21 May 2026, Questions & Answers

108 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

108 questions  ·  0 topics covered  ·  22 min revision

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This page contains 108 current affairs questions with answers from 21 May 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

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21 May 2026, Questions with Answers

108 Qs
Q1.

The decennial Census of India is conducted under the administrative control of which Union Ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
  • C.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
  • D.Ministry of Rural Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, which conducts the Census, operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs. This is a key static GK fact for governance-related questions.

Source: Census 2027: Caste Data After 1951, NRI Exclusion & Digital Enumeration for Lok Sabha Delimitation →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding the upcoming 2027 Census:

1. It will be the first Census since Independence to include a question on caste.

2. Its population data will be used for the delimitation of Lok Sabha constituencies.

3. It will follow a pure 'de jure' method of enumeration, counting people at their permanent place of residence.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The 2027 Census will include caste data for the first time since the 1951 Census (post-Independence). Statement 2 is correct: Census data is constitutionally mandated for delimitation. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Indian Census follows an 'extended de facto' method, not a pure 'de jure' method.

Source: Census 2027: Caste Data After 1951, NRI Exclusion & Digital Enumeration for Lok Sabha Delimitation →
Q3.

As per the article, what is the approximate number of Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) living abroad, according to the Ministry of External Affairs website?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.About 1.58 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • B.About 2.25 crore
  • C.About 75 lakh
  • D.About 50 lakh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly cites the Ministry of External Affairs website, stating there are about 1.58 crore NRIs living abroad. This is a key data point with implications for delimitation and representation.

Source: Census 2027: Caste Data After 1951, NRI Exclusion & Digital Enumeration for Lok Sabha Delimitation →
Q4.

What is a major implication of excluding Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) from the Census count, as discussed in the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It simplifies the data collection process for enumerators.
  • B.It leads to a representational gap affecting the allocation of Lok Sabha seats to states during delimitation.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It ensures that only tax-paying residents are considered for government schemes.
  • D.It aligns the Census methodology with international standards set by the UN.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article argues that since NRIs are not counted in the Census but can be registered as voters, states with high emigration (like Kerala) may lose out on Lok Sabha seat allocation during delimitation, which is based on Census population figures. This creates a representational asymmetry.

Source: Census 2027: Caste Data After 1951, NRI Exclusion & Digital Enumeration for Lok Sabha Delimitation →
Q5.

Which investigative agency was involved in the Supreme Court case 'Syed Iftikhar Andrabi vs National Investigation Agency, Jammu'?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
  • B.National Investigation Agency (NIA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Enforcement Directorate (ED)
  • D.Intelligence Bureau (IB)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The case name explicitly mentions the National Investigation Agency (NIA). The NIA is India's central counter-terrorism law enforcement agency, established after the 2008 Mumbai attacks.

Source: Supreme Court Affirms Bail as Rule Under UAPA, Disapproves Gulfisha Fatima Ruling in Andrabi vs NIA Case →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's Andrabi ruling:

1. The ruling granted bail to an accused who had spent over five years in pre-trial custody under the UAPA.

2. It held that the bail restrictions under Section 43-D(5) of UAPA are absolute and cannot be diluted under any circumstance.

3. The judgment disapproved the reasoning in the two-judge bench rulings of Gurwinder Singh (2024) and Gulfisha Fatima (2026).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states bail was granted after over five years and nine months in custody. Statement 2 is incorrect; the ruling held that the rigours of Section 43-D(5) can 'melt down' when trial is delayed. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly states the judgment disapproved the reasoning in those two cases.

Source: Supreme Court Affirms Bail as Rule Under UAPA, Disapproves Gulfisha Fatima Ruling in Andrabi vs NIA Case →
Q7.

For how long had Syed Iftikhar Andrabi been in pre-trial custody before being granted bail by the Supreme Court?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Over 3 years
  • B.Over 4 years and 6 months
  • C.Over 5 years and 9 months✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Over 7 years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that Syed Iftikhar Andrabi had spent "over five years and nine months in pre-trial custody." This is a key factual detail highlighting the issue of prolonged detention.

Source: Supreme Court Affirms Bail as Rule Under UAPA, Disapproves Gulfisha Fatima Ruling in Andrabi vs NIA Case →
Q8.

What is the primary legal principle that the Supreme Court's Andrabi ruling sought to reaffirm against the stringent UAPA bail provision?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The principle of 'innocent until proven guilty' under all circumstances.
  • B.The primacy of the right to personal liberty and a speedy trial under Article 21.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The absolute power of the judiciary to grant bail in any case.
  • D.The supremacy of parliamentary laws over judicial precedents.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the judgment reiterated that "the right to personal liberty and a speedy trial cannot be subservient to the provision in Section 43-D(5)." This is a direct application of Article 21 of the Constitution. The ruling does not create an absolute right to bail but establishes a constitutional check on prolonged detention.

Source: Supreme Court Affirms Bail as Rule Under UAPA, Disapproves Gulfisha Fatima Ruling in Andrabi vs NIA Case →
Q9.

Vijay Gokhale, whose analysis forms the basis of the article, has served as which of the following?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Security Advisor
  • B.Chief of Army Staff
  • C.Foreign Secretary and Ambassador to China✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly identifies Vijay Gokhale as a former Foreign Secretary and former Ambassador to China. This is a static linkage to India's diplomatic service structure.

Source: China's India Policy Aims to Maintain Neutrality via Coercion, Not Territorial Gains, Per Analysis of 1962 & 2020 Crises →
Q10.

Consider the following statements based on the analysis by Vijay Gokhale:

1. China's decision to go to war in 1962 was primarily driven by the objective of territorial expansion in the Himalayas.

2. A key Chinese objective in its relationship with India has been to prevent India from aligning with either the U.S. or Russia.

3. The current phase of India-China relations post-2020 is best described as a period of 'armed coexistence'.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the article argues the 1962 war was driven by political objectives (cutting India down as a rival, Mao's domestic comeback) and global context, not primarily territorial aims. Statement 2 is correct as the article states China's fundamental objective is to 'keep India neutral'. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly defines the current phase as 'armed coexistence'.

Source: China's India Policy Aims to Maintain Neutrality via Coercion, Not Territorial Gains, Per Analysis of 1962 & 2020 Crises →
Q11.

According to the analysis, what was a significant factor enabling China's military action against India in 1962?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.A formal military alliance between India and the United States.
  • B.The perceived neutrality of both the U.S. and the Soviet Union regarding the dispute.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.India's withdrawal from the Non-Aligned Movement.
  • D.A severe economic crisis within China that demanded external diversion.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that by 1962, China understood that 'both the U.S. and Soviet Union were now less likely to interfere in any military operation China might launch against India', creating a permissive global environment. This is cited as a key factor alongside domestic politics.

Source: China's India Policy Aims to Maintain Neutrality via Coercion, Not Territorial Gains, Per Analysis of 1962 & 2020 Crises →
Q12.

What is the primary strategic implication for India, as derived from the analysis that China views the relationship in a global context?

MediumUPSC
  • A.India should focus solely on strengthening its bilateral border negotiations with China.
  • B.India must recognize that its policies are assessed by China through the lens of U.S.-China or Russia-China competition.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.India needs to abandon all multilateral engagements to avoid provoking China.
  • D.India's military strategy should be based solely on the territorial claims along the LAC.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core argument of the article is that 'Beijing has never looked at [India-China relations] that way, and will never look at it that way either' in a purely bilateral context. Therefore, India's foreign policy moves, such as Quad engagement, are interpreted by China within the larger global power struggle, necessitating a strategically aware posture.

Source: China's India Policy Aims to Maintain Neutrality via Coercion, Not Territorial Gains, Per Analysis of 1962 & 2020 Crises →
Q13.

The Supreme Court judgment on stray dogs cited a violation of which fundamental right under the Constitution of India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Right to Equality (Article 14)
  • B.Right to Freedom of Speech (Article 19)
  • C.Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Right against Exploitation (Article 23)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court explicitly held that the unchecked presence of stray dogs in public institutions poses a direct threat to citizens' right to life and safety under Article 21 of the Constitution. This article guarantees the protection of life and personal liberty.

Source: Supreme Court Orders Stray Dog Removal from Schools, Hospitals Under Article 21 Citing 4.8 Lakh Bites, 42 Deaths in 2026 →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment on stray dogs:

1. The Court ordered the removal of stray dogs specifically from institutional premises like schools and hospitals.

2. The judgment interpreted the Animal Birth Control Rules, 2023, as mandating the release of sterilised dogs back into the exact same location, including airports.

3. The Court directed states to identify and secure all such institutional premises within a period of two weeks.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Court's order specifically focuses on schools, hospitals, transport hubs, etc. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court held that the ABC Rules do NOT mandate the compulsory reintroduction of dogs into sensitive institutional premises. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the two-week deadline for states to identify and secure premises.

Source: Supreme Court Orders Stray Dog Removal from Schools, Hospitals Under Article 21 Citing 4.8 Lakh Bites, 42 Deaths in 2026 →
Q15.

