17 May 2026, Questions & Answers
112 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
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This page contains 112 current affairs questions with answers from 17 May 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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112 QsUnder which Article of the Constitution does the President of India have the power to promulgate ordinances?
- A.Article 124
- B.Article 123✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 72
- D.Article 352
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Explanation
Article 123 of the Indian Constitution grants the President the power to promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session. This power was used for the recent Supreme Court judge strength ordinance, as mentioned in the article.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent ordinance on Supreme Court judge strength:
1. It increases the total sanctioned strength of the Supreme Court, including the Chief Justice of India, to 38.
2. The ordinance was promulgated after the Parliament passed a bill to amend the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956.
3. The ordinance will cease to operate if resolutions disapproving it are passed by both Houses of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the total sanctioned strength rises from 34 to 38. Statement 2 is incorrect; the ordinance was promulgated because 'Parliament is not in session', not after a bill was passed. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: the ordinance ceases if resolutions are passed in both Houses disapproving it.
According to the news article, what is the approximate backlog of cases pending in the Supreme Court of India, cited as a reason for increasing judge strength?
- A.Over 70,000 cases
- B.Over 80,000 cases
- C.Over 93,000 cases✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over 1,00,000 cases
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The current backlog is over 93000 cases, and threatening to reach six figures...'. The other options are close distractors but not the precise figure mentioned.
What is the primary constitutional mechanism mentioned in the article that allows the increase in the number of Supreme Court judges?
- A.A directive from the Chief Justice of India under Article 142
- B.An amendment to the Constitution by Parliament under Article 368
- C.A law prescribed by Parliament as envisaged in Article 124(1)✓ Correct Answer
- D.A notification by the Ministry of Law and Justice
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Explanation
The article quotes the Constitution's framers: 'The Framers of the Constitution had originally in Article 124(1) envisaged a Supreme Court... until the "Parliament by law prescribes a larger number".' This is the primary mechanism, and the recent ordinance amends the existing parliamentary law, the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956.
The HeLa cell line, central to the debate on medical ethics, was derived from a patient treated at which renowned medical institution?
- A.Mayo Clinic
- B.Johns Hopkins Centre✓ Correct Answer
- C.Cleveland Clinic
- D.Massachusetts General Hospital
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Explanation
As per the article, Henrietta Lacks sought treatment at the 'coloured ward' in Johns Hopkins Centre in 1951, where her cells were extracted without consent to create the HeLa line.
Consider the following statements regarding the HeLa cell line case:
1. The cells were extracted from Henrietta Lacks in 1951 without her informed consent.
2. The HeLa cell line was the first animal cell line to be successfully cultured indefinitely.
3. A landmark settlement acknowledging the harm done to the Lacks family was reached in the year 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article clearly states cells were extracted without permission in 1951. Statement 2 is incorrect; HeLa was the first HUMAN cell line, not animal cell line. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the family found closure with a settlement in 2026.
In which year was the book 'The Immortal Life of Henrietta Lacks' by Rebecca Skloot, which brought global attention to this bioethics case, published?
- A.2005
- B.2010✓ Correct Answer
- C.2015
- D.2020
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the best-selling book 'The Immortal Life of Henrietta Lacks' by Rebecca Skloot was published in 2010. This book played a crucial role in highlighting the ethical issues.
What is the primary ethical principle that the case of Henrietta Lacks and the HeLa cell line most directly violated, leading to modern reforms?
- A.Confidentiality
- B.Beneficence
- C.Informed Consent✓ Correct Answer
- D.Justice
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Explanation
The core ethical violation in this case was the lack of informed consent, as cells were taken from Henrietta Lacks without her knowledge or permission. The article states this omission led to a battle for dignity and today, more regulations govern ethical research based on informed consent.
Which Indian mission is mentioned in the news for collaboration with the Dutch Semicon Competence Centre?
- A.National Quantum Mission
- B.Indian Semiconductor Mission✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Supercomputing Mission
- D.National Mission on Cyber Security
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the two nations agreed to link the Dutch Semicon Competence Centre with the Indian Semiconductor Mission (ISM). This mission is a government initiative to promote semiconductor manufacturing in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-Netherlands Strategic Partnership:
1. The partnership includes a five-year roadmap covering the period 2026-2030.
2. A 'brain bridge' in semiconductor research was established between Dutch universities and five Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs).
3. The leaders expressed concern over tensions in West Asia and called for freedom of navigation through the Strait of Hormuz.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions a comprehensive five-year roadmap (2026–30). Statement 2 is incorrect; the 'brain bridge' was established with six premier Indian institutes (IISc Bangalore and five IITs: Bombay, Delhi, Gandhinagar, Guwahati, Madras), not just five IITs. Statement 3 is correct as the leaders expressed deep concern over tensions in West Asia and called for freedom of navigation through the Strait of Hormuz.
According to the article, how many agreements (pacts) were signed between India and the Netherlands to establish the Strategic Partnership?
- A.12
- B.15
- C.17✓ Correct Answer
- D.20
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Explanation
The article's headline and content clearly state that India and the Netherlands sealed a historic '17-pact' strategic partnership. The other numbers are close distractors.
What is the primary objective of the Memorandum of Cooperation (MoU) signed between Tata Electronics and ASML, as mentioned in the news?
- A.To establish a joint venture for electric vehicle manufacturing.
- B.To support the semiconductor Fab facility in Dholera, Gujarat.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To collaborate on renewable energy projects in the Netherlands.
- D.To develop a new defence radar system.
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the MoU between Tata Electronics and ASML aims to support the semiconductor Fab facility in Dholera, Gujarat. This aligns with India's strategic goal of boosting domestic semiconductor manufacturing.
Which ministry/department is primarily responsible for defence procurement and manufacturing policy in India?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Defence✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of External Affairs
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Explanation
The Ministry of Defence is the nodal ministry responsible for defence procurement, acquisition policies, and the 'Make in India' initiative in the defence sector. The article discusses challenges and reforms within this domain.
Consider the following statements regarding India's defence sector:
1. India is currently ranked among the top ten arms importers globally.
2. The Strategic Partnership (SP) model is designed to facilitate collaboration between Indian private firms and foreign OEMs.
3. Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs) account for less than 50% of India's total defence manufacturing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct; the SP model aims for such collaboration. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states DPSUs account for over 70% of total defence manufacturing, not less than 50%.
According to the 2022-23 Ministry of Defence Parliamentary Standing Committee observation mentioned in the article, how many defence projects were delayed beyond their original timelines?
- A.49 out of 178 projects
- B.119 out of 178 projects✓ Correct Answer
- C.178 out of 178 projects
- D.71 out of 178 projects
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Committee observed, "Of 178 projects, the original time tables were not adhered to in 119 cases." Option A refers to projects where additional time taken was more than the original allotted time.
What is a key lesson for India's defence strategy, as highlighted by recent global conflicts discussed in the article?
- A.To increase reliance on imported high-end conventional platforms.
- B.To focus solely on diplomatic solutions and avoid military buildup.
- C.To build a self-reliant ecosystem and invest in scalable technologies like drones.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To reduce private sector participation and strengthen only public sector units.
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that recent conflicts show the advantage of cost-effective technologies like UAVs and underscore the need for strategic self-reliance to avoid supply-chain disruptions. This points towards investing in indigenous capabilities and scalable tech.
Which Chinese government body issued the official statement emphasizing Taiwan as the most important issue in US-China relations, as mentioned in the article?
- A.Ministry of Defence
- B.Ministry of Foreign Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Taiwan Affairs Office
- D.National People's Congress
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the official release came from the Chinese Ministry of Foreign Affairs, which is responsible for China's diplomatic communications and foreign policy statements.
