measures aimed at regularising backdoor appointments. This is a state-specific act relevant to the case.
Consider the following statements regarding the judgment by the Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh High Court:
1. The court stayed fresh recruitment at the University of Kashmir and dismissed pleas for regularization.
2. The bench declared that the state has rendered the provisions of Articles 15 and 19 of the Constitution redundant.
3. The court emphasized that petitioners cannot claim the enforcement of negative equality based on past regularisations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the court stayed fresh recruitment and dismissed the petitioners' pleas. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court said the state rendered Articles 14 and 16 redundant, not Articles 15 and 19. Statement 3 is correct as the bench emphasized that petitioners cannot claim negative equality. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the news, for how many years had the petitioners been working on a contract basis as junior engineers at the University of Kashmir before approaching the court?
- A.5 years
- B.7 years
- C.9 years✓ Correct Answer
- D.12 years
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the petitioners were 'working on contact basis for the last nine years as junior engineers'. They were engaged in 2017, and the article is from 2026, which corroborates the nine-year duration.
What was the primary constitutional rationale used by the High Court to term backdoor appointments a 'fraud on the Constitution'?
- A.It violates the federal structure by undermining the role of the Union Public Service Commission.
- B.It denies citizens their right to equality and equal opportunity in matters of public employment.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It contradicts the directive principles of state policy related to living wages.
- D.It goes against the constitutional provisions for reservation in public employment.
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Explanation
The court's core argument, as stated in the article, is that the 'modus operandi' of backdoor appointments 'deny citizens their right to equality and equal opportunity in matters of employment', thereby rendering Articles 14 and 16 of the Constitution 'redundant and a dead letter'. This is the primary constitutional violation identified.
Crisil, mentioned in the news report, is primarily a?
- A.Public Sector Bank
- B.Credit Rating Agency✓ Correct Answer
- C.Stock Exchange
- D.Insurance Regulatory Body
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Explanation
Crisil (Credit Rating Information Services of India Limited) is a leading credit rating agency in India. The article refers to it as a 'rating agency' and 'Crisil Ratings', which assesses corporate credit quality.
Consider the following statements regarding the Crisil report on the West Asia conflict's impact:
1. It projects a decline of 200 basis points in corporate operating profitability for FY27.
2. The stress test assumed supply-chain disruptions would last for six months and crude oil prices at $95 per barrel.
3. The report states that the credit quality of 22 sectors, accounting for 65% of rated corporate debt, would be materially impacted.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: the stress test assumed disruptions for nine months (not six) and crude at $110/barrel (not $95). Statement 3 is incorrect: it is 8 sectors (not 22) whose credit quality would be materially impacted; 22 sectors face a profitability impact of more than 10%.
According to the Crisil report, what was the pre-conflict estimate for corporate operating profitability that serves as the baseline?
- A.10%
- B.11%
- C.12%✓ Correct Answer
- D.13%
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Explanation
The article clearly states: "Operating profitability of Indian companies could decline by nearly 200 basis points from the pre-conflict estimate of 12%..." This makes 12% the critical baseline figure.
As per the Crisil analysis, what is the primary reason cited for the overall resilience of India Inc's credit quality despite profitability pressures?
- A.A significant increase in exports to new markets
- B.Strong corporate balance sheets and steady domestic demand✓ Correct Answer
- C.A sharp decline in global interest rates
- D.Massive layoffs reducing operational costs
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Explanation
The article explicitly states resilience is due to 'strong balance sheets, steady domestic demand and government-led capital expenditure'. It details that median gearing has halved, providing headroom to navigate pressures.
The National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) is conducted by which autonomous body under the Government of India?
- A.University Grants Commission (UGC)
- B.National Testing Agency (NTA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
- D.National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
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Explanation
As per the article's context, the NEET scandal raises questions about the NTA model. The NTA is the autonomous body established specifically to conduct entrance examinations like NEET and JEE for higher education institutions in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the issues discussed in the article:
1. The NEET paper leak and CBSE's last-minute changes are seen as isolated administrative errors.
2. The article argues that India's education problems stem from a failure to balance centralisation with varied state-level implementation capacities.
3. A proposed solution includes conducting high-stakes exams like JEE or NEET multiple times a year, with the best score considered.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article clearly states these incidents are not isolated but reveal a larger structural problem. Statement 2 is correct as the article identifies the core reason as the tension between centralisation and competence. Statement 3 is correct as one of the proposed pledges is to conduct such exams across the entire year with multiple chances.
According to the article, what is identified as the primary flaw in the administrative response to education scandals like paper leaks?
- A.Lack of sufficient funding for security measures
- B.Over-reliance on technological solutions
- C.Accountability that is episodic rather than systemic✓ Correct Answer
- D.Excessive involvement of the judiciary
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The answer is troubling: accountability is episodic, not systemic, in many sectors of administration.' This means the system only reacts to scandals (episodic) instead of having built-in, continuous accountability mechanisms (systemic).