As cited in the Supreme Court judgment, what was the total number of dog bite cases reported in Tamil Nadu in the first four months of 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Approximately 1.5 lakh cases
  • B.Approximately 2 lakh cases
  • C.Approximately 2.63 lakh cases✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Approximately 3 lakh cases
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Tamil Nadu recorded nearly 2.63 lakh dog-bite cases in the first four months of 2026. The other options are close distractors based on figures for other states or time periods mentioned.

Source: Supreme Court Orders Stray Dog Removal from Schools, Hospitals Under Article 21 Citing 4.8 Lakh Bites, 42 Deaths in 2026 →
Q16.

What was the primary legal reasoning the Supreme Court used to justify the removal of stray dogs from institutional areas, despite the Animal Birth Control Rules?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.That stray dogs are not covered under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act.
  • B.That the 'same locality' rule in the ABC Rules does not apply to sensitive institutional premises like schools and hospitals.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.That local municipal laws always supersede central animal welfare rules.
  • D.That the dogs posed a threat to national security at airports.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Court performed a harmonious interpretation, holding that sensitive institutional premises cannot be equated with ordinary public streets or open-access localities. It concluded that the statutory scheme does not mandate the compulsory reintroduction of dogs into such secured institutional areas, thereby balancing the ABC Rules with the State's duty under Article 21.

Source: Supreme Court Orders Stray Dog Removal from Schools, Hospitals Under Article 21 Citing 4.8 Lakh Bites, 42 Deaths in 2026 →
Q17.

The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), discussed in the news, replaced which earlier legislation governing criminal procedure in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Indian Penal Code, 1860
  • B.The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
  • C.The Criminal Procedure Code, 1973✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The Indian Police Act, 1861
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As stated in the article, the BNSS replaced the colonial era Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) on July 1, 2024. The Indian Penal Code (IPC) and Indian Evidence Act are substantive and evidence laws, respectively, not primarily procedural codes.

Source: Supreme Court Mandates Pre-Cognisance Hearing Under BNSS Section 223(1), Quashes PMLA Proceedings as Void Ab Initio →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment discussed in the news:

1. The Court held that the hearing before cognisance under BNSS is a substantive right flowing from Article 21 of the Constitution.

2. The Court accepted the Enforcement Directorate's argument that the PMLA is a stand-alone statute, making BNSS procedures inapplicable.

3. The Court ruled that cognisance taken without the mandatory hearing under Section 223(1) of BNSS is 'void ab initio'.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the first proviso to Section 223(1) was 'a substantive right flowing from Article 21'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Supreme Court 'rejected the argument outright' that PMLA is a stand-alone statute overriding BNSS. Statement 3 is correct as the court declared such cognisance 'void ab initio'.

Source: Supreme Court Mandates Pre-Cognisance Hearing Under BNSS Section 223(1), Quashes PMLA Proceedings as Void Ab Initio →
Q19.

From which date did the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) come into force, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.January 26, 2024
  • B.April 1, 2024
  • C.July 1, 2024✓ Correct Answer
  • D.October 2, 2024
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'the new criminal laws came into force on July 1, 2024' and that 'BNSS... replaced the colonial era Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) on July 1, 2024'.

Source: Supreme Court Mandates Pre-Cognisance Hearing Under BNSS Section 223(1), Quashes PMLA Proceedings as Void Ab Initio →
Q20.

What was the primary constitutional basis cited by the Supreme Court for mandating a pre-cognisance hearing under the BNSS?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Article 14 - Right to Equality
  • B.Article 19 - Freedom of Speech
  • C.Article 21 - Protection of Life and Personal Liberty✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 32 - Right to Constitutional Remedies
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Court held the mandatory hearing was 'a substantive right flowing from Article 21 (protection of life and personal liberty) of the Constitution'. This links the procedural safeguard directly to the fundamental right to a fair trial.

Source: Supreme Court Mandates Pre-Cognisance Hearing Under BNSS Section 223(1), Quashes PMLA Proceedings as Void Ab Initio →
Q21.

Which institution in India is the primary authority for managing the country's Balance of Payments and exchange rate policy?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Finance
  • D.NITI Aayog
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central bank and the primary authority responsible for managing the country's foreign exchange reserves, exchange rate policy, and overall Balance of Payments, as outlined in the RBI Act, 1934.

Source: India's BoP Under Pressure: CAD to Widen to $100 Billion, FDI Dries Up Amid Global Tightening →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding the Balance of Payments situation discussed in the article:

1. The pressure on the rupee is primarily emanating from a widening Current Account Deficit (CAD).

2. India's net Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) has shown a strong correlation with US 10-Year Treasury yields since 2010.

3. The article projects India's CAD to widen to approximately $100 billion in the current fiscal year due to high crude oil prices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article explicitly states the pressure point is the capital account (drying up of FDI), not the current account. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions India's net FDI is strongly correlated with US 10-Year Treasuries. Statement 3 is correct as oil analysts estimate the CAD could widen close to $100 billion this fiscal.

Source: India's BoP Under Pressure: CAD to Widen to $100 Billion, FDI Dries Up Amid Global Tightening →
Q23.

According to the article, what was the average Current Account Deficit (CAD) as a percentage of GDP over the last three years?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Less than 0.5% of GDP
  • B.Less than 1% of GDP✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Around 1.5% of GDP
  • D.Around 2% of GDP
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'the current account deficit has averaged less than 1 per cent of GDP over the last three years.' This is a key data point highlighting that the current BoP stress is not due to a traditionally large CAD.

Source: India's BoP Under Pressure: CAD to Widen to $100 Billion, FDI Dries Up Amid Global Tightening →
Q24.

What is the primary policy response advocated in the article to address the unique Balance of Payments pressures described?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Aggressively tightening fiscal and monetary policy to compress the Current Account Deficit.
  • B.Implementing strict capital controls to prevent outflows and stabilize the rupee.
  • C.A dual approach of allowing rupee depreciation and implementing capital augmentation measures.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Focusing solely on attracting portfolio investments (FPI) through tax incentives.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article argues that rupee depreciation is necessary but insufficient alone. It strongly advocates for 'capital augmentation measures' as a circuit breaker to attract near-term inflows and change market narrative, forming a dual strategy. It warns that simply squeezing the CAD through 'expenditure compression' could be counterproductive.

Source: India's BoP Under Pressure: CAD to Widen to $100 Billion, FDI Dries Up Amid Global Tightening →
Q25.

The analysis in the article is authored by a retired officer associated with which Indian think tank?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Institute for Defence Studies and Analyses (IDSA)
  • B.Centre for Air Power Studies (CAPS)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Observer Research Foundation (ORF)
  • D.Vivekananda International Foundation (VIF)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's author is identified as a retired Air Vice Marshal and former Additional Director General of the Centre for Air Power Studies (CAPS). This is a well-known Indian think tank focusing on air power and strategic studies.

Source: Operation Sindoor 2025 Showcases Drone-CUAS Dynamics, India Plans 'Sudarshan Chakra' Air Defence by 2035 →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding drone warfare as discussed in the article:

1. Drones represent a revolutionary change in warfare by creating a new domain called the 'air littoral'.

2. In Operation Sindoor, waves of individual drones sent by Pakistan were neutralised by India's integrated Counter-Unmanned Aerial Systems (CUAS).

3. The integration of Artificial Intelligence in drones is leading to fully autonomous operations, a development being examined by a United Nations committee for ethical issues.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article argues drones are evolutionary, not revolutionary, and that the term 'air littoral' is misleading as they operate within the existing air domain. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's description of Operation Sindoor. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions AI integration leading to autonomy and a UN committee examining the ethics.

Source: Operation Sindoor 2025 Showcases Drone-CUAS Dynamics, India Plans 'Sudarshan Chakra' Air Defence by 2035 →
Q27.

According to the article, by which year is India envisaging to have its 'Sudarshan Chakra' integrated air defence system in place?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2028
  • B.2030
  • C.2035✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2040
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India is envisaging a nationwide terrestrial and space-based 'Sudarshan Chakra' to be in place by 2035. The other options are plausible distractors for long-term defence projects.

Source: Operation Sindoor 2025 Showcases Drone-CUAS Dynamics, India Plans 'Sudarshan Chakra' Air Defence by 2035 →
Q28.

What is a primary strategic implication of drone warfare highlighted in the article, as demonstrated by Ukraine's Operation Spider's Web?

MediumUPSC
  • A.It reduces the overall cost of military engagements significantly.
  • B.It shifts the boundaries of kinetic warfare hundreds of kilometres into a nation's interior.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It makes traditional air superiority achieved by manned aircraft obsolete.
  • D.It primarily benefits non-state actors over conventional state armies.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article cites Ukraine's innovative drone strike deep inside Russia (Operation Spider's Web) to illustrate that drone warfare extends the battlefield, creating a new requirement to protect assets located deep within a nation's interior on a continuous basis.

Source: Operation Sindoor 2025 Showcases Drone-CUAS Dynamics, India Plans 'Sudarshan Chakra' Air Defence by 2035 →
Q29.