Consider the following statements regarding the Taiwan issue as discussed in the article:
1. The United States established formal diplomatic relations with the People's Republic of China in 1979.
2. The 'One China' policy means the United States officially recognizes Taiwan as an independent country.
3. A potential $14 billion arms package to Taiwan was discussed by the US as a 'negotiating chip' in 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states diplomatic relations were established in 1979. Statement 2 is incorrect; the 'One China' policy means the US recognizes Taiwan as part of China, not as an independent country. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's mention of Trump considering a $14 billion arms sale.
According to the article, which year has been proposed as a potential starting point for a Chinese military action against Taiwan, marking a centenary?
- A.2025
- B.2026
- C.2027✓ Correct Answer
- D.2030
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Explanation
The article states that the year 2027 has been proposed as a potential starting point because it will mark 100 years (the centenary) of the Chinese People's Liberation Army (PLA).
What is the primary strategic reason, as per the 'silicon shield' theory mentioned in the article, that could deter a full-scale military conflict over Taiwan?
- A.Taiwan's strong diplomatic alliances in the region.
- B.Taiwan's dominance in global semiconductor production.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The difficult mountainous terrain of the island.
- D.The strength of Taiwan's own naval defenses.
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Explanation
The 'silicon shield' theory argues that Taiwan's position as the world's foremost producer of semiconductors, which are crucial for modern electronics and global supply chains, provides a significant economic deterrent to military conflict, giving the US and other powers a clear interest in Taiwan's defense.
Which institution's forex market interventions are primarily discussed in the context of the rupee's 'artificial stabilisation'?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
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Explanation
The article repeatedly discusses the Reserve Bank of India's (RBI) interventions in the forex market during 2023 and 2024. The RBI is India's central bank and the primary body responsible for managing the country's foreign exchange reserves and influencing the rupee's exchange rate.
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Rupee's recent performance:
1. The rupee depreciated past 96 per USD, hitting a new record low.
2. The rupee has depreciated by 11% against the US dollar since the start of 2025.
3. The Balance of Payments (BoP) was in a surplus of $64 billion in the financial year 2024-25.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the rupee fell past the 96-per-dollar mark, hitting a new record low. Statement 2 is correct as it mentions 'Since the start of 2025, the rupee is down 11%.' Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the BoP surplus of $64 billion was in 2023-24, not 2024-25. In 2024-25, the BoP was a deficit of $5 billion.
According to the article, what was the value of the Reserve Bank of India's gross dollar sales in the financial year 2024-25?
- A.$213 billion
- B.$41 billion
- C.$399 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$68 billion
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The RBI’s gross sales jumped to a record $399 billion' in the context of the 2024-25 financial year. $213 billion refers to sales in 2022-23, $41 billion refers to net purchases in 2023-24, and $68 billion refers to the increase in forex reserves in 2023-24.
As per the analysis in the article, what is a major risk associated with the rupee's continued depreciation beyond a 'critical threshold'?
- A.It will automatically trigger an increase in repo rates by the RBI.
- B.It could fully offset the intended benefits of recent domestic fuel price hikes.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It will lead to an immediate ban on the import of crude oil.
- D.It will cause the government to abandon the current BoP calculation method.
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Explanation
The article quotes SBI's Soumya Kanti Ghosh stating that beyond a 'critical depreciation threshold', further weakness could erode the benefits of domestic fuel price hikes. His calculations show an additional depreciation of Rs 2 raises crude import costs enough to offset those gains. The other options are not mentioned as direct consequences.
Under which international framework does the WHO declare a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC)?
- A.The Universal Declaration of Human Rights
- B.The International Health Regulations (2005)✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Biological Weapons Convention
- D.The Paris Agreement on Climate Change
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Explanation
The International Health Regulations (IHR 2005) are a legally binding instrument of international law that governs the global response to public health risks. The WHO declares a PHEIC under the authority granted by these regulations to coordinate an international response.
Consider the following statements regarding the Ebola outbreak mentioned in the news:
1. The outbreak has been declared a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) by the WHO.
2. The outbreak is caused by the Zaire ebolavirus, for which vaccines are available.
3. Laboratory-confirmed cases have been reported in the capitals of both the Democratic Republic of Congo and Uganda.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the WHO declared a PHEIC. Statement 2 is incorrect because the outbreak is caused by the Bundibugyo virus, not the Zaire ebolavirus, and it lacks approved vaccines. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions a lab-confirmed case in Kinshasa, DRC, and in Kampala, Uganda.
According to the news article, how many suspected deaths from the Ebola outbreak were reported in the Democratic Republic of Congo's Ituri province as of the given date?
- A.8 deaths
- B.80 deaths✓ Correct Answer
- C.246 deaths
- D.21 deaths
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 80 suspected deaths had been reported in DRC's Ituri province. The figure 8 refers to lab-confirmed cases, and 246 refers to suspected cases.
What is a primary reason cited by the WHO for the 'extraordinary' nature of the Bundibugyo virus outbreak?
- A.The extremely high mortality rate of over 90%.
- B.Its origin in a previously unaffected geographic region.
- C.The lack of approved virus-specific therapeutics or vaccines.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Its classification as a pandemic by the WHO.
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Explanation
The article directly states the outbreak is 'extraordinary' as there are no approved Bundibugyo virus-specific therapeutics or vaccines, unlike for Ebola-Zaire strains. This absence of medical countermeasures significantly increases the public health risk and challenge of containment.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for implementing India's semiconductor mission and related policies?
- A.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Heavy Industries
- D.Ministry of Science and Technology
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Explanation
The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) is the nodal ministry for the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) and the broader policy framework to develop a semiconductor ecosystem in the country.
Consider the following statements regarding the Tata Electronics-ASML semiconductor plant:
1. It will be India's first front-end semiconductor fabrication plant.
2. The plant is being set up in Dholera, Gujarat, with an investment of $14 billion.
3. The agreement was signed in the presence of the Prime Ministers of India and the Netherlands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the investment for this specific Tata-ASML plant is $11 billion (the $14 billion figure is for a different Tata facility mentioned). Statement 3 is correct as the deal was signed in the presence of PM Modi and Dutch PM Jetten.
What is the total planned investment for the Tata Electronics and ASML semiconductor fabrication plant in Dholera, as per the article?
- A.$8 billion
- B.$11 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$14 billion
- D.$20 billion
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Tata Electronics is developing the plant in Dholera, Gujarat, with an investment of $11 billion. The $14 billion option is a distractor, referring to a different Tata Electronics facility also mentioned in Gujarat.
What is a key strategic reason, as indicated in the article, for Dutch semiconductor firms like ASML to seek partnerships in India?
- A.To access cheaper unskilled labor in India
- B.To circumvent environmental regulations in Europe
- C.To achieve geographical diversification amid US-China trade tensions✓ Correct Answer
- D.To offload outdated technology to developing markets
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Explanation
The article directly states that Dutch semiconductor firms are seeking new markets and geographical diversification due to export controls and trade restrictions linked to the U.S.-China technology rivalry. This is the primary strategic driver mentioned.
Which constitutional article empowers the President to specify Scheduled Tribes for a state or union territory?
- A.Article 341
- B.Article 342✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 343
- D.Article 344
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Explanation
Article 342 of the Constitution specifically deals with the specification of Scheduled Tribes. Article 341 deals with Scheduled Castes. Articles 343 and 344 relate to the official language of the Union.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment in the fake caste certificate case:
1. The appellant, Madan Gopal, was appointed in state service in 1984 based on a 'backward class' certificate for the 'Mallah' caste.