What is the fundamental governance reform suggested in the article to fix India's education system?
- A.Privatising all major entrance examinations
- B.Shifting education entirely to the State List from the Concurrent List
- C.Overhauling the governance framework to prioritize predictability, transparency, and implementation capacity✓ Correct Answer
- D.Abolishing all national-level boards like CBSE and replacing them with state boards
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Explanation
The article argues that piecemeal solutions like 'fix the exam' are insufficient. The necessity is for a deeper reform of the educational administration based on the principles of predictability, transparency, and preparedness for implementation at state and district levels.
The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (Quad) is a minilateral forum involving which of the following countries?
- A.India, USA, Japan, Australia✓ Correct Answer
- B.India, USA, UK, France
- C.India, Russia, China, Pakistan
- D.India, Japan, Australia, Indonesia
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Explanation
As mentioned in the article's context of minilateral cooperation, the Quad comprises India, the United States, Japan, and Australia. It is a key platform for strategic dialogue in the Indo-Pacific.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-US relationship as discussed in the article:
1. The US has steadily de-hyphenated its policy towards India from its policy towards Pakistan.
2. The relationship is characterized by deep social and cultural linkages that are absent in India's ties with Russia.
3. Under President Trump's second term, the US has moved away from unilateralism and deepened its reliance on traditional alliances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states Washington has 'steadily de-hyphenated India from Pakistan'. Statement 2 is correct as it highlights the 'social intimacy' missing with Russia. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states Trump is 'more sceptical about the value of partnerships' and believes in unilateral management.
According to the article, which country is described as India's 'most consequential neighbour'?
- A.Pakistan
- B.China✓ Correct Answer
- C.Bangladesh
- D.Russia
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'While Russia may be India’s “best friend forever” and China its most consequential neighbour...'. This is a direct factual extraction from the text.
What is identified in the article as a primary reason for India's unique obsession with its relationship with the United States, compared to Russia or China?
- A.Overwhelming military superiority of the US
- B.Deep societal linkages encompassing culture, education, and business✓ Correct Answer
- C.A formal military alliance treaty between the two nations
- D.Complete alignment on geopolitical issues like the Ukraine war
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Explanation
The article argues that the intensity stems from the 'Indian elite’s social links, mobility plans, cultural aspirations, intellectual networks, and technological connections with the US', and a 'huge business dimension'. This societal depth is absent in relations with Russia or China.
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For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
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What are the important current affairs questions for 26 May 2026?▼
This page contains 136 current affairs questions from 26 May 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 26 May 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
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Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
- Q1. institution is primarily responsible for intervening in the fo…
- Q2. Consider the following statements regarding factors affecting …
- Q3. As per the article, what was the approximate level of India's …
- Q4. is a primary negative consequence of the rupee's depreciation,…
- Q5. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Finance …
- Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the 16th Finance C…
- Q7. According to the article, what was the approximate combined sh…
- Q8. is a primary concern raised in the article regarding continued…
- Q9. The 'critical minerals framework' was signed between India and…
- Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the India-US criti…
- Q11. According to the article, what is the approximate value of res…
- Q12. is a primary strategic objective of the India-US critical mine…
- Q13. Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commis…
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
- Q15. On which date did the Supreme Court bench reserve its decision…
- Q16. is the core legal question being examined by the Supreme Court…
- Q17. High Court delivered the judgment quashing an FIR against an a…
- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the Allahabad High…
- Q19. According to the news, what was the percentage of disputed tax…
- Q20. was the primary constitutional rationale given by the Allahaba…
- Q21. of the following is the apex body responsible for formulating …
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Fina…
- Q23. As per the RBI's latest forecast mentioned in the article, wha…
- Q24. was a primary geopolitical concern driving the agenda of the r…
- Q25. As per the news, which regulatory body's rules were allegedly …
- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the HDFC Bank case…
- Q27. According to the article, what was the total deposit base of H…
- Q28. is the primary ethical issue highlighted by the HDFC Bank vigi…
- Q29. regulatory body's Master Directions were allegedly violated by…
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the HDFC Bank case…
- Q31. According to the internal vigilance investigation, what was th…
- Q32. is the primary regulatory concern highlighted by the HDFC Bank…
- Q33. central ministry is impleaded as a party in the Supreme Court'…
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q35. According to the state's data provided in the article, how man…
- Q36. is the primary reason the Supreme Court expressed displeasure …
- Q37. committee of the Union Environment Ministry recommended enviro…
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the Vedanta Sijima…
- Q39. According to the article, what is the total bauxite reserve pr…
- Q40. is a primary reason for the opposition from local tribal commu…
- Q41. Under which Union Ministry does the Border Security Force (BSF…
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the recent announc…
- Q43. To what distance from the international border has the BSF's j…