Which body publishes the India Justice Report, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB)
  • B.Tata Trusts✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Law Commission of India
  • D.Supreme Court of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions the India Justice Report, which is published by Tata Trusts in collaboration with other partners. This is a key static GK fact linked to governance and social justice reports.

Source: Justice Budget Analysis Shows Police Gets 80% Allocation, Judiciary Under 1% of State Budgets →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding justice budgets in India as per the article:

1. Across 11 high-GDP states, policing accounted for over 80% of all justice-related allocations.

2. Judiciary budgets accounted for more than 2% of the total State budgets.

3. The actual judge strength stands at 15 judges per 10 lakh population, which is below the 1987 Law Commission recommendation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states policing accounted for over 80% of justice allocations. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states judiciary budgets accounted for less than 1% of total State budgets. Statement 3 is correct as it mentions the current strength is 15 judges per 10 lakh population, below the 1987 Law Commission recommendation of 50.

Source: Justice Budget Analysis Shows Police Gets 80% Allocation, Judiciary Under 1% of State Budgets →
Q31.

According to the article, what is the approximate per capita spending on free legal aid in India?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹9✓ Correct Answer
  • B.₹150
  • C.₹450
  • D.₹1,500
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides specific per capita spending figures: ₹450 on judiciary, ₹9 on free legal aid, ₹150 on prisons, and ₹1,500 on the police. This is a direct factual data point for Prelims.

Source: Justice Budget Analysis Shows Police Gets 80% Allocation, Judiciary Under 1% of State Budgets →
Q32.

What is the primary implication of the skewed justice budget allocation, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It leads to higher economic growth due to efficient policing.
  • B.It creates a system focused on enforcement and surveillance rather than access, adjudication, or rehabilitation.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It reduces the fiscal burden on state governments significantly.
  • D.It ensures faster disposal of cases in district courts.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core analysis points out that when policing takes the majority of funding, it reveals an architecture structured primarily around enforcement and surveillance, not access, adjudication, or rehabilitation. This is the central implication of the budget imbalance.

Source: Justice Budget Analysis Shows Police Gets 80% Allocation, Judiciary Under 1% of State Budgets →
Q33.

Which entity is the implementing agency for the Mumbai-Ahmedabad High Speed Rail Corridor, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Railways
  • B.National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)
  • C.National High Speed Rail Corporation Ltd (NHSRCL)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the National High Speed Rail Corporation Ltd (NHSRCL) as the entity whose senior official provided project updates. NHSRCL is the special purpose vehicle (SPV) set up to implement high-speed rail projects in India.

Source: Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train Project: 92% (465 km) Viaduct, 8,500/11,500 Girders Launched; First Section (Surat-Bilimora) by Aug 2027 →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding the Mumbai-Ahmedabad High Speed Rail Corridor:

1. Nearly 92% of the total corridor length will be an elevated viaduct.

2. The girder casting yard at Sakhare village is operated by the National High Speed Rail Corporation Ltd (NHSRCL).

3. The first operational section of the corridor, from Surat to Bilimora, is targeted for completion by August 2027.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states that 465 km out of 508 km (92%) is viaduct. Statement 2 is incorrect: The casting yard is operated by L&T, not NHSRCL. Statement 3 is correct: The article clearly mentions the target date for the Surat-Bilimora section is August 15, 2027.

Source: Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train Project: 92% (465 km) Viaduct, 8,500/11,500 Girders Launched; First Section (Surat-Bilimora) by Aug 2027 →
Q35.

According to the article, what is the approximate total number of girders required to complete the 465-km viaduct for the Mumbai-Ahmedabad High Speed Rail corridor?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.8,500
  • B.9,500
  • C.11,500✓ Correct Answer
  • D.13,500
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly quotes a senior NHSRCL official stating, "for the entire project, around 11,500 girders have to be launched to make the 465-km viaduct." The figure 8,500 is the number already launched, making it a close distractor.

Source: Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train Project: 92% (465 km) Viaduct, 8,500/11,500 Girders Launched; First Section (Surat-Bilimora) by Aug 2027 →
Q36.

What is a key technological and sustainable innovation mentioned in the article regarding the construction of girders for the bullet train viaduct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Using bamboo reinforcement instead of steel.
  • B.Spraying a chemical compound for curing instead of using large amounts of water.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.3D printing the entire girder structure on-site.
  • D.Using recycled plastic waste as a primary construction material.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article describes that the white colour on the girders is a chemical compound sprayed for curing. This innovation prevents cracking by retaining moisture and reflecting sunlight, saving "thousands of litres of water" per girder compared to traditional water curing methods.

Source: Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train Project: 92% (465 km) Viaduct, 8,500/11,500 Girders Launched; First Section (Surat-Bilimora) by Aug 2027 →
Q37.

Which international organization administers the Carbon Offsetting and Reduction Scheme for International Aviation (CORSIA)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.International Energy Agency (IEA)
  • B.United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
  • C.International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.World Trade Organization (WTO)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that CORSIA is 'Administered by the International Civil Aviation Organisation'. ICAO is a UN specialized agency that manages the administration and governance of the Convention on International Civil Aviation.

Source: EU Proposes Extending ETS to International Flights, Emission Allowances Traded at €74.35/t in 2024; CORSIA Global Scheme to Start in 2027 →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding carbon markets discussed in the article:

1. The EU Emissions Trading System (EU ETS) operates on a cap-and-trade principle where the emission cap reduces annually.

2. The Carbon Offsetting and Reduction Scheme for International Aviation (CORSIA) aims for absolute emission reduction, aligning perfectly with the Paris Agreement's mandate.

3. A major criticism of the EU's approach is that it violates the Common But Differentiated Responsibilities (CBDR) principle under the UNFCCC.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article describes the EU ETS cap reducing year by year. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states CORSIA aims for 'carbon-neutral growth' (balancing emissions), while the Paris Agreement mandates 'absolute emission reduction'. Statement 3 is correct as per the criticism quoted from the expert in the article.

Source: EU Proposes Extending ETS to International Flights, Emission Allowances Traded at €74.35/t in 2024; CORSIA Global Scheme to Start in 2027 →
Q39.

According to the International Energy Agency report cited in the article, what percentage of global energy-related CO2 emissions did aviation account for in 2023?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1.5%
  • B.2.0%
  • C.2.5%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.3.0%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly states: "In 2023, the International Energy Agency reported that aviation accounted for 2.5% of global energy-related CO2 emissions". This is a precise data point often asked in prelims.

Source: EU Proposes Extending ETS to International Flights, Emission Allowances Traded at €74.35/t in 2024; CORSIA Global Scheme to Start in 2027 →
Q40.

What is the primary justification cited by the EU for expanding its Emissions Trading System to international flights, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To generate revenue for sustainable aviation fuel research
  • B.To comply with the mandates of the CORSIA agreement
  • C.To prevent 'carbon leakage' where industries might relocate to avoid strict regulations✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To directly fund reforestation projects in developing countries
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: "For the EU, the justification for expanding the EU-ETS is also rooted in 'carbon leakage' — when strict green regulations result in industries relocating to jurisdictions with weaker environmental laws." The other options are either incorrect or describe other mechanisms like CORSIA.

Source: EU Proposes Extending ETS to International Flights, Emission Allowances Traded at €74.35/t in 2024; CORSIA Global Scheme to Start in 2027 →
Q41.

Which central authority is responsible for assessments related to distribution transformer failures in India, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Central Electricity Authority (CEA)✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC)
  • C.Power Grid Corporation of India Limited (PGCIL)
  • D.Ministry of Power
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'Recent assessments by the Central Electricity Authority indicate that nearly 13 lakh distribution transformers (DTs) fail annually in India.' The CEA is the technical arm of the Ministry of Power, responsible for planning and advising on power systems.

Source: India's Peak Power Demand Hits Record 256.1 GW in April 2026, Exposing Grid and Distribution Challenges →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding India's power sector as discussed in the article:

1. India's peak electricity demand on April 25, 2026, was met entirely without any shortage.

2. Nearly one-third of the peak demand on that day was met through renewable energy sources.

3. The regulatory ceiling for electricity prices in the day-ahead market is ₹ 10 per kilowatt-hour.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states that while the national grid held up without shortage during solar hours, the non-solar hours saw a deficit of 2% (4,243 MW). Statement 2 is correct as per the line 'Nearly one-third of this peak demand was met through renewable energy (RE) sources.' Statement 3 is correct as per the data showing rates 'touching the regulatory ceiling of ₹ 10 per kilowatt-hour.'

Source: India's Peak Power Demand Hits Record 256.1 GW in April 2026, Exposing Grid and Distribution Challenges →
Q43.

According to the article, what was the approximate percentage growth in India's peak electricity demand over the last 5 years (from December 2020 to April 2026)?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.25%
  • B.37%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.48%
  • D.52%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides the exact data: 'In the last 5 years, the country’s peak demand has risen by 37% — from 183 GW in December 2020 to over 250 GW in April 2026.' The other options are close distractors.