2. In 1993, he produced a certificate claiming 'Majhwar' community status, which is notified as a Scheduled Caste.
3. The Supreme Court quashed the criminal proceedings citing that the appellant gained no benefit from the invalid certificate and the futility of prosecution after 33 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: his 1984 appointment was based on a backward class 'Mallah' certificate. Statement 2 is incorrect: 'Majhwar' is a Scheduled Tribe (not Scheduled Caste) as mentioned under Article 342. Statement 3 is correct: the Supreme Court quashed the case because he gained no benefit and prosecution after 33 years was futile.
For how many years had the criminal case against the retired engineer for the fake Scheduled Tribe certificate been pending before the Supreme Court quashed it?
- A.20 years
- B.25 years
- C.30 years
- D.33 years✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the Supreme Court cleared the retired engineer in a '33-year-old' case. The certificate was produced in 1993, and the judgment was in 2026, making it a 33-year duration.
What was the primary legal rationale used by the Supreme Court to quash the criminal proceedings in this case?
- A.The certificate was found to be valid upon re-examination.
- B.The appellant had already served his punishment in a parallel case.
- C.The appellant gained no benefit from the invalid certificate and prosecution after 33 years was futile.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Tehsildar's report confirming the certificate's validity overruled the FIR.
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Explanation
The Supreme Court's judgment explicitly states that the 'only saving grace' was that the appellant 'was not able to obtain any benefit of the status he wrongly claimed' and the 'futility of taking the prosecution to its logical conclusion at this point of time'. This was the core rationale for quashing the proceedings.
Which autonomous institution under the Ministry of Education is primarily responsible for implementing the Open and Distance Learning initiative mentioned in the news?
- A.National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
- B.Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
- C.University Grants Commission (UGC)
- D.National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS)✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions leveraging alternatives through NIOS and State Open Schools. NIOS is the apex body for open schooling in India, functioning autonomously under the Ministry of Education.
Consider the following statements regarding the initiative discussed in the news:
1. It aims to reintegrate out-of-school children primarily through the expansion of conventional residential schools.
2. The initiative will be first piloted in 10 districts identified as having high concentrations of out-of-school children.
3. The data cited on school dropouts is sourced from the Annual Status of Education Report (ASER).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the article emphasizes using flexible alternatives like Open and Distance Learning through NIOS, not expanding conventional schools. Statement 2 is correct as per the phased rollout plan. Statement 3 is incorrect; the data source mentioned is the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), not ASER.
According to the news, what percentage of children who enrol in Class I make it to Class XII in India, as cited by the officials?
- A.52%
- B.62%✓ Correct Answer
- C.72%
- D.82%
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Explanation
The article states: "of every 100 children who enrol in Class I, only 62 make it to Class 12." This is a key data point highlighting the dropout crisis.
What is the primary strategic objective of using the Open and Distance Learning (ODL) framework in the discussed initiative?
- A.To reduce the government's expenditure on school infrastructure.
- B.To provide a flexible educational pathway for children who cannot return to conventional schools.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To replace the conventional school system entirely with a digital model.
- D.To primarily focus on higher education and university degrees.
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Explanation
The article clearly states that for children who cannot return to conventional schools, flexible alternatives must be made available through NIOS using the ODL framework. The core objective is inclusion and adaptability, not cost-cutting or replacement.
Which international organization is responsible for declaring a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC)?
- A.World Bank
- B.World Health Organization (WHO)✓ Correct Answer
- C.United Nations Security Council
- D.International Monetary Fund
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Explanation
The World Health Organization (WHO) is the specialized UN agency responsible for international public health. Under the International Health Regulations (2005), the WHO Director-General has the authority to declare a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC).
Consider the following statements regarding the Ebola outbreak mentioned in the news:
1. The outbreak was declared a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) by the WHO.
2. The outbreak is caused by the Zaire species of the Ebola virus.
3. As of May 16, 2026, 80 suspected deaths had been reported in the Democratic Republic of Congo's Ituri province.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the WHO declared a PHEIC on May 17, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states the outbreak is caused by the Bundibugyo virus strain, not the Zaire strain. Statement 3 is correct; the article reports 80 suspected deaths in DRC's Ituri province as of May 16, 2026.
According to the news article, how many laboratory-confirmed Ebola cases were reported in the Democratic Republic of Congo's Ituri province as of May 16, 2026?
- A.5 cases
- B.8 cases✓ Correct Answer
- C.12 cases
- D.15 cases
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Explanation
The article states that as of Saturday (May 16, 2026), eight laboratory-confirmed cases had been reported in DRC's Ituri province, alongside 246 suspected cases and 80 suspected deaths.
What is the primary significance of the World Health Organization declaring a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) regarding an outbreak?
- A.It mandates military intervention in the affected country.
- B.It triggers a coordinated global response and resource mobilization.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It automatically imposes travel bans on all citizens of the affected country.
- D.It transfers health governance of the affected region to the United Nations.
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Explanation
Declaring a PHEIC is the WHO's highest level of alert. Its primary purpose is to signal that the event is serious, unusual, and carries a risk of international spread, thereby mobilizing a coordinated international response, technical expertise, and funding to support affected countries in containment efforts.
In the context of international relations, what does the term 'Strategic Partnership' signify?
- A.A formal military alliance with mutual defence obligations.
- B.A long-term diplomatic relationship involving deep cooperation in strategic areas like defence and trade.✓ Correct Answer
- C.An agreement to share intelligence exclusively between two countries.
- D.A partnership focused solely on cultural and educational exchanges.
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Explanation
A Strategic Partnership signifies a significant diplomatic relationship focused on comprehensive, long-term cooperation in strategic sectors such as defence, security, trade, and technology. It is more substantial than a regular partnership but does not entail the mutual defence guarantees of a formal alliance (like NATO).
Consider the following statements regarding the India-Netherlands relationship:
1. The Netherlands is India's largest trading partner in Europe.
2. The cumulative Foreign Direct Investment from the Netherlands to India exceeds $50 billion.
3. Both countries have agreed to work towards the early implementation of an India-ASEAN Free Trade Agreement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Netherlands is a major trading partner, the article states it is 'one of India's largest', not necessarily the largest. Germany is often cited as India's largest trading partner in the EU. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions cumulative FDI of $55.6 billion. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article mentions the India-EU FTA, not an India-ASEAN FTA.
According to the article, what was the approximate value of bilateral trade between India and the Netherlands in the fiscal year 2024-25?
- A.$18.5 billion
- B.$27.8 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$55.6 billion
- D.$72.3 billion
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that bilateral trade touched $27.8 billion in 2024-25. $55.6 billion is the figure for cumulative Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), not annual trade. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is a primary strategic objective for India in elevating its ties with the Netherlands to a Strategic Partnership, as per the article?
- A.To form a military bloc to counter Chinese influence in the Indian Ocean.
- B.To leverage Dutch expertise and investment in sectors like water management, renewable energy, and technology.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To facilitate the free movement of people between the two countries without visas.
- D.To jointly develop nuclear weapons technology.
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Explanation
The article highlights cooperation in water, healthcare, education, and PM Modi's invitation to Dutch companies in sectors like maritime, renewable energy, digital tech, and semiconductors. The core objective is economic and technological synergy. The other options are either extreme, not mentioned, or beyond the scope of the announced partnership.
Under which ministry does the National Testing Agency (NTA) function?