- Q44. is a primary objective behind the expansion of the BSF's juris…
- Q45. ministry/department is responsible for negotiating the India-C…
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the India-Canada t…
- Q47. According to the article, what is the target for India-Canada …
- Q48. is a key strategic objective behind India pursuing a CEPA with…
- Q49. government office is responsible for publishing the Sample Reg…
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the findings of th…
- Q51. According to the SRS 2024 report, what is India's current Tota…
- Q52. is the primary demographic implication of India's Total Fertil…
- Q53. Under which Constitutional Amendment is the formation of Nagar…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the challenges in …
- Q55. According to the article, what is the projected number of new …
- Q56. is a primary reason cited in the article for the water crisis …
- Q57. government office is responsible for conducting the Sample Reg…
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the Sample Registr…
- Q59. According to the SRS 2024 report, what is India's Total Fertil…
- Q60. is the primary implication of India's Total Fertility Rate (TF…
- Q61. The India-US critical minerals framework was signed on the sid…
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the India-US criti…
- Q63. On which date was the India-US critical minerals cooperation f…
- Q64. is a primary strategic objective of the India-US critical mine…
- Q65. Indian minister presided over the Quad Foreign Ministers' meet…
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the Quad Foreign M…
- Q67. According to the news article, on which date was the Quad Fore…
- Q68. was a key strategic concern that formed the backdrop for the Q…
- Q69. The China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) is a flagship proj…
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the recent China-P…
- Q71. According to the news, which key mountain pass and highway are…
- Q72. was a key security concern for Beijing that Pakistan addressed…
- Q73. The foreign ministers' meeting of the Quad grouping was hosted…
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the Quad grouping:…
- Q75. According to the article, in which year was the Quadrilateral …
- Q76. is a primary strategic reason, as per the article, for the Qua…
- Q77. The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (Quad) is an informal stra…
- Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the initiatives la…
- Q79. According to the article, what percentage of global maritime t…
- Q80. is the primary strategic objective behind the Quad's launch of…
- Q81. ministry/department serves as the Member Secretary for the new…
- Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the high-level com…
- Q83. On which date did Prime Minister Narendra Modi announce the fo…
- Q84. According to the Union Home Minister, what is the primary chal…
- Q85. The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (Quad) is an informal stra…
- Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q87. On which date was the Quad Foreign Ministers' Meeting held, as…
- Q88. is the primary strategic objective behind the Quad's announcem…
- Q89. statutory body is primarily responsible for implementing the C…
- Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the Mekedatu proje…
- Q91. According to the news article, what is the proposed power gene…
- Q92. was the primary reason given by the Supreme Court for dismissi…
- Q93. regulatory body announced the pilot project for tokenisation o…
- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the SEBI pilot pro…
- Q95. According to the SEBI Chairman, what is the expected timeline …
- Q96. is a primary potential benefit of tokenising corporate bonds, …
- Q97. constitutional article empowers the Supreme Court to pass orde…
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q99. By what date did the Supreme Court ask the states of UP, MP, a…
- Q100. is the primary objective behind the Supreme Court's direction …
- Q101. quasi-judicial body is responsible for declaring a person a fo…
- Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the Gauhati High C…
- Q103. According to the 1985 Assam Accord, what is the official cut-o…
- Q104. was the primary legal basis cited by the Gauhati High Court fo…
- Q105. institution in India is primarily responsible for managing the…
- Q106. Consider the following statements regarding factors affecting …
- Q107. According to the article, what was the value of India's foreig…
- Q108. is the primary conceptual framework used in the article to ana…
- Q109. Under which ministry has the High-Level Committee on Demograph…
- Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the High-Level Com…
- Q111. Within what timeframe is the High-Level Committee on Demograph…
- Q112. is described as a primary cause of the 'unnatural demographic …
- Q113. regulatory body is exploring reforms to deepen India's corpora…
- Q114. Consider the following statements regarding SEBI's proposed de…
- Q115. According to SEBI Chairman Tuhin Kanta Pandey, what did he lab…
- Q116. is a primary objective of SEBI's proposed reforms to the debt …
- Q117. The district-level committee for examining citizenship applica…
- Q118. Consider the following statements regarding the news article: …
- Q119. According to the article, how many individuals from Pakistan a…
- Q120. is described as the primary significance of gaining citizenshi…
- Q121. The High Court judgment discussed the regularisation of backdo…
- Q122. Consider the following statements regarding the judgment by th…
- Q123. According to the news, for how many years had the petitioners …
- Q124. was the primary constitutional rationale used by the High Cour…
- Q125. Crisil, mentioned in the news report, is primarily a?
- Q126. Consider the following statements regarding the Crisil report …
- Q127. According to the Crisil report, what was the pre-conflict esti…
- Q128. As per the Crisil analysis, what is the primary reason cited f…
- Q129. The National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) is conducted…
- Q130. Consider the following statements regarding the issues discuss…
- Q131. According to the article, what is identified as the primary fl…
- Q132. is the fundamental governance reform suggested in the article …
- Q133. The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (Quad) is a minilateral fo…
- Q134. Consider the following statements regarding the India-US relat…
- Q135. According to the article, which country is described as India'…
- Q136. is identified in the article as a primary reason for India's u…