Source: India's Peak Power Demand Hits Record 256.1 GW in April 2026, Exposing Grid and Distribution Challenges →
Q44.

What is identified as a primary challenge for states with high renewable energy capacity, like Gujarat and Karnataka, during summer peak periods?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Meeting daytime agricultural demand
  • B.Managing steep evening peaks after sunset✓ Correct Answer
  • C.High cost of long-term power purchase agreements
  • D.Intermittent wind generation during monsoon
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that states with high RE capacity 'face steep evening peaks after sunset, for which they need to increasingly depend on energy storage technologies.' While option D is a challenge for Tamil Nadu (mentioned separately), the primary common challenge for solar-rich states is the evening peak when solar generation stops but demand remains high.

Source: India's Peak Power Demand Hits Record 256.1 GW in April 2026, Exposing Grid and Distribution Challenges →
Q45.

Which U.S. federal agency was primarily responsible for investigating and shutting down the India-based call centre fraud operation mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)
  • B.Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Security Agency (NSA)
  • D.Department of Homeland Security (DHS)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the FBI Boston division conducted the investigation and announced the shutdown. The FBI is the primary federal law enforcement and domestic intelligence agency of the United States.

Source: FBI Shuts India-Based Tech Support Fraud Call Centre Targeting Elderly Americans; Five Convictions, $2.1 Billion Loss →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The fraud operation involved tech support scams that cost Americans $2.1 billion last year.

2. Only the Indian call centre operators were convicted; no US-based individuals were held legally responsible.

3. The scam used deceptive pop-ups to direct victims to call centres where they were charged for unnecessary services.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article which mentions "tech support scams cost Americans $2.1 billion last year." Statement 2 is incorrect because two US executives (Adam Young and Harrison Gevirtz) were also convicted for operating the business that facilitated the fraud. Statement 3 is correct as the article describes the method: "deceptive pop-up messages that falsely warned computer users... directed to call phone numbers... persuaded to pay hundreds of dollars for unnecessary or fictitious technical-support services."

Source: FBI Shuts India-Based Tech Support Fraud Call Centre Targeting Elderly Americans; Five Convictions, $2.1 Billion Loss →
Q47.

According to the news, what was the approximate amount of losses reported from tech support scams in the state of Rhode Island alone?

MediumSSC, Banking
  • A.$1.5 million
  • B.$3.8 million
  • C.$5.7 million✓ Correct Answer
  • D.$7.2 million
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states: "residents of Rhode Island alone reported losses of at least $5.7 million." The other figures are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Source: FBI Shuts India-Based Tech Support Fraud Call Centre Targeting Elderly Americans; Five Convictions, $2.1 Billion Loss →
Q48.

What is a key legal implication highlighted by the conviction of the US executives (Adam Young and Harrison Gevirtz) in this case?

MediumUPSC, Law
  • A.It establishes that only direct perpetrators of fraud can be convicted.
  • B.It shows that intermediary service providers have no liability if they are unaware of the fraud.
  • C.It sets a precedent for holding intermediary businesses accountable if they knowingly facilitate criminal activity.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It implies that such frauds are only prosecutable within the country where the call centre operates.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article emphasizes that the executives "admitted to operating a business that provided telecommunications-related services... to customers they knew were engaged in tech-support fraud schemes" and "willfully profited from telemarketing and tech support scammers." This underscores the extension of legal liability to those who enable the crime, not just the direct actors.

Source: FBI Shuts India-Based Tech Support Fraud Call Centre Targeting Elderly Americans; Five Convictions, $2.1 Billion Loss →
Q49.

Which central investigating agency was probing the chit fund scam mentioned in the Supreme Court case?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Investigation Agency (NIA)
  • B.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Enforcement Directorate (ED)
  • D.Income Tax Department
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the multi-hundred-crore chit fund scam involving Micro Finance Limited was probed by the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). The CBI is India's premier investigating agency for major inter-state crimes.

Source: Supreme Court Refuses FIR Clubbing in ₹Multi-Hundred-Crore Chit Fund Scam, Emphasizes Victim-Centric Approach →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's observations in the chit fund scam case:

1. The Court refused a plea to club multiple FIRs registered across different states.

2. The Court emphasized the need for an accused-centric approach in criminal jurisprudence.

3. The Bench acknowledged that recent amendments to criminal law reflect growing recognition of victims' rights.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the SC refused the plea for clubbing FIRs. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court emphasized a victim-centric approach, not accused-centric. Statement 3 is correct as the Bench acknowledged recent amendments reflecting victims' rights. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: Supreme Court Refuses FIR Clubbing in ₹Multi-Hundred-Crore Chit Fund Scam, Emphasizes Victim-Centric Approach →
Q51.

Who was the Chief Justice of India heading the three-judge Bench that made the observations on victim-centric jurisprudence?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
  • B.Justice Surya Kant✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Justice N.V. Ramana
  • D.Justice U.U. Lalit
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly mentions that Chief Justice of India (CJI) Surya Kant, heading a three-judge Bench, made the oral remarks. This is a factual detail from the news report.

Source: Supreme Court Refuses FIR Clubbing in ₹Multi-Hundred-Crore Chit Fund Scam, Emphasizes Victim-Centric Approach →
Q52.

What was the primary reason cited by the Supreme Court for refusing the clubbing of FIRs in the chit fund scam?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To expedite the trial process for the accused.
  • B.To protect the rights of the accused by ensuring a single trial.
  • C.To avoid the financial and logistical burden on the victims traveling to a single location.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To allow different states to prosecute the case independently for higher penalties.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The SC pointed to the severe financial burden on victims, many being small investors from remote regions, who would have to travel long distances if FIRs were clubbed. The court questioned how victims' rights would be protected if such pleas were entertained.

Source: Supreme Court Refuses FIR Clubbing in ₹Multi-Hundred-Crore Chit Fund Scam, Emphasizes Victim-Centric Approach →
Q53.

The Moon base initiative forms a central part of which broader NASA program mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Apollo Program
  • B.Artemis Program✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Commercial Crew Program
  • D.Space Shuttle Program
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The Moon Base initiative forms a central part of NASA’s broader Artemis Program, which aims to return astronauts to the Moon...' The Apollo Program was the historical Moon landing program, while the others are different NASA initiatives.

Source: NASA's Artemis Moon Base: 81 Launches, 3-Phase Plan for Lunar South Pole Habitat by 2026 →
Q54.

Consider the following statements regarding NASA's Moon base plan:

1. It involves a total of 81 launches across three distinct phases of development.

2. The base will be located at the Lunar North Pole to take advantage of continuous sunlight.

3. A primary objective is to lay the groundwork for future crewed missions to Mars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's detailed breakdown of 25+27+29 launches. Statement 2 is incorrect; the base is planned for the Lunar South Pole, which has harsh lighting conditions, not continuous sunlight. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the initiative is 'laying the groundwork for future crewed missions to Mars.'

Source: NASA's Artemis Moon Base: 81 Launches, 3-Phase Plan for Lunar South Pole Habitat by 2026 →
Q55.

According to NASA's blueprint, what is the total number of lunar landings planned across all three phases of the Moon base development?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.71
  • B.73✓ Correct Answer
  • C.79
  • D.81
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides the landing numbers for each phase: Phase 1 (21 landings), Phase 2 (24 landings), and Phase 3 (28 landings). Adding these gives 21 + 24 + 28 = 73 landings. 81 is the total number of launches, which is a close distractor.

Source: NASA's Artemis Moon Base: 81 Launches, 3-Phase Plan for Lunar South Pole Habitat by 2026 →
Q56.

What is a major environmental challenge cited for establishing a base at the Lunar South Pole, according to the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.High levels of solar radiation due to lack of magnetic field
  • B.Frequent meteor showers impacting the surface
  • C.Extended periods of darkness and extreme cold disrupting operations✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Thick atmospheric dust storms obscuring visibility
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically details that the Sun remains low on the horizon at the South Pole, 'casting long shadows' and leading to 'an extended period of darkness and extreme cold' which could disrupt solar power and operations. The Moon has no significant atmosphere for dust storms, and while radiation is a challenge, it is not the primary one highlighted in this context.

Source: NASA's Artemis Moon Base: 81 Launches, 3-Phase Plan for Lunar South Pole Habitat by 2026 →
Q57.

Which Union Ministry is responsible for issuing the advisory on Ebola screening at Indian ports and airports?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of External Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Civil Aviation
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 'Union Health Ministry' issued the advisory. Public health and disease control measures at points of entry are primarily under the mandate of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW).

Source: Union Health Ministry Issues Ebola Screening SOPs at Ports & Airports; WHO Declares Outbreak a PHEIC →
Q58.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent Ebola alert in India:

1. The advisory mandates screening for all international travelers arriving in India.

2. The World Health Organization (WHO) had declared the outbreak a Public Health Emergency of International Concern.

3. The advisory specifically lists travelers from DR Congo, Uganda, and South Sudan as high-risk.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The screening is targeted at travelers from or transiting through the three specified high-risk countries, not all international travelers. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct, as DR Congo, Uganda, and South Sudan are explicitly named.