- A.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- B.Ministry of Education✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Science and Technology
- D.Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
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Explanation
The article states the NTA was established by the Central Government as an autonomous testing organisation under the Ministry of Education. It conducts exams like NEET-UG, JEE (Main), and CUET.
Consider the following statements regarding NEET-UG:
1. It was first conducted in 2013 and faced immediate legal challenges leading to a temporary Supreme Court cancellation.
2. The exam is conducted in 13 languages and follows a negative marking scheme of -2 for each wrong answer.
3. The K. Radhakrishnan committee was set up after the 2024 allegations and recommended biometric verification and encrypted digital paper delivery.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's 'Legal challenges' section. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article mentions the negative marking is -1, not -2. Statement 3 is correct as the article details the committee's formation and recommendations.
According to the article, for how many marks is a correct answer awarded in the NEET-UG exam?
- A.+2 marks
- B.+3 marks
- C.+4 marks✓ Correct Answer
- D.+5 marks
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The NEET-UG question paper consists of 180 compulsory questions with +4 marks awarded for every correct answer and −1 mark for every incorrect answer.'
What was the primary reason cited by the NTA Director General for cancelling the NEET-UG 2026 exam?
- A.To reduce the overall cost of conducting the examination
- B.To preserve the transparency, fairness, and credibility of the process✓ Correct Answer
- C.To align the exam schedule with international academic calendars
- D.To implement a new syllabus as recommended by the National Medical Commission
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Explanation
The article quotes NTA Director General Abhishek Singh saying the exam 'cannot be permitted to stand' and that the decision was taken 'to preserve the transparency, fairness, and credibility of the process.' This was a direct consequence of the confirmed paper leak.
Which High Court has jurisdiction over the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
- A.Calcutta High Court✓ Correct Answer
- B.Madras High Court
- C.Delhi High Court
- D.A separate High Court for the UT
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Explanation
As per Article 241 of the Constitution, the Calcutta High Court has jurisdiction over the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The article mentions the case being heard by the Calcutta High Court's Port Blair circuit bench.
Consider the following statements regarding the Forest Rights Act, 2006 case concerning the Great Nicobar Island project:
1. The petition challenges the Gram Sabha resolutions claiming they were passed by bodies constituted for non-tribal settlers.
2. Under the FRA Rules, a Sub-Divisional Level Committee must have at least two members belonging to Scheduled Tribes, including one woman.
3. The consent for forest diversion was obtained directly from the Shompen tribe through their traditional council.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the plea contends the Gram Sabhas were 'settler panchayats' with no legal standing under FRA. Statement 2 is correct as per the FRA Rules mentioned in the article. Statement 3 is incorrect because the plea states the Shompen's consent was obtained through a government officer (AAJVS), not directly from them, and their consent was later revoked.
What is the total estimated cost of the Great Nicobar Island infrastructure project, as mentioned in the article?
- A.₹65,000 crore
- B.₹72,500 crore
- C.₹81,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹95,000 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the project cost as 'Rs 81,000 crore'. The other figures are plausible distractors for large infrastructure projects but are not mentioned in this context.
What is the core legal argument of the PIL regarding the consent obtained for the Great Nicobar project under the Forest Rights Act?
- A.That the environmental impact assessment was not conducted properly.
- B.That the consent was given by persons who have no rights under the FRA, such as government officers and non-tribals.✓ Correct Answer
- C.That the project cost was inflated and not approved by Parliament.
- D.That the military component of the dual-use airport violates international law.
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Explanation
The article's core argument, as quoted, is that consent must be given by those who have rights under the FRA, and the process was vitiated as it involved government officers and non-tribals from settler panchayats. The other options, while potentially relevant to broader debates, are not the primary legal contention of this specific PIL.
Under which international legal framework does the WHO declare a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC)?
- A.The Universal Declaration of Human Rights
- B.The International Health Regulations (IHR)✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Biological Weapons Convention
- D.The WHO Constitution
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Explanation
The PHEIC is a formal instrument defined under the International Health Regulations (IHR 2005), a legally binding agreement among WHO member states. The IHR provides the legal framework for global health security.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Ebola outbreak declared a PHEIC:
1. The outbreak is caused by the Sudan virus variant of the Ebola disease.
2. The WHO has advised the closure of international borders for the affected countries.
3. The outbreak involves cases in the Democratic Republic of Congo and Uganda.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect; the outbreak is caused by the Bundibugyo virus variant, not the Sudan virus. Statement 2 is incorrect; the WHO explicitly advised AGAINST the closure of international borders. Statement 3 is correct as per the article, which mentions cases in DRC and Uganda.
According to the news article, what is the approximate average case fatality rate of the Ebola virus disease?
- A.Around 25%
- B.Around 50%✓ Correct Answer
- C.Around 75%
- D.Around 90%
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Explanation
The article states that Ebola virus disease 'has an average case fatality rate of around 50%'. The other percentages are common distractors for other hemorrhagic fevers or incorrect recalls.
What is the primary significance of the WHO declaring the Ebola outbreak a 'Public Health Emergency of International Concern' (PHEIC) rather than a 'Pandemic Emergency'?
- A.It mandates immediate vaccine development for all member states.
- B.It triggers mandatory economic sanctions against the affected countries.
- C.It requires international coordination but avoids measures like border closures.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It downgrades the global response priority for the outbreak.
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Explanation
The article clarifies that the WHO stated the outbreak 'does not meet the criteria of a pandemic emergency' and 'advised against the closure of international borders'. A PHEIC declaration focuses on coordinated international response to contain spread without resorting to overly restrictive travel/trade measures that a pandemic emergency might entail.
Which Indian mission is to be connected with the Dutch Semicon Competence Centre as per the India-Netherlands partnership?
- A.National Quantum Mission
- B.Indian Semiconductor Mission✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems
- D.Deep Ocean Mission
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that both sides agreed to connect the Dutch Semicon Competence Centre to the Indian Semiconductor Mission to support the semiconductor sector. This is a key component of India's domestic chip manufacturing strategy.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-Netherlands Strategic Partnership:
1. It includes a five-year roadmap for cooperation from 2026 to 2030.
2. A key agreement involves collaboration between Tata Electronics and ASML for semiconductor fabrication in Dholera, Gujarat.
3. The partnership agreement also calls for freedom of navigation through the Strait of Malacca.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions a five-year roadmap (2026-30). Statement 2 is correct as the ASML-Tata Electronics pact for Dholera is a major highlight. Statement 3 is incorrect; the joint statement called for freedom of navigation through the Strait of Hormuz, not the Strait of Malacca, which is a classic examiner's trap.
How many bilateral agreements/pacts were signed between India and the Netherlands as part of elevating their ties to a Strategic Partnership?
- A.15
- B.16
- C.17✓ Correct Answer
- D.18
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Explanation
The article clearly states that India and the Netherlands signed as many as 17 pacts while elevating their ties to a strategic partnership. This is a direct factual recall question.
What is a primary strategic objective behind the India-Netherlands collaboration in semiconductors as highlighted in the news?
- A.To outcompete Chinese semiconductor manufacturers in the global market.
- B.To leverage Dutch expertise and Indian scale for building a resilient chip supply chain.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To transfer all semiconductor intellectual property from the Netherlands to India.
- D.To primarily serve the consumer electronics market within the European Union.
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Explanation
PM Modi's statement about combining the Netherlands' expertise with India's speed and scale, and the specific collaboration on the Dholera fab and talent development, indicate the core objective is to build a resilient supply chain. The article does not mention outcompeting China, full IP transfer, or focusing solely on the EU market.
The 'Essential Commodities Act, 1955', mentioned as being invoked in the article, falls under the purview of which ministry in India?