Source: Union Health Ministry Issues Ebola Screening SOPs at Ports & Airports; WHO Declares Outbreak a PHEIC →
Q59.

According to the news, which of the following is identified as one of the distinct features of Ebola Virus Disease?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Persistent dry cough
  • B.Loss of taste and smell
  • C.Unexplained internal and external bleeding✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Skin rashes
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'While most of the symptoms of the disease are like flu... unexplained internal and external bleeding is one of the distinct features of the disease.' The other options are symptoms associated with other illnesses but not highlighted as distinct for Ebola in this article.

Source: Union Health Ministry Issues Ebola Screening SOPs at Ports & Airports; WHO Declares Outbreak a PHEIC →
Q60.

What is the primary objective of the Health Ministry's advisory on Ebola screening at points of entry?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To treat confirmed Ebola cases within India
  • B.To prevent the importation and potential spread of the Ebola virus in India✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To conduct mass vaccination drives at airports
  • D.To restrict all travel from the African continent
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The advisory is a preventive measure. The article states 'The measures were taken as a matter of precaution' and 'There are no ebola cases in the country as of now.' Its goal is early detection and isolation at the border to prevent the virus from entering and spreading within the country.

Source: Union Health Ministry Issues Ebola Screening SOPs at Ports & Airports; WHO Declares Outbreak a PHEIC →
Q61.

Which Indian minister, as mentioned in the article, announced the upcoming US trade delegation visit?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Minister of External Affairs
  • B.Minister of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Minister of Finance
  • D.Minister of Electronics and Information Technology
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal made the announcement about the US team's likely visit. The Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal ministry for trade negotiations.

Source: India-US Trade Talks Resume Under Interim Pact Framework Amid 10% Tariffs Under Section 122 →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding the US trade measures mentioned in the article:

1. The US imposed 10% additional duties on all imports under Section 122 of the Trade Act for 150 days from February 24.

2. Under Section 122, tariffs of up to 15% can be imposed for a maximum period of 150 days.

3. Under Section 301, there is a cap on the duties that can be levied by the US if investigations conclude that measures adopted by trading partners are harming US interests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is also correct as the article mentions the cap of 15% and 150 days under Section 122. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article clearly states "under Section 301, there is no cap on the duties that can be levied." Hence, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Source: India-US Trade Talks Resume Under Interim Pact Framework Amid 10% Tariffs Under Section 122 →
Q63.

According to Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal, what was the approximate value of investment commitments from American industry in the last six months?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Over $40 billion
  • B.Over $50 billion
  • C.Over $60 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Over $70 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Minister Goyal stated, "In the last six months... probably the number will be upwards of $60 billion." The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Source: India-US Trade Talks Resume Under Interim Pact Framework Amid 10% Tariffs Under Section 122 →
Q64.

What was the primary context prompting the resumption of India-US trade talks, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To negotiate a new free trade agreement replacing the old one
  • B.To finalize the details of the interim pact and advance broader BTA negotiations amidst recent US tariff impositions✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To address intellectual property rights disputes in the pharmaceutical sector
  • D.To align trade policies following India's exit from a multilateral trade bloc
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the Indian side visited Washington in April "to finalise the details of the interim pact and take forward the negotiations under the broader bilateral trade agreement (BTA)." This context is directly linked to the recent US tariff actions under Sections 122 and 301.

Source: India-US Trade Talks Resume Under Interim Pact Framework Amid 10% Tariffs Under Section 122 →
Q65.

Which government agency released the provisional data on India's petroleum imports mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.NITI Aayog
  • B.Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell (PPAC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Directorate General of Hydrocarbons
  • D.Central Electricity Authority
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the latest data is from the Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell (PPAC). PPAC is an attached office of the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas responsible for data collection and analysis in the hydrocarbon sector.

Source: Crude Oil Imports Fall 4.3% but Import Bill Surges 50% to $16.3 Billion in April 2026 Due to Price Shock →
Q66.

Consider the following statements regarding India's petroleum imports in April 2026 as per the news:

1. The volume of crude oil imports decreased compared to the same month last year.

2. The value of the crude oil import bill decreased despite the volume drop.

3. The import dependency on natural gas increased on a year-on-year basis.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Crude oil import volume fell by 4.3%. Statement 2 is incorrect: The import bill surged by 50% to $16.3 billion; it did not decrease. Statement 3 is incorrect: Import dependency on natural gas declined to 41.6% from 49.2%.

Source: Crude Oil Imports Fall 4.3% but Import Bill Surges 50% to $16.3 Billion in April 2026 Due to Price Shock →
Q67.

According to the PPAC data, what was the approximate value of India's crude oil import bill in April 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$10.7 billion
  • B.$13.9 billion
  • C.$16.3 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • D.$20.1 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that India's oil-marketing companies paid $16.3 billion for their crude oil imports in April 2026. $10.7 billion was the bill for April last year, $13.9 billion is the net oil and gas import bill, and 20.1 MMT is the import volume.

Source: Crude Oil Imports Fall 4.3% but Import Bill Surges 50% to $16.3 Billion in April 2026 Due to Price Shock →
Q68.

What is the primary implication of the news that India's crude oil import bill rose sharply despite a fall in import volume?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It indicates a successful reduction in India's energy consumption.
  • B.It highlights India's increasing self-sufficiency in crude oil production.
  • C.It demonstrates the severe impact of global price shocks on India's economy.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It shows the effectiveness of India's strategic petroleum reserves.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core implication is that external price volatility, driven by geopolitics (Strait of Hormuz closure), can drastically increase India's import bill irrespective of volume management. This directly impacts the Current Account Deficit, rupee value, and inflationary pressures, underscoring a key economic vulnerability.

Source: Crude Oil Imports Fall 4.3% but Import Bill Surges 50% to $16.3 Billion in April 2026 Due to Price Shock →
Q69.

The US delegation mentioned in the news is led by the head of which institute?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)
  • B.Nuclear Energy Institute (NEI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Department of Atomic Energy (DAE)
  • D.World Nuclear Association (WNA)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the delegation is led by Maria Korsnick, President and CEO of the Washington DC-based Nuclear Energy Institute (NEI). The IAEA is a UN body, DAE is Indian, and WNA is a global industry association.

Source: US Nuclear Industry Delegation Engages India Post SHANTI Bill to Boost Private Sector Role in Nuclear Energy Projects →
Q70.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The SHANTI Bill allows for private sector participation in India's nuclear energy sector.

2. The US nuclear delegation's visit aims to lecture India on policy demands for collaboration.

3. The India-US Civil Nuclear Agreement of 2008 is cited as a historic precursor to the current engagement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the SHANTI Bill's purpose is to create a clearer opening for private-sector participation. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clarifies the delegation is 'not here to lecture India or present a list of demands' but to engage practically. Statement 3 is correct as Maria Korsnick references the civil nuclear agreement as a 'historic moment' that changed possibilities.

Source: US Nuclear Industry Delegation Engages India Post SHANTI Bill to Boost Private Sector Role in Nuclear Energy Projects →
Q71.

According to the article, how long ago was the SHANTI Bill passed, opening up India's nuclear sector?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Less than three months ago
  • B.Less than six months ago✓ Correct Answer
  • C.About one year ago
  • D.About two years ago
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's second paragraph begins with: 'Less than six months after a landmark legislation opened up India’s nuclear sector...' This legislation is the SHANTI Bill. The other options are distractors not mentioned.

Source: US Nuclear Industry Delegation Engages India Post SHANTI Bill to Boost Private Sector Role in Nuclear Energy Projects →
Q72.

What is identified in the news as a primary reason for the renewed global focus on nuclear energy, making collaborations like the India-US engagement timely?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The need to reduce research and development costs.
  • B.The imperative for energy security amidst geopolitical disruptions.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The goal of achieving complete energy independence from all imports.
  • D.The requirement to meet short-term peak electricity demand.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly links the relevance of nuclear energy to current events, stating countries need energy 'not exposed to fuel-price shocks or geopolitical disruption', specifically referencing the 'Strait of Hormuz crisis and the West Asia war'. This highlights energy security as the core driver, not just cost reduction or independence.

Source: US Nuclear Industry Delegation Engages India Post SHANTI Bill to Boost Private Sector Role in Nuclear Energy Projects →
Q73.

Under which law was the Sri Lankan national in the news article originally convicted?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Security Act (NSA), 1980
  • B.Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), 1967✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Prevention of Terrorism Act (POTA), 2002
  • D.Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA), 1958
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the accused was 'convicted under the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA)'. The UAPA is India's primary anti-terror law, distinguishing it from other security-related acts like POTA (repealed) or AFSPA.

Source: Supreme Court Acquits Sri Lankan National in UAPA-LTTE Case Citing Wrong Identity and Faulty Police Investigation →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment mentioned in the news:

1. The Court acquitted the accused, stating it was a case of wrong identity.

2. The Court upheld the conviction but reduced the sentence.

3. The Court criticized the investigating agency for its failure to apprehend the actual absconding accused.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says the Supreme Court acquitted the man, calling it a 'case of wrong identity'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Court set aside the conviction entirely, it did not uphold it. Statement 3 is correct as the Court noted the 'inaction and indolence' of the investigating agency in not apprehending the absconding accused.

Source: Supreme Court Acquits Sri Lankan National in UAPA-LTTE Case Citing Wrong Identity and Faulty Police Investigation →
Q75.

According to the police case mentioned in the article, what quantity of cyanide capsules was the accused allegedly involved with?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.50 cyanide capsules
  • B.60 cyanide capsules
  • C.75 cyanide capsules✓ Correct Answer
  • D.100 cyanide capsules
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifies that according to police, the accused 'allegedly handed over 75 cyanide capsules... to a co-accused'. The other numbers are close distractors; 60 relates to grams of the chemical GPS-4 mentioned alongside.

Source: Supreme Court Acquits Sri Lankan National in UAPA-LTTE Case Citing Wrong Identity and Faulty Police Investigation →
Q76.

What was the primary reason cited by the Supreme Court for acquitting the accused in the UAPA case?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Lack of jurisdiction of the trial court
  • B.Expiry of the statutory time limit for prosecution
  • C.A case of wrong identity and false implication without evidence✓ Correct Answer
  • D.A technical error in the chargesheet filed by the police
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core of the judgment, as stated in the article, is that the appellant 'has been falsely implicated in this case without there being any evidence to connect him to the crime' and it was a 'case of wrong identity'. The other options are procedural issues not mentioned in the article.

Source: Supreme Court Acquits Sri Lankan National in UAPA-LTTE Case Citing Wrong Identity and Faulty Police Investigation →
Q77.

Which ministry/department in India is responsible for awarding Geographical Indication (GI) tags?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Culture
  • B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Textiles
  • D.Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is the nodal agency for administering the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999, and awarding GI tags in India.

Source: India-Italy Elevate to Special Strategic Partnership, Set €20 Bn Trade Target by 2029; Veera Pasi's 1857 Role Highlighted →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The SHANTI Act, 2025, enabled private sector participation in the operations and fuel management of India's nuclear power sector.

2. The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEEC) is a connectivity project involving ports, railways, and pipelines, with Italy as its eastern anchor.

3. Veera Pasi was a Dalit commander who fought alongside Rana Beni Madhav Baksh Singh during the Revolt of 1857.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the SHANTI Act, 2025, marked a major shift by allowing private players into nuclear operations. Statement 2 is incorrect because Italy is the western anchor, not the eastern anchor, of the IMEEC. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's description of Veera Pasi's role.

Source: India-Italy Elevate to Special Strategic Partnership, Set €20 Bn Trade Target by 2029; Veera Pasi's 1857 Role Highlighted →
Q79.

What is the bilateral trade target set by India and Italy to be achieved by 2029?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.€15 billion
  • B.€18 billion
  • C.€20 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • D.€25 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

During the talks between Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Italian Prime Minister Giorgia Meloni, the two countries set an ambitious trade target of increasing bilateral trade to €20 billion by the year 2029.

Source: India-Italy Elevate to Special Strategic Partnership, Set €20 Bn Trade Target by 2029; Veera Pasi's 1857 Role Highlighted →
Q80.

What is a primary objective of the Highway Farm Forestry (HFF) concept discussed in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To acquire land for expanding highway carriageways
  • B.To create ecological corridors for wildlife migration
  • C.To enable farmers near highways to grow commercial tree crops as pollution buffers✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To implement social forestry programs through government mandates
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Highway Farm Forestry (HFF) is a market-linked agroforestry approach where farmers adjoining highways voluntarily cultivate commercially viable tree crops instead of pollution-sensitive food crops. This creates 'Tree Crop Buffer Zones' to reduce pollution exposure, generate income, and reduce wood imports, differing from top-down social forestry programs.

Source: India-Italy Elevate to Special Strategic Partnership, Set €20 Bn Trade Target by 2029; Veera Pasi's 1857 Role Highlighted →
Q81.

Which ministry is spearheading the legislative push to criminalise doping activities as mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • B.Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • D.Ministry of Home Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes Sports Minister Mansukh Mandaviya discussing the proposed amendment. The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports is the nodal ministry for sports policy and anti-doping regulations in India.

Source: Govt Proposes Criminalising Doping Facilitation & Supply Under Anti-Doping Amendment Bill for 2030 Commonwealth Games →
Q82.

Consider the following statements regarding the proposed anti-doping legislation:

1. It aims to criminalise only the athletes who test positive for banned substances.

2. The draft legislation will be put up for public consultation before introduction in Parliament.

3. India has been downgraded to the highest-category risk by the Athletics Integrity Unit (AIU) of World Athletics.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 2
  • B.(B) Only 3
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states the amendment aims to criminalise facilitation, supply, and encouragement, targeting the whole chain, not just athletes. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the draft will be put up for public feedback. Statement 3 is correct as it is a key fact mentioned in the article.

Source: Govt Proposes Criminalising Doping Facilitation & Supply Under Anti-Doping Amendment Bill for 2030 Commonwealth Games →
Q83.

For which upcoming international sporting event is India's need to address its doping problem particularly emphasized in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2028 Summer Olympics
  • B.2026 Asian Games
  • C.2030 Commonwealth Games✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2032 FIFA World Cup
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states, "With the country hosting the 2030 Commonwealth Games and hoping to stage the Olympics and Asian Games as well, it shows Indian sport... in poor light." This directly links the legislative push to the 2030 event.

Source: Govt Proposes Criminalising Doping Facilitation & Supply Under Anti-Doping Amendment Bill for 2030 Commonwealth Games →
Q84.

What is the primary shift in strategy highlighted by the proposed anti-doping amendment?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Increasing the frequency of random drug tests for athletes.
  • B.Shifting punishment from athletes to the entire supply and facilitation ecosystem.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Introducing life bans for first-time doping offenders.
  • D.Making it mandatory for all coaches to be certified by WADA.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core of the proposal, as stated by the Sports Minister, is to "target the whole chain and hand out stringent punishments." The article explains that till now only athletes were punished, but the new law will address facilitators, suppliers, and enablers.

Source: Govt Proposes Criminalising Doping Facilitation & Supply Under Anti-Doping Amendment Bill for 2030 Commonwealth Games →
Q85.

The 'TRUST' initiative, mentioned in the article as anchoring cooperation in semiconductors and AI, evolved from which earlier framework between India and the US?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Foundational Agreements (e.g., COMCASA)
  • B.Initiative on Critical and Emerging Technology (iCET)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.U.S.-India Strategic Energy Partnership (SEP)
  • D.Defense Technology and Trade Initiative (DTTI)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the TRUST initiative 'more or less, evolved from iCET'. iCET was launched earlier to deepen collaboration in critical technologies. The other options are distinct bilateral frameworks not mentioned in this context.

Source: IndiaAI Mission Allocates $1.2 Bn Amid US-China Tech Race; TRUST Initiative Anchors Semiconductors, AI, Quantum →
Q86.

Consider the following statements regarding the US-China technology competition as discussed in the article:

1. As per the 2026 AI Index Report, China has completely overtaken the United States in frontier model performance.

2. The 'China+1' manufacturing thesis benefits India only when US-China relations are confrontational, not accommodative.

3. India's $1.2 billion IndiaAI Mission allocation is comparable to the quarterly R&D spending of a single large American AI company.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the article says the US advantage was reduced to 2.7%, not that China overtook it. Statement 2 is correct: the article argues the urgency for 'China+1' softens when Washington and Beijing accommodate each other. Statement 3 is correct: the article states the IndiaAI Mission amounts to what a single American AI company spends in six months.

Source: IndiaAI Mission Allocates $1.2 Bn Amid US-China Tech Race; TRUST Initiative Anchors Semiconductors, AI, Quantum →
Q87.

According to the article, what was the US tariff rate on Indian goods after the February 2026 Interim Trade Agreement?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.15%
  • B.18%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.25%
  • D.50%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifies that the Interim Trade Agreement 'lowered US tariffs on Indian goods to 18 per cent'. The 50% figure mentioned elsewhere refers to a punitive tariff levied earlier for purchasing Russian oil.

Source: IndiaAI Mission Allocates $1.2 Bn Amid US-China Tech Race; TRUST Initiative Anchors Semiconductors, AI, Quantum →
Q88.

What is the primary strategic concern for India, as expressed in the article, regarding the potential US-China 'G2' framework?

MediumUPSC
  • A.An outright military conflict between the US and China spilling into the Indo-Pacific.
  • B.A managed bilateral accommodation that settles technology rules, leaving India as a spectator.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.A complete decoupling of the US and Chinese economies, forcing India to choose sides.
  • D.A rapid Chinese technological breakthrough that makes India's partnerships obsolete.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'What India fears most from the Beijing summit is not US-China confrontation, but accommodation — that is, a managed G2 that settles technology competition through bilateral frameworks and leaves everyone else as spectators.' This is the core anxiety driving the analysis.