- A.Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution✓ Correct Answer
- B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- C.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The Essential Commodities Act, 1955, is administered by the Department of Consumer Affairs under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. This ministry is responsible for ensuring the availability of essential commodities to consumers at fair prices.
Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Hormuz crisis as per the article:
1. Moody's expects a return to pre-conflict traffic volumes in the Strait of Hormuz within the year 2026.
2. India's exposure is high because approximately 90% of its crude oil imports come from the Middle East via the Strait.
3. Iran has established the Persian Gulf Strait Authority (PGSA) as a government agency for toll collection.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) Both 2 and 3
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as Moody's report explicitly states 'A return to pre-conflict traffic volumes in 2026 is unlikely.' Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states 46% of India's crude oil imports come from the Middle East, while 90% refers to LPG imports. Statement 3 is correct as Tehran formalized the 'Persian Gulf Strait Authority (PGSA)' for toll collection on May 5.
According to Moody's report cited in the article, by how many percentage points was India's GDP growth estimate for 2026 reduced?
- A.0.2 percentage points
- B.0.5 percentage points
- C.0.8 percentage points✓ Correct Answer
- D.1.0 percentage point
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'The report has also slashed India’s GDP growth estimate for 2026 by 0.8 percentage points to 6 per cent.' The other options are distractors; 0.2-0.8 ppts was the range for several major economies, but India's specific cut was 0.8 ppts.
What is the primary implication of the Strait of Hormuz crisis shifting from a 'temporary supply shock' to a 'structural supply constraint', as per Moody's?
- A.It will lead to a one-time spike in oil prices that will quickly normalize.
- B.It necessitates long-term bilateral negotiations and will keep energy prices persistently high and volatile.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It allows for a quick multilateral resolution under UN supervision.
- D.It significantly reduces the strategic importance of the Strait for global trade.
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Explanation
A structural constraint implies a fundamental, long-term change in the supply system. As Moody's indicates, this means disruptions will continue, forcing importers like India into slow, opaque bilateral deals with Iran, and leading to persistently higher and more volatile energy prices, unlike a temporary shock which would see a quick reversion.
The Central Electricity Authority (CEA), which issued the report on DISCOM tariffs, functions under which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
- B.Ministry of Power✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
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Explanation
The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) is a statutory body constituted under the Electricity Act, 2003. It advises the government on power policy and planning and functions under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Power.
Consider the following statements regarding the challenges faced by DISCOMs as per the CEA report:
1. A significant portion of a DISCOM's expenditure is fixed, including capacity payments and transmission costs, which must be paid irrespective of energy sales.
2. Fixed charges collected from consumers currently contribute more than 50% of a DISCOM's total revenue, covering most of their fixed costs.
3. The rise of rooftop solar and open-access procurement by large consumers reduces DISCOM energy sales but they still bear the cost of maintaining backup grid infrastructure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states that fixed costs include capacity payments and transmission costs, paid regardless of sales. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states fixed charges contribute only 9-20% of total revenues, not more than 50%. Statement 3 is correct, as the article explains that consumers using solar/open access rely on the grid for backup, leaving DISCOMs with stranded fixed costs.
According to the CEA report, what percentage of a DISCOM's Annual Revenue Requirement (ARR) is typically accounted for by fixed expenses?
- A.15% to 30%
- B.25% to 40%
- C.38% to 56%✓ Correct Answer
- D.60% to 75%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that fixed expenses account for nearly 38% to 56% of a DISCOM's total Annual Revenue Requirement (ARR). The other figures are plausible distractors but are not mentioned in the report.
What is the primary objective of the CEA's proposal to increase the fixed-charge component of electricity tariffs?
- A.To discourage industrial consumption and promote energy conservation.
- B.To reduce the overall electricity bill for agricultural consumers.
- C.To make DISCOM revenue streams more resilient and reduce reliance on variable energy sales.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To increase government tax revenue from the power sector.
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Explanation
The core issue identified is the mismatch where DISCOMs have high fixed costs but recover them through variable sales, leading to liquidity crises during low demand. The proposed tariff redesign aims to recover a larger share of fixed costs directly through fixed charges, making revenue more predictable and stable, akin to a telecom subscription model.
The Jal Jeevan Mission, discussed in the news, is implemented under which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Rural Development
- B.Ministry of Jal Shakti✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
- D.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
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Explanation
The article repeatedly mentions the 'Union Jal Shakti Ministry' as the body that drafted, amended, and finalized the guidelines for the Jal Jeevan Mission. This ministry is responsible for water resources, river development, and Ganga rejuvenation.
Consider the following statements regarding the Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM):
1. The original 2019 JJM guidelines prohibited the use of Central funds to cover 'Tender Premiums'.
2. An amendment in 2022 allowed states to use Central funds for 'Tender Premiums', leading to significant cost escalations.
3. The newly finalized JJM 2.0 guidelines have permanently removed 'Tender Premiums' from the list of inadmissible expenses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the 2019 rules stated that cost escalation had to be borne by states. Statement 2 is correct: the 2022 amendment removed 'Tender Premium' from the inadmissible list, and the article cites data showing ₹16,839 crore in additional costs. Statement 3 is incorrect because the new JJM 2.0 guidelines have REINSTATED the ban on 'Tender Premiums', not permanently removed it.
According to the investigation cited in the article, what was the total additional cost incurred due to the payment of 'Tender Premiums' under Jal Jeevan Mission after the 2022 rule change?
- A.₹1.51 lakh crore
- B.₹2.08 lakh crore
- C.₹16,839 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹14,586 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the investigation showed the rule change 'resulted in additional costs totalling Rs 16,839 crore for 14,586 schemes'. ₹1.51 lakh crore is additional funding for Phase 2, ₹2.08 lakh crore is the central share for Phase 1, and 14,586 is the number of schemes, not the cost.
What is the primary objective of reinstating the 'Tender Premium' to the list of inadmissible expenses in the new Jal Jeevan Mission guidelines?
- A.To increase the overall budget allocation for the mission's second phase.
- B.To expedite the physical completion of water supply projects in rural areas.
- C.To enforce fiscal discipline and prevent the use of Central funds for inflated project bids.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To transfer the entire financial burden of the scheme onto the state governments.
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Explanation
The article frames the reinstatement as 'plugging a gap' that 'led to cost escalations'. The core issue was states using central funds to cover 'Tender Premiums' (inflated bids). The corrective action aims to reinstate a financial safeguard, ensuring central funds are used efficiently and as per original estimates, which is about fiscal discipline.
Which Indian government department is the nodal authority for the country's nuclear energy programme, as mentioned in the context of the SHANTI Act?
- A.Department of Science and Technology
- B.Department of Atomic Energy✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
- D.Ministry of Power
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Explanation
The article discusses the nuclear energy sector and the SHANTI Act, which governs this domain. The Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) is the nodal body responsible for India's nuclear power programme, research, and development.
Consider the following statements regarding the news about US-India nuclear cooperation:
1. The SHANTI Act, 2025 opened up India's nuclear sector for private investment in plant operations and fuel management.
2. The visiting US delegation was organized solely by the US Department of Energy.
3. India's indigenous nuclear reactor technology is based on Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the SHANTI Act opened the sector's operations and fuel management to private players. Statement 2 is incorrect; the delegation was organized by the Nuclear Energy Institute and the US India Strategic Partnership Forum, not solely by the US DoE. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions India's civil nuclear programme has expertise in PHWRs.
The SHANTI Act, 2025, mentioned in the article, replaced which two earlier legislations governing India's nuclear sector?
- A.The Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and the Energy Conservation Act, 2001
- B.The Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Electricity Act, 2003 and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010
- D.The Environment Protection Act, 1986 and the Atomic Energy Act, 1962
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The new Act replaced two earlier legislations — the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 (AE Act) and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010 (CLNDA) — effectively redrawing the rules that govern the nuclear power sector.'
According to the article, what is described as a primary policy objective behind India's shift towards external nuclear collaboration?
- A.To acquire advanced military nuclear technology
- B.To reduce the cost of renewable energy infrastructure
- C.To address the need for capital more than the need for technology✓ Correct Answer
- D.To phase out all Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs)
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Explanation
The article quotes a government official stating that the external outreach for nuclear collaborations 'is driven more by the need for capital than the need for technology.' While India seeks LWR technology, the primary driver identified is financing for capacity expansion.
Under which Act should the Saranda Wildlife Sanctuary be notified, as directed by the Supreme Court?
- A.The Forest Rights Act, 2006
- B.The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Environment Protection Act, 1986
- D.The Indian Forest Act, 1927
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that efforts to secure the landscape under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 ran into resistance. The Supreme Court's order directs notification under this Act, which is the primary legislation for declaring wildlife sanctuaries in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the Saranda forest case:
1. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) initially asked Jharkhand to consider declaring Saranda a wildlife sanctuary in 2022.
2. Jharkhand's primary objection to declaring the sanctuary was based on the potential displacement of tribal communities and loss of iron ore mining.
3. The Supreme Court held that the Forest Rights Act and Wildlife Protection Act together provide adequate protection for tribal rights within a sanctuary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the timeline: NGT asked Jharkhand to consider declaring the sanctuary in July 2022. Statement 2 is correct as Jharkhand raised concerns about tribal habitation and mining (26% of India's iron ore reserves). Statement 3 is correct as the SC noted that the state should have educated forest dwellers about protection under both Acts and that the Collector can allow continuance of rights.
What was the original area declared as the Saranda Game Sanctuary by undivided Bihar in 1968?
- A.249 sq km
- B.292 sq km
- C.314 sq km✓ Correct Answer
- D.575 sq km
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'In 1968, undivided Bihar declared 314 sq km of sal forests as the Saranda Game Sanctuary.' 249 sq km was Jharkhand's later draft notification, 292 sq km is the final SC-directed area, and 575 sq km was a proposal made in December 2024.
What was the Supreme Court's primary reason for dismissing Jharkhand's concerns about tribal displacement due to sanctuary notification?
- A.The Court found no tribal communities residing in the proposed area.
- B.The Court stated that the Forest Rights Act and Wildlife Protection Act provide mechanisms to protect tribal rights within sanctuaries.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Court directed that all tribal communities be relocated outside the sanctuary with compensation.
- D.The Court agreed with the state's concerns and asked for a new proposal excluding tribal areas.
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Explanation
The article quotes the Court's November 2025 judgment, calling the state's contention 'without any substance' and adding that the state should have educated forest dwellers about protections under both Acts. It also notes the Collector's power to allow continuance of rights, demonstrating existing legal safeguards.
Which ministry is responsible for the Unified District Information System for Education Plus (UDISE+) database mentioned in the article?
- A.Ministry of Women and Child Development
- B.Ministry of Education✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
- D.Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
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Explanation
The UDISE+ database is the official school education data collection system managed by the Ministry of Education, Government of India. It is the primary source for indicators like enrolment, infrastructure, and teachers.
Consider the following statements regarding the findings discussed in the article:
1. According to UDISE+ 2024-25, girls' Net Enrolment Rate (NER) at the higher secondary level is higher than at the primary level.
2. The article argues that sustained financial aid throughout a degree programme is more impactful than a one-time entry grant.
3. Scholarship programmes combined with mentorship and industry exposure are highlighted as the most effective model.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states girls' NER falls sharply from 79.4% at primary to 35.8% at higher secondary. Statement 2 is correct as the article emphasizes that aid must cover the full duration to ensure completion. Statement 3 is correct as it advocates for scholarships as part of a broader ecosystem including mentorship.
As per the UDISE+ 2024-25 data cited in the article, what is the Net Enrolment Rate (NER) for girls at the higher secondary level?
- A.35.8%✓ Correct Answer
- B.50.2%
- C.65.1%
- D.79.4%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that according to UDISE+ 2024-25, girls' Net Enrolment Rate (NER) falls sharply to just 35.8% at the higher secondary level. Option D (79.4%) is the NER at the primary level, making it a key distractor.
According to the article, what is the primary reason scholarships for women in STEM fields are considered a high-return investment?
- A.They primarily help in improving gender parity in college classrooms.
- B.They have a disproportionate multiplier effect on productivity, tax revenues, and future innovation.✓ Correct Answer
- C.They are cheaper to administer compared to scholarships in humanities.
- D.They directly reduce the cultural barriers to women's education.
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Explanation
The article argues that the returns from a woman completing a STEM degree and building a technical career dwarf the initial investment, generating higher productivity, tax revenue, and contributing to companies and technologies. This multiplier effect makes it a strategic investment.
The 'Ring of Fire' is primarily associated with which of the following geological phenomena?
- A.Frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions✓ Correct Answer
- B.Formation of mid-ocean ridges
- C.Deposition of loess plains
- D.Occurrence of karst topography
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Explanation
The article states the Pacific 'Ring of Fire' is characterized by active volcanoes and frequent earthquakes, being home to about 75% of the world's volcanoes and 90% of earthquakes. This is its defining geological feature.
Consider the following statements regarding geographical features mentioned in the article:
1. The Sijimali bauxite reserve is part of the Western Ghats and is spread over the states of Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.
2. The Bab el-Mandeb strait serves as the southern entry to the Red Sea and is bordered by Eritrea, Djibouti, and Yemen.
3. Indira Point, India's southernmost location, is situated on Great Nicobar Island which covers an area of 910 sq km.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Sijimali is part of the Eastern Ghats (not Western Ghats) and is spread over Rayagada and Kalahandi districts in Odisha only. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct as Great Nicobar is 910 sq km and houses Indira Point.
According to the Indian Bureau of Mines' 2022 Yearbook referenced in the article, what percentage of India's bauxite resources does Odisha account for?
- A.31%
- B.41%✓ Correct Answer
- C.51%
- D.73%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that according to the Indian Bureau of Mines' 2022 Yearbook, Odisha alone accounts for 41% of India's bauxite resources. The 73% figure is Odisha's share of total production in 2021-22, not total resources.
What is the primary strategic significance of the Shyok Tunnel, as mentioned in the article?
- A.It is a major tourist attraction in the Ladakh region.
- B.It provides year-round connectivity to areas near the Line of Actual Control (LAC).✓ Correct Answer
- C.It facilitates the transportation of minerals from the Depsang Plains.
- D.It is part of the UNESCO World Heritage Mountain Railways of India.
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Explanation
The article states the Shyok Tunnel's strategic significance lies in providing round-the-year connectivity to areas close to the LAC, aiding in the quick mobilisation and redeployment of troops. The other options are not supported by the article's content.
Which international organization, mentioned in the article, acts as the United Nations' nuclear watchdog?
- A.World Health Organization (WHO)
- B.International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
- D.Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)
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Explanation
The article mentions the Vienna-based International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) as the United Nations' nuclear watchdog. This is its primary role in promoting peaceful nuclear use and preventing military applications.