Source: IndiaAI Mission Allocates $1.2 Bn Amid US-China Tech Race; TRUST Initiative Anchors Semiconductors, AI, Quantum →
Q89.

Which department/ministry has asked the industry to explore localising production of over 200 petrochemical items, as per the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers
  • B.Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • D.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) issued the missive to the industry. DPIIT operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, but the specific initiating body is DPIIT.

Source: DPIIT Urges Industry to Indigenise 200 Petrochemical Items Amid $50 Billion Import Dependency & West Asia Crisis →
Q90.

Consider the following statements regarding the news on petrochemical indigenisation:

1. The DPIIT initiative targets over 200 items with annual imports worth over $50 billion.

2. The primary reason for this push is the ongoing West Asia crisis and risks associated with the Strait of Hormuz.

3. Experts suggest that India's high dependence on imported crude oil feedstock is a major structural challenge for this indigenisation drive.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions 'over 200' items and 'over $50 billion'. Statement 2 is correct as the article links the move to the 'West Asia crisis' and the 'closure of the Strait of Hormuz'. Statement 3 is correct as expert Ajay Joshi states 'Over 85% of our crude oil is shipped in' making localisation challenging.

Source: DPIIT Urges Industry to Indigenise 200 Petrochemical Items Amid $50 Billion Import Dependency & West Asia Crisis →
Q91.

According to the article, what is the approximate annual import value of the over 200 petrochemical items that the DPIIT is focusing on?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Over $30 billion
  • B.Over $50 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Over $70 billion
  • D.Over $100 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that these items 'cumulatively account for annual imports worth over $50 billion'. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the text.

Source: DPIIT Urges Industry to Indigenise 200 Petrochemical Items Amid $50 Billion Import Dependency & West Asia Crisis →
Q92.

What is a key structural limitation identified by experts for indigenising petrochemical production in India, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lack of technological expertise
  • B.High cost of domestic labour
  • C.Dependence on imported feedstock (crude oil)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Inadequate government subsidies
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Expert Ajay Joshi specifically highlights that 'Over 85% of our crude oil is shipped in, and most chemicals we aim to produce domestically are ultimately petroleum derivatives.' This feedstock dependence is the central structural challenge mentioned.

Source: DPIIT Urges Industry to Indigenise 200 Petrochemical Items Amid $50 Billion Import Dependency & West Asia Crisis →
Q93.

Which Union Ministry is responsible for the final approval of the Detailed Project Report (DPR) for the Delhi-Jewar RRTS corridor as mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Railways
  • B.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Civil Aviation
  • D.Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that after approval by the Uttar Pradesh government, the DPR has been sent to the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) for final clearance. RRTS projects fall under urban development and transport infrastructure, which is handled by MoHUA.

Source: UPSC Approves Delhi-Jewar RRTS DPR for 21-minute Airport Link, Integrating Delhi-Varanasi Bullet Train →
Q94.

Consider the following statements regarding the Regional Rapid Transit System (RRTS) mentioned in the article:

1. The Delhi-Meerut Namo Bharat corridor is the only operational RRTS corridor in India.

2. The Namo Bharat trains have a maximum operational speed of 160 kmph and a design top speed of 180 kmph.

3. The proposed Delhi-Jewar RRTS corridor will have a dedicated station at the airport terminal to integrate with the Delhi-Varanasi bullet train.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly states the Delhi-Meerut Namo Bharat corridor is the only operational RRTS. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the train is designed for 180 kmph and can run at 160 kmph. Statement 3 is correct as the DPR includes provisions for integration with the bullet train through a dedicated station.

Source: UPSC Approves Delhi-Jewar RRTS DPR for 21-minute Airport Link, Integrating Delhi-Varanasi Bullet Train →
Q95.

According to the article, what is the target travel time between Delhi and the Noida International Airport (Jewar) once the proposed RRTS corridor is completed?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.15 minutes
  • B.21 minutes✓ Correct Answer
  • C.30 minutes
  • D.45 minutes
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the project is expected to reduce travel time between Delhi and Noida International Airport (Jewar) to just 21 minutes. The other options are plausible distractors for different rail projects.

Source: UPSC Approves Delhi-Jewar RRTS DPR for 21-minute Airport Link, Integrating Delhi-Varanasi Bullet Train →
Q96.

What is the primary strategic objective of integrating the proposed Delhi-Jewar RRTS corridor with the Delhi-Varanasi bullet train project, as per the news?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce the construction cost of both projects
  • B.To create a seamless multimodal transport hub at the Noida International Airport✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To bypass the need for approval from the Ministry of Railways
  • D.To use the same rolling stock and technology for both systems
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions that the DPR includes provisions to integrate the RRTS corridor with the bullet train through a dedicated station at the airport terminal. This integration aims to enable connectivity and create a seamless transport hub, enhancing the utility of the airport and both rail systems.

Source: UPSC Approves Delhi-Jewar RRTS DPR for 21-minute Airport Link, Integrating Delhi-Varanasi Bullet Train →
Q97.

Which of the following regional frameworks does the Quad seek to align its approaches with, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
  • B.Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)
  • D.Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the Quad has sought to align its approaches with ASEAN frameworks, along with the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) and the Pacific Island Forum (PIF). The other organizations are not mentioned in the provided content.

Source: Quad (India, US, Japan, Australia) Holds 6 Leaders' Summits Since 2021, Future Uncertain Amid US De-prioritisation →
Q98.

Consider the following statements regarding the Quad:

1. It was revived in 2017 and its first Leaders' Summit was held in March 2021.

2. A key objective has been to formally contain China's economic and military rise in the Indo-Pacific.

3. Its working groups include initiatives on climate change under the Q-CHAMP programme and on maritime security under the IPMDA.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clarifies 'The Quad was never meant to contain China, but to safeguard against... coercion.' Statement 3 is correct as Q-CHAMP and IPMDA are specifically mentioned as Quad initiatives.

Source: Quad (India, US, Japan, Australia) Holds 6 Leaders' Summits Since 2021, Future Uncertain Amid US De-prioritisation →
Q99.

According to the article, how many leader-level summits has the Quad held in total since its revival?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.4
  • B.5
  • C.6✓ Correct Answer
  • D.7
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'The Quad has so far held six leader-level summits — four in person and two in virtual mode.' The distractors are close numbers to test precise factual recall.

Source: Quad (India, US, Japan, Australia) Holds 6 Leaders' Summits Since 2021, Future Uncertain Amid US De-prioritisation →
Q100.

What is cited in the article as the primary reason for the Quad currently being on 'life support'?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Lack of funding from member states for its initiatives.
  • B.Divergent security threats perceived by India and Australia.
  • C.Its de-prioritisation by the Donald Trump administration in its second term.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Strong opposition and counter-groupings formed by ASEAN nations.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly attributes the current crisis to 'its de-prioritisation so far by the Donald Trump administration in its second term.' The other options, while plausible in general discourse, are not mentioned as the primary reason in the provided text.

Source: Quad (India, US, Japan, Australia) Holds 6 Leaders' Summits Since 2021, Future Uncertain Amid US De-prioritisation →
Q101.

Which central investigating agency is probing the NEET 2026 paper leak case, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Investigation Agency (NIA)
  • B.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Enforcement Directorate (ED)
  • D.Intelligence Bureau (IB)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the NTA referred the names of Chemistry paper setters and translators to the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) for further examination following the leak. The CBI is the premier central investigating agency in India.

Source: NEET Paper Leaks: 24 Translators Under CBI Probe, 4 Paper Sets in 2026, Exam Vulnerability vs IIT-JEE Stability →
Q102.

Consider the following statements regarding the vulnerabilities of examination systems as discussed in the article:

1. Both Pen-and-Paper (PnP) and Computer-Based Testing (CBT) formats are vulnerable to leaks originating from the human chain involved in question setting.

2. The IIT-JEE examination system maintains stability primarily by keeping critical operations like paper setting and translation in-house under academic oversight.

3. The NEET 2026 'Guess Paper' controversy was solely due to a breach during the physical transportation of printed question papers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article explains that both PnP and CBT rely on the same ecosystem of question setters, making them vulnerable to insider leaks. Statement 2 is correct: The stability of IIT-JEE is attributed to its in-house control over operations. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article suggests the 2026 leak likely originated from the question-setting process (involving translators) and not from physical transportation, as the 'Guess Paper' contained solutions and resembled question bank content.

Source: NEET Paper Leaks: 24 Translators Under CBI Probe, 4 Paper Sets in 2026, Exam Vulnerability vs IIT-JEE Stability →
Q103.

According to the article, how many different language versions are the NEET question papers translated into?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.11 languages
  • B.13 languages✓ Correct Answer
  • C.15 languages
  • D.Only English and Hindi
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that for NEET, multiple paper sets are prepared and translated into English, Hindi, and 11 additional languages. Therefore, the total number of language versions is 13 (1 English + 1 Hindi + 11 others).