Consider the following statements regarding the Barakah Nuclear Power Plant:
1. It is located in Al Dhafra, Abu Dhabi, and is the first nuclear power plant on the Arabian Peninsula.
2. It was built with assistance from Russia and went online in 2022.
3. The plant has four reactors and a construction cost of $20 billion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the plant was built with help from South Korea and went online in 2020, not Russia and 2022. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article. Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
According to the article, what was the construction cost of the Barakah Nuclear Power Plant?
- A.$10 billion
- B.$15 billion
- C.$20 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$25 billion
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Explanation
The article specifically states that the Barakah nuclear power plant was a $20 billion project. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What broader security concern does the drone strike on the Barakah plant highlight, as indicated in the article?
- A.The vulnerability of digital payment systems to cyber attacks.
- B.The increasing targeting of critical nuclear infrastructure in modern conflicts.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The risk of maritime piracy in the Strait of Hormuz.
- D.The challenges in implementing renewable energy projects in desert regions.
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'Nuclear power plants increasingly have found themselves targeted in wars in recent years,' citing examples from Ukraine and Iran. This is the primary security concern highlighted, beyond the specific incident.
Which ministry/department released the data on India's merchandise exports for FY26 mentioned in the article?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of External Affairs
- D.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
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Explanation
The article states that the data is according to Commerce Ministry data. The Ministry of Commerce and Industry is responsible for trade policy and export promotion in India.
Consider the following statements regarding India's exports in FY26:
1. North America accounted for 22.1% of India's total merchandise exports.
2. Exports to East Africa grew by 13.7% to reach $12.6 billion.
3. Latin America was the fastest growing region for Indian exports with a growth rate exceeding 15%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: North America exports were $97.7 billion accounting for 22.1%. Statement 2 is correct: Exports to East Africa increased 13.7% to $12.6 billion. Statement 3 is incorrect: Latin America exports rose 7.8% to $16.4 billion, not exceeding 15%. Hence, both 1 and 2 are correct.
According to the Commerce Ministry data, what was the value of India's total merchandise exports in the financial year 2025-26 (FY26)?
- A.$400.5 billion
- B.$441.78 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$460.2 billion
- D.$500.1 billion
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that India's merchandise exports stood at $441.78 billion in 2025-26. The other options are close distractors.
What does the penetration of 1,821 new principal commodities by Indian exporters in FY26 primarily indicate?
- A.A decline in the quality of traditional export products.
- B.A shift from commodity-led expansion to broader participation in high-value manufacturing sectors.✓ Correct Answer
- C.An increase in India's dependence on a few key export markets.
- D.A reduction in the overall volume of merchandise exports.
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Explanation
The article states that this trend highlights a gradual shift from traditional commodity-led expansion toward broader participation across high-value manufacturing, engineering, agri-processing, and technology-intensive sectors. This is the core implication of the diversification data.
The NEET paper leak controversy is analyzed through the lens of which key governance principle?
- A.Rule of Law
- B.Public Trust Doctrine✓ Correct Answer
- C.Separation of Powers
- D.Checks and Balances
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Explanation
The article explicitly discusses the 'Public Trust Doctrine' as the principle underlying the relationship between public examination institutions and citizens, where legitimacy derives from ethical credibility and trust.
Consider the following statements regarding the ethical issues in the NEET paper leak case:
1. The controversy highlights a failure of 'ethical governance' and 'probity' in public institutions.
2. The concept of 'administrative evil' mentioned includes only deliberate corrupt actions, not negligence.
3. According to the analysis, the primary stakeholders affected are only the examination aspirants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article centers on ethical governance and probity. Statement 2 is incorrect because 'administrative evil' is defined as emerging from negligence and indifference as well. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article mentions parents, honest administrators, and society as other stakeholders.
Which philosophical principle, referenced in the article, argues that human beings should never be treated merely as means?
- A.Utilitarianism by Jeremy Bentham
- B.The principle by Immanuel Kant✓ Correct Answer
- C.Virtue Ethics by Aristotle
- D.Satya (Truth) by Mahatma Gandhi
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Explanation
The article directly references Immanuel Kant's ethical principle that human beings must never be treated merely as means, but always as ends in themselves. This is used to critique how examination leaks reduce students' efforts to 'collateral damage'.
According to the article's analysis, what is identified as a necessary approach beyond laws and surveillance to prevent examination leaks permanently?
- A.Increasing the number of invigilators
- B.Implementing more advanced technology
- C.Collaboration among boards, institutions, and civil society✓ Correct Answer
- D.Publishing question papers online beforehand
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Explanation
The article concludes that real change requires collaboration among examination boards, educational institutions, and civil society to create transparent and accountable systems. It states that laws and surveillance alone cannot sustain ethical systems.
Which international treaty, mentioned in the news, governs the sharing of waters from the Indus river system between India and Pakistan?
- A.Indus Waters Treaty✓ Correct Answer
- B.Ganga Waters Treaty
- C.Brahmaputra Waters Treaty
- D.Mekong River Treaty
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions the Indus Waters Treaty in relation to the arbitration award rejected by India. This is the key bilateral agreement on the Indus river system.
Consider the following statements regarding the news article:
1. India rejected an award issued by the Court of Arbitration concerning the Indus Waters Treaty.
2. India and the Netherlands elevated their relationship to a 'comprehensive partnership' level.
3. Chola-era plates were returned to India from Leiden University, which had possessed them since 1862.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as India rejected the CoA award. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the relationship was elevated to a 'strategic partnership', not a 'comprehensive partnership'. Statement 3 is correct as the Chola-era plates were returned from Leiden University, acquired in 1862.
According to the article, from which university were the Chola-era artefacts returned to India?
- A.Oxford University
- B.Cambridge University
- C.Leiden University✓ Correct Answer
- D.Harvard University
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Chola-era Anaimangalam Plates were in the possession of Leiden University in the Netherlands and were returned during the ceremony.
What is the primary implication of India's rejection of the Court of Arbitration award on the Indus Waters Treaty, as per the news?
- A.It signifies India's acceptance of the arbitration process.
- B.It demonstrates India's commitment to multilateral dispute resolution.
- C.It underscores India's position on the legitimacy of the tribunal and its preference for bilateral solutions.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It indicates India's willingness to abide by all international arbitration rulings.
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Explanation
The article states India rejected the award and reiterated that it does not recognise the tribunal as legitimately constituted. This action highlights India's stance on sovereignty and its approach to resolving such disputes directly with Pakistan.
The 'Great Living Chola Temples', a UNESCO World Heritage Site, include which of the following?
- A.Brihadeeswarar Temple (Thanjavur), Airavatesvara Temple (Darasuram), Meenakshi Temple (Madurai)
- B.Brihadeeswarar Temple (Thanjavur), Gangaikonda Cholapuram Temple, Airavatesvara Temple (Darasuram)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Shore Temple (Mahabalipuram), Brihadeeswarar Temple (Thanjavur), Kailasanatha Temple (Kanchipuram)
- D.Gangaikonda Cholapuram Temple, Virupaksha Temple (Hampi), Airavatesvara Temple (Darasuram)
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Explanation
As per the article, the three royal temples inscribed as 'Great Living Chola Temples' by UNESCO are the Tanjore Brihadēśvara, Gangaikoṇḍacōl̥apuram, and Darasuram Airavatēśvara. These correspond to the temples listed in option B.
Consider the following statements regarding the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT):
1. The treaty allocates the waters of the rivers Sutlej, Beas, and Ravi to Pakistan for unrestricted use.
2. The treaty was signed in 1960 after negotiations between India and Pakistan, with the World Bank as a signatory.
3. India issued a notice to Pakistan seeking a modification of the treaty for the first time in 2023.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the article, the 'Eastern Rivers' (Sutlej, Beas, Ravi) are allocated for unrestricted use by India, not Pakistan. Statement 2 is correct as the IWT was signed on September 19, 1960, after negotiations with the World Bank's involvement. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned that India issued its first such notice in January 2023.