Source: NEET Paper Leaks: 24 Translators Under CBI Probe, 4 Paper Sets in 2026, Exam Vulnerability vs IIT-JEE Stability →
Q104.

What is identified as the primary reason for the comparative stability of the IIT-JEE examination system over NEET, as per the analysis in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.IIT-JEE uses a more advanced Computer-Based Testing platform.
  • B.IIT-JEE has a smaller number of applicants, reducing complexity.
  • C.IIT-JEE maintains in-house academic control over critical operations like paper setting.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.IIT-JEE question papers are set by international experts.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly contrasts the two systems. It states that IIT-JEE keeps most critical operations in-house under academic oversight (faculty supervision, limited translation), leading to stability. In contrast, NTA extensively outsources sensitive operations, creating accountability gaps. The testing platform or number of applicants is not cited as the primary reason.

Source: NEET Paper Leaks: 24 Translators Under CBI Probe, 4 Paper Sets in 2026, Exam Vulnerability vs IIT-JEE Stability →
Q105.

Which of the following intergovernmental organizations, mentioned in the article, has members like Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.European Union (EU)
  • B.European Free Trade Association (EFTA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
  • D.Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the 2024 India-EFTA agreement. EFTA's members are Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland, distinct from the 27-member European Union (EU).

Source: India's Strategic Pivot to Europe: PM Modi's 2026 Visit to Netherlands, Sweden, Norway, Italy & India-EU FTA →
Q106.

Consider the following statements regarding India's evolving ties with Europe as discussed in the article:

1. The India-EU Free Trade Agreement (FTA) was signed in January 2026.

2. The Netherlands, with a population of 18 million, is a key player in semiconductor manufacturing due to company ASML.

3. India's engagement with Europe is primarily aimed at replacing its defence imports from the United States.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as the article states Netherlands' population and ASML's role. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states India seeks to diversify defence procurement away from Russia, not the United States.

Source: India's Strategic Pivot to Europe: PM Modi's 2026 Visit to Netherlands, Sweden, Norway, Italy & India-EU FTA →
Q107.

As per the article, what is the population of the Netherlands, a key partner for India in semiconductors?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.12 million
  • B.18 million✓ Correct Answer
  • C.25 million
  • D.35 million
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states: "The Netherlands, with a population of just 18 million, is a pivotal player in the global chip race..." The other figures are close distractors.

Source: India's Strategic Pivot to Europe: PM Modi's 2026 Visit to Netherlands, Sweden, Norway, Italy & India-EU FTA →
Q108.

According to the article, what is a primary strategic reason for Europe's increased engagement with India?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To access India's vast reserves of fossil fuels
  • B.To de-risk its economic and supply chain dependencies from a rising China✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To form a military alliance against Russia
  • D.To outsource its manufacturing base completely
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "For Europe, meanwhile, India is a critical partner in its efforts to de-risk from a rising China." The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Source: India's Strategic Pivot to Europe: PM Modi's 2026 Visit to Netherlands, Sweden, Norway, Italy & India-EU FTA →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 21 May 2026?▼

This page contains 108 current affairs questions from 21 May 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 21 May 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. The decennial Census of India is conducted under the administr…
  2. Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the upcoming 2027 …
  3. Q3. As per the article, what is the approximate number of Non-Resi…
  4. Q4. is a major implication of excluding Non-Resident Indians (NRIs…
  5. Q5. investigative agency was involved in the Supreme Court case 'S…
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  7. Q7. For how long had Syed Iftikhar Andrabi been in pre-trial custo…
  8. Q8. is the primary legal principle that the Supreme Court's Andrab…
  9. Q9. Vijay Gokhale, whose analysis forms the basis of the article, …
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements based on the analysis by Vij…
  11. Q11. According to the analysis, what was a significant factor enabl…
  12. Q12. is the primary strategic implication for India, as derived fro…
  13. Q13. The Supreme Court judgment on stray dogs cited a violation of …
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  15. Q15. As cited in the Supreme Court judgment, what was the total num…
  16. Q16. was the primary legal reasoning the Supreme Court used to just…
  17. Q17. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), discussed in th…
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
  19. Q19. From which date did the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BN…
  20. Q20. was the primary constitutional basis cited by the Supreme Cour…
  21. Q21. institution in India is the primary authority for managing the…
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the Balance of Pay…
  23. Q23. According to the article, what was the average Current Account…
  24. Q24. is the primary policy response advocated in the article to add…
  25. Q25. The analysis in the article is authored by a retired officer a…
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding drone warfare as d…
  27. Q27. According to the article, by which year is India envisaging to…
  28. Q28. is a primary strategic implication of drone warfare highlighte…
  29. Q29. body publishes the India Justice Report, as mentioned in the a…
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding justice budgets in…
  31. Q31. According to the article, what is the approximate per capita s…
  32. Q32. is the primary implication of the skewed justice budget alloca…
  33. Q33. entity is the implementing agency for the Mumbai-Ahmedabad Hig…
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the Mumbai-Ahmedab…
  35. Q35. According to the article, what is the approximate total number…
  36. Q36. is a key technological and sustainable innovation mentioned in…
  37. Q37. international organization administers the Carbon Offsetting a…
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding carbon markets dis…
  39. Q39. According to the International Energy Agency report cited in t…
  40. Q40. is the primary justification cited by the EU for expanding its…
  41. Q41. central authority is responsible for assessments related to di…
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding India's power sect…
  43. Q43. According to the article, what was the approximate percentage …
  44. Q44. is identified as a primary challenge for states with high rene…
  45. Q45. U.S. federal agency was primarily responsible for investigatin…
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  47. Q47. According to the news, what was the approximate amount of loss…
  48. Q48. is a key legal implication highlighted by the conviction of th…
  49. Q49. central investigating agency was probing the chit fund scam me…
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  51. Q51. was the Chief Justice of India heading the three-judge Bench t…
  52. Q52. was the primary reason cited by the Supreme Court for refusing…
  53. Q53. The Moon base initiative forms a central part of which broader…
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements regarding NASA's Moon base p…
  55. Q55. According to NASA's blueprint, what is the total number of lun…
  56. Q56. is a major environmental challenge cited for establishing a ba…
  57. Q57. Union Ministry is responsible for issuing the advisory on Ebol…
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Ebola a…
  59. Q59. According to the news, which of the following is identified as…
  60. Q60. is the primary objective of the Health Ministry's advisory on …
  61. Q61. Indian minister, as mentioned in the article, announced the up…
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the US trade measu…
  63. Q63. According to Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal, what was the appr…
  64. Q64. was the primary context prompting the resumption of India-US t…
  65. Q65. government agency released the provisional data on India's pet…
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements regarding India's petroleum …
  67. Q67. According to the PPAC data, what was the approximate value of …
  68. Q68. is the primary implication of the news that India's crude oil …
  69. Q69. The US delegation mentioned in the news is led by the head of …
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  71. Q71. According to the article, how long ago was the SHANTI Bill pas…
  72. Q72. is identified in the news as a primary reason for the renewed …
  73. Q73. Under which law was the Sri Lankan national in the news articl…
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
  75. Q75. According to the police case mentioned in the article, what qu…
  76. Q76. was the primary reason cited by the Supreme Court for acquitti…
  77. Q77. ministry/department in India is responsible for awarding Geogr…
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  79. Q79. is the bilateral trade target set by India and Italy to be ach…
  80. Q80. is a primary objective of the Highway Farm Forestry (HFF) conc…
  81. Q81. ministry is spearheading the legislative push to criminalise d…
  82. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the proposed anti-…
  83. Q83. For which upcoming international sporting event is India's nee…
  84. Q84. is the primary shift in strategy highlighted by the proposed a…
  85. Q85. The 'TRUST' initiative, mentioned in the article as anchoring …
  86. Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the US-China techn…
  87. Q87. According to the article, what was the US tariff rate on India…
  88. Q88. is the primary strategic concern for India, as expressed in th…
  89. Q89. department/ministry has asked the industry to explore localisi…
  90. Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the news on petroc…
  91. Q91. According to the article, what is the approximate annual impor…
  92. Q92. is a key structural limitation identified by experts for indig…
  93. Q93. Union Ministry is responsible for the final approval of the De…
  94. Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the Regional Rapid…
  95. Q95. According to the article, what is the target travel time betwe…
  96. Q96. is the primary strategic objective of integrating the proposed…
  97. Q97. of the following regional frameworks does the Quad seek to ali…
  98. Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the Quad: 1. It w…
  99. Q99. According to the article, how many leader-level summits has th…
  100. Q100. is cited in the article as the primary reason for the Quad cur…
  101. Q101. central investigating agency is probing the NEET 2026 paper le…
  102. Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the vulnerabilitie…
  103. Q103. According to the article, how many different language versions…
  104. Q104. is identified as the primary reason for the comparative stabil…
  105. Q105. of the following intergovernmental organizations, mentioned in…
  106. Q106. Consider the following statements regarding India's evolving t…
  107. Q107. As per the article, what is the population of the Netherlands,…
  108. Q108. According to the article, what is a primary strategic reason f…