According to the India Meteorological Department (IMD), what was the normal scheduled date for the onset of the southwest monsoon over the South Andaman Sea and Port Blair?
- A.13 May
- B.16 May
- C.22 May✓ Correct Answer
- D.26 May
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'As per the IMD’s monsoon onset schedule, the normal date for the monsoon onset over the south Andaman Sea, and Port Blair in Andaman and Nicobar Islands is May 22.' The onset this year was on 16 May, which was early.
What is the primary reason cited by the government for imposing restrictions on silver imports and hiking import duties on precious metals?
- A.To promote domestic silver mining and reduce dependence on imports.
- B.To conserve foreign exchange reserves and reduce pressure on the current account deficit.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To comply with international trade agreements and reduce tariff barriers.
- D.To increase government revenue through higher customs collections.
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Explanation
The article directly links these measures to conserving forex and managing the current account. It states the steps were taken 'to discourage precious metal imports, which strain the current account and increase forex outflow' and that 'India’s foreign exchange resources... must be prioritised towards essential imports'.
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For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
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What are the important current affairs questions for 17 May 2026?▼
This page contains 112 current affairs questions from 17 May 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 17 May 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
- Q1. Under which Article of the Constitution does the President of …
- Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the recent ordinan…
- Q3. According to the news article, what is the approximate backlog…
- Q4. is the primary constitutional mechanism mentioned in the artic…
- Q5. The HeLa cell line, central to the debate on medical ethics, w…
- Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the HeLa cell line…
- Q7. In which year was the book 'The Immortal Life of Henrietta Lac…
- Q8. is the primary ethical principle that the case of Henrietta La…
- Q9. Indian mission is mentioned in the news for collaboration with…
- Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the India-Netherla…
- Q11. According to the article, how many agreements (pacts) were sig…
- Q12. is the primary objective of the Memorandum of Cooperation (MoU…
- Q13. ministry/department is primarily responsible for defence procu…
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding India's defence se…
- Q15. According to the 2022-23 Ministry of Defence Parliamentary Sta…
- Q16. is a key lesson for India's defence strategy, as highlighted b…
- Q17. Chinese government body issued the official statement emphasiz…
- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the Taiwan issue a…
- Q19. According to the article, which year has been proposed as a po…
- Q20. is the primary strategic reason, as per the 'silicon shield' t…
- Q21. institution's forex market interventions are primarily discuss…
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Rupee's…
- Q23. According to the article, what was the value of the Reserve Ba…
- Q24. As per the analysis in the article, what is a major risk assoc…
- Q25. Under which international framework does the WHO declare a Pub…
- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the Ebola outbreak…
- Q27. According to the news article, how many suspected deaths from …
- Q28. is a primary reason cited by the WHO for the 'extraordinary' n…
- Q29. ministry is primarily responsible for implementing India's sem…
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the Tata Electroni…
- Q31. is the total planned investment for the Tata Electronics and A…
- Q32. is a key strategic reason, as indicated in the article, for Du…
- Q33. constitutional article empowers the President to specify Sched…
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
- Q35. For how many years had the criminal case against the retired e…
- Q36. was the primary legal rationale used by the Supreme Court to q…
- Q37. autonomous institution under the Ministry of Education is prim…
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the initiative dis…
- Q39. According to the news, what percentage of children who enrol i…
- Q40. is the primary strategic objective of using the Open and Dista…
- Q41. international organization is responsible for declaring a Publ…
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the Ebola outbreak…
- Q43. According to the news article, how many laboratory-confirmed E…
- Q44. is the primary significance of the World Health Organization d…
- Q45. In the context of international relations, what does the term …
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the India-Netherla…
- Q47. According to the article, what was the approximate value of bi…
- Q48. is a primary strategic objective for India in elevating its ti…
- Q49. Under which ministry does the National Testing Agency (NTA) fu…
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding NEET-UG: 1. It wa…
- Q51. According to the article, for how many marks is a correct answ…
- Q52. was the primary reason cited by the NTA Director General for c…
- Q53. High Court has jurisdiction over the Union Territory of Andama…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the Forest Rights …
- Q55. is the total estimated cost of the Great Nicobar Island infras…
- Q56. is the core legal argument of the PIL regarding the consent ob…
- Q57. Under which international legal framework does the WHO declare…
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Ebola o…
- Q59. According to the news article, what is the approximate average…
- Q60. is the primary significance of the WHO declaring the Ebola out…
- Q61. Indian mission is to be connected with the Dutch Semicon Compe…
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the India-Netherla…
- Q63. many bilateral agreements/pacts were signed between India and …
- Q64. is a primary strategic objective behind the India-Netherlands …
- Q65. The 'Essential Commodities Act, 1955', mentioned as being invo…
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Horm…
- Q67. According to Moody's report cited in the article, by how many …
- Q68. is the primary implication of the Strait of Hormuz crisis shif…
- Q69. The Central Electricity Authority (CEA), which issued the repo…
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the challenges fac…
- Q71. According to the CEA report, what percentage of a DISCOM's Ann…
- Q72. is the primary objective of the CEA's proposal to increase the…
- Q73. The Jal Jeevan Mission, discussed in the news, is implemented …
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the Jal Jeevan Mis…
- Q75. According to the investigation cited in the article, what was …
- Q76. is the primary objective of reinstating the 'Tender Premium' t…
- Q77. Indian government department is the nodal authority for the co…
- Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the news about US-…
- Q79. The SHANTI Act, 2025, mentioned in the article, replaced which…
- Q80. According to the article, what is described as a primary polic…
- Q81. Under which Act should the Saranda Wildlife Sanctuary be notif…
- Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the Saranda forest…
- Q83. was the original area declared as the Saranda Game Sanctuary b…
- Q84. was the Supreme Court's primary reason for dismissing Jharkhan…
- Q85. ministry is responsible for the Unified District Information S…
- Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the findings discu…
- Q87. As per the UDISE+ 2024-25 data cited in the article, what is t…
- Q88. According to the article, what is the primary reason scholarsh…
- Q89. The 'Ring of Fire' is primarily associated with which of the f…
- Q90. Consider the following statements regarding geographical featu…
- Q91. According to the Indian Bureau of Mines' 2022 Yearbook referen…
- Q92. is the primary strategic significance of the Shyok Tunnel, as …
- Q93. international organization, mentioned in the article, acts as …
- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the Barakah Nuclea…
- Q95. According to the article, what was the construction cost of th…
- Q96. broader security concern does the drone strike on the Barakah …
- Q97. ministry/department released the data on India's merchandise e…
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding India's exports in…
- Q99. According to the Commerce Ministry data, what was the value of…
- Q100. does the penetration of 1,821 new principal commodities by Ind…
- Q101. The NEET paper leak controversy is analyzed through the lens o…
- Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the ethical issues…
- Q103. philosophical principle, referenced in the article, argues tha…
- Q104. According to the article's analysis, what is identified as a n…
- Q105. international treaty, mentioned in the news, governs the shari…
- Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the news article: …
- Q107. According to the article, from which university were the Chola…
- Q108. is the primary implication of India's rejection of the Court o…
- Q109. The 'Great Living Chola Temples', a UNESCO World Heritage Site…
- Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the Indus Waters T…
- Q111. According to the India Meteorological Department (IMD), what w…
- Q112. is the primary reason cited by the government for imposing res…